FIITJEE Phase 7
FIITJEE Phase 7
INSTRUCTIONS:
A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 54 questions.
2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
3. Fill in the boxes provided for Name and Enrolment No.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response (ORS), is provided separately.
5. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
B. Filling in the OMR:
6. The instructions for the OMR sheet are given on the OMR itself.
C. Question paper format & Marking Scheme
21. Each part has three sections as detailed in the following table:
Section Question Number of Category wise Marks Each Question Maximum
Type Questions Full Marks Partial Marks Zero Marks Negative marks of
Marks the
section
One or +4 +1 0 –2 28
1 more 7 If only the For darkening a If none of the In all
correct bubble(s) bubble bubbles is other
option (s) corresponding to corresponding darkened cases
all the correct to each correct
option(s) is(are) option,
darkened provided NO
incorrect option
is darkened
Single +3 ––– 0 ––– 15
2 digit 5 If only the bubble In all other
integer corresponding to cases
(0–9) the correct
answer is
darkened.
Single +3 ––– 0 –1 18
3 correct 6 If only the bubble If none of the In all
option corresponding to bubbles is other
the correct option darkened cases
is darkened
NAME:
ENROLLMENT NO.:
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-2
PAPER–I
PART I: PHYSICS
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 28)
This section contains SEVEN questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options
is(are) correct.
For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will get +4
marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will get +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will get –2 marks, as a
wrong option is also darkened.
2. An electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition n1n2 where n1 and n2 are principal quantum
numbers of the two states. Assume the Bohr model to be valid. The time period of the electron in the
initial state is eight times that in the final state. The possible values of n1 and n2 are :
(A) n1=4, n2=2 (B) n1=8, n2=4 (C) n1=8, n2=1 (D) n1=6, n2=3
3. Which of the following transitions in He ion will give rise to a spectral line which has the same
wavelength as some spectral line in the hydrogen atom?
(A) n = 4 to n = 2 (B) n = 6 to n = 2 (C) n = 6 to n = 3 (D) n = 8 to n=4
4. For which of the pairs of u and f for a mirror image is smaller in size
(A) u = - 10 cm, f = 20 cm (B) u = - 20 cm, f = - 30cm
(C) u = - 45 cm, f = - 10 cm (D) u = - 60 cm, f = 30cm
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-3
6. A converging lens is used to form an image on a screen. When the upper half of the lens is covered
by an opaque screen
(A) complete image will not be formed
(B) complete image will be formed
(C) intensity of the image will not change
(D) intensity of the image will change
8. The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause
photoelectron emission from this substance is approximately is n 107 m . Find n.
r
9. The electric potential between a proton and an electron is given by V = V0 In , where r0 is a
r0
constant. Assuming Bohr’s model to be applicable, the variation of r n with n is rn nk where n being
principal quantum number then find k.
10. The energy of a photon is equal to the kinetic energy of a proton. The energy of the photon is E. Let
1
1 be the de-Broglie wavelength of the proton and 2 be the wavelength of the photon. The ratio
2
1
is proportional to E n . Find n
0
11. A ray of light undergoes deviation of 30 . when incident on an equilateral prism of refractive index
2 . The angle made by the ray inside the prism with the base of the prism is k 150 . Find k.
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-4
12. The maximum intensity in Young's double slit experiment is I0. Distance between the slits is d = 5 , where
is the wavelength of monochromatic light used in the experiment. The intensity of light in front of one of
I
the slits on a screen at a distance D 10 d is 0 , then N is?
N
16
13. For wave length of emitted radiation is
3R
(A) I,iii,p (B) II,iii,p (C) I,i,r (D) II,i,r
36
14. For wave length of emitted radiation is
8R
(A) II,iv,q (B) I, ii,s (C) II,ii,s (D) I,iv,q
9
15. For wave length of emitted radiation is
8R
(A) III,iv,q (B) II, iv,q (C) III,ii,s (D) II,ii,s
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-5
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-6
air oxygen
24. A (Sulphide ore) + NaCN B (complex) + Na2S Na2SO4 then B is
(A) Paramagnetic (B) diamagnetic
(C) Linear complex (D) co ordination number of central atom is 4
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-7
25. 2.08g of BaCl2 is dissolved in 500 ml of aq. Solution. The specific conductance of the solution is 0.02
–1
Mho.cm then, (equivalent conductance = ; molar conductance = m)
(A) m = 500 Mho. cm / mol (B) = 500 Mho.cm / gr. eq.
2 2
wt
26. The vapour pressure of a 5% aqueous solution of a non–volatile organic substance at 373 K is
wt
745 mm. The molecular mass of the solute is ‘8x’. then ‘x’ is (vapour pressure of pure water at 373
K is 760 mm)
n
27. How many geometrical isomers are possible for square planar complex Mabcd ?
28. The difference of the effective atomic number and the number of unpaired electrons of Fe in
x
K 4 Fe CN6 x . Find the value of .
4
The equilibrium constant for the reaction Fe2 Ce4 Fe3 Ce3 is 1 x 10 . at 298 K. The
y
29.
30. Find the current in amperes required to deposit 2.977 g of Pd by the electrolysis of an aqueous
solution of Pd4 salt per 1 hour (At. Wt. of Pd = 106.4)
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-8
Answer Q.31, Q.32 and Q.33 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of
the following table
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-9
Answer Q.34, Q.35 and Q.36 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of
the following table
37. Sanjay has 10 friends among whom two are marred to each other. She wishes to invite 5 of the them
for a party. If the married couple refuse to attend separately, then the number of different ways in
which can invite five friends is
(B) 2 C3 (C) C5 – 2 C4
8 8 10 8
(A) C5 (D) none of these
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-10
38. The number of ways to select 2 numbers from {0, 1, 2, 3, 4} such that the sum of the squares of the
selected numbers is divisible by 5 are (repetition of digits is allowed)
9 9
(A) C1 (B) C8 (C) 9 (D) 7
39. In a class tournament when the participants were to play one game with another, two class players
fell ill, having played 3 games each. If the total number of games played is 84, the number of
participants at the beginning was
6
(A) 15 (B) 30 (C) C2 (D) 48
40. A class has 30 students. The following prizes are to be awarded to the students of this class, first and
second in Mathematics, first and second in Physics; first in Chemistry and first in Biology. If N denote
the number of ways in which this can be done, then
(A) 400 | N (B) 600 | N
(C) 8100 | N (D) N is divisible by four distinct prime numbers
41. A card is selected at random from cards numbered as 00, 01, 02, ......, 99. An event is said to have
occurred. If product of digits of the card number is 16. If card is selected 5 times with replacement
each time, then the probability that the even occurs exactly three times is
2 3 3 2 3 3
3 97 3 97 03 97 3 2
(A) 5 C3 (B) 5 C3 (C) 5 C3 (D) 10 (0.03) ) (0.97)
100 100 100 100 100 100
42. The probabilities that a student in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry are , and respectively. Of
these subjects, a student has a 75% chance of passing in atleast one, a 50% chance of passing in
atleast two and a 40% chance of passing in exactly two subjects. Which of the following relations are
true ?
19 27 1 1
(A) + + = (B) + + = (C) = (D) =
20 20 10 4
43. A student appears for tests I, II and III. The student is successful if he passes either in tests I and II or
1
tests I and III. The probabilities of the student passing in tests I, II, III are p, q, and respectively. If
2
1
the probability that the student is successful is , then
2
2 1
(A) p = 1, q = 0 (B) p = , q =
3 2
3 2
(C) p = , q = (D) there are infinitely many values of p and q
5 3
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-11
45. There are four balls of different colours and four boxes of colours, same as those of the balls. The
number of ways in which the balls, one each in a box, could be placed such that a ball does not go to
a box of its own colour is
47. There are three piles of identical red, blue and green balls and each pile contains at least 10 balls.
The number of ways of selecting 10 balls if twice as many red balls as green balls are to be selected
is
C2
48. The maximum value of 1
=
C4
By appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the following table.
Column 1 – Equation of Hyperbola, Column 2 – Eccentricity may lie in interval, Column 3 – length of latus
rectum.
(II)
x 1y
2
1
2 (ii) 3,2 (Q)
3
6 8 2
2 2
(III) 3x – 6x – 4y + 16y – 14 = 0 (iii) (2, 3) (R) 9
(IV)
x2 y2
1
(iv) 1, 2 (S) 3
9 6
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-12
By observing column 1, column 2, column 3 establish the relation and answer to the questions below:
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-13
CHEMISTRY
19. B, D 20. B, C 21. A, B, C, D 22. B, D
23. A, B, C 24. B, C 25. B, C 26. 6
27. 3 28. 9 29. 9 30. 3
31. A 32. B 33. A 34. A
35. C 36. D
MATHEMATICS
37. BC 38. ABC 39. AC 40. ABCD
41. BD 42. BC 43. ABCD 44. 0
45. 9 46. 1 47. 4 48. 3
49. B 50. B 51. A 52. A
53. A 54. A
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-14
INSTRUCTIONS:
A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 54 questions.
6. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
7. Fill in the boxes provided for Name and Enrolment No.
8. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response (ORS), is provided separately.
9. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
B. Filling in the OMR:
6. The instructions for the OMR sheet are given on the OMR itself.
C. Question paper format & Marking Scheme
21. Each part has three sections as detailed in the following table:
Section Question Number of Category wise Marks Each Question Maximum
Type Questions Full Marks Partial Marks Zero Negative marks of
Marks Marks the
section
1 Single +3 ––– 0 –1 21
Correct 7 If only the bubble If none of In all
Option corresponding to the other
the correct option bubbles is cases
is darkened darkened
2 One or +4 +1 0 –2 28
more 7 If only the For darkening a If none of In all
correct bubble(s) bubble the other
option(s) corresponding to corresponding bubbles is case.
all the correct to each correct darkened.
option(s) is (are) option,
darkened. provided NO
incorrect option
is darkened.
3 Compreh +3 ––– 0 ––– 12
ension 4 If only the bubble In all other
corresponding to case.
the correct option
is darkened
NAME:
ENROLLMENT NO.:
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-15
PAPER–I
PART I: PHYSICS
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 28)
This section contains SEVEN questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to all the correct option in the ORS.
1. AB and CD are surfaces of two slabs as shown in the figure. The medium 1 2
Q
A B
between the slabs has refractive index 2. Refractive index of the slab
above AB is 2 and below CD is 3 . The minimum angle of incidence 2 2
at Q so that the ray is totally reflected by both the slabs is C D
3 3
0 0 0 0
(A) 30 (B) 48 (C) 60 (D) 90
2. A plane mirror is made of a glass slab (g = 1.5) 2.5 cm thick and silvered on its back. A point object is
placed 5 cm in front of the unsilvered face of the mirror. If the position of the final image seen by a
person standing in front of the mirror is ____ from unsilvered face
25 16
(A) cm (B) 25 cm (C) cm (D) 22 cm
3 3
3
3. A plano-convex glass lens g of radius of curvature R = 10
2
cm is placed at a distance of ‘b’ from a concave lens of focal
length 20 cm. If was observed that if an object ‘O’ is placed at
distance ‘a’ as shown then the position of final image is
independent of ‘b’. The value of a is
(A) 15 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 25 cm (D) 30 cm
2 3 3 3 3 5 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 4 4 2
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-16
6. The wavefront of a light beam is given by the equation x + 2y + 3x = c (where c is arbitrary constant),
X Y
then the angle made by the direction of light with the y–axis is given as cos1 , then find
Y X
(A) 4 (B) 7 (C) 6 (D) 5
1
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) (D) 2
2
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-17
9. When barium is irradiated by a light of = 4000 Å, all the photoelectrons emitted are bent in a circle of
–6
radius 50 cm by a magnetic field of flux density 5.26 x 10 T. Then,
(A) the kinetic energy of fastest photoelectron is 0.6 eV
(B) work function of the metal is 2.5 eV
6 –1
(C) the maximum velocity of photoelectron is 0.46 x 10 ms
(D) the stopping potential for photoelectric effect is 0.6 V
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13. Two point monochromatic and coherent sources of light of wavelength are placed on the dotted
line in front of an infinite screen. The source emit waves in phase with each other. The distance
between S1 and S 2 is ‘d’ while their distance form the screen is much larger. Then:
(A) If d 7 / 2, O will be a minima
(B) If d 4.3 , there will be a total of 8 minima on screen
(C) If d 7 , O will be a maxima
(D) If d , there will be only one maxima on the screen
5 cm/s
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-19
Paragraph–1
–7
In YDSE, the source is red light of wavelength 7 x 10 m. When a thin glass plate of refractive index 1.5 is put
–3
in the path of one of the interfering beams, the central bright fringe shifts by 10 m to the position previously
occupied by the 5th bright fringe.
–7
16. If the source is now changed to green light of wavelength 5 x 10 m, the central fringe shifts to a
position initially occupied by the 6th bright fringe due to red light. What will be refractive index of glass
plate for the 2nd light for changed source of light?
(A) 2.6 (B) 1.6 (C) 1.2 (D) 2.2
Paragraph–2
An electron is orbiting in a circular orbit of radius r under the influence of a constant magnetic field B.
Assuming that Bohr’s postulate regarding the quantisation of angular momentum holds good for this electron
[ii = Planck’s constant, e = charge on electron and m = mass of electron]
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-20
–1 2 –
19. At 25C the equivalent conductance at infinite dilution for HCl solution is 4250 ohm cm equivalent
1 –1 –1
, while its specific conductance is 3.825 ohm cm . If the apparent degree of dissociation is 90%,
the normality of the solution is
(A) 0.90 N (B) 1.0 N (C) 1.1 N (D) 1.2 N
20. Buna-S is a
(A) condensation polymer formed by styrene and 1,3-butadiene
(B) addition polymer formed by styrene and 1,3-butadiene
(C) condensation polymer of hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid
(D) addition polymer of hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid
emf emf
(A) (B)
t t
emf emf
(C) (D)
t t
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24. A given mass of gas expands from the state A to the state B by three paths
1,2 and 3 as shown in the figure. If w1,w 2 and w 3 respectively be the
work done by the gas along three paths then:
25. When H2S gas is passed through ammonical sodium nitroprusside solution, then
(A) The complex compound Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] is formed
2
(B) The complex Fe CN3 NOS is formed
4
(C) The complex Fe CN5 NOS is formed (D) None of them is produced
26. Consider 0.1 M solutions of two solutes X & Y. the solute X behaves as an univalent electrolyte while
the solute Y undergoes dimerization in solution. Select the correct statement(s) regarding these
solutions:
(A) The boiling point of the solution “X” will be higher than that of “Y”
(B) The osmotic pressure of the solution “X” will be higher than that of “Y”
(C) The freezing point of the solution “X” will be lower than that of “Y”
(D) The relative lowering of vapour pressure of both the solutions will be the same
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28. In which of the following pair(s) the minerals are converted into metals by self–reduction process ?
(A) Cu2S, PbS (B) PbS, HgS (C) PbS, ZnS (D) Ag2S, Cu2S
30. Identify the correct statement(s) after observing the following four structures of Co en 2 Cl2
complex cation:
en en Cl en
Cl Cl Cl
en en
Co 3 Co 3 Co 3 Co 3
Cl Cl Cl
en
en en
Cl
32. For the cell Zn s Zn2 aq Cu2 aq Cu s . The cell potential Ecell can be increased
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Paragraph–1
A bluish green coloured compound ‘A’ on heating gives two products solid residue ‘B’ and gas ‘C’. A metal ‘D’
is deposited on passing H2 through heated ‘B’. The compo und ‘A’ and ‘B’ are insoluble in water. ‘B’ is black
in colour, dissolves in HCl and on treatment with K4[Fe(CN)6] gives a chocolate brown ppt of compound ‘E’. ‘C’
is colourless, odoulress gas and turns lime water milky.
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Paragraph–2
The Ellingham diagram for zinc, magnesium and carbon converting into corresponding oxides is
shown below
35. At what temperature, zinc and carbon have equal affinity of oxygen?
(A) 1000C (B) 1500C (C) 500C (D) 1200C
37. Two small squares on a chess board are chosen at random. Probability that they have a common
side is
1 1 1 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 9 18 18
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1
39. A boy is throwing stones at a target. The probability of hitting the target at any trial is . The
2
th th
probability of hitting the target 5 time at the 10 throw is
10 10
5 63 C C4
(A) 10 (B) 9 (C) 105 (D)
2 2 2 210
40. A dice is thrown (2n + 1) times. The probability that faces with even numbers appear odd number of
times is
2n 1 n 1 n
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
2n 3 2n 1 2n 1
41. A natural number x is chosen at random from the first 100 natural numbers. The probability that
100
x+ > 50 is
x
1 11 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
10 50 20
42. A wire of length is cut into three pieces. What is the probability that the three pieces form a triangle ?
1 1 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
2 4 3
43. Suppose X is a binomial variate B(5, p) and P(X = 2) = P(X – 3), then p is equal to
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 4 5
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44. The number of ways in which 10 candidates A1, A2, ......, A10 can be ranked, so that A1 is always
above A2 is
10!
(B) 8! C2
10 10 10
(A) (C) P2 (D) C2
2
45. The number of ways of arranging seven persons (having A, B, C and D among them) in a row so that
A, B, C and D are always in order A–B–C–D (not necessarily together) is
(C) 6 C4
7 7
(A) 210 (B) 5040 (D) P3
46. Triplet (x, y, z) is chosen from the set {1, 2, 3, ......, n}, such that x y < z. The number of such that
triplets is
2 n+1 n n n
(A) n (B) C3 (C) C2 (D) C2 + C3
1
47. Let A and B are two independent events. The probability that both A and B happen is and the
12
1
probability that neither A nor B happens is , then
2
1 1 1 1
(A) P(A) = , P(B) = (B) P(A) = , P(B) =
3 4 2 6
1 1 1 1
(C) P(A) = , P(B) = (D) P(A) = , P(B) =
6 2 4 3
48. The letters of the word PROBABILITY are written down at random in a row. Let E 1 denotes the event
that two I’s are together and E2 denotes the event that two B’s are together, then
2 2 18 1
(A) P(E1) = P(E2) = (B) P(E1 E2) = (C) P(E1 E2) = (D) P(E1 / E2) =
11 55 55 5
49. Let X be a set containing n elements. If two subsets A and B of X are picked at random, the
probability that A and B have the same number of elements is
2n
C 1 1 3 5 2n 1 3n
(A) 2nn (B) 2n (C) (D) n
2 Cn 2 n!
n
4
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50. Two numbers b and c are chosen at random (with replacement from the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
and 9). The probability that x + bx + c > 0 for all x R is
2
17 32 82 45
(A) (B) (C) (D)
123 81 125 143
Paragraph–1
Different words are being formed by arranging the letters of the word “SUCCESS”. All the words obtained by
written in the form of a dictionary.
51. The number of words in which the two C are together but no two S are together is
(A) 120 (B) 96 (C) 24 (D) 420
52. The number of words in which the consonants appear in alphabetic order is
(A) 42 (B) 40 (C) 420 (D) 280
Paragraph–2
1
53. The probability of a man hitting a target in one fire is . Atleast n times he must fire at the target that
4
2
the chances of hitting the target at least once will exceed , then n is
3
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
54. A coin is tossed 4 times whose faces are marked with the numbers 5 and 3. The odds in favour of
getting a sum less than 15 is
5 5 16 11
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16 11 5 5
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-28
5. C 6. B 7. D 8. A
17. B 18. A
CHEMISTRY
19. B 20. B 21. D 22. C
35. A 36. D
MATHEMATICS
37. C 38. A 39. B 40. D
53. B 54. B
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INSTRUCTIONS:
A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 54 questions.
10. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
11. Fill in the boxes provided for Name and Enrolment No.
12. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response (ORS), is provided separately.
13. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
B. Filling in the OMR:
6. The instructions for the OMR sheet are given on the OMR itself.
C. Question paper format & Marking Scheme
21. Each part has three sections as detailed in the following table:
Section Question Number of Category wise Marks Each Question Maximum
Type Questions Full Marks Partial Marks Zero Marks Negative marks of
Marks the
section
One or +4 +1 0 –2 28
1 more 7 If only the For darkening a If none of the In all
correct bubble(s) bubble bubbles is other
option (s) corresponding to corresponding darkened cases
all the correct to each correct
option(s) is(are) option,
darkened provided NO
incorrect option
is darkened
Single +3 ––– 0 ––– 15
2 digit 5 If only the bubble In all other
integer corresponding to cases
(0–9) the correct
answer is
darkened.
Single +3 ––– 0 –1 18
3 correct 6 If only the bubble If none of the In all
option corresponding to bubbles is other
the correct option darkened cases
is darkened
NAME:
ENROLLMENT NO.:
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PAPER–I
PART I: PHYSICS
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 28)
This section contains SEVEN questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options
is(are) correct.
For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will get +4
marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will get +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will get –2 marks, as a
wrong option is also darkened.
1. A converging lens is used to form an image on a screen. When the upper half of the lens is covered
by an opaque screen
(A) complete image will not be formed
(B) complete image will be formed
(C) intensity of the image will not change
(D) intensity of the image will change
3. For which of the pairs of u and f for a mirror image is smaller in size
(A) u = - 10 cm, f = 20 cm (B) u = - 20 cm, f = - 30cm
(C) u = - 45 cm, f = - 10 cm (D) u = - 60 cm, f = 30cm
5. Which of the following transitions in He ion will give rise to a spectral line which has the same
wavelength as some spectral line in the hydrogen atom?
(A) n = 4 to n = 2 (B) n = 6 to n = 2 (C) n = 6 to n = 3 (D) n = 8 to n=4
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7. An electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition n1n2 where n1 and n2 are principal quantum
numbers of the two states. Assume the Bohr model to be valid. The time period of the electron in the
initial state is eight times that in the final state. The possible values of n 1 and n2 are :
(A) n1=4, n2=2 (B) n1=8, n2=4 (C) n1=8, n2=1 (D) n1=6, n2=3
9. The maximum intensity in Young's double slit experiment is I0. Distance between the slits is d = 5 , where
is the wavelength of monochromatic light used in the experiment. The intensity of light in front of one of
I
the slits on a screen at a distance D 10 d is 0 , then N is?
N
r
10. The electric potential between a proton and an electron is given by V = V 0 In , where r0 is a
r0
constant. Assuming Bohr’s model to be applicable, the variation of r n with n is rn nk where n being
principal quantum number then find k.
11. The energy of a photon is equal to the kinetic energy of a proton. The energy of the photon is E. Let
1
1 be the de-Broglie wavelength of the proton and 2 be the wavelength of the photon. The ratio
2
1
is proportional to E n . Find n
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12 The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause
photoelectron emission from this substance is approximately is n 107 m . Find n.
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16
16. For wave length of emitted radiation is
3R
(A) I,iii,p (B) II,iii,p (C) I,i,r (D) II,i,r
36
17. For wave length of emitted radiation is
8R
(A) II,iv,q (B) I, ii,s (C) II,ii,s (D) I,iv,q
9
18. For wave length of emitted radiation is
8R
(A) III,iv,q (B) II, iv,q (C) III,ii,s (D) II,ii,s
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air oxygen
19. A (Sulphide ore) + NaCN B (complex) + Na2S Na2SO4 then B is
(A) Paramagnetic (B) diamagnetic
(C) Linear complex (D) co ordination number of central atom is 4
20. 2.08g of BaCl2 is dissolved in 500 ml of aq. Solution. The specific conductance of the solution is 0.02
–1
Mho.cm then, (equivalent conductance = ; molar conductance = m)
(A) m = 500 Mho. cm / mol (B) = 500 Mho.cm / gr. eq.
2 2
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The equilibrium constant for the reaction Fe2 Ce4 Fe3 Ce3 is 1 x 10 . at 298 K. The
y
26.
27. Find the current in amperes required to deposit 2.977 g of Pd by the electrolysis of an aqueous
solution of Pd4 salt per 1 hour (At. Wt. of Pd = 106.4)
n
28. How many geometrical isomers are possible for square planar complex Mabcd ?
29. The difference of the effective atomic number and the number of unpaired electrons of Fe in
x
K 4 Fe CN6 x . Find the value of .
4
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wt
30. The vapour pressure of a 5% aqueous solution of a non–volatile organic substance at 373 K is
wt
745 mm. The molecular mass of the solute is ‘8x’. then ‘x’ is (vapour pressure of pure water at 373
K is 760 mm)
Answer Q.34, Q.35 and Q.36 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of
the following table
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Answer Q.31, Q.32 and Q.33 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of
the following table
37. The probabilities that a student in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry are , and respectively. Of
these subjects, a student has a 75% chance of passing in atleast one, a 50% chance of passing in
atleast two and a 40% chance of passing in exactly two subjects. Which of the following relations are
true ?
19 27 1 1
(A) + + = (B) + + = (C) = (D) =
20 20 10 4
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38. A student appears for tests I, II and III. The student is successful if he passes either in tests I and II or
1
tests I and III. The probabilities of the student passing in tests I, II, III are p, q, and respectively. If
2
1
the probability that the student is successful is , then
2
2 1
(A) p = 1, q = 0 (B) p = , q =
3 2
3 2
(C) p = , q = (D) there are infinitely many values of p and q
5 3
39. A class has 30 students. The following prizes are to be awarded to the students of this class, first and
second in Mathematics, first and second in Physics; first in Chemistry and first in Biology. If N denote
the number of ways in which this can be done, then
(A) 400 | N (B) 600 | N
(C) 8100 | N (D) N is divisible by four distinct prime numbers
40. A card is selected at random from cards numbered as 00, 01, 02, ......, 99. An event is said to have
occurred. If product of digits of the card number is 16. If card is selected 5 times with replacement
each time, then the probability that the even occurs exactly three times is
2 3 3 2 3 3
3 97 3 97 03 97 3 2
(A) 5 C3 (B) 5 C3 (C) 5 C3 (D) 10 (0.03) ) (0.97)
100 100 100 100 100 100
41. In a class tournament when the participants were to play one game with another, two class players
fell ill, having played 3 games each. If the total number of games played is 84, the number of
participants at the beginning was
6
(A) 15 (B) 30 (C) C2 (D) 48
42. Sanjay has 10 friends among whom two are marred to each other. She wishes to invite 5 of the them
for a party. If the married couple refuse to attend separately, then the number of different ways in
which can invite five friends is
(B) 2 C3 (C) C5 – 2 C4
8 8 10 8
(A) C5 (D) none of these
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43. The number of ways to select 2 numbers from {0, 1, 2, 3, 4} such that the sum of the squares of the
selected numbers is divisible by 5 are (repetition of digits is allowed)
9 9
(A) C1 (B) C8 (C) 9 (D) 7
44. There are three piles of identical red, blue and green balls and each pile contains at least 10 balls.
The number of ways of selecting 10 balls if twice as many red balls as green balls are to be selected
is
C2
45. The maximum value of 1
=
C4
46. There are four balls of different colours and four boxes of colours, same as those of the balls. The
number of ways in which the balls, one each in a box, could be placed such that a ball does not go to
a box of its own colour is
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-40
By observing column 1, column 2, column 3 establish the relation and answer to the questions below:
By appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the following table.
Column 1 – Equation of Hyperbola, Column 2 – Eccentricity may lie in interval, Column 3 – length of latus
rectum.
(II)
x 1 y
2
1
2 (ii) 3,2 (Q)
3
6 8 2
2 2
(III) 3x – 6x – 4y + 16y – 14 = 0 (iii) (2, 3) (R) 9
(IV)
x 2
y 2
1
(iv) 1, 2 (S) 3
9 6
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-41
CHEMISTRY
19. B, C 20. B, C 21. B, D 22. A, B, C
23. A, B, C, D 24. B, D 25. B, C 26. 9
27. 3 28. 3 29. 9 30. 6
31. A 32. C 33. D 34. A
35. B 36. A
MATHEMATICS
37. BC 38. ABCD 39. ABCD 40. BD
41. AC 42. BC 43. ABC 44. 4
45. 3 46. 9 47. 1 48. 0
49. A 50. A 51. A 52. B
53. B 54. A
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-42
INSTRUCTIONS:
A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 54 questions.
14. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
15. Fill in the boxes provided for Name and Enrolment No.
16. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response (ORS), is provided separately.
17. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
B. Filling in the OMR:
6. The instructions for the OMR sheet are given on the OMR itself.
C. Question paper format & Marking Scheme
21. Each part has three sections as detailed in the following table:
Section Question Number of Category wise Marks Each Question Maximum
Type Questions Full Marks Partial Marks Zero Negative marks of
Marks Marks the
section
1 Single +3 ––– 0 –1 21
Correct 7 If only the bubble If none of In all
Option corresponding to the other
the correct option bubbles is cases
is darkened darkened
2 One or +4 +1 0 –2 28
more 7 If only the For darkening a If none of In all
correct bubble(s) bubble the other
option(s) corresponding to corresponding bubbles is case.
all the correct to each correct darkened.
option(s) is (are) option,
darkened. provided NO
incorrect option
is darkened.
3 Compreh +3 ––– 0 ––– 12
ension 4 If only the bubble In all other
corresponding to case.
the correct option
is darkened
NAME:
ENROLLMENT NO.:
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-43
PAPER–I
PART I: PHYSICS
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 28)
This section contains SEVEN questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to all the correct option in the ORS.
1. The wavefront of a light beam is given by the equation x + 2y + 3x = c (where c is arbitrary constant),
X Y
then the angle made by the direction of light with the y–axis is given as cos1 , then find
Y X
(A) 4 (B) 7 (C) 6 (D) 5
1
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) (D) 2
2
2 3 3 3 3 5 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 4 4 2
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3
5. A plano-convex glass lens g of radius of curvature R = 10
2
cm is placed at a distance of ‘b’ from a concave lens of focal
length 20 cm. If was observed that if an object ‘O’ is placed at
distance ‘a’ as shown then the position of final image is
independent of ‘b’. The value of a is
(A) 15 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 25 cm (D) 30 cm
6. AB and CD are surfaces of two slabs as shown in the figure. The medium 1 2
Q
A B
between the slabs has refractive index 2. Refractive index of the slab
above AB is 2 and below CD is 3 . The minimum angle of incidence 2 2
at Q so that the ray is totally reflected by both the slabs is C D
3 3
0 0 0 0
(A) 30 (B) 48 (C) 60 (D) 90
7. A plane mirror is made of a glass slab (g = 1.5) 2.5 cm thick and silvered on its back. A point object is
placed 5 cm in front of the unsilvered face of the mirror. If the position of the final image seen by a
person standing in front of the mirror is ____ from unsilvered face
25 16
(A) cm (B) 25 cm (C) cm (D) 22 cm
3 3
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8. Two point monochromatic and coherent sources of light of wavelength are placed on the dotted
line in front of an infinite screen. The source emit waves in phase with each other. The distance
between S1 and S 2 is ‘d’ while their distance form the screen is much larger. Then:
(A) If d 7 / 2, O will be a minima
(B) If d 4.3 , there will be a total of 8 minima on screen
(C) If d 7 , O will be a maxima
(D) If d , there will be only one maxima on the screen
5 cm/s
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–7
13 A two–slit interference experiment uses coherent light of wavelength 5 x 10 m. Intensity in the
interference pattern for the following points are I1, I2, I3 and I4, respectively.
–7
(1) a point that is close to one slit than the other by 5 x 10 m
4
(2) a point where the light waves received from the two slits are out of phase by rad
3
–7
(3) a point that is closer to one slit than the other by 7.5 x 10 m
(4) a point where the light waves received by the two slits are out of phase by rad
2
Then, which of following statements is/are correct?
(A) I1 > I4 > I2 > I3 (B) I1 < I4 < I2 < I3 (C) 3 I2 = I4 (D) I3 = 0
14 When barium is irradiated by a light of = 4000 Å, all the photoelectrons emitted are bent in a circle of
–6
radius 50 cm by a magnetic field of flux density 5.26 x 10 T. Then,
(A) the kinetic energy of fastest photoelectron is 0.6 eV
(B) work function of the metal is 2.5 eV
6 –1
(C) the maximum velocity of photoelectron is 0.46 x 10 ms
(D) the stopping potential for photoelectric effect is 0.6 V
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-47
Paragraph–1
An electron is orbiting in a circular orbit of radius r under the influence of a constant magnetic field B.
Assuming that Bohr’s postulate regarding the quantisation of angular momentum holds good for this electron
[ii = Planck’s constant, e = charge on electron and m = mass of electron]
Paragraph–2
–7
In YDSE, the source is red light of wavelength 7 x 10 m. When a thin glass plate of refractive index 1.5 is put
–3
in the path of one of the interfering beams, the central bright fringe shifts by 10 m to the position previously
occupied by the 5th bright fringe.
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-48
19. A given mass of gas expands from the state A to the state B by three paths
1,2 and 3 as shown in the figure. If w1,w 2 and w 3 respectively be the
work done by the gas along three paths then:
20. When H2S gas is passed through ammonical sodium nitroprusside solution, then
(A) The complex compound Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] is formed
2
(B) The complex Fe CN3 NOS is formed
4
(C) The complex Fe CN5 NOS is formed (D) None of them is produced
20
21. An ion is reduced to the element when it absorbs 6 x 10 electrons. The no. of equivalents of the ion
is
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.01 (C) 0.001 (D) 0.0001
emf emf
(A) (B)
t t
emf emf
(C) (D)
t t
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25. Buna-S is a
(A) condensation polymer formed by styrene and 1,3-butadiene
(B) addition polymer formed by styrene and 1,3-butadiene
(C) condensation polymer of hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid
(D) addition polymer of hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid
27. For the cell Zn s Zn2 aq Cu2 aq Cu s . The cell potential Ecell can be increased
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29. Identify the correct statement(s) after observing the following four structures of Co en 2 Cl2
complex cation:
en en Cl en
Cl Cl Cl
en en
Co 3 Co 3 Co 3 Co 3
Cl Cl Cl
en
en en
Cl
30. In which of the following pair(s) the minerals are converted into metals by self–reduction process ?
(A) Cu2S, PbS (B) PbS, HgS (C) PbS, ZnS (D) Ag2S, Cu2S
31. Consider 0.1 M solutions of two solutes X & Y. the solute X behaves as an univalent electrolyte while
the solute Y undergoes dimerization in solution. Select the correct statement(s) regarding these
solutions:
(A) The boiling point of the solution “X” will be higher than that of “Y”
(B) The osmotic pressure of the solution “X” will be higher than that of “Y”
(C) The freezing point of the solution “X” will be lower than that of “Y”
(D) The relative lowering of vapour pressure of both the solutions will be the same
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-51
Paragraph–1
The Ellingham diagram for zinc, magnesium and carbon converting into corresponding oxides is
shown below
33. At what temperature, zinc and carbon have equal affinity of oxygen?
(A) 1000C (B) 1500C (C) 500C (D) 1200C
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Paragraph–2
A bluish green coloured compound ‘A’ on heating gives two products solid residue ‘B’ and gas ‘C’. A metal ‘D’
is deposited on passing H2 through heated ‘B’. The compo und ‘A’ and ‘B’ are insoluble in water. ‘B’ is black
in colour, dissolves in HCl and on treatment with K4[Fe(CN)6] gives a chocolate brown ppt of compound ‘E’. ‘C’
is colourless, odoulress gas and turns lime water milky.
37. A wire of length is cut into three pieces. What is the probability that the three pieces form a triangle ?
1 1 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
2 4 3
38. Suppose X is a binomial variate B(5, p) and P(X = 2) = P(X – 3), then p is equal to
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 4 5
39. A dice is thrown (2n + 1) times. The probability that faces with even numbers appear odd number of
times is
2n 1 n 1 n
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
2n 3 2n 1 2n 1
40. A natural number x is chosen at random from the first 100 natural numbers. The probability that
100
x+ > 50 is
x
1 11 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
10 50 20
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1
41. A boy is throwing stones at a target. The probability of hitting the target at any trial is . The
2
th th
probability of hitting the target 5 time at the 10 throw is
10 10
5 63 C C4
(A) 10 (B) 9 (C) 105 (D)
2 2 2 210
42. Two small squares on a chess board are chosen at random. Probability that they have a common
side is
1 1 1 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 9 18 18
The coefficients of a quadratic equation ax + bx + c = 0 (a b c) are chosen from first three prime
2
43.
numbers, the probability that roots of the equation are real is
1 2 1 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 4 4
44. Let X be a set containing n elements. If two subsets A and B of X are picked at random, the
probability that A and B have the same number of elements is
2n
C 1 1 3 5 2n 1 3n
(A) 2nn (B) 2n (C) (D)
2 Cn 2n n! 4n
45. Two numbers b and c are chosen at random (with replacement from the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
and 9). The probability that x + bx + c > 0 for all x R is
2
17 32 82 45
(A) (B) (C) (D)
123 81 125 143
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1
46. Let A and B are two independent events. The probability that both A and B happen is and the
12
1
probability that neither A nor B happens is , then
2
1 1 1 1
(A) P(A) = , P(B) = (B) P(A) = , P(B) =
3 4 2 6
1 1 1 1
(C) P(A) = , P(B) = (D) P(A) = , P(B) =
6 2 4 3
47. The letters of the word PROBABILITY are written down at random in a row. Let E1 denotes the event
that two I’s are together and E2 denotes the event that two B’s are together, then
2 2 18 1
(A) P(E1) = P(E2) = (B) P(E1 E2) = (C) P(E1 E2) = (D) P(E1 / E2) =
11 55 55 5
48. Triplet (x, y, z) is chosen from the set {1, 2, 3, ......, n}, such that x y < z. The number of such that
triplets is
2 n+1 n n n
(A) n (B) C3 (C) C2 (D) C2 + C3
49. The number of ways in which 10 candidates A1, A2, ......, A10 can be ranked, so that A1 is always
above A2 is
10!
(B) 8! C2
10 10 10
(A) (C) P2 (D) C2
2
50. The number of ways of arranging seven persons (having A, B, C and D among them) in a row so that
A, B, C and D are always in order A–B–C–D (not necessarily together) is
(C) 6 C4
7 7
(A) 210 (B) 5040 (D) P3
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Paragraph–1
1
51. The probability of a man hitting a target in one fire is . Atleast n times he must fire at the target that
4
2
the chances of hitting the target at least once will exceed , then n is
3
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
52. A coin is tossed 4 times whose faces are marked with the numbers 5 and 3. The odds in favour of
getting a sum less than 15 is
5 5 16 11
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16 11 5 5
Paragraph–2
Different words are being formed by arranging the letters of the word “SUCCESS”. All the words obtained by
written in the form of a dictionary.
53. The number of words in which the two C are together but no two S are together is
(A) 120 (B) 96 (C) 24 (D) 420
54. The number of words in which the consonants appear in alphabetic order is
(A) 42 (B) 40 (C) 420 (D) 280
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PH-VIII-2018-PCM-56
CHEMISTRY
19. B 20. A 21. C 22. C
23. D 24. B 25. B 26. B, D
27. A, D 28. A, B, C, D 29. A, C, D 30. A, B
31. A,B,C 32. B, C, D 33. A 34. D
35. B 36. B
MATHEMATICS
37. B 38. A 39. D 40. D
41. B 42. C 43. A 44. AC
45. B 46. AD 47. ABCD 48. BD
50. ACD 49. AB 51. B 52. B
53. C 54. A
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