MICROBIOLOY-PARASITOLOGY

Name:_______________________________Date:__________Score:______________
Direction: Choose the correct answer and write the answer on the answer sheet provided.

_____1.Crystal violet and bile salts on MacConkey agar inhibits growth of:
A. Gram negative C. Fungal contaminants
B. Gram positive D. Coliforms
_____2. Which medium is used to demonstrate the typical “bull’s eye” colonies of Yersinia pestis?
A. Columbia CNA C. Chapman Stonne agar
B. Chopped Meat Medium D. Cefsoludin Irgasan Novobiocin agar
_____3. Which of the following are unacceptable specimen for microbiological examination?
1. use of swab with wooden shaft or calcium alginate for viruses
2. formaldehyde treated stool
3. biopsy specimen for anaerobic culture
4. hemolyzed sera
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1, 2 and 4 C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 1 and 3
_____4. A useful screen to differentiate the Verotoxin E. coli of serotype O157:H7 is:
A. Citrate utilization C. Production of indole from tryptophan
[Link] oxidase production D. Sorbitol fermentation
_____5. All Enterobacteriaceae ferment what sugar(s)
1. lactose A. 1 and 3
2. sucrose B. 2 and 4
3. mannitol C. 1, 2 and 3
4. glucose D. 4 only
_____6. The Klebsiella-Enterobacter-Serratia-Hafnia (KESH) group are positive on what test?
A. Indole C. Lysine decarboxylase
B. Vogues-Proskauer D. Methyl red
_____7. Which strain of E. coli produces Shigella toxin?
A. ETEC B. EHEC C. EIEC D. EPEC
_____8. A 20 year old Med Tech student was admitted because of headache, abdominal pain,
weakness, one week on and off fever and presence of red spots on the abdomen. The
possible causative agent isolated was:
A. Salmonella paratyphi A C. Salmonella typhimurium
B. Salmonella typhi D. Salmonella choleraesuis
_____9. Which of these statements is true of endospores of Bacillus anthracis?
A. Destroyed at 121C, 15 lbs steam pressure for 15 minutes
B. Has lesser resistance to drying than the vegetative cell
C. Has a high calcium oxalte content
D. It is seen as a violet colored sphere in Gram-stained cells
_____10. The method of detection of a virus is usually based on the type of specimen received or
the specific virus suspected. It is not practical to process specimen for comprehensive
virus detection. However, there is one instance when such comprehensive processing is
required, and that is in the case of
A. Congenital viral infections
B. Respiratory infections in infants
C. Infections in immunocompromised hosts
D. Blood cultures
_____11. A selective gram negative broth for pathogenic members of Enterobacteriaceae ( e.g.
Salmonella, Shigella) should be incubated for how many hours prior to subculture in a
plated medium?
A. 2 - 4 B. 6 – 8 C. 10 – 12 D. 16 – 18
_____12. Transport medium of choice for stool specimen suspected of Vibrio spp
A. Buffered glycerol saline C. Stuart’s
B. Buffered glycerol PO4 D. Cary-Blair
_____13. String test using 0.5% sodium deoxycholate is positive for what organism?
A. Aeromonas C. Vibrio
B. Plesiomonas D. Campylobacter
_____14. Produce positive result in INDOLE test
1. Escherichia coli A. 1 and 3
2. Proteus vulgaris B. 2 and 4
3. Klebsiella oxytoca C. 1, 2 and 3
4. Edwardsiella tarda D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
_____15. H2s producing organisms
1. Salmonella typhimurium A. 1 and 3
2. Proteus mirabilis B. 2 and 4
3. Edwardsiella tarda C. 1, 2 and 3
4. Enterobacter sp D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
_____16. Phenylalanine/lysine deaminase and urease positive
1. Proteus A. 1 and 3
2. Morganella B. 2 and 4
3. Providencia C. 1, 2 and 3
4. Citrobacter D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
_____17. The pigment produced by Serratia marcescens on MacConkey agar
A. Violacein B. Pyocyanin C. Prodigiosin D. Flavin
_____18. Organism from watery stool showed growth on BAP, MacConkey and selective media
such as Hektoen Enteric Agar and Xylose Lysine Desoxycholate Agar producing
colorless colonies with black center. Biochemical test revealed this reaction: TSI= K/A no
gas, with small amount of H2S, IMVC= -, +, -, - and Urease, ONPG negative This
organism is reported as:
A. Shigella dysenteriae C. Salmonella enteritidis
B. Salmonella typhimurium D. Salmonella typhi
_____19. Cultures from a “rice watery” stool revealed grayish, moist, opaque colonies on BAP and
yellow colonies on TCBS. Growth however, is NOT seen on media with 6% NaCl or
higher. On gram stain, it exhibits small gram negative bacilli(comma shaped). This is
reported as:
A. Helicobacter pylori C. Vibrio cholera
B. Campylobacter jejuni D. Vibrio parahemolyticus
_____20. The presence of a gram negative bacillus in pairs or rows (“school of red fish”) on a gram
stain smear from a soft chancroid lesion is indicative of:
A. Treponema pallidum C. Haemophilus aegypticus
B. Haemophilus ducreyi D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
_____21. This uses the principle of diffusion method to generate an MIC value using antibiotic
gradient strips
A. Kirby-Bauer C. Sherris and Turck
B. E-test D. Vitek system
_____22. Diagnostic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa
1. oxidase positive A. 1 and 3
2. bluish green on Mueller Hinton B. 2 and 4
3. TSI – K/K C. 1, 2, 3
4. Good growth at 42 deg C D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
_____23. Medium of choice to stimulate growth of C. diphtheriae and production of metachromatic
granules:
A. Tinsdale C. Cystine tellurite blood agar
B. Potassium tellurite blood agar D. Loeffler’s serum slant
_____24. A pure culture from a blood agar grew grayish white, transparent, matte, beta hemolytic
colonies and gave the following reactions:
PYR = + Hippurate test = 0
VP = 0 CAMP test = 0
The organism most likely identification is:
 A. Streptococcus agalactiae C. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Streptococcus dysgalactiae
_____25. Which of the following is observed when azide acts on Bile esculin azide agar with
vancomycin?
A. Inhibition of gram negative bacteria
B. Inhibition of gram positive bacteria
C. Growth of resistant gram positive bacteria
D. Differentiates Enterococci from other vancomycin-resistant bacteria
_____26. Which of the following microorganisms shows a presumptive identification which can be
made when vaginal discharge shows “clue cells”?
A. Treponema pallidum C. Gardnerella vaginalis
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Escherichia coli
_____27. Which of the following Enterobacteriaceae grows on orange to salmon pink colonies on
hektoen enteric agar?
A. Escherichia C. Shigella
B. Proteus D. Citrobacter
_____28. What is the major yeast used in the production of beer products?
A. Lactobacillus acidophilus C. Candida tropicalis
B. Streptococcus thermophilus D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
_____29. If accuracy and precision is acceptable, the quality control anti-microbial susceptibility
testing may be reduced from daily to:
A. Once a week C. Twice a week
B. Once a month D. Twice a year
_____30. Which of the following are unacceptable specimen for microbiological examination?
1. Use of swab with wooden shaft or calcium alginate for viruses
2. Formaldehyde treated stool
3. Biopsy specimen for anaerobic culture
4. Hemolyzed sera
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1, 2 and 4 C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 1 and 3
_____31. On a blood agar plate, organisms producing a clear zone around growing colonies are
described as:
A. Delta hemolytic C. Gamma hemolytic
B. Beta hemolytic D. Alpha hemolytic
_____32. One of the following viral conditions is a true zoonoses:
A. Influenza C. Infectious mononucleosis
B. Rabies D. Papillomatous growth
_____33. If the pH indicator is phenol red, what color will indicate alkalinity?
A. Yellow B. Red C. Blue D. Purple
_____34. The basic structural unit of fungi are filaments called hyphae, a mass of hyphae is:
A. Nonseptate B. Septate C. Aerial hyphae D. Mycelium
_____35. Specimen for virus culture should be transported in media containing:
A. Antibiotic and 5% sheep blood C. 22% bovine albumin
B. Saline and 5% sheep blood D. Antibiotics and nutrient
_____36. Biochemically, the Enterobacteriaceae are gram-negative rods that:
A. Ferment glucose, reduce nitrate to nitrite and are oxidase negative
B. Ferment glucose, produce indophenol oxidase and form gas
C. Ferment lactose, reduce nitrate to nitrogen gas
D. Ferment lactose, produce indophenol oxidase
_____37. Causative organism of thrush:
A. Cryptococcus neoformans C. Nocardia asteroids
B. Sporothrix schenkii D. Candida albicans
_____38. Intracellular inclusions were found in the epithelal cells from urine of an infant who was
admitted with symptoms of low birth weight, jaundice and neurologic defects. The
inclusion was shed by the tubular cells of the kidney. The most likely clinical diagnosis
would be:
A. Cytomegalovirus infection C. Variola virus infection
B. Rubella virus infection D. Epstein Barr virus infection
_____39. A direct smear from a nasopharyngeal swab stained with Loeffler’s methylene blue stain
showed various letter shapes and deep blue, metachromatic granules. The most likely
identification is:
A. Corynebacterium diphtheria C. Gardnerella spp.
B. Nocardia asteroides D. Listeria monocytogenes
_____40. What are the most appropriate screening tests to presumptively differentiate and identify
the non-fermentative gram negative bacilli (NFB) from the Enterobacteriaceae?
A. Catalase, Decarboxylation of arginine, growth on blood agar
B. Motility, Urease, morphology on blood agar
C. Oxidase, TSI, Nitrite reduction, growth on Mac Conkey agar
D. Oxidase, Indole, growth on blood agar
_____41. A curved gram negative rod producing oxidase positive, colonies on blood agar was
recovered from a stool culture. Given the following results, what is the most likely
identification?
Lysine (+) Arginine (-) Indole (+)
KIA = Alk/Acid VP (-) Lactose (-)
Urease (+/-) String test (-) TCBS = green colonies
A. V. cholerae C. Shigella spp
B. V. parahemolyticus D. Salmonella spp
_____42. Lysostaphin is used to differentiate Staphylococcus from which other genus?
A. Streptococcus B. Stomatococcus C. Micrococcus D. Planococcus
_____43. An 80 year old male patient was admitted to the hospital with a fever of 120ºF. A sputum
culture reveal many gram-negative rods on MacConkey agar and blood agar plate. The
patient was diagnosed with pneumonia. The following biochemical results were obtained
from the culture:
H2S = (-); Lactose = (+); Urea = (+); Citrate = (+); Indole = (+); VP = (+); Motility = (-)
RESISTANT TO AMPICILLIN AND CARBENICILLIN: what is most likely the
identification?
A. Klebsiella oxytoca C. Escherichia coli
B. Proteus mirabilis D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
_____44. An isolate recovered from vaginal culture obtained from a 25-year old female patient who
is 8 months pregnant is shown to be a gram-positive cocci, catalase negative. What test is
needed for further identification?
A. Optochin, Bile solubility test, PYR C. Methicillin, PYR, trehalose
B. Bacitracin, CAMP, PYR D. Coagulase, Glucose, PYR
_____45. The diferrence between “aerobic” organisms and “microaerophilic” organism is:
A. Nutritional requirements C. Temperature requirements
B. Grouping morphology D. Oxygen requirements
_____46. Which statement is correct: Staphylococcus aureus can be differentiated from
Staphylococcus epidermidis by their ability to:
A. Catalase positive, ferment mannitol, and are DNAse negative
B. Produces clumping factor, does not ferment mannitol, and are DNAse positive
C. Coagulase positive, DNAse positive, and is catalse negative
D. Ferment mannitol, produces clumping factor, and is DNAse positive
_____47. Which of the following is a characteristic of Rickettsiae?
A. Do not possess a typical bacterial cell wall
B. Gram-negative obligate, intracellular parasites
C. Considered among the viruses
D. Contain only RNA
_____48. 70% alcohol is a more effective antiseptic than 95% alcohol because:
A. Water is required for protein denaturation
B. Increased alcohol increases tissue damage
C. 70% is a tincture, 95% is not
D. DNA coagulation is inhibited by the higher alcohol content
_____49. The pulmonary form of anthrax is known as:
A. Malignant pustule C. Pontiac fever
B. Risus sardonicus D. Woolsorter’s disease
_____50. The N-acetyl-L-cystine component of the NALC-NaOH reagent for the treatment of
sputum specimen prior to culture has the function of:
A. Killing mold contaminants C. Detoxifying NaOH
B. Liquefaction of mucus D. Decontamination of the specimen
_____51. Chlamydospore are structures seen in:
A. Coccidiodes B. Microsporum C. Mucor D. Candida albicans
_____52. A fungi in which the mycelium lacks septation is:
A. Coccidiodes B. Trichophyton C. Rhizopus D. Candida sp.
_____53. Which of the following yeast is characteristically positive for germ tube production?
A. Candida tropicalis C. Candida albicans
B. Candida pseudotropicalis D. Cryptococcus neoformans
_____54. Fungi capable of growth into two different forms, mycelia at 25ºc and yeast or spherule at
37ºc or in tissue are referred to as:
A. Opportunistic B. Coenocytic C. Dimorphic D. Septate
_____55. The presence of encapsulated yeast in CSF is indicative of:
A. Cryptococcosis B. Histoplasmosis C. Candidiasis D. Blastomycosis
_____56. A disease common among gardeners and reffered to as “rose fever” is caused by:
A. Sporothrix schenkii C. Candida albicans
B. Blastomycosis D. Paracoccidiodes brasiliensis
_____57. Epidemic ringworm of the scalp in children is due to:
A. Trichophyton meniagrophytes C. Microsporum gypseum
B. Epidermophyton floccosum D. Microsporum audouinii
_____58. A test for the hydrolysis of esculin in the presence of bile is especially useful in
differentiating species of this genus:
A. Haemophilus B. Streptococcus C. Staphylococcus D. Brucella
_____59. Which genera are positive for phenylalanine deaminase?
1. Morganella A. 1 and 3
2. Providencia B. 2 and 4
3. Proteus C. 1, 2 and 3
4. Salmonella D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
_____60. Characteristic appearance of Malassezia furfur in fresh 10% KOH preparation:
A. Flower vase appearance C. Spaghetti and meatballs
B. Floweret morphology D. A and C
_____61. In Lactophenol Cotton Blue stain for fungi, what is the composition that will act as the
preserving agent?
A. Lactic acid B. Cotton blue C. Phenol crystal D. Methyl red
_____62. A large gram-positive spore-forming rod growing on blood agar as large, raised, beta
hemolytic colonies that spread and appear as frosted green-gray glass is most likely a:
A. Pseudomonas spp. C. Corynebacterium spp.
B. Bacillus spp. D. Listeria spp.
_____63. Which organism, associated with tuberculosis in cattle, causes tuberculosis in humans
especially in regions where dairy farming is prevalent?
A. Mycobacterium avium C. Mycobacterium marinum
B. Mycobacterium kansasii D. Mycobacterium bovis
_____64. Which non-pathogenic Mycobacterium species is isolated most often from clinical
specimens and is called the “tap water bacillus”?
A. Mycobacterium kansasii C. Mycobacterium leprae
B. Mycobacterium avium D. Mycobacterium gordonae
_____65. Tinea versicolor is a skin infection caused by:
A. Malassezia furfur C. Trichophyton schoenleinii
B. Trichophyton rubrum D. Microscoporum gypseum
_____66. What is the usual infective stage of Malaria or Plasmodium to man?
A. Merozoites C. Sporozoites
B. Schizonts D. Tropozoites
_____67. What is the intermediate host of Diphyllobothrium latum?
A. Cattle C. Fish
B. Dog D. Pig
_____68. Which of the following stage/s in the life cycle of Ascaris will distinguish it from that
Trichuris trichiura?
A. Heart and lung larval migration C. .Embryonation in the soil
B. Ingestion of embryonated egg D. Passing out of eggs in the feces
_____69. The diagnostic stage of the following parasites is ova, EXCEPT:
A. Whipworm C. Old world hookworm
B. Giant intestinal roundworm D. Thread worm
_____70. In the life cycle of Schistosoma,which of the ff. developmental forms enters the
intermediate snail host?
A. Cercaria C. Metacercaria
B. Rediae D. Miracidium
_____71. In the lifecycle of Plasmodium vivax , some trophozoite invade unaffected liver cell.
What will happen to the trophozoite that enters the liver cell?
A. Trophozoite will develop into Schizont
B. Trophozoite will develop into mature trophozoite
C. Trophozoite will develop into gametocytes
D. Trophozoite will develop into hypnozoite
_____72. What protozoa resemble an “old man with eyeglasses”?
A. Chilomastix mesnilii C. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Entamoeba histolytica D. Giardia lamblia
_____73. Which trophozoite of Entamoeba has 4 nuclei and with occasional
inclusions of erythrocytes?
A. Endolimax nana C. Entamoeba coli
B. Dientamoeba fragilis D. Entamoeba histolytica
_____74. Which of the ff. pairs of helminths cannot be reliably differentiated by the appearance
of their eggs?
A. Whipworm and Pudoc worm
B. Rat tapeworm and Dwarf tapeworm
C. Pork tapeworm and Beef tapeworm
D. Fish tapeworm and Dog tapeworm
_____75. Lemon-shaped cyst, uninucleteated can be confused with Trichomonas in
the laboratory :
A. Chilomastix mesnili C. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Giardia lamblia D. Taenia solium
_____76. Egg that show knob-like spine or projection on one side is characteristics of
A. Amoeba C. Paragonimus
B. Hookworm D. Schistosoma
_____77. Kidney shaped caudal bursa is characteristic of what male nematode?
A. D. medinensis C. A. cantonensis
B. B. malayi D. W. bancrofti
_____78. Buccal cavity has two pairs of ventral teeth:
A. Necator americanus C. Ancylostoma brazilliense
B. Ancylostoma duodenale D. Ancylostoma caninum
_____79. This egg is characterized to have a barrel-shaped with transparent plug
at each pole:
A. Hookworm ova C. Taenia ova
B. Ascaris ova D. Trichuris ova
_____80. A watery stool specimen was submitted to the laboratory 2 hours after collection. What
will most likely happen to the trophozoites if present?
A. Their movement will be more visible C. They will remain intact
B. They will disintegrate D. They will proliferate
_____81. How would you differentiate the time of collection of blood in the diagnosis of Malaria
and Wuchereriasis?
A. Blood should be collected between 10PM to 2 AM for diagnosis of Wuchereriasis.
B. Blood may be collected any time of the day for the recovery of malarial parasite
C. Blood may be collected at the height of fever for the diagnosis of Wuchereriasis
D. Blood should be collected during day time only for both diseases.
_____82. A sputum examination was requested from a patient who was suffering from chest pains,
dyspnea, dry cough and hemoptysis. Results shoed that the sputum contained a coffee-
bean shaped parasite with a flattened operculum with abopercular thickening. Which of
the following parasite was most likely isolated?
A. Strongyloides stercoralis C. Paragonimus wastermani
B. Cryptosporidium parvum D. Echinococcus granulosus
_____83. A cellulose scotch tape swab was submitted in the laboratory . Which of the following
ova or parasites is most likely to be recovered?
A. Mammilated with fine granules
B. Elongated with one side flattened
C. Barrel-shaped with prominent bipolar plugs
D. Ovoidal with 2-8 cell stages
_____84. Entamoeba histolytica trophozoite has the following characteristics:
A. Central karyosome in the nucleus, ingested RBC and clear pseudophodia
B. Ingested RBC, clear pseudophodia, uneven chromatin on the nuclear membrane
C. Ingested RBC, clear pseudophodia and large glycogen vacuoles in cytoplasm
D. Large blot karyosome, ingested WBC and granular pseudopods
_____85. Microcytic hypochromic anemia usually occurs in heacy infections with:
A. Pinworms B. Hookworms C. Threadworms D. Fishworm
_____86. Which among the following organisms is related to occurrence of rectal prolapse:
A. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Necator americanus
B. Trichuris trichiura D. Strongyloides stercoralis
_____87. Which can bring about itching around the anal opening:
A. Whipworms C. Hookworms
B. Giant intestinal roundworms D. Pinworms
_____88. A high worm burden with this parasite can lead to intestinal obstruction:
A. Whipworms C. Hookworms
B. Giant intestinal roundworms D. Pinworms
_____89. A parasitic infection which stimulates the signs and symptoms of pulmonary TB is :
A. Schistosomiasis B. Paragonimiasis C. Fascioliasis D. Taeniasis
_____90. Which of the following ova maybe found in urine sample:
A. Paragonimus westermani C. Schistosoma haematobium
B. Fasciola hepatica D. Trichomonas vaginalis
_____91. Eggs never found in stool sample:
A. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Necator americanus
B. Trichinella spiralis D. Enterobius vermicularis
_____92. Which of the following eggs is characteristically flattened on one side:
A. Trichuris trichiura C. Necator americanus
B. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Enterobius vermicularis
_____93. Characterized by nocturnal periodicity:
A. Loa loa C. Wuchereria bancrofti
B. Brugia malayi D. Onchocerca volvulus
_____94. Protozoa that cause opportunistic infections in immune-suppressed patients include:
1. Cryptosporidium parvum A. 1 and 3
2. Giardia lamblia B. 2 and 4
3. Pneumocystis carinii C. 1, 2 and 3
4. Toxoplasma gondii D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
_____95. Not all stages of parasite occurs in the peripheral blood, multiple infections common and
considered as the highly fatal form of malaria responsible for “Black water fever”:
A. Plasmodium malariae C. Plasmodium ovale
B. Plasmodium falciparum D. Plasmodium vivax
_____96. Mature schizont containing 12-24 merozoites maybe seen in the peripheral blood, red
blood cells are usually enlarged. Responsible for relapsing malaria:
A. Plasmodium malariae C. Plasmodium ovale
B. Plasmodium falciparum D. Plasmodium vivax
_____97. A malarial parasite undergoing asexual multiplication and characterized by dividing
masses of chromatin is known as:
A. Sporozoite B. Schizont C. Gametocyte D. Ring stage
_____98. Opportunistic disease that are closely associated with the acquired immune deficiency
syndrome (AIDS) include all of the following except:
1. Cryptosporidium A. 4 only
2. Pneumocystis carinii B. 2, 3
3. Cytomegalovirus C. 3, 4
4. Plasmodium D. 1 only
_____99. Rectal biopsy or sigmoidoscopy maybe used to detect invasive parasitic infection. Which
of the following is true regarding sigmoidoscopic material?
1. Helpful in diagnosing Amoebiasis A. 1, 2 and 3
2. Can prepare permanent stains B. 2, 3 and 4
3. Swabs should not be used to collect samples C. 1, 2
4. Can detect motile trophozoites in direct mounts D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
_____100. The amoebic cyst that remains mononucleated even when mature belongs to:
A. Entamoeba hartmanni C. Iodamoeba butchlii
B. Endolimax nana D. Dientamoeba fragilis

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