PSYC 1000-02 PRACTICE FINAL EXAM

Your name: __________________________

Your student number: _______________________

Course name: PSYC 1000 (Introduction to Psychology)

Section: 02

Instructor’s name: Jordan Ho

Semester: Fall 2019

Version: 1

Number of pages: 17

Number of questions: 75

Note: MAKE SURE YOU FILL IN YOUR NAME, STUDENT NUMBER, U OF

GUELPH ID, AND ANSWERS IN THE SCANTRON SHEET. You are responsible
for ensuring that the exam received is complete, and you shall bring any
discrepancies to the attention of the invigilator.

DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL

INSTRUCTED TO DO SO

1
2
1. Professor Farnsworth is creating the final exam for his Psychology class. Farnsworth
decides to write most of the exam questions on Art History, which his students
consistently do well on surprisingly. Which of the following best describes
Farnsworth’s final exam?

a) The exam is both valid and reliable.

b) The exam is valid but not reliable.
c) The exam is reliable but not valid.
d) The exam is neither valid nor reliable.

2. Which of the following most accurately describes drug withdrawal?

a) Withdrawal occurs because the UR becomes too strong for the person to handle.
b) Withdrawal occurs because the CR is triggered without the typical US present.
c) Withdrawal occurs because compensatory responses are NOT triggered as they usually
would.
d) Withdrawal occurs because the environment is a CS that triggers the UR.

3. Bobbie is looking to buy a new spaceship. Upon finding one, Bobbie realizes that it is
similar to every single other spaceship she’s owned before. Which of the following best
describes Bobbie’s realization?

a) Bobbie compared the new spaceship to all the other spaceships she’s owned, using
exemplar theory.
b) Bobbie compared the new spaceship to all the other spaceships she’s owned, using
prototype theory.
c) Bobbie compared the new spaceship to any typical spaceship she’s owned, using exemplar
theory.
d) Bobbie compared the new spaceship to any typical spaceship she’s owned, using
prototype theory.

4. Tiabeanie wants to make sure she doesn’t miss last call at the bar. To achieve this,
Tiabeanie sets an alarm on her phone that will ring ten minutes before last call. When the
alarm rings, which of the following will explain the capturing of Tiabeanie’s attention?

a) Tiabeanie’s attention will be captured by top-down processing, which is a controlled form of

attention.
b) Tiabeanie’s attention will be captured by top-down processing, which is an automatic form
of attention.
c) Tiabeanie’s attention will be captured by bottom-up processing, which is a controlled form
of attention.
d) Tiabeanie’s attention will be captured by bottom-up processing, which is an automatic form
of attention.

3
5. Which of the following is the best example of using the self-referent effect?

a) Trying to remember the colours of the rainbow using mnemonics.

b) Thinking about how to apply deep processing strategies to your own studying.
c) Testing yourself on a weekly basis.
d) Studying with your friends.

6. Which of the following is the best example of retroactive interference?

a) When you can’t remember what you ate for dinner yesterday because you have a poor
memory.
b) When you can’t remember how to play poker because you never knew in the first place.
c) When you have difficulty learning Italian because you grew up speaking Spanish.
d) When you can’t remember what your first favourite movie was, because you have had
many favourite movies since then.

7. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the normative function?

a) Drake starts wearing pink on Wednesdays in order to fit in with the popular crowd.
b) Rick starts learning French because he wants to impress his crush.
c) Frances isn’t sure what to do when the fire alarm goes off, so she looks around to see what
everyone else is doing.
d) Rosalie cannot decide where to take her partner on their one-year anniversary, so looks up
restaurant reviews online.

8. Which of the following scenarios will most likely lead to deindividuation?

a) Protesting outside a building on your own.

b) Going to the gym alone at 5:00am.
c) Vandalizing a house on Halloween because everyone is dressed in costumes.
d) Filming a concert for your friend who was busy that night.

9. Gamora is seen as being friendly and goes to extreme lengths to avoid conflict with
others. Gamora is also a confident person who never stays upset for long. Which of the
following best describes Gamora’s personality?

a) Gamora is high in Agreeableness and high in Neuroticism.

b) Gamora is high in Agreeableness and low in Neuroticism.
c) Gamora is low in Agreeableness and high in Neuroticism.
d) Gamora is low in Agreeableness and low in Neuroticism.

4
10. Kate becomes very conscientious only when she is studying with her friends. Kate acts
this way because her friends are generally hardworking, care about their grades, and get
annoyed whenever people fool around instead of studying. Which of the following best
describes Kate’s and her friends’ behaviour?

a) Kate’s high conscientiousness reflects a trait; Kate’s friends are hardworking because of
traits also.
b) Kate’s high conscientiousness reflects a state; Kate’s friends are hardworking because of
traits.
c) Kate’s high conscientiousness reflects a trait; Kate’s friends are hardworking because of
states.
d) Kate’s high conscientiousness reflects a state; Kate’s friends are hardworking because of
states also.

11. In which of the following circumstances would natural selection be LEAST likely to
occur?

a) In a population of tigers, everyone has a different probability of reproducing.

b) In a population of dolphins, the offspring don’t look anything like their parents.
c) In a population of kangaroos, only the strongest survive.
d) In a population of zebras, the ones with bigger ears have a better chance of mating
compared to the ones with smaller ears.

12. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates intersexual selection?

a) A pack of lions is fighting each other to determine who their leader is.
b) Eli dances in the subway to earn extra income, because rent is Toronto is too high.
c) Padma only goes on dates with men with an IQ above 100.
d) Maddie is not interested in finding a romantic partner.

13. Which of the following is a potential problem with intelligence testing?

a) Intelligence testing may lead to smarter people getting jobs over less-smart people.
b) Intelligence testing is a pyramid scheme.
c) The results of intelligence testing may be caused by differences in social class, rather than
actual intelligence
d) The results of intelligence testing may be too expensive to use.

14. Which of the following most likely requires fluid intelligence?

a) Harry is trying to remember a recipe from a cookbook he read yesterday.

b) Jonsi is trying to remember a definition while writing his geography exam.
c) Ginny asks the restaurant server for her usual order.
d) Simz asks her friend to teach her how to skydive.

5
15. Which of the following best illustrates the arbitrary associations criteria of language?

a) Simmons names her puppy “Toast”.

b) Fitz points at the last slice of pizza in the fridge and says “Mine!”.
c) Ron forgets how to speak Dothraki because of the disappointment that was Game of
Thrones Season 8.
d) Daisy learns how to speak Korean.

16. Which of the following scenarios best supports the social learning theory of language
development?

a) Gina’s baby was born knowing five different languages.

b) Misty’s baby starts saying “Yummy!” every time Misty says it.
c) Paul’s baby uses a language acquisition device to learn German.
d) Rhodey’s baby grew up on an alien planet, but somehow knows how to speak English
perfectly when they’re older.

17. Which of the following options uses a longitudinal study design?

a) Nebula compares the students in every high school classroom to see who has the highest
spice tolerance.
b) Rocket asks his friend what their favourite ice cream flavour is.
c) Starlord grows up without his biological parents.
d) Mantis tracks the hair length of each her children from birth until adulthood.

18. Which of the following best illustrates a sensitive period for development?

a) Talbot becomes a famous artist at ninety years old.

b) Flume finds it difficult to learn Cantonese because her parents didn’t speak it around her as
an infant.
c) Kilmonger is no longer the rightful heir to a kingdom because no one knew he was alive for
years.
d) Danya finds that her plants are extra sensitive to water when she brings them home.

6
19. Geedorah originally thought all comic book movies were made by the same company.
After learning that Batman and Captain Marvel are indeed different franchises, Geedorah
updated his knowledge of comic book movies accordingly. Which of the following best
describes this process?

a) Geedorah used assimilation to fit new information into his current schema of comic book
movies.
b) Geedorah used assimilation to modify his current schema of comic book movies based on
this new information.
c) Geedorah used accommodation to fit new information into his current schema of comic
book movies.
d) Geedorah used accommodation to modify his current schema of comic book movies based
on this new information.

20. Which of the following best illustrates a child reaching the main milestone of the
Concrete Operational Stage?

a) Knowing that pouring a volume of liquid into a different-shape container doesn’t change the
amount of liquid.
b) Arranging bills based on their monetary value.
c) Painting abstract art.
d) Self-awareness and object permanence.

21. Dinah leaves her child alone in a room with a stranger, and later returns. Which of the
following would suggest that Dinah’s child is the avoidant subtype of an insecure
attachment style?

a) Dinah’s child acts oblivious to her returning.

b) Dinah’s child starts crying when she returns.
c) Dinah’s child is unsure if they want to be comforted versus left alone.
d) Dinah’s child seeks comfort when she returns.

22. Which of the following best describes the main focus of the Childhood stage of
psychosocial development?

a) Developing a sense of security and seeking affectionate contact.

b) Exploring feelings of autonomy and discovering the world.
c) Trying to do well in school and learn new skills.
d) Deciding whether one has made a valuable contribution to society.

7
23. Blair sees that her classmates don’t have a lunch, so she offers to share food with
them. Which of the following describe Blair’s decision?

a) Blair’s attachment behavioural system is focusing on meeting her own needs.

b) Blair’s attachment behavioural system is focusing on meeting other’s needs.
c) Blair’s caregiving behavioural system is focusing on meeting her own needs.
d) Blair’s caregiving behavioural system is focusing on meeting other’s needs.

24. Which of the following is most accurate about the conditional parenting approach?

a) Conditional parenting relies on classical conditioning.

b) Conditional parenting leads to desired behaviours being performed long-term.
c) Conditional parenting is associated with positive self-esteem.
d) Conditional parenting tends to lead to negativity and resentment toward parents.

25. Which of the following best illustrates inductive discipline?

a) Explaining to your child why they should only do things for rewards.
b) Explaining to your child how their actions may affect other people.
c) Telling your child to do something for no reason other than “Because I told you so”.
d) Explaining to your child why they should be on their best behaviour if they want to avoid
punishment.

26. Which of the following scenarios illustrates the longest delay of gratification?

a) Freddie chooses to do chores before going out with friends.

b) Lambo chooses to go out with friends before doing chores.
c) Maria chooses to pay off her credit card statement on time.
d) Naomi eats a marshmallow, and then eats another marshmallow ten minutes later.

27. Which of the following best illustrates the main challenge of the Aging stage of
psychosocial development?

a) Pondering whether you will get your dream job one day.
b) Trying to earn good marks in school.
c) Coping with the prospect of death.
d) Picking up new hobbies.

8
28. A neuron is carrying a message away from the spinal cord and toward your leg
muscles. Which of the following best describes this neuron?

a) This is a sensory neuron that receives information from muscles and sends it to the spinal
cord.
b) This is a sensory neuron that receives information from the spinal cord and sends it to
muscles.
c) This is a motor neuron that receives information from muscles and sends it to the spinal
cord.
d) This is a motor neuron that receives information from the spinal cord and sends it to
muscles.

29. Which of the following best describes the purpose of myelin?

a) Myelin insulates dendrites and increases the speed of neural communication.

b) Myelin prevents neural signals from decaying as often.
c) Myelin regenerates vesicles containing neurotransmitters.
d) Myelin makes neural signals slower.

30. Which of the following would best describe a neuron that is at resting potential?

a) A neuron that is firing signals.

b) A neuron that is more positively-charged inside than out.
c) A neuron that has more negatively-charged ions inside than out.
d) A neuron that has a net charge of zero both inside and out.

31. Which of the following would most likely lead to an action potential?

a) Ion channels for positively-charged ions opening up.

b) Negatively-charged ions flowing inside the neuron.
c) Ions motiving from areas of low concentration to areas of high concentration.
d) Staying at resting potential.

32. Which of the following best describes the outcome of an action potential reaching the
axon terminal?

a) Neurotransmitters open and release synapses.

b) The presynaptic neuron releases neurotransmitters into the synapse.
c) The postsynamptic neuron uses axons to receive neurotransmitters.
d) The synapse releases dendrites into the presynaptic neuron.

9
33. Which of the following best describes an excitatory neurotransmitter?

a) A neurotransmitter that increases a neuron’s charge to become more positive.

b) A neurotransmitter that decreases a neuron’s charge to become more negative.
c) A neurotransmitter that increases the chance of resting potential
d) A neurotransmitter that decreases the chance of an action potential.

34. Which of the following would most likely prevent muscle movement?

a) A venom that increases acetylcholine release.

b) A venom that causes muscle contraction.
c) A venom that blocks acetylcholine receptors.
d) A venom that increases the amount of acetylcholine binding to postsynaptic neurons.

35. Which of the following best describes an antagonist drug?

a) A drug that blocks the production of neurotransmitters.

b) A drug that increases the activity of neurotransmitters.
c) A drug that increases the normal effect of a neurotransmitter.
d) A drug that binds to a neurotransmitter’s receptors on postsynaptic neurons.

36. Which of the following scenarios would be most likely to trigger the sympathetic
nervous system?

a) Meditating in a temple.
b) Watching a scary movie with plenty of jump-scares.
c) Digesting a large meal.
d) Sleeping.

37. Which of the following would most likely indictate damage to the cerebellum?

a) Walking across a tightrope with perfect balance.

b) Being unable to speak or comprehend language.
c) Having difficulty walking in a straight line.
d) Speaking multiple languages without error.

38. Which of the following scenarios would NOT reflect a basic drive triggered by the
hypothalamus?

a) Eating tofu.
b) Engaging in sexual relations with someone.
c) Running away from someone trying to tickle you.
d) Listening to music.

10
39. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the thalamus?

a) The thalamus is a sensory neuron.

b) The thalamus relays sensory information to other brain regions.
c) The thalamus is a motor neuron.
d) The thalamus controls all motor information.

40. Which of the following best describes a function of the temporal lobes?

a) Hearing.
b) Muscle contraction.
c) Photoreceptor generation.
d) Emotions.

41. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the corpus callosum?

a) The corpus callosum allows dendrites to communicate with each other.

b) The corpus callosum allows axons to release synapses.
c) The corpus callosum allows for hemispheric specialization.
d) The corpus callosum allows brain hemispheres to communicate with each other.

42. Which of the following scenarios would indicate that a brain area is engaging in the
highest level of activity during a PET scan?

a) The most active brain area should have the least blood flow.
b) The most active brain area should have the most radioactvity.
c) The most active brain area should have the most magnets.
d) The most active brain area should have the highest spikes in electrode measurements.

43. Which of the following best describes transduction?

a) Transduction describes the transformation of neural impulses into stimuli.

b) Transduction describes the transformation of stimuli into neural impulses.
c) Transduction describes how we attend to and organize stimuli.
d) Transduction describes how we interpret stimuli.

44. Melba sees a bright blue spaceship. Which of the following best describes the
wavelength and amplitude being perceived?

a) Long wavelengths with low amplitude.

b) Long wavelengths with high amplitude.
c) Short wavelengths with low amplitude.
d) Short wavelengths with high amplitude.

11
45. Which of the following best illustrates a hypercomplex cell?

a) A cell that only responds to lines oriented at 75 degrees.

b) A cell that only responds to lines moving from left-to-right.
c) A cell that only responds to lines oriented at 98 degrees and moving diagonally.
d) A cell that only responds to lines that are 34cm long.

46. Which of the following scenarios would most likely utilize the ventral stream in the
extrastriate cortex?

a) Trying to catch a baseball to your right.

b) Using your feature detector cells.
c) Finding avocados instead of kiwis at the supermarket.
d) Learning how to drive from Guelph to New York.

47. Storm’s eyeball is longer than normal and can only see objects clearly if they are close-
up. Which of the following best describes Storm’s condition?

a) Storm has myopia, as images are falling short of the retina.

b) Storm has myopia, as images are falling behind the retina.
c) Storm has hyperopia, as images are falling short of the retina.
d) Storm has hyperopia, as images are falling behind the retina.

48. Amos is driving on the highway. According to the concept of motion parallax, which of
the folowing objects would appear to move most slowly to Amos while he’s driving?

a) The moon.
b) The squirrel on the side of the road.
c) The car driving beside Amos.
d) The car driving behind Amos.

49. Which of the following best describes the Place Theory of Hearing?

a) We perceive pitches based on which hair cells on the basilar membrane are stimulated.
b) We perceive pitches based on how fast the basilar membrane vibrates.
c) We perceive pitches based on which ossicles are displaced.
d) We perceive pitches based on how many sound waves the pinna captures.

50. Which of the following best describes why motion sickness occurs?

a) Motion sickness occurs when the auditory and visual systems are providing inconsistent
input.
b) Motion sickness occurs when the vestibular system is damaged by hair cells.
c) Motion sickness occurs when the visual and vestibular systems are providing mismatched
input.
d) Motion sickness occurs when the visual system is damaged by hair cells.

12
51. Rose accidentally walks on her niece’s lego pieces, causing her foot to be in pain.
Which of the following would illustrate Rose applying the gate control theory of pain in this
scenario?

a) Rose rubs her foot, in order to stimulate large fibres and inhibit pain signals from medium
fibres.
b) Rose rubs her foot, in order to stimulate medium fibres and inhibit pain signals from large
fibres.
c) Rose rubs her foot, in order to stimulate large fibres and inhibit pain signals from small
fibres.
d) Rose rubs her foot, in order to stimulate small fibres and inhibit pain signals from large
fibres.

52. Which of the following best describes how humans can detect thousands of different
smells?

a) Humans detect different smells through different combinations of cilia being stimulated.
b) Humans detect different smells because of having one type of cilia for each smell.
c) Humans detect different smells by having more types of cilia than smells that can be
detected.
d) Humans detect different smells because olfaction does not require the thalamus.

53. Based on signal detection theory, which of the following best illustrates a “Hit”?

a) Your dog thinks they hear a squirrel, but there actually isn’t one.
b) Your dog thinks they hear a squirrel and actually sees one.
c) Your dog thinks there are no squirrels around and ends up being correct.
d) Your dog thinks there are no squirrels around, but there actually are.

54. Which of the following most likely indicates a person with prosopagnosia?

a) Someone who cannot recognize voices.

b) Someone who cannot recognize language.
c) Someone who cannot recognize faces.
d) Someone who cannot recognize hands.

55. Camina is hungry and buys french fries. Which of the following descibes the drive and
incentive in this scenario?

a) Camina is the drive and her hunger is the incentive.

b) Camina’s hunger is the drive and the french fries are the incentive.
c) The french fries are the drive and Camina’s hunger is the incentive.
d) Camina is the drive and the french fries are the incentive.

13
56. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates allostasis?

a) Being hungry and eating a snack.

b) Being stressed while studying for an exam, and eating more snacks than normal.
c) Being thirsty and drinking water.
d) Being so bored that you become hungry.

57. Which of the following is NOT a cause of satiation?

a) CCK.
b) CCK being released.
c) Intestines expanding.
d) An empty stomach.

58. Which of the following best describes a sexual response cycle?

a) A sexual response cycle describes the phases of physiological change during sex.
b) A sexual response cycle describes how someone responds to sexual advances.
c) A sexual response cycle describes how much someone is uncomfortable discussing sex.
d) A sexual response cycle describes why humans are the only species that has sex for
purposes other than reproduction.

59. Sue is trapped on a deserted island by herself. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of

needs, which of the following needs will be most important in this scenario?

a) Self-actualization.
b) Aesthetic needs.
c) Belongingness and love needs.
d) Physiological needs.

60. Which of the following best illustrates passionate love?

a) A couple who is married and feels that their lives are intertwined.
b) A couple who is in a polygamous relationship.
c) A couple who just started dating and misses each other constantly.
d) A couple who has completed Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.

61. Which of the following is an example of an approach goal?

a) Trying to gain a job promotion in order to earn more money.

b) Trying to avoid embarrassment because you forgot to change out of your pyjamas before
going out.
c) Trying to avoid shame from failure.
d) Trying to approach a dangerous animal.

14
62. Which of the following best illustrates intrinsic motivation?

a) Being motivated to win a competition just for the cash prize.

b) Being motivated because of external validation.
c) Being motivated because you have no other choice.
d) Being motivated out of sincere interest in a task.

63. Which of the following is most characteristic of a person with borderline personality
disorder?

a) Someone who experiences intense fluctuations between positive and negative emotions.
b) Someone who has a very stable sense of self.
c) Someone who has no trouble controlling their impulses.
d) Someone who reacts intensely to any potential signs of rejection.

64. Which of the following is most characteristic of a person with narcissistic personality
disorder?

a) Someone who believes they are inferior to others.

b) Someone who hates receiving attention from others.
c) Someone who has a strong fear of abandonment.
d) Someone who always empathizes with others.

65. Which of the following is most likely a sociocultural cause of anti-social personality
disorder?

a) Less axons in the frontal lobe.

b) Trauma and abusive experiences.
c) Being raised in a loving, supportive family.
d) Less axons in the amygdala.

66. Keanu is a person with obsessive-compulsive disorder. Keanu is concerned about

leaving his car unlocked, and will check his car door hundreds of times before leaving the
parking lot. Which aspects of this situation represent an obsession and a compulsion?

a) Keanu’s concern about leaving the car unlocked is the obsession, and checking the car
door is the compulsion.
b) Checking the car door is the obsession, and Keanu’s concern about leaving the car
unlocked is the compulsion.
c) Keanu’s concern about leaving the car unlocked is the obsession, and the parking lot is the
compulsion.
d) The parking lot is the obsession, and Keanu’s concern about leaving the car unlocked is
the compulsion.

15
67. Which of the following best describes the diathesis-stress model?

a) The diathesis-stress model shows how genes affect the chances of having depression.
b) The diathesis-stress model shows how stress affects the chances of having depression.
c) The diathesis-stress model shows how genes and stress can interact to afect the changes
of having depression.
d) The diathesis-stress model shows how nature affects the chances of having depression.

68. Which of the following is most characteristic of the active phase in schizophrenia?

a) Withdrawal from daily activities.

b) A decrease in main symptoms.
c) Low motivation.
d) Hallucinations.

69. Duarte is a person with schizophrenia who is experiencing hallucinations and a lack of
motivation. Which aspect of this scenario represents a positive symptom, and which
aspect represents a negative symptom?

a) Hallucinations are the positive symptom, and lack of motivation is the negative symptom.
b) Hallucinations are the negative symptom, and lack of motivation is the positive symptom.
c) Duarte is the positive symptom, and hallucinations are the negative symptom.
d) Duarte is the negative symptom, and hallucinations are the positive symptom.

70. Which of the following is most characteristic of a person with histrionic personality
disorder?

a) Someone who hates attention but engages in dramatic behaviour.

b) Someone who craves attention and engages in dramatic behaviour.
c) Someone who hates attention and despises dramatic behaviour.
d) Someone who craves attention but despises dramatic behaviour.

71. Which of the following best illustrates aversive conditioning?

a) Gus wants to quit smoking and gets his friend to slap him every time he picks up a
cigarette.
b) Tina wants to quit smoking and fails.
c) Conway wants to quit drinking, and gradually reduces his alcohol consumption each week.
d) Beatrice wants to quit drinking by having non-alcoholic beer instead.

16
72. Which of the following best describes the mechanism through which antianxiety drugs
work?

a) Antianxiety drugs increase glutamate release, to inhibit neural activity.

b) Antianxiety drugs change the structure of GABA receptors, allowing more GABA to inhibit
neural activity.
c) Antianxiety drugs change the structure of GABA receptors, allowing less GABA to inhibit
neural activity.
d) Antianxiety drugs increase glutamate release, to increase neural activity.

73. Which of the following is the best predictor of successful therapy?

a) The type of medication prescribed.

b) The cost of therapy.
c) The relationship between the patient and therapist.
d) The type of therapy delivered.

74. Which of the following psychological disorders would antipsychotic drugs be most
likely prescribed for?

a) Major depressive disorder.

b) Borderline personality disorder.
c) Narcissistic personality disorder.
d) Schizophrenia.

YOU HAVE REACHED THE END OF THE

EXAM. PLEASE MAKE SURE YOU FILLED IN
YOUR STUDENT NUMBER, U OF GUELPH ID,
AND ALL THE BUBBLES CORRECTLY.

17