DIAGNOSTIC TEST IN SCIENCE 10 SY 2022-2023

Instructions: Read each question carefully and shade the correct answer in the
answer sheet provided to you. Do not write anything on this test questionnaire.

1. Which of the following made up the tectonic plates?

A. outer core and mantle
B. oceanic crust and mountains
C. continental crust and upper mantle
D. earth’s crust and upper most mantle

For items 2-3, refer to Figure 1 below.

Figure 1. Cross-section of magnetized oceanic crust

Legend: “+”---normal magnetic bands; “-” ----reversed magnetic bands
(Source: https://uh.edu/~jbutler/physical/chap20mult.html)

2. How many reversals of the Earth's magnetic field are depicted in the figure?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 6
D. 7

3. How fast are C and D spreading apart from each other?

A. about 2 centimeters per year
B. about 5 centimeters per year
C. about 10 centimeters per year
D. about 100 centimeters per year

4. An important aspect of seismic waves is that they have different time gaps
on seismograms from different locations. Why would a seismogram
recorded closer to the epicenter have the P and S wave arrivals closer
together than on a seismogram from farther away?
A. P waves are faster, so they “pull away” form S waves with increasing
distance from the epicenter.
B. S waves are faster, so they “catch up” to P waves with increasing
distance from the epicenter.
C. P waves travel faster if the earthquake is larger, whereas S waves are
slowed down by larger earthquakes.
D. P waves speed up with distance from the epicenter, whereas S waves
slow down with distance due to energy absorbance by the P wave.

Test Curator: Romeo A. Villarin DepEd-Caraga

School: Bunawan National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
5. At which type of plate margin would you expect to find the most explosive
volcanic activity?
A. Divergent (constructive)
B. Convergent (oceanic-oceanic)
C. Convergent (oceanic-continental)
D. Convergent (continental-continental)

6. Which of the following best illustrates the figure below?

Figure 2. A type of plate boundary

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I. Lithospheric plates are moving towards one another.

II. Earthquakes produced in areas where plate collisions occurred.
III. Volcanic activity and crustal deformation are not possible to occur.
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II and III

7. How will you differentiate divergent plate boundary from transform fault
boundary in terms of process?
A. Divergent plate boundary creates new crust while transform plate
boundary creates chain of volcanic arcs.
B. Divergent plate boundary creates several segments while transform
plate boundary creates slab of crust that grind past each other.
C. Divergent plate boundary creates a gap that produces new ocean
floor while transform plate boundary creates new crust from magma.
D. Divergent plate boundary creates mountain ranges while transform
plate boundary creates fault that may lead to moderate earthquakes.

8. What could be the best possible consequences if both continental and

oceanic crusts will not undergo any process of plate movements?
A. There will be no formation of trenches thus, earthquakes will be out
of the picture.
B. There will be no formation of trenches, volcanoes and islands or any
land forms thus, earthquake is impossible.
C. There will be no formation of rift valleys that could possibly source of
faults to other landforms and create shallow earthquakes.
D. There will be no splitting of plates thus, the crust will be plain and
uneven land surfaces will be no longer a problem.

Test Curator: Romeo A. Villarin DepEd-Caraga

School: Bunawan National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
9. What is the driving force that facilitates the slow movement of lithospheric
plates?
A. magnetic force at the poles
B. the force of the atmosphere
C. gravitational force of the moon
D. convection current in the mantle

10. Which of the following statements describe a convection process?

A. As less dense particles cool down it sinks, the other hot less dense
particles rise.
B. Once hot less dense particles cool down it sinks, the other less dense
particles rise.
C. The hot less dense material spreads out and reaches the surface
causing sideward forces.
D. The hot less dense material compresses and reaches the surface
causing upward forces.

11. Why was Alfred Wegener's Continental Drift Theory not accepted immediately
by the people during his time?
A. He cannot explain what causes the continents to drift.
B. He explains that South America and Africa fit together like a puzzle.
C. He described that the rocks and mountains at the edges of the
continents were similar.
D. He explains that fossils of ancient plants such as "Glossopteris" can
be found in almost all continents.

12. Why were magnetic patterns found on the ocean floor puzzling?
a. No rocks were magnetic.
b. All rocks were magnetic.
c. They showed alternating bands of normal and reversed polarity.
d. They did not show alternating bands of normal and reversed polarity.

13. Given the wavelength of a microwave which is 1 x 10-3 m, what would be the
frequency if the wave travels in vacuum?
A. 2.5 x 1010 Hz
B. 3.0 x 1010 Hz
C. 2.5 x 1011 Hz
D. 3.0 x 1011 Hz
]

14. Consider the arrangement of electromagnetic waves: Gamma ray – X-ray –

Ultraviolet ray – Visible light – Infrared – Microwave - Radio wave, which of
the following describes the arrangement?
A. increasing energy
B. increasing frequency
C. decreasing wavelength
D. increasing wavelength
Test Curator: Romeo A. Villarin DepEd-Caraga
School: Bunawan National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
15. In transmission of radio waves, what should be considered?
A. Area where there are many buildings to increase the scattering of
radio
signals.
B. Transmission antennas should be placed closer to the oscillator to
maximize signal generation.
C. High electrical source for transmission devices also increases the
amplitude of the radio wave generated.
D. Multiple transmission antennas in an area greatly decrease the
directionality of the radio signals towards its intended reception.

16. Which of the following electromagnetic waves commonly cause visual

problems?
A. X-rays
B. Infrared
C. Visible light
D. Ultraviolet ray

17. How do microwaves differ from radio waves in terms of communication?

A. It can transmit data in wider range due to its higher frequency wave.
B. It is more suitable in basic broadcasting since it has greater energy
than radio waves.
C. Microwave is ineffective in basic broadcasting due to its wider
wavelength than radio wave.
D. Microwave is more effective in terrestrial communication since it can
pass through atmosphere than radio waves.

18. Consider Figure 3 presented below, which statement is true?

Figure 3. Visible Spectrum

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260nw-1933622132.jpg)

A. From low to high energy, the frequency decreases.

B. From low to high energy, the wavelength increases.
C. From low to high frequency, the wavelength increases.
D. From low to high frequency, the wavelength decreases.
Test Curator: Romeo A. Villarin DepEd-Caraga
School: Bunawan National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
19. What form of electromagnetic wave that can only be observed by our naked
eye?
A. Infrared
B. Microwave
C. Visible light
D. Ultraviolet ray

20. Most electromagnetic waves are harmful to human body. Which of the
following support this statement?
A. Most of the electromagnetic waves have high frequency than can kill
human cells due to high energy radiation.
B. Most of the electromagnetic waves have high radiations that can
penetrate effectively to all human tissues.
C. Most of the electromagnetic waves have long wavelengths that can
reach longer distances affecting larger population.
D. Most of the electromagnetic waves have high frequency than can be
absorbed by human body resulting to increase in temperature.

21. In which of the following mirror the size of the image is always smaller than
the object?
A. Plane mirror
B. Silver mirror
C. Convex mirror
D. Concave mirror

22. What can you infer about the image that is formed in a plane mirror?
A. At the same distance behind the mirror as the object is in front of the
mirror.
B. At the same distance in front of the mirror as the object is in front of
the mirror.
C. At a shorter distance behind the mirror than the distance the object
is in front of the mirror.
D. At a shorter distance in front of the mirror than the distance that the
object is in front of the mirror.

23. Rita, a medicine student, wanted to examine the differences between

animal and plant cells. Her observation will be made better if she uses what
optical instrument?
A. Telescope
B. Microscope
C. DSLR Camera
D. Magnifying glass

Test Curator: Romeo A. Villarin DepEd-Caraga

School: Bunawan National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
 For item 24, refer to Figure 4 below.

Figure 4. Ray Diagram of a Presicope

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24. How does a periscope vary from other optical instruments in terms of light
rays reflecting from one surface to another? (shorten the distractor)
A. In a periscope, there are two mirrors or reflecting prisms that are
needed to change the direction of the light coming from the scene
observed.
B. Most periscopes work by using curved mirrors to gather and focus
light from the night sky. The bigger the mirrors or lenses, the more
light it can gather.
C. The periscope uses visible light transmitted through, refracted
around, or reflected from a specimen. Some of the lenses bend these
light waves into parallel paths, magnify and focus the light at the
ocular.
D. A periscope lens takes all the light rays bouncing around and uses
glass to redirect them to a single point, creating a sharp image. When
all of those light rays meet back together on a digital camera sensor
or a piece of film, they create a sharp image.

25. Which is the correct sequence in the operation of a simple generator?

I. Magnets placed near one another either attract or repel

II. The attraction and repulsion cause the wire to jump
III. Electric current starts to creep along wire; it creates a magnetic field
all around it
IV. Electrical energy converted to mechanical energy
V. Temporary magnetic field interacts with the permanent magnet

A. V, IV, II, III, I

B. III, V, I, II, IV
C. V, III, I, IV, III
D. III, II, IV, I, V

Test Curator: Romeo A. Villarin DepEd-Caraga

School: Bunawan National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
26. Which is the correct sequence in the operation of generator in the
production of electricity in Hydroelectric Power Plant?

I. A turbine converts the kinetic energy of the falling water into

mechanical energy
II. Hydropower plants capture the energy of falling water to generate
electricity
III. Once an electrical current has been established, it is directed through
copper wires to power machine and devices
IV. The generator converts the mechanical energy from the turbine into
electrical energy.

A. I, IV, II, III B. II, I, IV, III

C. IV, I, III, II
D. III, II, IV, I

27. If you were travelling in a miniaturized ship through the male reproductive
system, from the testis to urethra, which structures would you pass along
the way, and in what order?
A. Epididymis, Seminal Vesicle, Vas Deferens
B. Epididymis, Vas Deferens, Seminal Vesicle
C. Vas Deferens, Epididymis, Seminal Vesicle
D. Vas Deferens, Seminal Vesicle, Epididymis

28. Susan, 51 years of age, suffers from night sweats, mood swings, wrinkling
of skin, and fewer periods. According to her healthcare provider, this is
because of the fall of her estrogen level. What do you think is Susan
experiencing? A. She is having pregnancy issues.
B. She is nearing her menopausal stage.
C. She is experiencing Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS).
D. She is showing symptoms of a Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD).

29. The menstrual cycle is a complex biological process and is divided into four
(4) phases. What happens during ovulation?
A. A sperm fertilizes an egg.
B. The ovary releases an ovum.
C. A zygote becomes an embryo.
D. A follicle releases the hormone FSH.

Test Curator: Romeo A. Villarin DepEd-Caraga

School: Bunawan National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
30. Which of the following represents the correct order of events during the
menstrual cycle?

I II

III IV
Figure 5. The Menstrual Cycle
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A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, III, I, IV
C. II, III, IV, I
D. II, IV, III, I

31. Linda is experiencing blurred vision, weight loss, nausea and slow-healing
of sores or cuts. Eventually, she was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. This
happens when the body is not able to take up sugar (glucose) into its cells
and use it for energy. This results in a build-up of extra sugar in the
bloodstream. Considering the concept of feedback mechanism, what best
advice would you give to Linda?
A. If she smokes, she should quit.
B. She should monitor her blood glucose and blood pressure levels.
C. If she is overweight, she should lose weight and exercise regularly.
D. If prescribed by healthcare provider, she should take medication and
insulin, and closely follow recommendations on how and when to
take it.

32. Ben is walking along the beach in a hot summer day. The environmental
temperature is hotter than what his body is used to. How would his body
respond to regulate his internal body temperature in this situation?
A. Goose bump formation would be his body’s respond to the sudden
increase in temperature.
B. He would experience muscle contraction as it is the body’s usual
reaction to hot environment.
C. His body would use homeostatic mechanisms like sweating because
the environment is too hot.
D. He would experience shallow breathing in response to being exposed
in temperature hotter than the usual.

Test Curator: Romeo A. Villarin DepEd-Caraga

School: Bunawan National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
33. What type of chromosomal mutation is shown in the figure below?

Figure 6. Mutated DNA

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A. Deletion
B. Duplication
C. Inversion
D. Translocation

For question number 34, refer to Figure 7 below.

Figure 7. Genetic code

(Source: https://readbiology.com/wp-content/uploads/2019/05/GENETIC-CODE-CHART.png)

34. Which of the following order of bases shows the correct set of codes?
A. GGT – CCA – GGU – Glycine
B. CAT – GUA – CAU – Histidine
C. TGA – ACU – UGA – Threonine
D. CAG – CAG – GUC – Glutamine

Test Curator: Romeo A. Villarin DepEd-Caraga

School: Bunawan National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
35. Figure 8 shows a cross section of a portion of Earth’s crust that has not
been overturned. Letters A, B, C, and D represent sedimentary rock layers
that contain fossils.

Figure 8. Cross section of a portion of Earth’s crust (not drawn to scale)

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Which rock layer contains the oldest fossils?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

36. Many biologists believe that the number of differences between proteins of
different species indicates how long ago the species diverged from common
ancestors. Why do these biologists believe that humans, chimpanzees, and
gorillas diverged from a common ancestor only a few million years ago?
A. Fewer differences would mean a more recent common ancestor
because there has been less time to accumulate
mutations/variation.
B. Fewer differences would mean a more recent common ancestor
because there has been more time to accumulate
mutations/variation.
C. Fewer differences would mean a less recent common ancestor
because there has been less time to accumulate
mutations/variation.
D. Fewer differences would mean a less recent common ancestor
because there has been more time to accumulate
mutations/variation.

37. Which is a major concept included in Lamarck’s theory of evolution?

A. Artificial selection is the basis for evolution.
B. Change is the result of survival of the fittest.
C. Population size decreases the rate of evolution.
D. Body structure can change according to the actions of the
organism.

Test Curator: Romeo A. Villarin DepEd-Caraga

School: Bunawan National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
38. A biologist studying a natural population of mice and observes that in one
area the proportion of darker colored mice is greater than the proportion of
lighter colored mice. In another area, the opposite is true. He finds that
only the area with more dark mice has predators. Therefore, you
hypothesize that darker mice are favored in areas with predators, perhaps
because they are more difficult to see. If your hypothesis is true, what
would you expect to happen in the few generations after predators are
introduced to an area with a population of mice that previously did not
have predators?
A. The proportion of darker colored mice will increase.
B. The proportion of darker colored mice will decrease.
C. The proportion of darker colored mice will not change.
D. The predators will evolve to be able to better see the darker mice.

39. The food webs A and B, as shown in Figure 9, are in different locations.
Imagine if Leaf Hoppers died out in both locations. Which one of these is
the best prediction and explanation for the effect this would have on the
food webs?

Figure 9. Examples of food web

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pissa.html)

A. The effect would be greater in food web A because the Parasitic

Wasp has only one food source in web A.
B. The effect would be greater in food web A because the Parasitic
Wasp has several food sources in web A.
C. The effect would be greater in food web B because the Parasitic
Wasp has only one food source in web B.
D. The effect would be greater in food web B because the Parasitic
Wasp has several food sources in web B.

Test Curator: Romeo A. Villarin DepEd-Caraga

School: Bunawan National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
40. Which of the following gas laws states that the volume of a fixed amount of
gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at constant temperature?
A. Boyle’s Law
B. Charles’ Law
C. Ideal Gas Law
D. Combined Gas Law

41. Which is most likely to happen when a closed vessel filled with gas is
shaken for two minutes?
A. Pressure inside the vessel will increase.
B. Temperature inside the vessel will increase.
C. Both temperature and pressure inside the vessel will increase.
D. Temperature will decrease and the pressure inside the vessel will
increase.

42. A quantity of gas has a volume of 250 liters at 17 ˚C and 3 atm of pressure.
To what volume must the gas be increased for it to be under STP conditions?
A. 706 L
B. 750 L
C. 771 L
D. 784 L

43. Johannes would like to know how his friends always tell him that he looks
so much like his parents. He asked his Chemistry teacher about the
reason and accordingly, it has something to do with biomolecules
specifically nucleic acids and proteins. Based on the situation above, did
the teacher answer Johannes’ question correctly?
A. No. Johannes should have asked his biology teacher instead.
B. No. There is no direct link between biomolecules and inheritance
of genetic information from parents to offspring.
C. Yes. Inheritance of traits is directed by how nucleic acids code
specific proteins to be produced however inheritance only happens
in the first generation of offspring.
D. Yes. Nucleic acids are molecules that code for hereditary traits by
controlling sequences of amino acids in the production of proteins
for specific or unique traits.

Test Curator: Romeo A. Villarin DepEd-Caraga

School: Bunawan National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
 For items 44-45, refer to Figure 10 below.

Figure 10. Sample Nutritional Label

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44. Nutrition facts of a product is one of the minimum mandatory information

that should be labelled in all pre-packaged foods. Based on the data given
above, how many calories can you take if you consume the whole contents
of this product?
A. 110 calories
B. 125 calories
C. 250 calories
D. 500 calories

45. Based from the amount of calories per serving and amount of protein
indicated in the sample nutritional label, if each gram of protein is 10
calories, what percent of the calories comes from the protein?
A. 10 %
B. 20 %
C. 30 %
D. 40 %

46. What do you call the minimum amount of energy needed to start a chemical
reaction?
A. Bond energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Potential energy
D. Activation energy

Test Curator: Romeo A. Villarin DepEd-Caraga

School: Bunawan National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
 For item 47, refer to the given information below.

Carbon (C) combines with oxygen (O2) at low concentration to form carbon
monoxide (CO). Below is the chemical equation of the reaction. The mass of
1 carbon atom is 12.010 g while the mass of 1 oxygen atom is 15. 999 g.

C + O2 CO

47. What can you infer about the mass of the reactants and products? A. Mass
cannot be determined due to incomplete data.
B. Carbon monoxide would have greater mass than the mass of carbon
and oxygen.
C. The combined mass of carbon and oxygen is equal to the mass of
carbon monoxide.
D. The combined mass of carbon and oxygen is greater than the mass
of the carbon monoxide.

48. Which weighs more: a whole cookie or a cookie that has been broken and
crumbled?
A. Both cookies have no weight.
B. A whole cookie weighs more because the cookie is still intact.
C. They are equal because conservation of matter says that the sum of
the parts equals the whole.
D. A cookie that has been broken and crumbled weighs more because
the cookie had a physical change.

49. What do you call to an inhibitor that added to food products to slow down
the chemical reactions involved with food spoilage and extend the period in
which the food remains edible?
A. Preservatives
B. Microbial agents
C. Reaction inhibitors
D. Chemical inhibitors

50. Which of the following is the effect when you increase the concentration of
the reactants?
A. There is no reaction.
B. The reaction will stop.
C. The reaction will increase.
D. The reaction will decrease.

Test Curator: Romeo A. Villarin DepEd-Caraga

School: Bunawan National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
 Test Curator: Romeo A. Villarin DepEd-Caraga
School: Bunawan National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test