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PrepGenie GAMSAT Full Length Test

The document provides information about a full length GAMSAT exam, including its duration and structure. The exam consists of 3 sections, with Section I having 75 questions in 100 minutes, Section II having 2 questions in 60 minutes, and Section III having 110 questions in 170 minutes. It provides instructions on completing the exam, including only working on one section at a time, understanding directions before answering questions, and filling out the answer sheet.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

884 views77 pages

PrepGenie GAMSAT Full Length Test

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Rebekah

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

GAMSAT | FLT09 | QUESTION BOOKLET | Page | 0

PrepGenie
GAMSAT Full Length Exam Series

Test Booklet No. – 11208

Total Test Duration: 5 hours 30 minutes

This test consists of three sections:

Section I 75 questions 100 minutes

Section II 2 questions 60 minutes
Section III 110 questions 170 minutes

During the time span for a particular section, you may work only on that section. If you have finished solving
the section early, you may go back to questions within that section only. DO NOT GO BACK TO THE
PREVIOUS SECTION OR GO AHEAD TO THE FORTHCOMING SECTION.

Separate directions are provided at the beginning of each section and for each question type. Ensure that you
understand the directions before answering the questions.

There will be no break between Sections I and II. There will be a lunch break of one hour between Section II
and Section III.

Filling in the OMR sheet

1. Mark all your answers in the separate OMR sheet provided. Use a PENCIL ONLY and blacken the space
corresponding to the letter of the answer choice you have chosen. You should mark only one answer per
question.
2. Ensure that you darken and fill the space completely. If you have erased something then be sure that it is
completely erased. The computer may misinterpret it and you may end up losing marks.
3. Use the test booklet for the rough work. Do NOT make any stray marks on the OMR sheet.
4. The answer document to Section II can be found at the end of Section II. Use ink to complete this section.
5. Your score in GAMSAT is based on the total number of correct attempts. There is no penalty for any
incorrect answer or if the answer is left blank. So answer every question.

All rights reserved by Prepgenie.com. No parts of this booklet may be produced or utilised in any form without
the written permission from Prepgenie.com.
[For discussions and queries please email us at [email protected] ]
GAMSAT | FLT09 | QUESTION BOOKLET | Page | 1

[This page is intentionally left blank]

Section 1

Reasoning in Humanities and Social Sciences

Number of questions: 75
Allotted time: 100 minutes

Directions

1. You have 10 minutes perusal time.

2. You may take notes on the question paper during that time.

3. You may NOT make any mark on the OMR sheet during perusal.

4. At the end of 10 minutes, begin the exam.

5. Post-perusal, you have exactly 100 minutes to complete the exam.

All rights reserved by Prepgenie.com. No parts of this booklet may be produced or utilised in any form without a
written permission from Prepgenie.com.
[For discussions and queries please email us at [email protected]]
GAMSAT | FLT08 | QUESTION BOOKLET | Page | 3

Unit 1

Questions 1 – 5

In order to answer questions 1-5, the candidate must go through the following data.

BL, GO, SM and RO teach in the same school. They commute from office to their respective homes according
to the given pattern.

GO takes the 18.45 train from Central Station to reach home at Park Crossing. As RO‘s car is parked at the same
station, both GO and RO usually walk together to the central station. RO takes about 15 minutes to reach home
in Horh by car. The time to reach Horh by train would have been the same. GO arrives at Park Crossing 75 min
after BL gets to Horh. Like GO, SM takes the train, but prefers to board at 18.15 from Central Station. BL
usually travels by train with SM as far as Horh. SM takes three times more time than BL to reach home. Further
it is known that the time at which GO took the train is same as that of RO taking the car.

1 Who is most likely to arrive home first?

A GO
B BL
C RO
D SM

2 Who probably made the longest journey?

A BL
B GO
C RO
D SM

3 The likeliest ordering of the four persons in increasing order of time required by them to commute, is

A BL < RO < GO = SM.

B RO = BL < GO < SM.
C RO = BL < SM < GO.
D GO = SM < BL < RO.

4 How long does it take to go from SM‘s home station to Park Crossing?

A 45 minutes
B >30 minutes
C 15 minutes
D 105 minutes

5 If the information about the time taken by RO to reach home from the station has been mistyped and the
actual value is greater by 25 minutes, then what is the likeliest ordering of the four persons in decreasing
order of the time commuted?

A SM > GO > RO > BL

B GO > SM > RO > BL
C GO > SM > BL > RO
D GO > RO > SM > BL

Unit 2

Question 6

The passage has been taken from a newspaper article that talks about the implications of marriage on
children.

Marriage confers ―little if any benefit‖ in terms of a child‘s development, according to new research.

New research by the Institute for Fiscal Studies (IFS) has found ―little or no evidence‖ that marriage itself has
any effect on children‘s ―social or cognitive‖ development.

David Willetts, the Conservative thinker on families and now Higher Education Minister, argued that marriage
in Britain was in danger of becoming an exclusive middle-class institution – and action was needed to bolster it.
The idea is still floated by key Tories, such as Work and Pensions Secretary Iain Duncan Smith, but is opposed
by Lib Dems.

The work by the IFS accepts that those who marry tend to be relatively better educated and relatively better off.
But the institute points out: ―differences in outcomes between children whose parents are married and those who
cohabit may simply reflect these differences in other characteristics rather than be caused by marriage.‖

Ellen Greaves, research economist at the IFS, and one of the authors of the report, said: ―It is true that children
born to married couples are on average more cognitively and emotionally successful than children born to
cohabiting couples. But careful analysis shows that this largely reflects the differences between the types of
people who decide to get married and those who don‘t.‖

6 According to the Institute for Fiscal Studies (IFS), a child‘s development

A is dependent on his/her parents‘ education.

B is dependent on his/her parents‘ nature.
C depends on his/her parents‘ upbringing.
D does not depend on his/her parents‘ marital status.

Unit 3

Question 7

To answer question 7, study the following quote by William Blake.

7 ‗No bird soars too high, if he soars with his own wings.‘
William Blake

This statement suggests that

A possibilities are infinite for those who look for them.

B success is limitless for the self-made person.
C you cannot reach great heights without the contribution of others.
D you can only reach heights when you face competition from others.

Unit 4

Questions 8–11

For each of following questions, select the option from A - D that is closest in meaning to the given proverb.

8 A bird in the hand is worth two in the bush.

A Having something that is certain is better than taking risks for more.
B It is better to have two opportunities than one, just in case one is missed.
C Something obtained with great difficulty is worth the efforts taken for it.
D Having something is better than nothing.

9 One swallow does not make a summer.

A Exception proves the rule.

B A single instance does not indicate a trend.
C A single instance should not make any difference.
D The swallow is the harbinger of summer.

10 To travel hopefully is a better thing than to arrive.

A Travelling is a better option than ending the journey.

B Keep the hope alive.
C Travelling makes one hopeful.
D Hope and anticipation are often better than reality.

11 Mighty oaks from little acorns grow.

A As you sow, so shall you reap.

B Small things often lead to big things.
C Small things in life should not be avoided.
D Great things come from small beginnings.

Unit 5

Questions 12-15

The following passage has been taken from a journal about schizophrenia, mainly concerning the
implications of the disease in the later stages of life.

Comment 1

The number and proportion of older adults with schizophrenia will increase considerably in the coming decades.
Although a vast literature on schizophrenia among younger adults exists, much less is known about late-life
schizophrenia and its treatment. Schizophrenia is often thought of as a disorder affecting adolescents and young
adults, but the coming decades will bring about an unprecedented increase in the number and proportion of
elderly Americans with this disorder.

12 It can be concluded from Comment 1 that schizophrenia

A increases with age.

B prevails mostly in young adults and adolescents.
C mostly affects older adults than younger adults.
D affects all age groups.

Comment 2

Development of better antipsychotic compounds with improved efficacy and side effect profiles will reduce the
need for costly inpatient treatment. Treatment advances, including refinement of psychotherapeutic, non-
pharmacologic interventions, will facilitate an age-appropriate level of normal daily functioning as well as an
improved quality of life for both patients and their caregivers. Improved access to health care and to the
necessary community support services along with reduced social stigma will enable patients to join the
mainstream of society in a productive fashion.

13 Comment 2 argues the view that treatment advancements

A would result in the decrease in expenses of treatment of inpatients.

B would allow patients to overcome the social stigma usually associated with the disease.
C would aid the attainment of better quality of life for the patients.
D would result in better access to healthcare.

Comment 3

In the absence of more effective, safer, and affordable treatments, non-compliance with treatment will continue
to be a problem. The result will be an unacceptably high relapse rate, with a need for institutionalisation.
Meanwhile, managed care companies may make it harder to hospitalise patients. A continued lack of insurance
coverage for mental illnesses and further erosion of Medicare will lead to a decrease in the number of older
persons with schizophrenia in the health care system. Unfortunately, this decrease will be achieved through
increased mortality and perhaps an increase in patients in the criminal justice system. Neglect of research into
psychotherapeutic and other treatments will foster continued ostracism of elderly persons with schizophrenia
from the rest of the society.

14 The main point of concern in Comment 3 appears to be

A the increased isolation of older schizophrenic patients from the society.

B increased mortality rate among the patients suffering from schizophrenia.
C the refusal of treatment leading to institutionalisation of older patients.
D decrease in the insurance coverage for elderly persons with schizophrenia.

15 After comparing Comment 2 & Comment 3, it seems that

A both comments question the nature of treatment that is provided to elderly schizophrenic patients.
B both comments claim that treatment advancements is the only way of bringing older schizophrenic
patients within the framework of society.
C while Comment 2 hints at a dream scenario for schizophrenic patients, Comment 3 details how
things can turn into an absolute nightmare for them.
D unlike Comment 2, Comment 3 cites the difficulties faced by elderly schizophrenic patients.

Unit 6

Questions 16-17

The following cartoon refers to a high-profile wedding and the national hysteria that precedes it.

“Never mind. I’m sure the Royal Wedding will cheer us all up.”

16 This cartoon emphasises the notion that

A luxury can give us momentary relief.

B one should try to be happy for others.
C we prefer escaping from reality.
D the royal way of life fascinates us.

17 The humour of the cartoon is based on

A exaggeration.
B irony.
C understatement.
D sarcasm.

Unit 7

Questions 18-19

The following passage has been taken from a newspaper article on cigarette pack health labels.

Cigarette warning labels sprang from the best of intentions and, for decades, were tastefully done.

Now, the warnings have gotten extremely graphic.

New rules require that, by the fall of 2012, nine labels be rotated on the packs. One shows rotting teeth and
gums; another depicts bad lungs. A third has a smoker wearing an oxygen mask. The warnings, according to
The Associated Press, ―will take up the entire top half- both front and back- of a pack of cigarettes. They must
also appear in advertisements and constitute 20 percent of each ad.‖

The government is right to be concerned. Smoking causes a lot of health problems and often leads to an early
death. That‘s well-documented. And perhaps a strong anti-smoking effort is needed. After falling precipitously
for decades, the AP says, the percentage of Americans who smoke has held steady since 2004. But there might
be a more effective way of enticing people to ―kick the habit.‖

There are many logical, compelling medical reasons to stop smoking. If those were printed on cigarette packs,
they probably would be more effective than the graphic depictions that soon will be required.

The government is to be commended for its intentions but not necessarily for its judgment.

18 According to the passage, what is the most effective manner in which smokers can be convinced to kick
the habit?

A Printing cigarette warning labels on the cigarette packs

B Printing health issues related to smoking on cigarette packs
C Using graphics to make the images all the more compelling
D Using advertisements as a medium to bring awareness

19 Which of the following cannot be concluded for certain from the passage?

A The government is doing everything it can to convince smokers.

B The government still needs to take more steps to convince smokers.
C The government must evaluate every aspect associated with its decision.
D The government feels that it has done enough by shocking smokers.

Unit 8

Question 20 – 22

The passage below is a letter to the editor of a reputed newspaper.

There has been discussion this week about the benefits and risks of diagnostic and therapeutic medical radiation
(X-Rays, CT scans, cancer treatment); however, this has not given a very balanced view.

There is no doubt that interventions such as X-Rays, CT scans and radiation therapy in cancer treatment have
great benefit in diagnosing and treating the disease, but, like every other medical intervention including all the
drugs we are prescribed, there is also risk.

According to the Australian Radiation Protection and Nuclear Safety Agency, the average person in Australia
receives an annual dose of 1.5 mSv from natural background radiation, which includes cosmic radiation from
the sun, uranium and radon from the earth, and thorium, polonium and potassium radionuclides which are
naturally in the food and water we consume, and the average annual dose received from medical radiation is 0.8
mSv.

Compare this to an X-ray of the lumbar spine, a lumbar spine CT scan, and a whole body CT scan which give
doses of 2.0, 5.0 and 10.0 mSv respectively. In other words, a lumbar X-ray will expose us to as much radiation
as we would normally receive from the environment in a year. A lumbar CT scan would do twice as much.
According to the International Commission on Radiological Protection the amount of background and medical
radiation we receive is cumulative over a lifetime and contributes a small but a definitive percentage to our
overall lifetime risk of cancer, and that any additional exposure from any source carries additional risk.

Medical radiological intervention does have benefit but it also has risk, and we must be informed of both,
otherwise how do we make a fully informed choice?

20 The passage implies that medical radiations which are used for diagnostic and therapeutic purposes

A are beneficial and risky at the same time.

B have immense benefits in terms of treatment.
C have their risk factors far outweighing their benefits.
D have their beneficial effects far outweighing the risk.

21 According to the writer, the risk factors of medical radiological interventions mainly stem from the fact
that

A the risk factor overshadows the benefits that it has.

B the radiation received is greater than natural radiation.
C the amount of radiation received by the body is increased.
D it accentuates the overall lifetime risk of cancer.

22 The question at the end of the passage suggests the need to have

A knowledge of how much of radiation exposure can be considered to be highly risky.

B a fair idea about the overall risk involved in medical radiological procedures.
C adequate knowledge of both the benefits and risks of medical radiation.
D an understanding of the benefits of the radiations used for diagnostic and therapeutic purposes.

Unit 9

Question 23 – 24

The passage below has been taken from a website and talks about the language of love.

It‘s said that couples can finish each other‘s sentences after they‘ve been in love for a long time, but maybe it
was their similar way of speaking that brought them together from the start. New research shows that we are
attracted to people who use language comparable to our own. Examining speech and style of writing, experts
noticed that people are not only more attracted to, but are also more likely to stay in a relationship with someone
who talks like them.

Though previous research has shown that people are attracted to others with similar physical and personality
traits, this study is the first to look specifically at language. In one part of the study, subjects were put in a speed
date scenario. Disproportionately, speed daters who had similar speech patterns wanted to go out on another
date. The study also looked at couples already in relationships. Partners who utilised similar vocabulary were
significantly more likely to still be dating several months later.

Since it makes sense that people want a companion who speaks in a similar manner. Forget French and Italian,
the real romance language is whatever the object of your affections speaks.

23 Which of the following tends to summarise the topic given in the passage?

A Importance of communication in a relationship

B The importance of language in a relationship
C The influence of language on relationships
D Communication‘s ability to strengthen relationships

24 According to recent research, what is it that attracts a person to someone in the first place?

A Interest in similar subject matters

B The ability to understand each other‘s thought process
C Similarity in physical and personality traits
D Use of vocabulary similar to each other

Unit 10

Questions 25 – 27

The data given below deals with three kinds of people who are judged on the basis of their honesty.

In a village there are three kinds of people – one who always tells the truth, one who always tells a lie and the
opportunist who sometime lies and sometime tells the truth. There is no other way to determine who is who
unless one asks them an intelligent question. Assume that a person meets three villagers X, Y and Z, one
belonging to each of the kind and starts asking them questions.

25 When asked ―who is the eldest‖ X said he is the eldest. Y said Z is the eldest and Z said X is the eldest.
Therefore, the eldest must be

A either Y or Z.
B either X or Y.
C either X or Z.
D only Z.

26 If the person comes to know that X is the opportunist then the eldest

A must be X.
B must be Y.
C must be Z .
D cannot be determined.

27 Which of the following cannot be true?

A Y cannot be the youngest.

B X cannot be the youngest.
C Y cannot be the opportunist.
D X cannot be the liar.

Unit 11

Questions 28

In order to answer question 28, the candidates must go through the statements given below.

Consider the following two statements to be true if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
Then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements.

Statement I: All medical practitioners are extroverts.

Statement II: Some wise men are extroverts.

28 Select the correct alternative from the following conclusions.

A All medical practitioners are wise men.

B All wise men are medical practitioners.
C Some extroverts are wise men.
D All extroverts are medical practitioners.

Unit 12

Questions 29 and 30

Questions are based on the table below that indicates what percent of the population receives what percent of
wealth in 17 Third World and 11 Western World countries.

29 It can be determined from the data provide in the table that

A Argentina is the richest of the Third World nations listed.

B Brazil more equitably distributes its income than Australia does.
C Turkey has the largest number of poor people of all countries listed.
D income is more equitably distributed in Western than in Third World countries.

30 The table would have provide a more accurate comparison of income distribution in the countries listed if

A we knew the income levels of the countries included in each list.

B the data on income distribution by country were all from the same time period.
C the table provided raw population numbers for each country and category listed.
D an agency less biased than the World Bank had provided the data.

Unit 13

Question 31–35

The following comments have been taken from a journal highlighting the issue of gender discrimination
against women.

Comment 1

Attitudes, beliefs and practices that serve to exclude women are often deeply entrenched, and in many instances
loosely associated with cultural, social and religious norms. Surveys, opinion polls and case studies provide a
good indication of the prevalence of gender discrimination in many countries. A Gallup Poll conducted in five
Latin American countries (Argentina, Brazil, Colombia, El Salvador and Mexico) found that half of the
respondents believed society favours men over women. In Brazil, only 20 per cent of respondents, both men and
women, believe that society treats both sexes equally, while more than half of respondents in that country, and
in neighbouring Argentina, consider that women and men do not enjoy equal job opportunities. Although these
results are drawn from a small sample, they may well be indicative of a broader recognition of gender
discrimination in society.

31 From Comment 1, it can be concluded that gender discrimination

A extends itself as a worldwide phenomenon.

B is most common in the professional world.
C is restricted to Latin American countries only.
D tends to find mixed responses in society.

Comment 2

Examining social attitudes on specific issues, such as access to education and income-generating opportunities
for women, reveals even more clearly the extent of gender discrimination and how it compares across countries.
The World Values Survey reveals that an alarmingly large number of men who often hold power in the
household allocation of resources for vital services such as education and health care, believe that university
education is more important for a boy than for a girl.

32 Comment 2 emphasises that the level of gender discrimination across various countries can be measured
by

A examining attitudes in households where men hold power of authority as decision makers.
B analysing the degree of basic educational facilities made available to women across nations.
C evaluating society‘s attitude towards the educational and financial empowerment of women.
D analysing the nature and feasibility of income-generating opportunities available to women.

Comment 3

Around two thirds of male respondents in Bangladesh indicate that university education for boys should be
prioritised over that of girls – an opinion echoed by around one third or more of male respondents from the
Islamic Republic of Iran, Mexico and Uganda, among others. In some countries, men‘s opinions on this
particular issue were less discriminatory, with only 1 out of every 10 male respondents in China and less than 1
out of every 13 male respondents in the United States holding the same view. These views on education are
largely mirrored in attitudes to women‘s work and participation in politics. More than 80 per cent of men in
seven countries surveyed in the Middle East and North Africa believe that when jobs are scarce, men have more
right to work than women, and that they make better political leaders than women. In other regions, the
proportion of men holding these views is lower, but still significant.

33 Comment 3 argues that the attitude of men towards women‘s education was

A found to be inconsistent across countries.

B found to be very discriminatory across countries.
C found to be discriminatory in African countries.
D found to be inconsistent in the United States and China.

34 In the wake of the scarcity of jobs, the opinion that men have more right to work was found to be
common

A in the Middle Eastern countries surveyed.

B in the North-African countries surveyed.
C in all the countries surveyed.
D in countries from various continents.

35 By analysing Comments 1, 2 and 3, it can be concluded that

A gender discrimination prevails across countries.

B men universally view women as being less important.
C men are biased against women liberation.
D the society always favours men over women.

Unit 14

Questions 36 – 40

The following excerpts deal with various people‟s personal views on euthanasia, or the medically-approved
administration of voluntary death.

Section 1

I solidly approve of the idea that competent individuals suffering unbearably should have the right to end their
lives when their quality of life is personally unacceptable and their future holds only hopelessness and misery.
Such a right should include when to die, where, and how. It is quite obvious that some people think it immoral
as defined by their religious faith. All I can do for such people is refer them to the U.S. Constitutional
Amendment # 1.

36 Which of the following seems to be least influential in leading the speaker to form the opinion?

A His compassion for a fellow human being

B His respect for the codes of law of the country
C His concern for religious beliefs
D His sense of duty as a human being

Section 2

The comments below relate to the question: Should euthanasia or assisted suicide for terminally disabled
persons be legalised?

Comment 1

If only death could be treated as a matter of celebration and not tragedy, or shedding tears or feeling sadness for
the person. We as humans have created a lot of miseries for ourselves through no external pressures or fault of
nature.

Comment 2

Euthanasia or assisted suicide is not a private act. Rather, they involve one person facilitating the death of
another. This is a matter of very public concern since it can lead to tremendous abuse, exploitation and erosion
of care for the most vulnerable people among us.

Comment 3

One of the most important developments in recent years is the increasing emphasis placed on health care
providers to contain costs. In such a climate, euthanasia or assisted suicide certainly could become a means of
cost containment.

Comment 4

A person is suffering unbearably. The situation is hopeless and the doctors are doing all sorts of ―treatments‖
which are painful and do not seem to help very much. There are a lot of such persons and some simply cannot
stand it anymore and want out. Why shouldn‘t these people be helped?

Comment 5

Problems cannot be solved by getting rid of the people to whom the problems happen. The more difficult but
humane solution to human suffering is to address the problems.

Comment 6

Euthanasia is a rejection of the importance and value of human life. People who support euthanasia often say
that it is already considered permissible to take human life under some circumstances such as self defence - but
they miss the point that when one kills for self defence they are saving innocent life - either their own or
someone else‘s. With euthanasia no one‘s life is being saved - life is only taken.

Comment 7

Human beings are independent biological entities, with the right to take and carry out decisions about
themselves. Providing the greater good of society doesn‘t prohibit this. Allied to this is a firm belief that death is
the end. Human beings have the right to die when and how they want to.

Comment 8

Just as public policy does not grant a ―right‖ to be killed to a person who is suicidal, neither should it permit
people to be killed because they are in despair over their physical or emotional condition. Proponents of
euthanasia fail to recognise that virtually all pain can be eliminated or that – in those rare cases where it can‘t be
totally eliminated – it can be reduced significantly if proper treatment is provided.

37 Which of the comments directly opposes Comment 5?

A Comment 1
B Comment 4
C Comment 3
D Comment 2

38 Which of the following can be termed as the best rebuttal to Comment 6?

A Comment 1
B Comment 4
C Comment 7
D Comment 8

39 Which of the following best sums up the relationship between Comments 4 and 5?

A While Comment 4 directly advocates the issue of euthanasia, Comment 5 makes a neutral
statement.
B Both Comment 4 and Comment 5 debate on the importance of human life and the right to live.
C Comment 4 conforms to the idea of euthanasia while Comment 5 refutes it completely.
D Comment 4 is more of a question while Comment 5 is more of a solution to the question.

40 Comment 2 implies that

A euthanasia and assisted suicide are unrestricted acts.

B euthanasia entails many moral and ethical issues.
C euthanasia should be a private act because of its loopholes.
D euthanasia is risky for those in need of assistance.

Unit 15

Question 41 – 43

The following is an extract from Afghan-American author Khaled Hosseini‟s novel „A Thousand Splendid
Suns‟.

Jalil had three wives and nine children, nine legitimate children, all of whom were strangers to Mariam. He was
one of Herat‘s wealthiest men. He owned a cinema, which Mariam had never seen, but at her insistence Jalil had
described it to her. On Tuesdays, Jalil said one day, kids got free ice cream at the concession stand. Nana smiled
demurely when he said this. She waited until he had left the kolba, before snickering and saying, ―The children
of strangers get ice cream. What do you get, Mariam? Stories of ice cream.‖

In addition to the cinema, Jalil owned land in Karokh, land in Farah, three carpet stores, a clothing shop, and a
black 1956 Buick Roadmaster. He had a cook, a driver, and three housekeepers.

Nana had been one of the housekeepers. Until her belly began to swell. When that happened, Nana said, the
collective gasp of Jalil‘s family sucked the air out of Herat. His in-laws swore blood would flow. The wives
demanded that he throw her out. Nana‘s own father, who was a lowly stone carver in the nearby village of Gul
Daman, disowned her. Disgraced, he packed his things and boarded a bus to Bran, never to be seen or heard
from again.

―Sometimes,‖ Nana said early one morning, as she was feeding the chickens outside the kolba, ―I wish my
father had had the stomach to sharpen one of his knives and do the honourable thing. It might have been better
for me.‖ She tossed another handful of seeds into the coop, paused, and looked at Mariam. ―Better for you too,
maybe. It would have spared you the grief of knowing that you are what you are. But he was a coward, my
father. He didn‘t have the dil, the heart, for it.‖

Jalil didn‘t have the dil either, Nana said, to do the honourable thing. To stand up to his family, to his wives and
in-laws, and accept responsibility for what he had done. Instead, behind closed doors, a face-saving deal had
quickly been struck. The next day, he had made her gather her few things from the servants‘ quarters, where
she‘d been living, and sent her off. ―You know what he told his wives by way of defence? That I forced myself
on him. That it was my fault. Didi? You see? This is what it means to be a woman in this world.‖

Nana put down the bowl of chicken feed. She lifted Mariam‘s chin with a finger.

―Look at me, Mariam.‖

Reluctantly, Mariam did.

Nana said, ―Learn this now and learn it well, my daughter: Like a compass needle that points north, a man‘s
accusing finger always finds a woman. Always. You remember that, Mariam.‖

41 Which of the following best describes Nana‘s feeling towards Jalil?

A Aversion
B Aggravation
C Annoyance
D Frustration

42 Nana‘s experience enabled her to believe that she has gained some insight into

A the reason why her father left her and never saw her again.
B why Jalil could not stand up to his family to support her.
C the universal attitude of men towards women.
D why she and her daughter faced disgrace.

43 In the passage, Jalil comes across as

A spiteful and malicious.

B selfish and indifferent.
C selfish and spineless.
D astute and cunning.

Unit 16

Questions 44–46

The material in this unit has been adapted from comments which appeared in a leading newspaper in
response to the report outlined below.

Report:

A rash of fashion images depicting models smoking or holding cigarettes or cigars is being investigated for
possible breaches of the Tobacco Advertising Prohibition Act. The act prohibits ‗‗any picture that gives
publicity to or otherwise promotes or is intended to promote smoking‘‘. In recent years, despite aggressive anti-
smoking lobbies and regulations in many countries, fashion stylists have continued to use smoking imagery to
shock, or evoke historic ideas of glamour or power.

Comment 1

It‘s disappointing that they‘re promoting highly aspiring products with a product that kills up to half of users.
You have to ask, ‗Would [the images] be any less appealing or beautiful without the cigarette? At the same time,
a lack of malicious intention won‘t negate the problem. It might be some stylist not aware of the law but, that‘s
not an excuse. An industry-wide initiative to discourage glamourised smoking images is of imperative need.
Tobacco sponsors should also be deemed unacceptable partners in bid to stop the allurement often associated
with using smoking images.

44 According to the comment, the main reason to undertake an industry-wide initiative to discourage
smoking images stems from the fact that

A the glamourisation of smoking, which actually kills smokers, is absolutely unacceptable.

B people encouraging smoking images might have a malicious intention.
C the charismatic association of glamour with smoking needs to be discouraged.
D the stylist often might be unaware of the implications of smoking images.

Comment 2

It can be part of their creative process. It‘s not meant to promote a lifestyle choice, but there‘s a very fine line.
We do have to be mindful, though, that we‘re a platform of creative expression. A designer trying to create a
mood, or an era when people smoked freely, might be part of that expression.

45 According to Comment 2, which of the following is a decisive factor in the debate over smoking images?

A The perspective of the designer

B A determinant of lifestyle choice
C How the youngsters perceive it
D An expression of creativity

Comment 3

It comes down to this. People showing images of people smoking are walking a tightrope because if in any way
[it] seems to glamorise smoking, it could be seen to be in breach [of the act]. Artistically, they are often
beautiful images but they can be misleading, especially for a younger market.‘‘

46 The tone of the comment can be best described as

A ambiguous and indifferent.

B analytical and conclusive.
C cynical but indifferent.
D sceptical and disapproving.

Unit 17

Questions 47 – 49

Questions 47– 49 are based on the passage below adapted from Danielle Dellorto‟s „Study shows risk with
sleeping pills – conclusions criticised‟ in which researchers argue that their findings are reliable despite all
criticism against the study.

Common sleep medications may be linked to a shorter lifespan, according to a study released on Monday in the
British Medical Journal.

Researchers compared 10,500 adults who took prescription strength sleep aids with people who did not. Those
who popped just 5 to 18 sleeping pills during the course of a year had a 3.5 times increased risk of early death
compared to those who took none. The increase jumped five-fold for people who took three sleeping pills or
more per week.

"After controlling for several factors, we saw the risk rose in tandem with the more doses people consumed,"
says Dr. Daniel Kripke, study author and psychiatrist at Viterbi Family Sleep Center in San Diego. "The
mortality hazard was very high; it even surprised us."

But one sleep expert not affiliated with the study immediately sought to debunk the conclusions, saying it leads
to unnecessary confusion to consumers.

"It is inadequate to try to associate someone who took as few as 5 pills a year at an increased risk of early
death," says Dr Russell Rosenberg, chairman of National Sleep Foundation and director of the Atlanta School of
Sleep Medicine.

The control group participants did not suffer from sleep problems, and the study did not control for psychiatric
disorders. ‗Who knows how medications to control a wide range of mental health issues, from depression to
schizophrenia, interact with medications to induce sleep?‘ is the question Rosenberg poses.

Despite the limitations, researchers analysed data several different ways – taking into account age, sex, weight
and lifestyle – and the outcome remained the same. "More research is needed to know exactly why sleeping pills
are causing early death, but we believe the risks of taking sleeping pills outweigh the benefits," says Kripke.

In addition to risk of early death, participants taking sleeping pills had higher rates of asthma, cardiovascular
disease, obesity and high blood pressure. Researchers weren‘t able to conclude if the sleeping pills specifically
contributed to the increase.

47 Based on the description of the study and its participants we can safely infer that

A study participants were randomly selected for the test and control groups.
B participants‘ death rates were consistent regardless of their age.
C participants died in the course of the study as a result of consuming sleeping pills.
D some participants had exacerbating conditions the study overlooked.

48 Which of the factors below actually suggests that sleeping pill use is linked to an increased risk of early
death?

A The more doses people took, the more their risk of death increased.
B 3.5% of study participants who took sleeping pills died in the course of the study.
C Findings remained the same despite gender, age, weight or life-style.
D The researcher contesting the methodology of the study is likely biased due to his position.

49 Which of the following scenarios below, if true, would compromise study findings?

A Researchers have determined that sleep medications contribute to the increased rates of asthma,
cardiovascular disease, obesity, and high blood pressure among study participants.
B Those who take sleep medication metabolise medications the same way as those who do not take
sleep medication.
C Some participants taking sleeping pills also took medications for psychiatric disorders.
D If none of the participants in the study suffered from sleep problems.

Unit 18

Questions 50–52

The following chart is taken from the news article „Politics as Profession? Naaah!‟ by Karishma Upadhyay.
These results were based on a survey conducted by Bombay Times and AC-Nielsen ORG-MARG.

2% Image of politicians
4%
3% 2% Corrupt
3%
Lazy
Criminals
9%
Hardworking
Action oriented
12% Can't say
65%
Sincere
Honest

Leadership studies have shown effective leaders must possess a combination of qualities such as: honesty, a
belief in the mission of what they are doing, an ability to inspire others to work, think, and believe in
themselves, as well as intelligence: emotional, social, and academic.

50 Taking into account the definition given above, what percentage of the above pie chart reflects those that
would make the most effective leaders?

A 6%
B 12%
C 14%
D 26%

Student input into politics is the main focus of Upadhyay‘s article. The following are two comments by student
participants.

―It‘s a trap. If you don‘t take an interest you aren‘t patriotic and if you do, you are made to feel sorry for the
country and yourself. As a child, I always wanted to become a politician but, as I became older, I realised that a
prerequisite of being a politician is to be ready to compromise on your ideals‖ - Neelesh Thakur.

―I agree that we need new, dedicated people in politics. But again, voters should take responsibility of who is in
power because either by voting or abstaining they have helped the individual win. Everyone wants things to be
right but they couldn‘t do anything to make things right‖ - Suresh Oberoi.

51 How does the following comic adequately reflect Thakur‘s comment?

A Like Thakur, this student believes that democracy represents freedom and fairness.
B Like Thakur, this student believes that their vote makes a difference in politics.
C Like Thakur, this student is an anarchist who is challenging political authority.
D Like Thakur, this student is apathetic about their ability to influence political change.

52 How does the following comic adequately reflect Oberoi‘s comment?

A The student believes aggression makes a difference in politics.

B The student is angry and wants action for political change.
C The student is himself taking action to bring about political change.
D The student is angry at the apathy of those who do not vote.

Unit 19

Questions 53 – 55

Questions 53 to 55 are based on the following excerpt from „Health Benefits of Cayenne Pepper‟.

What are the health benefits of cayenne pepper? How do cayenne peppers help you, if at all, with your weight
loss diet regime?

The purported health benefits of cayenne are almost too unbelievable, but its reputation keeps growing among
medical researchers as well as alternative health aficionados and deservedly so.

It can do everything from killing cancer cells in the prostate, lungs, and pancreas, to immediately stopping a
heart
attack within 30 seconds.

Let‘s get into some of the specifics of cayenne pepper benefits. Cayenne pepper (or cayanne pepper as it‘s
sometimes spelled) increases metabolism by immediately influencing the venous structure.

It is nothing short of amazing with its effects on the circulatory system as it feeds the vital elements into the cell
structure of capillaries, veins, arteries and helps adjust blood pressure to normal levels.

Yes, cayenne pepper for high blood pressure is certainly one of its core uses, but cayenne cleans the arteries as
well, helping to rid the body of the bad LDL cholesterol and triglycerides. Considering that heart disease is the
number one killer in America, this is significant.

Cayenne is also great for the stomach and the intestinal tract. It stimulates the peristaltic motion of the intestines
and aids in assimilation and elimination. When taken internally, it warms the body and has even been used by
some herbalist doctors to help heal and rebuild flesh due to frostbite.

Notwithstanding its hot taste, paradoxically it is actually superb for rebuilding the tissue in the stomach,
facilitating healing with stomach and intestinal ulcers. Cayenne pepper for ulcers is not something most would
have considered but I can testify to that remarkable capability of cayenne.

53 What function does cayenne pepper play in digestion?

A It expels gases from the stomach and liver, relieving pressure in the bowels.
B It mashes up food and liquids in the bowels, giving the stomach nutrition.
C It breaks down nutrients in the stomach and assimilates them into other organs.
D It helps move food through the bowels, and helps with nutrient absorption.

54 How does cayenne pepper help those who suffer from high blood pressure? Note: Having high blood
pressure means that a person has a higher chance of having a heart attack.

A By breaking down bad cholesterol and removing it from the arteries

B By eliminating the amount of LDL fat in the veins of the body
C By assimilating LDL cholesterol and triglycerides into the body
D By scrubbing out the arteries and veins, as well as the heart and lung muscles

The following excerpt is from Shirley‟s „Health Benefits of Cayenne Pepper: Section “Heart.”‟

Cayenne has been known to stop heart attacks within 30 seconds. For example, when a 90-year-old man in
Oregon had a severe heart attack, his daughter was able to get Cayenne extract into his mouth. He was
pronounced dead by the medics, but within a few minutes, he regained consciousness. On the way to the
hospital, he remained in a semi-conscious state, but the daughter kept giving him the Cayenne extract. By the
time they got to the hospital, he had fully recovered and wanted to go home and mow the lawn. The doctor
asked what she had given him, as he said it was the closest thing to a miracle he had ever seen.

Capsicum (cayenne pepper) is said to be unequal for its ability to boost circulation and increase heart action.
Capsicum exerts a variety of desirable actions on the entire cardiovascular system. It has the extraordinary
ability to enhance cardiovascular performance while actually lowering blood pressure. Capsicum has an
energising effect on the entire system. It has traditionally been used for overcoming fatigue and restoring
stamina and vigour. It is a natural stimulant without the threatening side effects (palpitations, hyper-activity or
rise in blood pressure) of most other stimulating agents.

55 Both articles discuss the miraculous use of cayenne in treating heart attacks. What primary action/s
occurs in the body when capsicum is used for heart attack patients?

A It helps the heart muscles to work and in doing so, increases the movement of blood throughout the
body.
B It helps the heart and lung muscles to work effectively, which increases stamina and vigour in the
body.
C It dilates the heart muscles, letting more blood through, so that oxygen circulation in the body
increases.
D It relaxes the lung muscles aiding the body to gain larger intakes of oxygen.

Unit 20

Questions 56–58

The following quotes are taken from the book „101 Cataclysms‟ by Rachael Hale.

A cat has nine lives.

For three he plays,
For three he strays,
And for the last three he stays.

Thou art the Great Cat.

The avenger of the Gods
And the judge of words,
And the president of the sovereign chiefs
And the governor of the holy Circle;
Thou art indeed… the Great Cat.

Even a cat is a lion in her own lair.

Dogs believe they are human.

Cats believe they are God.

If man could be crossed with a

Cat it would improve man, but
It would deteriorate the cat.

After dark all cats are leopards.

When she walked… she stretched

Out long and thin like
A little tiger, and held her head
High to look over the grass as if
She were treading the jungle.

56 According to this collection of quotes, what single word would best describe a cat?

A Superior
B Savage
C Affectionate
D Graceful

57 What mood seems to apply to each of these quotes?

A Happiness
B Fear
C Willingness
D Mystery

58 As suggested by this collection of quotes, in what way do most people view cats?

A Cats are viewed with fear and trepidation.

B Cats are viewed in something of a religious light.
C Cats are believed to have magical powers.
D Cats have an evil streak and can be used as weapons.

Unit 21

Questions 59 – 60

Given below in the table are instructions for filling and emptying water from three different bottles.

There are three bottles of water A, B and C whose capacities are five litres, three litres and two litres
respectively. For transferring water from one bottle to another and to drain out the bottles, there exists a piping
system. The flow through these pipes is computer controlled. The computer that controls the flow through these
pipes can be fed with three types of instructions:

Instruction Explanation of instruction

Fill bottle labelled X from the water in bottle labelled Y, where the remaining capacity of X
FILL (X, Y)
is less than or equal to the amount of water in Y
Empty out the water in bottle labelled X into the bottle labelled Y, where the amount of water
EMPTY(X,Y)
in X is less than or equal to the remaining capacity of Y
DRAIN(X) Drain out all the water contained in bottle labelled X

Initially, A is full of water, and B and C are empty.

After executing a sequence of three instructions, bottle A contains one litre of water. The first and third of these
instructions are shown below:
First instruction: FILL (C, A)
Third instruction: FILL (C, A)

59 Which of the following statements about the second instruction is true?

A The second instruction is FILL (B, A).

B The second instruction is EMPTY (C, B).
C The second instruction transfers water from B to C.
D The second instruction involves using the water in bottle A.

60 Consider the same sequence of three instructions and the same initial state mentioned above. Three more
instructions are added at the end of the above sequence to have A contain four litres of water. In
this total sequence of instructions, the fourth one is DRAIN (A). This is the only DRAIN instruction in
the entire sequence. At the end of the execution of the above sequence, how much water (in litres) is
contained in C?

A 1
B 2
C 3
D 0

Unit 22

Questions 61 – 63

The following passage talks about the effects of depression in men, women and children.

Men often experience depression differently than women and may have different ways of coping with the
symptoms. Men are more likely to acknowledge having fatigue, irritability, loss of interest in once-pleasurable
activities, and sleep disturbances, whereas women are more likely to admit to feelings of sadness, worthlessness
and/or excessive guilt.

Men are more likely than women to turn to alcohol or drugs when they are depressed, or become frustrated,
discouraged, irritable, angry and sometimes abusive. Some men throw themselves into their work to avoid
talking about their depression with family or friends, or engage in reckless, risky behaviour. And even though
more women attempt suicide, many more men die by suicide in the United States.

Meanwhile, scientists and doctors have begun to take seriously the risk of depression in children. Research has
shown that childhood depression often persists, recurs and continues into adulthood, especially if it goes
untreated. The presence of childhood depression also tends to be a predictor of more severe illnesses in
adulthood.

A child with depression may pretend to be sick, refuse to go to school, cling to a parent, or worry that a parent
may die. Older children may sulk, get into trouble at school, be negative and irritable, and feel misunderstood.
Because these signs may be viewed as normal mood swings typical of children as they move through
developmental stages, it may be difficult to accurately diagnose a young person with depression.

Before puberty, boys and girls are equally likely to develop depressive disorders. By age 15, however, girls are
twice as likely as boys to have experienced a major depressive episode. Depression in adolescence comes at a
time of great personal change— when boys and girls are forming an identity distinct from their parents,
grappling with gender issues and emerging sexuality, and making decisions for the first time in their lives.
Depression in adolescence frequently co-occurs with other disorders such as anxiety, disruptive behaviour,
eating disorders or substance abuse. It can also lead to increased risk for suicide.

61 From the information given in the passage, it can be concluded that

A men are more capable of coping with any emotional turmoil than women.
B men are less capable of coping with depression or frustration than women.
C men have wider options of ventilating their frustration and depression in comparison to women.
D men more often resort to addictions to bear the effects of depression as compared to women.

62 What is the reason for the author to say that ―it may be difficult to accurately diagnose a young person
with depression?‖

A Older children tend to sulk, keep to themselves and they also portray a negative attitude.
B Depression and mood swings are attributed to the developmental changes during puberty.
C Girls are twice as likely as boys to experience major periods of depression.
D Older children tend to get into troubles and are often misinterpreted for it.

63 According to the passage, the most drastic impact of depression among young children can be cited to be

A substance abuse. B eating disorders.

C suicidal tendency. D extreme anxiety.

Unit 23

Questions 64 – 65

The following images are related to the job scenario.

Illustration I

„Are you actively seeking job rejection letters?‟

64 The cartoon explores the notion that

A unemployment can be extremely detrimental to a man‘s spirits.

B jobs are so scarce that there is little chance of getting one.
C there is no useful help available from Job Centres.
D Job Centres fail to do their jobs in the wake of recession.

Illustration II

65 In what way does the cartoon attempt to make light of unemployment?

A By suggesting that unemployed people need family-planning advice

B By suggesting that unemployment is more long-term than people presume
C By suggesting that work benefits are good enough to live comfortably off them
D By suggesting that the elderly (grandparents) are more likely to be unemployed

Unit 24

Question 66 – 69

The following two passages highlight the issue of global warming.

Passage 1

No one can say exactly what it looks like when a planet takes ill, but it probably looks a lot like Earth. Never
mind what you‘ve heard about global warming as a slow-motion emergency that would take decades to play out.
Suddenly and unexpectedly, the crisis is upon us.

It certainly looked that way last week as the atmospheric bomb that was Cyclone Larry- a Category 4 storm with
wind bursts that reached 125 mph.- exploded through north-eastern Australia. It certainly looked that way last
year as curtains of fire and dust turned the skies of Indonesia orange, thanks to drought-fuelled blazes sweeping
the island nation. It certainly looks that way as sections of ice the size of small states calve from the
disintegrating Arctic and Antarctic. And it certainly looks that way as the sodden wreckage of New Orleans
continues to moulder, while the waters of the Atlantic gather themselves for a new hurricane season just two
months away. Disasters have always been with us and surely always will be. But when they hit this hard and
come this fast - when the emergency becomes commonplace - something has gone grievously wrong. That
something is global warming.

66 In the first paragraph of the passage, the author is

A estimating the magnitude of catastrophe triggered by global warming.

B expressing his fear of facing the crisis caused due to global warming.
C hinting that global warming has already caused irreversible damage.
D stating that the effect of global warming is greater than his anticipations.

67 In the passage, the tone of the author can be best described as

A pragmatic. B factual.
C pessimistic. D forlorn.

Passage 2

The image of Earth as an organism- famously dubbed Gaia by environmentalist James Lovelock- has probably
been overworked, but that‘s not to say the planet can‘t behave like a living thing, and these days, it‘s a living
thing fighting a fever. From heat waves to storms, to floods, to fires, to massive glacial melts, the global climate
seems to be crashing around us. Scientists have been calling this shot for decades. This is precisely what they
have been warning would happen if we continued pumping greenhouse gases into the atmosphere, trapping the
heat that flows in from the sun and raising global temperatures.

Environmentalists and lawmakers spent years shouting at one another about whether the grim forecasts were
true, but in the past five years or so, the serious debate has quietly ended. Global warming, even most sceptics
have concluded, is the real deal, and human activity has been causing it. If there was any consolation, it was that
the glacial pace of nature would give us decades or even centuries to sort out the problem.

68 According to the passage, the debate on global warming has quietly ended as

A environmentalists realised that debating over the issue was of no use.

B forecasts about the effects of global warming have turned into a reality.
C recurring environmental hazards proved the futility of such debates.
D environmentalists are now more concerned about global warming.

69 In the first line of the passage, the description of Earth as an organism implies

A the vulnerability of the Earth. B the mortality of the Earth.

C the diseased condition of the Earth. D the shortcomings of the Earth.

Unit 25

Questions 70 - 71

The data provided in the table below deals with the Mohs scale of hardness for different minerals.

The Mohs scale of mineral hardness lists minerals in an ordinal manner depending on their ability to scratch
other minerals, an ability that depends on their hardness. The higher the number of a mineral on the Mohs scale,
the harder it is. A given mineral can scratch minerals lower on the scale and will itself be scratched by higher
minerals. Diamond is the hardest known metal. No two minerals are of the same hardness.

Hardness Mineral
1(softest) Talc
2
3 Calcite
4
5 Apatite
6
7
8 Topaz
9
10 (hardest)

Further it is known that:

 Fluorite scratches talc;

 Orthoclase scratches Gypsum;
 Quartz is softer than Corundum; and
 Orthoclase is a mineral of hardness 6.

70 From the above information, which of the following must be true?

A Corundum scratches Gypsum. B Fluorite is scratched by Calcite.

C Topaz scratches Corundum. D Diamond is scratched by Apatite.

71 Which piece of additional information, if true, would enable us to deduce that Gypsum has a hardness of
2?

A Diamond scratches Quartz. B Fluorite has a hardness of 4.

C Talc is scratched by Orthoclase. D Topaz scratches Gypsum.

Unit 26

Questions 72 – 75

Questions 72 to 75 are based on the quotations below in which various dignitaries speculate about the
importance and function of good taste.

I Good taste is the first refuge of the non-creative. It is the last-ditch stand of the artist.
Marshall McLuhan

II It is good taste, and good taste alone, that possesses the power to sterilise and is always the first handicap
to any creative functioning.
Salvador Dali

III There is a fine but critical line between censorship and good taste and moral responsibility.
Steven Spielberg

IV When it comes to art, it is more important to be human than to have good taste.
Bertolt Brecht

V Genius creates, and taste preserves. Taste is the good sense of genius; without taste, genius is only
sublime folly.
Alexander Pope

VI Those Dutchmen had hardly any imagination or fantasy, but their good taste and their scientific
knowledge of composition were enormous.
Vincent Van Gogh

72 Which of the six dignitaries concur in their views of good taste?

A McLuhan and Spielberg B Spielberg, Brecht and Pope

C Dali, Brecht and Van Gogh D McLuhan, Dali, and Van Gogh

73 Spielberg‘s statement suggests that

A moral responsibility is the driving force behind good taste and censorship.
B moral responsibility and censorship and good taste are mutually exclusive.
C censorship and good taste are the antithesis of moral responsibility.
D censorship is the antithesis of good taste and moral responsibility.

74 Which of the other commentators confirms McLuhan‘s statement that good taste is the last-ditch stand of
the artist?

A Steven Spielberg B Bertolt Brecht

C Alexander Pope D Vincent Van Gogh

75 In essence, Pope tells us that

A genius can exist without good taste. B good taste can exist without genius.
C genius cannot exist without good taste. D good taste cannot exist without genius.

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Section 2

Written Communication

Number of questions : 2
Allotted time : 60 minutes

Directions

1. You have 5 minutes perusal time.

2. You may take notes on the question paper during that time.

3. You may NOT make any mark on the answer document during
perusal.

4. At the end of 5 minutes, begin the exam.

5. Post-perusal, you have exactly 60 minutes to complete the exam.

WRITING TEST A

Consider the following comments and develop a piece of writing in response to one or more of them.

Your writing will be judged on the quality of your response to the theme; how well you organise and present
your point of view, and how effectively you express yourself. You will not be judged on the views or attitudes
you express.

*******

Imagination, new and strange

In every age, can turn the year;
Can shift the poles and lightly change
The mood of men, the world's career.

Imagination by John Davidson

When beams of imagination play, the memory‘s soft figures melt away.

Alexander Pope

I am imagination. I can see what the eyes cannot see. I can hear what the ears cannot hear. I can feel what the
heart cannot feel.

Peter Nivio Zarlenga

Imagination has brought mankind through the dark ages to its present state of civilisation. Imagination led
Columbus to discover America. Imagination led Franklin to discover electricity.

L. Frank Baum

The lunatic, the lover, and the poet, are of imagination all compact.

William Shakespeare

WRITING TEST B

Consider the following comments and develop a piece of writing in response to one or more of them.

*******

Anger makes dull men witty, but it keeps them poor.

Francis Bacon

Usually when people are sad, they don't do anything. They just cry over their condition. But when they get
angry, they bring about a change.

James Russell Lowell

When angry, count to four; when very angry, swear.

Mark Twain

Anger makes you smaller, while forgiveness forces you to grow beyond what you were.

Cherie Carter-Scott, "If Love Is a Game, These Are the Rules"

Speak when you are angry--and you will make the best speech you'll ever regret.

Laurence J. Peter

Writing Test: Answer Document

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Section 3

Reasoning in Biological and Physical Sciences

Number of questions: 110

Allotted time: 170 minutes

Directions

1. You have 10 minutes perusal time.

2. You may take notes on the question paper during that time.

3. You may NOT make any mark on the OMR sheet during perusal.

4. At the end of 10 minutes, begin the exam.

5. Post-perusal, you have exactly 170 minutes to complete the exam.

Unit 1

Question 1 – 5

Methylation of DNA is a very significant mechanism for controlling gene expression level. It is well known that
adding methyl group to the cytosine residues, located inside specific regions of a gene‘s promoter, exerts
inhibiting effect on the expression. These specific regions are called CpG islands. They could be defined as, at
least 500 bp (base pairs) long sequence of DNA that contain more than 60% of CpG sites. In mammalian
genome, about 40% of gene promoters contain one or more CpG islands. It is important to note that in
physiological conditions, cytosines of CpG sites are not methylated. Also, methylation pattern of the genes in a
cell is not constant throughout its life. Methylation status of a gene could change during embryogenesis, tissue
development and due to modification in the environment. During pathological processes that can take place in
various diseases, methylation of CpG dinucleotides is increased. This notion has tremendously contributed to
the understanding of the regulation of gene expression. Possibility of switching off the gene function without
changing the DNA sequence shed a new light on molecular processes that contribute to tumour formation. It is
proved that during tumourigenesis, many genes, which are called tumour suppressors, are inactivated by CpG
island methylation. In order to take advantage of this fact, many efforts are focussed on finding a new strategy in
the treatment of various types of tumours. In addition to developing the new treatment options, it turned out that
the methylation status of some genes could be exploited in diagnosis and prognosis of a disease.

The human MGMT is a negative regulator of estrogen receptor-mediated transcription upon alkylation DNA
damage. MGMT is an enzyme that repairs O-6-methylguanine, a mutagenic DNA base damaged by endogenous
and environmental alkylating agents and takes part in the cellular defense against the biological effects of O-6-
methylguanine in DNA. MGMT promoter hypermethylation plays an important role in the early steps of
colorectal carcinogenesis. Abnormal promoter hypermethylation of MGMT gene is associated with oral
squamous cell carcinomas.

1 Hypermethylation of the tumour suppressor genes and alterations in their sequences (mutations), have the
same functional consequence, but there is a substantial difference that could be useful in the treatment.
The difference is that

A methylation occurs only in non-coding regions of the gene, but mutational events are far more
frequent in coding regions.
B methylation status of the gene is very easy to detect, while mutation status requires far more time
and equipment.
C methylation is a more frequent event.
D methylation is reversible, which means that some therapeutic agents can influence methylation
level of a specific gene.

2 MGMT (Methylguanine DNA methyltransferase) gene codes for an enzyme responsible for repairing
damaged DNA. The gene methylation status is very important in making decisions about treatment
options of glioblastoma patients, i.e., to use or not to use alkylating agents (which cause damage to
tumour cells in the DNA). If MGMT is hypomethylated, then using the agents will have which of the
following consequences?

A It will be useful for the patients.

B It will have no effect on the tumour.
C A higher dose must be applied.
D A lower dose must be applied.

Questions 3-5 are based on the following information

There are many techniques which are used for detection of gene methylation status. Methyl-specific PCR is one
of these techniques that enable fast screening of methylation level of the gene of interest. In short, the technique
is based on bisulphite modification of DNA followed by PCR reaction. DNA is treated with sodium-bisulphite
which converts unmethylated cytosine to uracil, while methylated cytosine residues are protected from
conversion. Thus, it becomes possible to distinguish between methylated and unmethylated sequence using
PCR. Figure 1 depicts bisulphite modification process followed by methyl-specific PCR (MSP). Methylated
cytosine is marked with M.

Figure 1

3 Which of the following is correct regarding the sodium bisulphite treatment of DNA?

A Only unmethylated Cs in CpG dinucleotides are converted to uracil, while Cs in CpG sites are not
converted.
B The strands are no more complementary.
C All Cs are converted to Ts.
D Both options A and B are correct.

4 In order to discriminate between methylated and unmethylated alleles one should use

A PCR primers that do not contain any CpG site.

B primer pair only for methylated allele.
C primer pair only for unmethylated allele.
D different primer pairs for unmethylated and methylated allele.

5 What would be the consequence of incomplete bisulphite reaction?

(some unmethylated cytosines are not converted into uracil)

A PCR reaction will not produce any result.

B PCR reaction occurs, but the yield is very low.
C PCR reaction will give false positive results.
D It depends on the number of CpG sites in the template DNA.

Unit 2

Questions 6 – 7

Elimination reaction mostly follows E2 or E1 mechanism. E2 shows second order kinetics and E1 shows first
order kinetics.

E2 is a one step reaction process:

H H
| |
HO(-) : + H – C  C  Br H C  C H + Br - + H O
2
| | H H
H H
The hydroxide ion obtained from the strong alcoholic KOH removes H + ion from -carbon atom of alkyl halide
leaving the electron pair on carbon of C – H bond. The role of the reaction depends upon the concentration of
both hydroxyl ion and alkyl halide i.e., rate = K [RX] [OH].

For a given alkyl radical, the order of reactivity follows the sequence R – I > R – Br > R – Cl. This is due to the
increase in the size of halogen.

For a given halogen, the order of reactivity follows the sequence: tertiary > secondary > primary alkyl halide.
This is because of the increased branching which not only provides greater number of the -hydrogens for attack
but also a more stable alkene.

E1 mechanism takes place in two steps:

r.d.s  rate determining step

Rate = k [RX]

The case of dehydrohalogenation for a given halogen follows the sequence:

Tertiary > secondary > primary alkyl halide

CH3 -CH=CH OH
6 The reaction of with HBr gives:

CH3 -CHBr-CH2 OH
A

CH3CH2CHBr OH
B

CH3CHBrCH2 Br
C

CH3CH2CHBr Br
D

7 Which of the following compounds can be dehydrated most easily?

A CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH
CH3
|
CH3CH 2  C H  CH 2 CH 2 OH
B

OH
|
C CH3CH 2  C CH 2 CH3
|
CH3
OH
|

D CH3CH 2 CH 2  C HCH3

Unit 3

Questions 8 - 10

A sonometer wire of length L and mass per unit length  is under tension T. It is vibrating in its fundamental
frequency given by f  1 T
.A tuning fork having frequency f 0 is also vibrating beside the wire. It is found
2L 
that f  f0 .
Now, the tuning fork is moved away from the wire with constant velocity. As a result, the apparent frequency of
the tuning fork decreases from the value f 0 .

8 What will happen if the tension in the string is increased?

A The difference in frequencies between the string and the tuning fork will increase.
B The difference between the frequencies of the string and the tuning fork will decrease.
C The difference between the frequencies of the string and tuning fork will always remain the same.
D None of the above

9 If both the wire and the tuning fork are vibrating with fundamental frequencies with their original
parameters and they are moving away from a stationary observer with the same velocity, then the
difference in the observed frequencies will

A increase continuously.
B decrease continuously.
C always remain zero.
D first increase and then decrease.

10 When the tuning fork is moved towards the wire with constant velocity, apparent frequency of tuning
fork increases from f 0 . What happens if, tension remaining constant, the length of the wire is increased?

A The fundamental frequency of the wire increases.

B The fundamental frequency of the wire does not change.
C The difference of frequencies between the tuning fork and the wire increases.
D The difference of frequencies between the tuning fork and the wire remains unchanged.

Unit 4

Questions 11 – 14

Figure 1

The cell cycle is an ordered set of events culminating in cell growth and division into two daughter cells. The
stages of the cell cycle (Figure 1) are G1-S-G2-M. The G1 stage stands for ―GAP 1‖. The S stage stands for
―Synthesis‖, where the DNA replication occurs. The G2 stage stands for ―GAP 2‖. The M stage stands for
―Mitosis‖, and is where nuclear (karyokinesis) and cytoplasmic (cytokinesis) division occurs. The regulation of
cell division (and thus tissue growth) is very complex. The following terms are some of the key features
involved in regulation, and are the hotspots where errors can lead to cancer. Cancer is a disease where regulation
of the cell cycle goes awry and normal cell growth and behavior is disrupted.

CDKs (cyclin dependent kinases, add phosphate to a protein), along with cyclins, are major control switches for
the cell cycle, causing the cell to move from G1 to S or G2 to M phase.

MPF (Maturation Promoting Factor) includes the CDKs and cyclins that trigger progression through the cell
cycle.
p53 is a protein that functions to block the cell cycle if the DNA is damaged. If the damage is severe, this
protein can cause apoptosis (programmed cell death).

p27 is a protein that binds to cyclin and CDK blocking the entry of cells into the S phase.

11 Human cells are diploid (containing two copies of each gene). However, in the cell cycle the cells can be
quadraploid at certain times. Which phases of the cell cycle contain quadraploid cells?

A G1 B M
C G2 D Both options B and C

12 For the purpose of studying the cell cycle in laboratory, the cells in culture must be synchronised such
that all the cells are in the same phase of the cell cycle. One method of doing this is to add thymidine to
the media. Thymidine is one of the bases used as a building block of DNA. At which phase of the cell
cycle would the cells be synchronised upon addition of thymidine?

A S phase B M phase
C G1 phase D G2 phase

13 The sputum (fluid coughed up from the lungs) of many smokers contain cells with mutations in the genes
for p53. The smoking induced mutations appear to be an early signal of lung cancer. What is the most
likely relationship between early p53 mutation and the development of lung cancer?

A Mutated p53 directly stimulates the growth of cancer cells.

B Mutations in p53 prevent the abnormal cells from dying by apoptosis.
C Mutated p53 triggers the M phase of the cell cycle leading to abnormal cell division.
D p53 causes a cell to enter G0, blocking cell division.

14 Cell senescence is the phenomenon by which normal cells lose the ability to replicate and divide. Which
protein is likely to be over-expressed in senescent cells?

A p53
B CDK
C p27
D MPF

Unit 5

Questions 15 – 16

Orientation in E2 reaction is shown below:

H() H()
| |
CH3  C H  C H  C H 2  CH3  CH  CH  CH3  CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 2
|
Saytzeff‘s product Hoffmann‘s product
X

Saytzeff‘s Rule –

When the leaving nucleophile is a halogen atom, usually it is the more alkyl substituted alkene that
predominates.

Hoffmann‘s Rule –

When the nucleophile is an ‗onium‘ species (  N R 3 , SR 2 etc.), usually it is the less alkyl substituted alkene
that predominates.

When X is the halogen, C–X bond being weaker than –C–H bond, is broken slightly earlier than the C–H
bond. As a result, the transition state (T.S.) has alkene like structure. Therefore, the mode in which more alkyl
substituted alkene (more stable alkene) is formed will be faster because the corresponding T.S. will be stable.


According to Hoffmann‘s rule, the –C–H bond of X = N R 3 becomes weaker due to strong –I effect. As a
result the –C–H bond is broken slightly earlier than the C-X bond and the T.S. will have carbanion like
structure.

CH3
AgOH
  X

15 N Me2 I

What is the product ‗X‘?

CH3 CH3

A NMe2 B

CH3 CH3

C Me2N D N
Me2 Me2

OH
| H2O / H
16 CH3CH 2  C H  CH3  

What will be the product of the above reaction?

OH
|
A CH 2  CH  C H  CH3
B CH3 – CH2 – CH  CH2
C CH3  CH  CH  CH3
D CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3

Unit 6

Questions 17 - 19

A square wire frame with side ‗a‘ and a long straight wire carrying a current I are located on the same plane as
shown in the figure below.

Figure 1
0 I
Magnetic field due to the long straight wire, at a distance r from it has magnitude , where 0 is permeability
2r

of free space. Direction of magnetic field B is into the plane of the paper denoted by  symbol. Lines of
force for this magnetic field pass through the square coil and this constitutes the magnetic flux through the
square coil.

The magnitude of field B decreases as r increases, so when the square frame translates to the right with
constant velocity V, the flux decreases. According to Faraday‘s law of electromagnetic induction, induced EMF
and current appear in the square frame which is equal to the negative of the rate of change of flux. According to

Lenz‘s law, the induced current should flow in such a direction so as to oppose the cause of change in flux.
Lenz‘s law is basically pointing out at the aspect of the law of conservation of energy, acting in this situation.

17 The external agent, moving the square frame with constant velocity towards the right, experiences which
of the following?

A An attractive force between the frame and the wire

B A repulsive force between the frame and the wire
C Absolutely no force between the frame and the wire
D None of these

18 According to Lenz‘s law, in what direction is the current in the square frame induced?

A Clockwise direction
B Anticlockwise direction
C In a direction that will aid the change in flux
D None of the above

19 Which of the following statements best represents Lenz‘s law?

A Electrical energy is produced in the frame from nowhere.

B Mechanical energy spent by the external agent is converted into the electrical energy of the frame.
C Even if the current in the straight wire is zero, electrical energy will be produced in the frame, as it
moves.
D Even if the frame is at rest and straight wire carries current, induced EMF will appear in the frame.

Unit 7

Questions 20 – 25

The menstrual cycle is commonly divided into three phases: the follicular phase, ovulation, and the luteal phase,
which are under the control of oestrogen, progesterone, luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating
hormone (FSH), shown in figure 1.
In the follicular phase, discharge of blood (menses) slows down and eventually stops. The lining of the uterus
thickens. Follicles in the ovary begin developing and after several days one follicle becomes dominant and the
remaining follicles undergo atrophy and die. Approximately mid-cycle, the dominant follicle releases an ovum,
or egg in an event called ovulation. After ovulation, the remains of the dominant follicle in the ovary become a
corpus luteum, which signals the endometrium (uterine lining) to prepare for potential implantation of an
embryo to establish a pregnancy. If implantation does not occur within approximately two weeks, the corpus
luteum will involute, causing the uterus to shed its lining and egg in a process termed menstruation.

Figure 1

Menstrual cycles are counted from the first day of menstrual bleeding. Hormonal contraception interferes with
the normal hormonal changes with an aim to prevent reproduction.

20 What is the hormonal signal for follicle development?

A Increasing oestrogen B FSH spike

C LH spike D Decreasing oestrogen

21 What is the hormonal signal for ovulation?

A Decreasing oestrogen B LH spike

C LH spike and FSH spike D Decreasing progesterone

22 What is the hormonal signal for the initiation of menstrual cycle?

A Decreasing oestrogen
B Decreasing oestrogen and decreasing progesterone
C FSH spike and LH spike
D Decreasing progesterone

23 What hormonal changes are likely to be observed in the luteal phase if fertilisation and implantation
occur?

A No increase in progesterone
B No FSH spike
C No decline in progesterone
D No decline in either progesterone or oestrogen

24 Most hormonal contraceptives (i.e. ―the pill‖) are high-dose progesterone regimens. What is the likeliest
mechanism by which these methods prevent pregnancy?

A High levels of progesterone directly inhibit ovulation.

B A high level of progesterone provides a signal mimicking pregnancy, which inhibits ovulation.
C A high level of progesterone will prevent build-up of endometrium and fertilised eggs cannot be
implanted.
D High levels of progesterone are toxic to the sperm that enters the uterus.

25 Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS) is a reproductive hormonal disorder in which ovulation and
menses (amenorrhea) cease and develop cysts on the ovaries resulting from trapped follicles. What type
of hormonal disruption could explain this phenomenon?

A Abnormally low levels of oestrogen B Abnormally low production of FSH

C Abnormally high levels of progesterone D Both options A and B

Unit 8

Questions 26 – 30

Carbon atoms attached to four different atoms or groups are called chiral carbon centers.
Stereoisomers are isomers that have the same sequence of covalent bonds but differ in the relative dispositions
of their atoms in space. They can be broadly classified as follows:
(a) Configurational isomers - They are non-superimposable and non-convertible by rotation around single bond.
They can be interconverted into each other by making and breaking the bonds. These are of two types -
Enantiomers (optical isomers) - Here the two isomers are mirror images of each other.
Diastereomers - They are non-superimposable mirror images of each other.

(b) Conformational isomers– These stereoisomers are non-superimposable but are easily interconvertible by
rotation around the single bond.

N.B. – In Fischer Projection formula, rotation on the plane of the paper through 180° is permissible and
interchange of two pairs of ligands or three ligands in succession on a chiral centre is permissible.

26 The compounds and are

A enantiomers. B diastereomers.
C geometrical isomers. D same in structure.

Cl
CH3

27 The number of chiral carbon atoms in is

A 2. B 3.
C 4. D 1.

28 Which of the following compounds is not chiral?

D
|
A DCH2CH2CH2Cl B CH3CH 2 C H  Cl
C CH3CHDCH2Cl D CH3CHClCH2D

29 Consider the following:

(I) 3-methylhexane (II) 3-methyl-4-pentanone

(III) methyl group (IV) 3-methylpentane

Which of the following statements is true?

A Only III is a chiral compound. B Only I and II are chiral compounds.

C Only II and IV are chiral compounds. D All four are chiral compounds.

30 Consider the three structures given below.

COOCH 3 COOH COOH

H OH OH H H OH
H OH OH H HO H
(I) COOH (II) COOCH3 (III) COOCH 3

Which of the following statements is correct?

A I and II are identical. B I and III are diastereomers.

C I and III are enantiomers. D I and II are enantiomers.

Unit 9

Questions 31-33

A pair of parallel horizontal conducting rails of negligible resistance which is shorted at one end is fixed on a
table. The distance between the rails is L.

Figure 1

A conducting mass-less rod of resistance R can slide on the rails without friction. The rod is tied to a mass less
string which passes over a pulley fixed to the edge of the table. A block of mass m, tied to the other end of the
string, hangs vertically.

A constant magnetic field B exists perpendicular to the table. If the system is released from rest, the mass m, due
to its weight, moves down. As the rod also moves rightwards due to this, the enclosed flux with the rectangular
area MNPQ increases. According to Faraday‘s law of electromagnetic induction; EMF should be induced in the
loop. This EMF in turn will cause induced current to oppose the cause of change of flux. So motion of the
conducting rod will be opposed.
 
When current I flows through the rod, a backward magnetic force  IL  B  whose magnitude is ILB, opposes the
forward motion of the rod.

When rod moves with velocity V, then induced EMF in it is given by BLV, where B is magnetic field.

EMF BLV
Current I is therefore given by  .
Resistance R
BLV B2 L2 V
Opposing magnetic force F = ILB =  LB  .
R R
For the system (block + rod), net accelerating force is given by
B2 L2 V
mg  F  mg   ma , where a is the acceleration.
R

g
31 At a particular moment the acceleration (a) of the system is found to be . What is the velocity of the
2
rod at this moment?

mgR mgR
A B
B2 L2 2B2 L2
mgR mgR
C D
4B2 L2 3B2 L2

32 After a certain time period the block and the rod are found moving with constant velocity V 0. This V0 is
given by

mgR mgR
A 2 2
. B .
B L 2B2 L2
2mgR 4mgR
C . D .
B2 L2 B2 L2

33 When the system finally attains a constant velocity or terminal velocity V 0, then current flowing through
the rod is I0 =

mg mg
A . B .
BL 2BL
2mg mg
C . D .
BL 4BL

Unit 10

Questions 34- 38

Antibodies or immunoglobulins identify and neutralise foreign bodies such as bacteria and viruses. Antibodies
are Y-shaped glycoproteins that recognise a unique portion of the foreign body known as an antigen. By binding
to specific antigens, antibodies tag a microbe for degradation by the immune system.
Antibodies can either be attached to the surface of B-cells or secreted. When attached, they facilitate the
activation of these cells and their subsequent differentiation into either plasma cells, which secrete antibodies, or
memory B-cells. Memory B-cells remember certain antigens and allow the immune system to respond faster
during future exposures.
The Y shape of antibodies comprises of two light chains, forming the neck, and two heavy chains forming the
fork. There are several kinds of antibody heavy chains and the antibodies are grouped into different isotypes
based on what kind of heavy chains they possess. Five different isotypes are known:
IgA - dimer – these antibodies are found in secretions/mucous and, for this reason, they form the first line
immunological defence in the intestinal tract and upper respiratory tract.

IgD - monomer – appearance of IgD on a B-cell (in addition to IgM) marks it as mature and ready to respond
to antigen.

IgE - monomer – stimulates histamine release from basophils and mast cells.

IgG - monomer – provides the majority of antibody based immunity.

IgM - pentamer – found on naive B-cells and provides early immunity until IgG can be produced.

After an antibody-antigen interaction is formed, it activates the B-cell, allowing it to produce antibody in a
secreted form rather than a membrane-bound form. B-cells that secrete antibodies are termed plasma cells.
Daughter plasma cells can undergo isotype switching, where the production of IgD and IgM changes to the
production of IgA, IgE, or IgG.

34 Immunity in newborns is mediated by antibodies that are transferred from mother to infant through
breast milk. Which isotype is responsible for immunity in newborns?

A IgG B IgA
C IgM D Both options A and C

35 Activation of which class of immunoglobulins leads to the stimulation of the granulocytes in the bone
marrow?

A IgA B IgD
C IgE D IgG

36 Which of the following is a natural antibody?

A IgG B IgA
C IgE D IgM

37 A small child has unexplained, recurrent upper respiratory infections. In desperation, his paediatrician
checks the levels of B-cells and antibody subtypes. The child has normal B-cell levels, but abnormally
high IgM and IgD levels while IgA, IgE, and IgG were almost undetectable. What would explain the
above scenario?

A Failure of isotype switching B B-cells are not maturing

C Infectious bacteria lacking unique epitopes D Mutation of heavy chains

38 In healthcare settings, patients are often tested for Hepatitis by studying IgM and IgG levels in the blood
directed against Hepatitis virus. Suppose a patient, who has no symptoms, shows undetectable levels of
IgG, but high levels of IgM. Does the patient have Hepatitis?

A The patient does not have Hepatitis; IgM is present on naive B-cells.
B The patient does not have Hepatitis; there is no IgG.
C The patient does have Hepatitis; but it is an old infection.
D The patient does have Hepatitis; and is recently infected.

Unit 11

Questions 39 – 43

Lucas test is used for distinguishing between different alcohols. Given below is a summary of the effect of
Lucas test on 1°, 2°, 3° alcohols.

RCH2OH R2CH–OH R3C–OH

–H2O  HCl, anhy.ZnCl2 H2O  HCl, anhy.ZnCl2 –H2O  HCl/ZnCl2 (anhy.)
CH2–Cl R2–CH–Cl R3-C–Cl
Cloudiness appears on heating Cloudiness appears after 5 Cloudiness appears
(1°) minutes (2°) immediately (3°)

Primary alcohol on dehydrogenation forms aldehyde:

H H
| |
Cu / 
CH3  C  OH   CH3  C  O  H 2
|
H

Secondary alcohol on dehydrogenation forms ketone:

H
| Cu
CH3  C  OH   CH3  C  CH3 + H2
| 
||
CH 3 O

Tertiary alcohol on dehydrogenation forms an alkene:

CH 3 CH3
| |
Cu
CH3  C  OH   CH 3  C + H2
|  ||
H CH2

39 Which of the following alcohols will yield but-2-ene on dehydration with conc. H2SO4?

A 2-Oxo-2-butanol B 2-Butanol
C 2-Methyl-2-butanol D Tertiary butyl alcohol

40 The solubility of methanol in water is due to the fact that

A both have bent shape. B both have sp3 oxygen.

C both form hydrogen bonds with one another. D both have p-orbitals.

41 Which of the following alcohols will be the most susceptible to acidic dehydration?

CH3
|
A CH3CH2CH2CH2OH B CH3  C OH
|
CH3
CH 3
|
C CH3  CH  CH 2 OH D None of the above

42 Lucas test can be used to distinguish between

A phenol and 4-methyl phenol. B propan-1-ol and ethanol.

C butan-1-ol and 2-methyl propan-2-ol. D ethanol and 1, 2-ethanediol.

43 Which of the following will be the most efficient in reacting with Lucas reagent?

A Butan-1-ol B Butan-2-ol
C 2-Methyl propan-2-ol D 2-Methyl propane

Unit 12

Questions 44 – 46

A long horizontal wire, AB, free to move in a vertical plane and carrying a steady current of I 1, is in equilibrium
at a height of h over another parallel long straight wire CD, which is fixed and carries a steady current of I 2.
0 I1I2
These two parallel wires repel each other with a magnetic force per unit length = . This force balances the
2h
weight of wire AB per unit length which is g , where  = mass per unit length. If the wire AB is depressed by
0 I1I2
some distance ‗x‘, then the magnetic force per unit length will be more and equal to . So net force will
2(h  x)
be upward and AB will accelerate in upward direction. Similarly if separation between the lines is increased,
0 I1I2
then magnetic force per unit length will be less than the weight of AB per unit length. Net force will
2(h  x)
be downward in this case. So wire will accelerate in the downward direction.

44 By how much must the wire AB be depressed from its equilibrium position, such that it experiences an
g
acceleration of ?
2

h h
A B
2 4
2h h
C D
3 3

45 By how much must the separation between the wires be increased such that the wire AB experiences
g
acceleration in downward direction?
4

h h
A B
2 4
2h h
C D
3 3

46 When the wire is depressed by x, where x is very small, and is released from its equilibrium position, the
wire AB will

A remain in that position forever.

B return to its equilibrium position and then stay there at rest.
C move to the highest position and then remain at rest.
D undergo periodic motion about the equilibrium position.

Unit 13

Questions 47 – 52

Digestion is the mechanical and chemical breakdown of food into smaller components that are more easily
absorbed into the bloodstream. In humans, digestion begins in the mouth where food is chewed and mixed with
saliva. Saliva not only moistens food but contains the enzymes amylase and lipase, which begin the process of
chemical digestion.
The chewed food is pushed down the oesophagus to the stomach via peristaltic contraction. The stomach
muscles churn the food to assist physical disassembly and to mix it with hydrochloric acid and pepsin. The
production of hydrochloric acid and pepsin in the stomach is stimulated by the hormone gastrin, which itself is
stimulated by arrival of food in the stomach (Figure 1). Hydrochloric acid itself does not break down food, but it

establishes an environment at the appropriate pH for pepsin function. After 3-4 hours, food in the stomach is in
semi-liquid form known as chyme.
Chyme is then released from the stomach into the duodenum (small intestine) where the majority of digestion
and absorption occurs. The arrival of food in the duodenum stimulates CCK secretion, which induces production
of two fluids that aid in digestion in the duodenum: (1) Bile is produced by the liver and stored in the
gallbladder before being released into the duodenum to aid in breakdown of fatty acids. (2) Intestinal fluid
contains maltase, lactase, and sucrase, which break down the associated sugars, as well as trypsin and
chymotrypsin. Absorption in the duodenum is aided by villi, which increase the surface area over which
nutrients may be absorbed into the bloodstream.

Figure 1

47 Which of the following represent chyme?

A Completely digested food

B Remains after digestion
C Partially digested food
D Aggregate of the fluids and enzymes that aid in digestion

48 Which of the following disorders of the GI tract can be caused by low production of GIP (gastrin
inhibitory peptide)?

A Stomach ulcers
B Gastro-oesophageal reflux disorder (GERD)
C Celiac sprue (inability to digest wheat)
D Crohn‘s disease (inability to digest fats)

49 Fat malabsorption is a consequence of decreased production of which of the following digestive

hormones?

A CCK B Gastrin
C Secretin D GIP

50 Upon drinking milk, a child develops nausea, diarrhoea, and abdominal pain. As he ages, these
symptoms begin to appear after consumption of all dairy products. Which GI fluid is not properly
functioning in this individual?

A Hydrochloric acid B Intestinal fluid

C Bile D Chyme

51 What is the primary purpose of mechanical digestion?

A Hydrolysing large molecules

B Slowing down the action of digestive enzymes
C Stimulating the release of gastrin
D Increasing the surface area

52 Which of the following is not a function of hydrochloric acid?

A To allow optimal function of pepsin

B To kill bacteria that may be ingested along with food
C To aid in the digestion of fats
D To contribute in the production of chyme

Unit 14

Questions 53 – 57

Ionic product of water Kw = [H3O+] [OH–] = 100 × 10-14

[H3O+] = [OH–] = 10-7 M

[OH–] = Kw/ [H3O+] and [H3O+] = Kw/ [OH–]

pH = – log [H3O+] and pOH = – log [OH–]

pOH + pH = pKw = 14

pH of a mixture:
Let one litre of an acidic solution of pH = 2 be mixed with two litres of the other acidic solution of pH = 3. The
pH of the resulting mixture is:

Sample 1 Sample 2
pH = 2 pH = 3
[H+] = 10-2(M) [H+] = 10-3(M)
V = 1 liter V = 2 liters

M1V1 + M2V2 = MR (V1 + V2)

10-2 × 1 + 10-3 × 2 = MR (1 + 2)
12x103
MR  = 4 × 10-3
3
pH = – log (4 × 10-3) = 2.39

In case of weak acid where dissociation is partial:

1 1
pH = pKa  log C , where, ka = dissociation constant of acid, C = concentration of acid
2 2

1 1
pOH = pKb  log C
2 2

pKa + pKb = pKw  relation between dissociation constant of a weak acid and its conjugate base.

Buffer solutions resist changes in the pH value.

Types of buffers: Salts of weak acid and weak base.

Acidic buffer  weak acid + salt of this weak acid with strong base (CH3COOH + CH3COONa)

Basic buffer  weak base + salt of this weak base with strong acid (NH 4OH + NH4Cl)
[salt]
pH of a buffer = pKa + log for acidic buffer, and
[acid]
[salt]
pH = pKb + log for basic buffer. This is known as Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.
[base]

53 What will be the the approximate pH of a solution formed by mixing equal volumes of solution of 0.1(M)
sodium propanoate and 0.1(M) propanoic acid, ka for propanoic acid = 1.3 × 10-5 mol dm-3?
(given: log 1.3 = 0.1139)

A 1.52 B 3.62
C 4.89 D 5.52

54 A certain buffer solution contains equal concentrations of X – and HX. Kb for X– is 10-10. The pH of the
buffer
solution is

A 4. B 10.
C 7. D 14.

55 If a solution of pH = 2 is diluted with water so that the volume becomes double, what will be the pH of
the diluted solution? (given: log 5 = 0.699)

A 2.0 B 2.3
C 3.2 D 1.9

56 A buffer solution contains 0.1(M) each of acetic acid and sodium acetate. What will be the pH of the
buffer solution? (pKa of CH3COOH = 4.75)

A 4.75 B 5.65
C 6.75 D 9.25

57 One ml of 0.1(N) HCl is added to one litre solution of NaCl. What will be the pH of the resulting
solution?

A 2 B 0
C 4 D 8

Unit 15

Questions 58 – 60

A convex lens of focal length f and a convex mirror of radius of curvature R are kept coaxially. For the convex
1 1 1
lens we use the lens formula   ; where v = image distance, u = object distance and f = focal length.
v u f
For the convex mirror, if a light ray is incident at 90 o (perpendicularly) to it, then it retraces its path after
reflection. Also, this ray will be radial for the convex mirror, appearing to come from its centre.

For a convex lens, if an object is kept at a distance of 2f from the lens, then a real inverted image of same size as
the object forms on the other side of the lens at a distance (2f).

58 It is found that the image is formed at the same place as the object as shown in the figure below.

Right angle

Object
C
Centreof curvatureof mirror

2f f

What is the radius of the convex mirror?

f f
A B
2 3
C 2f D f

59 Now consider the same convex lens and a plane mirror kept as shown in the figure below.

Object

separation  d

When an object is kept at the focus of the lens, the light ray after refraction through the lens becomes parallel to
the principle axis. Also, if a light ray is incident perpendicular to the plane mirror, then the light ray will retrace
its path after reflection.

For the lens-mirror system, the position of the final image coincides with the position of the object. So, the
object is at a distance of

A 2f from the lens. B f from the lens.

f
C 4f from the lens. D from the lens.
2

60 When the convex lens is cut into two halves as shown below, each half behaves as the original lens of
focal
length f.

Upper half

Lower half

The two halves are now separated on the axis such as shown below.

Object

Approximate raydiagram

How many images will be formed when an object is kept on the principle axis?

A No image will be formed. B One blurred image will be formed.

C Two blurred images will be formed. D None of the above

Unit 16

Questions 61 – 64

Sanger sequencing method is widely used whenever there is a need for knowing sequence of DNA fragment of
the interest. This method relies on the usage of dideoxynucleotide triphosphates (ddNTPs), which terminate the
elongation of DNA strands after their incorporation. Because of the use of ddNTPs, this method is also known
as chain-termination method. Sequencing reaction requires: template DNA, primers, ddNTPs, deoxynucleotide
triphosphate (A, T, C, and G) and DNA polymerase. In order to be sequenced, template DNA must be
denatured. After that a primer of unknown sequence is added to the end of the sample DNA. This sample DNA
is divided into four separate reaction mixtures. Each reaction mixture contains the primed DNA of interest, four
deoxynucleotide triphosphates and the polymerase, but each reaction has different ddNTPs (the first reaction
contains ddATPs, the second ddTTPs and so on). Because of the presence of ddNTPs, the polymerisation
process will end each time one ddNTP is incorporated into the synthesised strand. After completion of the
synthesis, each reaction mixture is loaded on separate lanes of polyacrylamide gel and electrophoresis is
performed. The figure below depicts the scheme of Sanger sequencing.

Figure 1

Figure 2

61 ddATPs are added in one reaction tube. These modified nucleotides will be incorporated into the
growing DNA strand at all sites instead of dATPs and synthesis will be stopped. In order to enable the
reaction to occur after the initial incorporation of ddATPs, concentration of dATPs must be

A equal to the concentration of ddATPs.

B far greater than the concentration of ddATPs.
C far smaller than the concentration of ddATPs.
D far greater than the concentration of other dNTPs.

62 What is the most probable reason that synthesis reaction stops after ddNTP is incorporated into the
growing DNA strand?

A ddNTPs have no capacity to form phosphodiester bond with nucleotide that follows.
B ddNTPs have no capacity to form hydrogen bond with other nucleotides.
C ddNTPs are much larger molecules than dNTPs.
D ddNTPs are much smaller molecules than dNTPs.

Question 63 is based on the information below.

The figure below shows the result of DNA fragment sequencing.

3‘

5‘
G C A T
Figure 3
63 The strand sequence according to the gel is

A 5'-CGGCCTCGTA-3'. B 5'-ATGCTTCGGC-3'.
C 3'-CGGCTTCGTA-5'. D 5'-CGGCTTCGTA-3'.

64 Suppose the previous figure is the result of sequencing DNA from normal cells and the figure below
shows the result of sequencing DNA collected from the same patient with some kind of abnormality.
What kind of abnormality occurs in this type of DNA?

3‘

G C A T 5‘

Figure 4

A Mutation at position 4 from 5' end B Mutation at position 5 from 5' end
C Mutation at position 5 from 3' end D Mutation at position 4 from 3' end

Unit 17

Questions 65 – 68

Isomerism in co-ordination compounds is different from normal isomerism.

Examples of co-ordination isomers are [CO (NH3)6] [Cr (CN)6] and [Cr (NH3)6][CO (CN)6].

Linkage Isomerism- When ligand has two donor atoms it is known as linkage isomerism.

For example, [CO (NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2

Co-ordination position isomerism- In polynuclear complex due to interchange of ligands between the metal
atoms, position isomerism occurs.

 NH CO CO  NH3 2 Cl2  Cl2 Cl NH CO CO  NH3 3 Cl  Cl2

 3 4 OH
 3 3 OH
 OH  and  OH 

Geometrical or cis-trans isomerism can also occur. Only asymmetric complexes show optical isomerism.
Octahedral complex of the type [M(AA)3], [M(AA)2b2] and [M(AA)b2c2] show optical isomerism, where (AA)
is bi-dentate ligand with the same donor atoms, b and c are mono-dentate ligand.

Consider the following isomerisms.

1. Hydrate
2. Co-ordination
3. Optical
4. Geometrical

65 Which of the above isomerisms are exhibited by [Cr (NH 3)2(OH)2Cl2]2+?

A 1 and 4 B 2 and 3
C 1 and 3 D 3 and 4

66 Conductivity of a solution consisting of the co-ordination complexes depends upon the number of ions
formed in the solution. The compounds Pt(NH 3)6Cl4, Cr(NH3)6Cl3, Co(NH3)4Cl3 and K2PtCl6 have been
dissolved in water separately to make 0.001(M) solutions. What will be the increasing order of
conductivity?

A Pt (NH3)6Cl4 < K2PtCl6 < Co (NH3)4Cl3 < Cr (NH3)6Cl3

B Co (NH3)4 Cl3 < K2PtCl6 < Cr (NH3)6Cl3 < Pt (NH3)6Cl4
C Cr (NH3)6Cl3 < Co (NH3)4Cl3 < Pt (NH3)6Cl4 < K2PtCl6
D K2PtCl6 < Pt (NH3)6Cl4 < Cr (NH3)6Cl3 < Co (NH3)4Cl3

67 Optical activity is possible in which of the following complexes?

A [Co(H2O)2(NH3)2Cl2]+ B [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]+
C [Co(NH3)4(NO2)Cl]+ D [Co(CN)5NC]–

68 Identify the isomerism shown by the following compounds.

H3C C2 H5 H3C C2 H5
C C
Br H H Br

A Linkage B Co-ordination
C Diastereomerism D Optical

Unit 18

Questions 69 - 71

The vibrations of a stretched string fixed rigidly at both ends of length L = 60cm is represented by
 x 
y  4 sin   cos  96  where x and y are in cm and time t is in seconds.
 15 
The expression is that of a standing wave or stationary wave which is formed when an incident wave
 x   x 
y1  2sin  96t   superimposes on a reflected wave y2  2 sin  96t   , the reflection taking place at the
 15   15 
left hand end. So, the standing wave is basically the resultant displacement of a particle of the medium due to
the superimposition of y1 and y 2 .

 2 
In these expressions,  , where  is wavelength, and 96   , where = frequency.
15  2
Velocity of propagation of the wave = frequency  wavelength.

 x 
In the standing wave expression, y = 4 sin   for maximum displacement of the vibrating particle measured
 15 
from mean position.


Given that sin   
3
69 ; the maximum displacement of a point at x = 5 cm is
3 2

A zero. B 2 3 cm.
C 3 cm. D 4 3 cm.

70 Nodes are those points on the string where the resultant amplitude of vibration is zero. This happens
when
x
 0 or  ; or 2 ; or 3 ; … etc. Which of the following is correct?
15

A Separation between consecutive nodes is 30cm.

B Separation between consecutive nodes is 15 cm.
C Separation between consecutive nodes is 7.5 cm.
D Separation between consecutive nodes is 60 cm.

71 What is the velocity of propagation of the component waves?

A 1440 cm s1 B 3300 cm s1

C 900 cm s1 D 4800 cm s1

Unit 19

Questions 72 - 74

After discovery of the secondary structure of DNA molecules, three hypotheses were proposed in order to
explain the DNA replication process. According to the semi-conservative model, two DNA strands are separated
during replication and each of the strands serves as a template for synthesis of a new strand. The second
hypothesis, so-called conservative model, envisaged the replication as a process in which the entire DNA
molecule acts as a template for synthesis of a new one. The last hypothesis, the dispersive model, was the most
complicated one. During replication the old strands break at specified points, and the old segments combine
with new segments to form the new chains. Meselson and Stahl conducted an experiment to figure out which of
the hypotheses was right. The idea was to grow bacteria E. coli on a medium containing the heavy isotope of
nitrogen, 15N. Given that DNA molecules contain the light isotope 14N, after many generations in the medium,
bacterial DNA will be labelled with 15N. Subsequently, the bacteria was removed from the medium and put in
another medium containing 14N. They allowed bacteria to grow till one or two generations in this medium. DNA
molecules containing 15N can be distinguished from 14N DNA on the basis of density. To do that Meselson and
Stahl centrifuged DNA on caesium chloride gradient. After centrifugation, DNA will form band at a position at
which its density equals that of the salt solution.

72 If one assumes that conservative model is correct, then which of the following statements is true?

A After the growth of the first generation on the light medium, DNA will be positioned
between 15N DNA and 14N DNA.
B After the growth of the second generation on the light medium, DNA will be positioned
between 15N DNA and 14N DNA.
C After the growth of the first generation on the light medium, DNA will be positioned
at 15N DNA position.
D After the growth of the second generation on the light medium, DNA will be positioned
at 15N DNA position.

73 After the growth of the first generation on the light medium, Meselson and Stahl picked up the bacterial
cells and isolated their DNA. Centrifugation on caesium chloride gradient revealed that the DNA had
intermediate density. This means that

A the dispersive model and the conservative model could be correct.

B the dispersive and the semi-conservative model could be correct.
C the semi-conservative model is not correct.
D the conservative model could be correct.

74 DNA isolated after the second round of replication showed intermediate and high density bands. This
concludes that the

A dispersive model is correct.

B conservative model is correct.
C semi-conservative model is correct.
D dispersive model is partially correct.

Unit 20

Questions 75 – 77

The nuclei of naturally occurring heavy elements like U, Th, Ra are unstable and spontaneously keep emitting
invisible rays , ,  to become more stable elements. These heavy elements are called radioactive elements and
the spontaneous emission of the radioactive rays is called radioactive decay. When -particle is emitted, the
mass number of the element decreases by 4 and the atomic number decreases by 2. -particle is identical to the
4
nucleus of helium, 2 H . When -particle is emitted, the atomic number increases by 1, when positron is emitted
the atomic number decreases by 1.

226
75 What will be the change in the number of neutrons in 88 Ra after the emission of 2α and 3β particles?

A 8 B 7
C 3 D 6

3
 bY , what will be the values of a and b respectively?
41 a
76 For the disintegration reaction 20 X
1

A 30, 16 B 29, 15
C 30, 15 D 29, 16

90Th by a series of  and  emissions. The total number of particles emitted

238
77 92 U disintegrates to form 230
are

A 4 particles. B 3 and 1 particles.

C 2 and 2 particles. D 1 and 3 particles.

Unit 21

Questions 78-80

Two persons, each of mass m, are standing at the two extremes of a railroad car of mass M resting on a smooth
track.

Figure 1

This system is free from any external force acting along horizontal direction. So the net linear momentum of the
system will remain conserved. When one of the two persons jumps with a velocity u, then as a result the railroad
car experiences an impact in the opposite direction. So, when person A jumps leftwards with a velocity u
relative to the car, the car will move rightwards with a velocity V.

So, momentum of A can be assumed as m(V – u) in the rightward direction.

Momentum of person (person B + railroad car) = (M + m)V in the rightward direction.

Before, the jump, everything was at rest. So the net momentum was zero.
So, the sum of m(V – u) and (M + m)V must also be zero.

When B jumps towards right with a velocity u relative to the car, then velocity of car changes to V  .

So momentum of person B can be taken as m ( V + u ) and the railroad car has momentum MV .
So sum of MV and m ( V + u ) must be equal to the momentum before jump (M + m)V.

During the whole process, centre of mass is not affected.

78 When person A jumps with a velocity u relative to the railroad car, then the car which was at rest before
this, starts moving with a velocity of

mu mu
A . B .
M  2m Mm
(M  m)u (M  m)u
C . D .
M m

79 When person B jumps rightwards with the same velocity u relative to the car, then velocity of the car V 
will be

mu mu mu
A  . B .
M  2m M  m M  2m
mu
C . D u.
Mm

80 If both A and B jump together with the same velocity u on their respective sides, what is the ratio of the
velocity of their jump to the resulting velocity of the car?

A 2: 1 B 4: 1
C 1: 4 D 1: 2

Unit 22

Questions 81-83

The figures below show the results of an experiment with three species of Paramaecium. The first three graphs
depict changes in the population density over time for three species grown alone in culture tubes. The second
figure shows changes in population density of two species grown together in the culture.

Figure 1

Figure 2

81 According to Figure 1, exponential growth is followed by a plateau. What is the reason for this?

A After some time food resources become the limiting factor for population growth.
B Metabolic wastes increase over time.
C Population size of each species becomes optimum with regard to tube size.
D Both options A and B

82 Which of the following statements is true for Figure 2?

A P. caudatum and P. bursaria compete for the same food resources.

B P.aurelia and P. caudatum compete for the same food resources.
C P. caudatum is the predator and P. bursaria is the prey.
D P.aurelia is the predator and P. caudatum is the prey.

For Question 83, refer to the following information:

Figure 3 shows the changes in the population size of Paramaecium when Didinium is added in the culture tube.

Figure 3

83 From figure 3 one can come to the conclusion that

A populations of both species decrease in size after they exhaust food resources.
B two species compete for the same food resource.
C conditions in the culture tube favour Paramaecium population growth.
D Didinium is a predator and Paramaecium is its prey.

Unit 23

Questions 84 – 88

Amines react in a unique way in organic chemistry, and act as good nucleophiles, due to the free pair of
electrons on the nitrogen molecule. When reacted with acid molecules, amines donate electrons to form
ammonium salts.
Amines can also react with acid halides to form substituted amino groups, such as in the reaction below:

Propanoyl chloride N-methylpropanamide

Additionally, the reactions of aldehyde or ketone groups with primary amines give carbinolamine which when
heated, undergo dehydration and will become aldimine or ketimine.

Substitution reactions can be sterically hindered, meaning that the presence of functional groups around the
carbon which participates in the reaction can slow down the reaction. In the two types of substitution reactions,
SN1 and SN2, the SN2 reaction is typically affected to a great extent by the surrounding groups.

In the SN1 reaction, a leaving group creates a charged carbocation, which then reacts with a nucleophile in a two
step pathway. The formation of the carbocation does not require the attack of a nucleophile, and is thus not
greatly hindered by the presence of a functional group. On the other hand, in the S N2 reaction pathway, a
nucleophile is required to attack the carbon, which creates a reaction intermediate that possesses a positive
charge.

84 What is the major product of the following reaction?

A B

C D

85 Grignard reagents can be used to add additional carbon chains onto amine groups, and consist of the
formula R-Mg-X, where X is a halogen. In this method of reaction, the Grignard reagent must react
with a nitrogen molecule which possesses a double bond. Which of the following would be the correct
product of the reaction shown below?

A B

C D

86 The reason that CH3NH2 is a stronger base than CH3OH could be due to which of the following
resonance structures?

A CH3+ - NH2 B CH3=NH2-

C CH3-NH3+ D CH3-NH-

87 Which of the following compounds will react faster in a SN1 reaction?

A Compound A B Compound B
C Both compounds will react at the same rate. D Neither of the compounds will react.

88 Which of the following compounds will react faster in a SN2 reaction?

A Compound A B Compound B
C Both compounds will react at the same rate. D Neither compound will react.

Unit 24

Questions 89 - 91

A block of mass m is kept over another block of mass M and the system rests on a horizontal surface as shown
F
in Figure 1. A constant horizontal force F acting on the lower block produces an acceleration of in
2(m  M)
the system, the two blocks always move together.

Figure 1

There is friction between the lower block and the horizontal surface. There is also friction between the upper
and the lower block.

Figure 2 depicts the free body diagram of the upper block.

Figure 2

So, only external force for upper block is friction f1.

For the lower block, the free body diagram is shown in Figure 3, f 2 is the friction between the ground and the
bigger block and reaction of friction on upper block is acting in the backwards direction.

Figure 3

89 Friction force f1 acting on the upper block is

F F
A . B .
2 4
MF mF
C . D .
(m  M) 2(m  M)

90 Assume that when two blocks are taken together as a system, f1 becomes internal force and vanishes.
What will be the frictional force acting between the ground and the lower block?

mF F
A B
mM 2
MF F
C D
mM 4

91 The friction acting between the lower block and ground f2 can be defined as µ (m + M) g,
where µ =coefficient of kinetic friction and (m + M) g is the value of the normal force. So, what is the
value of µ?

F F
A B
2mg 4Mg
F F
C D
(m  M)g 2(m  M)g

Unit 25

Questions 92 – 97

Graham‘s Law of Diffusion:

The rate of diffusion of gases is governed by Graham‘s Law, which states that under similar condition of
temperature and pressure, the rates of diffusion of gases are inversely proportional to the square root of their
molecular masses or their vapour densities.
1
diffusion is proportional to ,
M

Volume diffused V
Or rate of diffusion = =
time t
V 1 1
 or
t M d
The rates of diffusion of the two gases shall be given as

r1 d2 M2
 
r2 d1 M1

or, V1 . t 2  d 2  M2
t1 V2 d1 M1

If t1 = t2, V1  M 2
V2 M1

V  n (no. of moles of gas) and n1  M2

n2 M1

Diffusion: The intermixing of gases irrespective of the force of gravity and without the help of external agency
is known as diffusion. It refers to the flow of gas from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower
concentration.

Effusion: The passage of gases through a small aperture under pressure is known as effusion. Graham‘s law of
diffusion is also applicable to effusion.

Effect of pressure (P) on the rate of diffusion (r) -

rP
P
r
M
P
or, r  k
M
r1 P1 M 2 where, P , P are the pressures and M , M are the masses.
 1 2 1 2
r2 P2 M1

92 The molecules of two gases X and Y are moving. The ratio of their velocities is 3: 1. What will be the
ratio of their molecular masses Mx/ My?

A 1/9 B 9
C 3 D 1/3

93 What is the increasing order of effusion among the gases H 2, O2, NH3 and CO2?

A H2 < CO2 < NH3 < O2 B H2 < NH3 < O2 < CO2
C H2 < O2 < NH3 < CO2 D CO2 < O2 < NH3 < H2

94 If the densities of methane and oxygen are in the ratio 1:2, what is the ratio of the rate of diffusion of O 2
and CH4 respectively? (1.414  2)

A 1: 2 B 1: 1.414
C 2: 1 D 1.414: 1

95 A gas X diffuses three times faster than another gas Y. What will be the ratio of their densities, i.e. Dx :
D y?

A 1/3 B 1/9
C 1/6 D 1/12

96 A football bladder contains equimolar proportions of H 2 and O2. What is the ratio of the mixture by mass,
effusing out of the punctured football (H2 : O2)?

A 1: 4 B 2 2:1
C 1: 2 2 D 4: 1

97 The rate of diffusion of a gas is proportional to which of the following?

P P
A B
d d
PV PV
C D
d M

Unit 26

Questions 98 – 100

A force F is exerted in the upward direction on the axle of the pulley as shown in the figure below. Consider the
pulley and string to be mass-less and the bearing frictionless.

Figure 1

Two objects m1 and m2 are attached as shown to the opposite ends of the string, which passes over the pulley.
The object m2 is in contact with the floor.
F
Since the pulley is mass-less, so the tension on each side of the string is equal, .
2
So the free body diagram of m1 is as shown in Figure 2:

Figure 2

So the free body diagram of m2 is as shown in Figure 3:

Figure 3

N is the normal force between m2 and the ground.

As long as m2 remains in contact with the floor, the net force acting on it is T + N – m2g = 0, but as soon as N =
0,
m2 loses contact with the floor.
As for m1; net force acting on it = (mass)  (acceleration)
F
So,  m1g  (m1 )(a1 )
2

98 What is the maximum value of F at which m2 will remain at rest on the floor?

A 2m2 g B m1g
C m2 g D (m1  m2 )g

99 At a particular moment when F is such that m2 just loses contact with the floor, the acceleration of m1 will
be

m1g m2 g
A B
m1  m 2 m1  m 2
. .
(m2  m1 )g (m 2  m1 )g
C D
m2 m1
. .

100 What is the acceleration of m2 when a force F = 4m2g is applied?

(2m2  m1 )g
A B
m1 g
m1g m2g
C D
m2 m1

Unit 27

Questions 101 – 104

The shape of the Drosophila wing is regulated by a gene with two alleles. The alleles ‗N‘ and ‗S‘ cause
Drosophila to have normal and small wings respectively. The given table shows the results from the crosses.
Assume that the relation between alleles is dominant-recessive.

Normal Normal
Small wing Small wing
Parents wing wing
female male
female male
1. Normal winged female X normal
22 0 20 0
winged male
2. Normal winged female X small winged
34 37 33 32
male
3. Small winged female X normal winged
30 0 0 30
male

101 What type of inheritance is it?

A Autosomal dominant B X-linked dominant

C Autosomal recessive D X-linked recessive

102 What is the genotype of the female from cross 2?

A NS B XN XS
C XN XN D XS X S

103 What is the chance of homozygote appearing in F1 generation if female from cross 2 and male from cross
3 are mated?

A 25% B 12.5%
C 75% D 50%

104 What phenotype ratio is predicted if F1 females (cross 1) are backcrossed with their father?

A normal: small = 3: 1. B normal: small = 1: 3.

C normal: small = 2: 1. D normal: small = 1: 1.

Unit 28

Questions 105 – 107

Nuclear Magnetic resonance (NMR) is a spectroscopic technique used in chemistry and medicine. It generates a
peak in the spectrum for each chemically distinct environment of the element being scanned (some of these
peaks may overlap each other, but for the purposes of this question they can be disregarded). A chemically
distinct environment is one where the neighbours of any atom are different from other atoms.
For example, the molecule nitrobenzene has six different carbon atoms, but only shows up as 4 separate peaks in
carbon NMR, since its 6 carbon atoms have only 4 chemically distinct environments. Symmetry analysis is
often used to determine the number of chemically distinct environments in a molecule. Nitrobenzene (shown
below) has 1 different line of symmetry, which collapses the 6 carbons into 4 different chemical environments:
the atoms marked 2 and 3 are exactly in the same environment as their counterparts on the other side of the line
of symmetry.
3 2

Nitrobenzene

If nitrobenzene is reacted to produce dinitrobenzene, there are three possible results as shown below.

N O2 N O2 N O2
| | |

 NO2
|
N O2
ortho meta para

105 How do the number of lines of symmetry change for dinitro-substituted molecules relative to
mononitrobenzene?

A No change in ortho and meta, increase in para.

B No change in meta, increase in ortho and para.
C Increase in para and meta, no change in ortho.
D No change in any of the isomers.

106 Can these three isomers, ortho-, meta- and para-, be distinguished from mononitrobenzene by the number
of peaks in their respective carbon NMR spectra alone?

A Yes, they all produce different numbers of NMR peaks to mononitrobenzene.

B No, meta has the same number as mononitrobenzene, but ortho and para have different numbers.
C No, ortho and para have the same number as mononitrobenzene, but meta has a lower number.
D No, meta has the same number as mononitrobenzene, but ortho and para have higher numbers.

107 The structure of the molecule benzyl tert-butyl ether is shown below. How many different peaks would
be expected in a carbon NMR spectrum of this molecule?

benzyl tert-butyl ether

A 11 B 9
C 7 D 5

Unit 29

Questions 108 – 110

A horizontal force F pushes a block weighing Mg against a vertical rough wall having coefficient of friction  .
Assume that the block is at rest initially.

On one hand, the wall is exerting normal force N, in a direction perpendicular to the wall and, on the other hand
the friction force, f, is also acting tangentially upwards to oppose any tendency of motion. Surely, N = F and if
the block does not move, the value of static friction must be such so as to balance Mg.

Figure 1

Maximum value of static friction is N . So if Mg has a value less than this, then block will be at rest. But, if Mg
has a value greater than F , then the block will slide down along the wall.

108 Considering that Mg is less than F , what will be the value of friction force f?

A F B Mg
F
C (F  Mg) D
2

109 What is the magnitude of the net force exerted by the wall on the block?

A N B f

N f
2 2
(F)  F
2 2
C D

110 If Mg is greater than the maximum value of friction, then the block will slide along the wall in the
downward direction, with acceleration ‗a‘. What is the value of ‗a‘ in this case?

g
A g B
2
Mg  F F
C D
M M

END OF TEST

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