6

Time : 3 hrs. Max. Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS
1. This test will be a 3 hours Test.
2. This test consists of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics questions with equal weightage of 100
marks.
3. Each question is of 4 marks.
4. There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics ([Link].1 to 30), Chemistry ([Link].31 to
60) and Mathematics (Q. no.61 to 90). Each part is divided into two sections, Section A consists of 20
multiple choice questions & Section B consists of 10 Numerical value answer Questions.
In Section B, candidates have to attempt only 5 questions out of 10.
5. There will be only one correct choice in the given four choices in Section A. For each question 4 marks
will be awarded for correct choice, 1 mark will be deducted for incorrect choice and zero mark will be
awarded for unattempted question. For Section B 4 marks will be awarded for correct answer and zero
for marked for each review / unattempted/incorrect answer.
6. Any textual, printed or written material, mobile phones, calculator etc. is not allowed for the students
appearing for the test.
7. All calculations / written work should be done in the rough sheet provided.

PHYSICS
ur
Section - A field E at the centre O is

1. A 1 kg block attached to a spring vibrates with a j

frequency of 1 Hz on a frictionless horizontal
table. Two springs identical to the original spring
are attached in parallel to an 8 kg block placed
on the same table. The frequency of vibration of
the 8 kg block is : i
O
1 1 q q
(1) Hz (2) Hz ˆj ˆj
4 2 2 (1) 2 2 (2) -
4p e 0 r 4p e 0 r 2
2
1
(3) Hz (4) 2Hz q q
2 (3) - 2 2 ˆj (4) ˆj
2. A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a positive 2p e0 r 2p e 0 r 2
2

charge q distributed uniformly over it. The net

 MT-62 JEE MAIN

3. If a bar magnet of magnetic moment 80 units be 1

cut into two halves of equal lengths, the given by x =
2
[aw - bw + c]
magnetic moment of each half will be
(1) 80 units (2) 40 units where a, b, c, are constants and b2 < 4 ac. For
what value of w does the resonance occur ?
(3) 160 units (4) 20 units
b b
4. Hydrogen ( 1 H1 ) , Deuterium ( 1 H 2 ) , singly (1) w=
2a
(2) w =
a
ionised Helium ( 2 He4 ) and doubly ionised
+
(3) w = c (4) w = 0
lithium ( 3 Li 6 ) all have one electron around
+ +
7. Three bars each of area of cross - section A and
the nucleus. Consider an electron transition from length L are connected in series. The thermal
n = 2 to n = 1. If the wavelengths of emitted conductivities of their materials are K, 2K, 1.5K.
radiation are l1, l2, l3 and l4 respectively then If the temperatures of the external ends of the
approximately which one of the following is first and last bar are 200 & 18ºC, then the
correct? temperatures of both the junctions are
(1) 4l1 = 2l 2 = 2l3 = l 4 (1) T1 = 116ºC, T2 = 74ºC
(2) l1 = 2l 2 = 2l3 = l 4 (2) T1 = 120ºC, T2 = 84ºC
(3) l1 = l 2 = 4l3 = 9l 4 (3) T1 = 132ºC, T2 = 98ºC
(4) l1 = 2l 2 = 3l3 = 4l 4 (4) T1 = 164ºC, T2 = 62ºC
5. A small object of uniform density rolls up a 8. In the following diagram the reading of the
curved surface with an initial velocity v. It ammeter is (when the internal resistance of the
3v2 battery is zero)
reaches up to a maximum height of with
4g
A 10V
respect to the initial position. The object is
(1) Ring
4W
(2) Solid sphere 5W

(3) Hollow sphere v

40 10
(4) Disc (1) A (2) A
29 9
6. The amplitude of velocity of a particle acted on
by a force F cos w t along the x direction, is 5
(3) A (4) 2 A
3
 Mock Test -6 MT-63

9. A 2V battery is connected across AB as 11. In a uniform magnetic field of induction B a wire

shown in the figure. The value of the current in the form of a semicircle of radius r rotates
supplied by the battery when in one case about the diameter of the circle with an angular
battery’s positive terminal is connected to A frequency w. The axis of rotation is perpendicular
and in other case when positive terminal of to the field. If the total resistance of the circuit is
battery is connected to B will respectively be: R, the mean power generated per period of
rotation is
D1 5W
( B pr w )2 ( B pr 2 w ) 2
(1) (2)
2R 8R
D2 10 W
B pr 2 w ( B pr w 2 ) 2
(3) (4)
2R 8R
12. A steel wire is suspended vertically from a rigid
A B support. When loaded with a weight in air, it
extends by la and when the weight is immersed
(1) 0.4 A and 0.2 A (2) 0.2 A and 0.4 A
completely in water, the extension is reduced to
(3) 0.1 A and 0.2 A (4) 0.2 A and 0.1 A
lw. Then the relatively density of material of the
10. A thin wire of length L and uniform linear mass
weight is
density r is bent into a circular loop with centre
at O as shown. The moment of inertia of the la la
loop about the axis XX' is (1) (2)
lw la - l w
rL3 X X¢ lw lw
(1) 2 90° (3) (4)
8p la - l w la
O 13. An electromagnetic wave of frequency 1 × 1014
rL3 hertz is propagating along z-axis. The amplitude
(2)
16p 2 of electric field is 4 V/m. If e0 = 8.8 × 10–12 C2/N-
m2, then average energy density of electric field
5rL3
(3) will be:
16p 2 (1) 35.2 × 10–10 J/m3
3rL3 (2) 35.2 × 10–11 J/m3
(4) (3) 35.2 × 10–12 J/m3
8p 2
(4) 35.2 × 10–13 J/m3
 MT-64 JEE MAIN

14. The x-t graph of a particle undergoing simple

harmonic motion is shown below. The acceleration V D
C
V D
C
of the particle at t = 4 / 3 s is

1 A
B
A
B
x (cm)

0 t(s) (1) P (2) P

4 8 12
D C
–1 D
C

2
3 2 –p
(1) p cm/s 2 (2) cm/s 2 V V
32 32 A B A
B

p2 3 2
(3) cm/s2 (4) – p cm/s 2 (3) P (4) P
32 32 (1) Positive in all the cases (1) to (4)
15. In a Young’s double slit experiment with light (2) Positive in cases (1), (2), (3) but zero in case(4)
(3) Negative in cases (1), (2), (3) but zero in case (4)
of wavelength l the separation of slits is d and
(4) Zero in all the cases
distance of screen is D such that D >> d >>
17. Three masses m, 2m and 3m are moving in x-y
l. If the fringe width is b, the distance from plane with speed 3u, 2u and u respectively as
point of maximum intensity to the point where shown in figure. The three masses collide at the
intensity falls to half of maximum intensity on same point at P and stick together. The velocity
either side is: of resulting mass will be:
y
b b
(1) (2) 2m, 2u
6 3
b b 60°
(3) (4) x
4 2 m, 3u P 60°
16. In diagrams (1 to 4), variation of volume with
changing pressure is shown. A gas is taken 3m, u
along the path ABCD. The change in internal
energy of the gas will be
(1)
12
(
u ˆ
)
i + 3jˆ (2)
u ˆ
12
i - 3jˆ( )
(3)
12
(
u ˆ
-i + 3jˆ ) (4)
u ˆ
12
(
-i - 3jˆ )
 Mock Test -6 MT-65

18. A satellite of mass m revolves around the earth (3) 12.5 mA, 5 mA, 7.5 mA
of radius R at a height x from its surface. If g is (4) 12.5 mA, 7.5 mA, 5 mA
the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Section - B
the earth, the orbital speed of the satellite is
21. The magnetic field due to a current carrying
gR 2 gR circular loop of radius 3 cm at a point on the axis
(1) (2)
R+ x R-x at a distance of 4 cm from the centre is 54 mT.
What will be its value at the centre of loop (in
æ gR 2 ö 1/ 2 mT)?
(3) gx (4) ç ÷ 22. One end of a massless rope, which passes over a
è R + xø
massless and frictionless pulley P is tied to a hook
19. The plots of intensity versus wavelength for C while the other end is free. Maximum tension
three black bodies at temperatures T1, T2 and T3 that the rope can bear is 360 N. With what value
respectively are as shown. Their temperature are of maximum safe acceleration (in ms-2) can a man
such that of 60 kg climb on the rope?
P
(1) T1 > T2 > T3 T3
C
(2) T1 > T3 > T2 I T1 T2
(3) T2 > T3 > T1
23. The velocity of projection of a body is increased
(4) T3 > T2 > T1 l by 2%, other factors remaining unchanged, what
20. A Zener diode is connected to a battery and a will be the percentage change in the maximum
load as shown below: height attained?
4 kW A IL 24. The insulation property of air breaks down at
E = 3 × 106 volts/ metre. The maximum charge
IZ that can be given to a sphere of diameter 5 m is
I approximately ______ coulomb.
10 V = VZ RL = 2kW 25. A compound microscope has an objective and
60 V
eye-piece as thin lenses of focal lengths 1 cm
and 5 cm respectively. The distance between
B the objective and the eye-piece is 20 cm. The
The currents, I, IZ and IL are respectively. distance at which the object must be placed in
(1) 15 mA, 5 mA, 10 mA front of the objective if the final image is located
at 25 cm from the eye-piece, is numerically
(2) 15 mA, 7.5 mA, 7.5 mA
______ cm.
 MT-66 JEE MAIN

26. When light of 3000 Å is incident on sodium and B are situated at ( 2, 2) and (2, 0)
chloride, the stopping potential is 1.85 volt and
respectively. The potential difference between
when light of 4000 Å is incident, then the stopping
the points A and B will be ______ volts.
potential becomes 0.82 volt. The threshold
29. The Thallium-201 half-life is 74 hours. If the
wavelength for sodium is ______ Å. (h = 6.6 ×
sample has an activity of 80 millicuries initially,
10–34 J-sec.)
what will be the activity (in mci) after 9.25 days ?
27. In four complete revolution of the cap, the
30. An engine approaches a hill with a constant
distance travelled on the pitch scale is 2 mm. If speed. When it is at a distance of 0.9 km, it blows
there are 50 divisions on the circular scale, then a whistle whose echo is heard by the driver after
the least count of the screw gauge is _____ mm. 5 seconds. If the speed of sound in air is 330 m/s,
28. An electric charge 10–3 λ C is placed at the origin then the speed of the engine (in m/s) is _____ .
(0, 0) of X – Y co-ordinate system. Two points A

CHEMISTRY
Section - A (1) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl (2) CH3CH2CH2Cl
(3) CH3 – O – CH2Cl (4) CH3Cl
31. Four species are listed below:
34. Which of the following hydrocarbon can react
i. HCO3– ii. H3 O+ with maleic anhydride ?
iii. HSO4– iv. HSO3F
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence of their acid strength?
(i)
(1) iv < ii < iii < i (2) ii < iii < i < iv
(3) i < iii < ii < iv (4) iii < i < iv < ii
32. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched
(1) Fossil fuel burning - release of CO2
(ii)
(2) Nuclear power - radioactive wastes
(3) Solar energy - Greenhouse effect
(4) Biomass burning - release of CO2
33. Which of the following undergoes hydrolysis
(iii)
by SN1 mechanism :
 Mock Test -6 MT-67

39. Which one of the following esters cannot

undergo Claisen self-condensation?
(1) CH 3 - CH 2 - CH 2 - CH 2 - COOC 2 H 5
(iv) (2) C6H5COOC2H5
(1) only (i) (2) (i) and (iv) (3) C6H5CH2COOC2H5
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4) all the four (4) C6H11CH2COOC2H5
35. The process of the extraction of Au and Ag is 40. In recovery of silver from photographic film, you
based on their solubility in have decided to dissolve the silver ion with dilute
(1) NH3 or NH4OH (2) KCN or NaCN nitric acid. Addition of dilute HCl to precipitate
(3) HCl or HNO3 (4) H2SO4 AgCl seems to result in unacceptable losses.
36. Which of the following compounds having You might improve recovery by addition
highest and lowest melting point respectively ? of_______ in the latter step.
(1) CsF (2) LiF (1) NaNO3 (2) NaCl
(3) HCl (4) HF (3) Ag2SO4 (4) sodium acetate
Correct answer is 41. One mole of fluorine is reacted with two moles
(1) 2, 3 (2) 1, 4 of hot and concentrated KOH. The products
(3) 4, 3 (4) 2, 1 formed are KF, H2O and O2. The molar ratio of
37. Silver bromide when dissolve in hypo solution KF, H2O and O2 respectively is
gives complex ..... in which oxidation state of (1) 1 : 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 : 0.5
silver is .... (3) 1 : 2 : 1 (4) 2 : 1 : 2
(1) Na3[Ag(S2O3)2], (I) 42. In the reaction,
HOCl B
(2) Na3[Ag(S2O3)3], (III) CH 2 < CH 2 ¾¾ ¾↑ A ¾¾
↑ CH 2 OH
|
(3) Na3[Ag(S2O3)2], (II) CH2OH
(4) Na3[Ag(S2O3)4], (I)
The molecule ‘A’ and the reagent ‘B’ are
38. An organic compound (A) reacts with sodium (1) H C – CH and hot water
metal and forms (B). On heating with conc. 2 2

H2SO4, (A) gives diethyl ether, (A) and (B) are O

(2) CH3CH2Cl and NaOH
(1) C2H5OH and C2H5ONa
(3) CH3CH2OH and H2SO4
(2) C3H7OH and CH3ONa
(3) CH3OH and CH3ONa (4) CH 2 – CH2 and NaHCO3
| |
(4) C4H9OH and C4H9ONa Cl OH
 MT-68 JEE MAIN

43. Alkali metals dissolve in liquid NH3 then which (3) mixing equal volumes of equimolar
of the following observations is not true? solutions of AgNO3 and KI.
(1) H2 gas is liberated. (4) none of these.
(2) Solution turns into blue due to solvated
electrons. 47. Which of the following is an artificial edible
(3) It becomes diamagnetic. colour?
(4) Solution becomes conducting. (1) Melamine (2) Saffron
44. At very high pressures, the compressibility (3) Carotene (4) Tetrazine
factor of one mole of a gas is given by :
48. Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen is positive for
Pb Pb which compound?
(1) 1+ (2)
RT RT
(1) NH2OH (2) NH2NH2
Pb b
(3) 1- (4) 1 - (3) H2NCONH2 (4) All the three
RT (VRT)
45. Among the following compounds (I-III) the 49. It is always advisable not to keep egg yolk or
correct order of reactivity with electrophile is mustard in silver cutlery because
(1) silver reacts with water of egg yolk to form
OCH3 NO2 AgOH.
(2) silver reacts with sulphur of egg yolk
forming black Ag2S.
(3) silver reacts with egg yolk forming Ag2SO4
which is a poisonous substance.
I II III
(4) silver attracts UV light of the atmosphere,
(1) II > III > I (2) III < I < II thereby spoiling the food.
(3) I > II > III (4) I = II > III 50. Which of the following complexes will give white
precipitate with BaCl2 (aq)?
46. One desires to prepare a positively charged sol
(1) [Co(NH3)4SO4]NO2
of silver iodide. This can be achieved by
(2) [Cr(NH3)4SO4]Cl
(1) adding a little AgNO3 solution to KI
(3) [Cr(NH3)5Cl]SO4
solution in slight excess.
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(2) adding a little KI solution to AgNO3
solution in slight excess.
 Mock Test -6 MT-69

Section - B percentage by mass of malachite is copper?

56. The freezing point of a solution, prepared from
51. Calculate the molality of 1 litre solution of 93% 1.25 g of a non-electrolyte and 20 g of water, is
H2SO4 (weight/volume). The density of the 271.9 K. If molar depression constant is 1.86 K
solution is 1.84 g/mL. mole–1, find the molar mass of the solute
52. Find out the number of stereoisomers obtained 57. A solution of Ni (NO3)2 is electrolysed between
by bromination of trans-2-butene.
platinum electrodes using 0.1 Faraday
53. The enthalpy of combustion of H2(g), to give
electricity. How many mole of Ni will be
H2O(g) is –249 kJ mol–1 and bond enthalpies of
deposited at the cathode?
H – H and O = O are 433 kJ mol–1 and 492 kJ mol–1
respectively. The bond enthalpy of O – H is 58. In O-2 , O2 and O 22 - molecular species. Find the
54. A certain metal when irradiated to light total number of antibonding electrons.
(v = 3.2× 1016 Hz) emits photoelectrons with 59. x × 1021 unit cells are present in a cube-shaped
twice kinetic energy as did photoelectrons when ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1.00 g. Find the
the same metal is irradiated by light value of x.
[Atomic masses: Na = 23, Cl = 35.5]
(v = 2.0 × 1016 Hz) The v0 (threshold frequency)
60. The electrode potential of Mg2+/Mg electrode,
of metal is x × 1015. Find the value of x.
in which conc. of Mg2+ is 0.01M, is
55. Malachite has the formula Cu2CO3(OH)2. What
(E o Mg 2 + / Mg = -2.36V)

MATHEMATICS
Section - A 62. The number of real roots of the equation
1 + a1 x + a2 x2 + …. + an xn = 0
y
dt d2y 1
61. If x = ò , then
2
is equal to : where |x| <
3
and |an| < 2, is
0 1+ t2 dx
(1) n if n is even
(1) y (2) 2 (2) 0 for any natural number n
1+ y
(3) 1 if n is odd
x
(3) (4) y 2 (4) None of these.
2
1+ y
 MT-70 JEE MAIN

p (1) a = b = c (2) c = a
- p
63. If e 2 < q < , then (3) a = b (4) b = c
2 68. If w is a cube root of unity, then a root of the
(1) cos log q > log cos q
(2) cos log q < log cos q x +1 w w2
(3) cos log q = log cos q following equation w x + w2 1 =0 is
2 w2 1 x+w
(4) cos log q = log cos q
3
s n (1) x = 1 (2) x = w
64. The value of å å n s
Cs Cr is (3) x = w 2 (4) x = 0.
r=0 s =1 69. The lines lx + my + n = 0, mx + ny + l = 0 and
r £s
nx + ly + m = 0 are concurrent if
(1) 3n – 1 (2) 3n + 1
(1) l – m – n = 0
(3) 3 n
(4) 3(3n – 1)
(2) l + m – n = 0
65. Number of ways to distribute 10 distinct balls to
(3) l – m + n = 0
3 persons. One getting 2, 2nd getting 3 and 3rd
getting 5 balls is (4) l2 + m2 + n2 = lm + mn + nl
70. If (x, y) are the co-ordinates of a point in the
10! 10!
(1) (2)
2!.3!.5! 2!.(3!) 2 .5! 3 4 2
10! plane , then 5 8 2 = 0 represent
(3) (4) 10!
2!.5! x y 2
66. The general solution of the differential equation, (1) a. st. line || to y-axis (2) a st. line || to x-axis
æ dy ö (3) a st. line (4) a circle
sin 2x ç - tan x ÷ - y = 0 , is :
è dx ø 71. The equation of the circle whose radius is 5 and
which touches the circle x2 + y2– 2x – 4y–20 = 0 at
(1) y tan x = x + c
the point ( 5,5) is
(2) y cot x = tan x + c (1) x2 + y2 + 18 x + 16 y + 120 = 0
(3) y tan x = cot x + c (2) x2 + y2 – 18 x – 16 y + 120 = 0
(4) y cot x = x + c (3) x2 + y2 – 18 x + 16 y + 120 = 0
(4) x2 + y2 + 18 x – 16 y + 120 = 0
sin B
67. In any triangle ABC, if cos A = , then
2sin C
 Mock Test -6 MT-71

æ 3ö (1) a = 1, b = –1 (2) a = 1, b = ± 1
72. The normal at ç 2, ÷ to the ellipse, (3) a = –1, b = ± 1 (4) a = ± 1, b = 1
è 2ø
76. p : Every quadratic equation has one real root
x2 y 2
+ = 1 touch es a par abola, whose and q : Every quadratic equation has two real
16 3 roots, then truth value of p and q are
equation is
(1) p is true and q is false
(1) y2 = – 104 x (2) y2 = 14 x
(2) p is false and q is true
(3) y2 = 26x (4) y2 = – 14x
(3) p and q both true
73. If p : I study and q : I fail
(4) p and q both false
Then negation of 'I study or I fail' is 77. Let A, B and C be n × n matrices. Which one of
(1) I do not study and I do not fail the following is a correct statement?
(2) I do not study or I do not fail (1) If AB = AC, then B = C
(3) Either I study and I do not rail or I study (2) If A 3 + 2 A 2 + 3A + 5I = 0 ; then A is
and I do not fail invertible.
(4) I study and I do not fail (3) If A2 = 0, then A = 0
(4) None of these
74. The general solution of the trigonometric
equation sin x – cos x = 1 is given by 78. If for a real number y, [y] is the greatest integer
less than or equal to y, then the value of the
(1) x = 2n p, n Î I
p p 3p / 2
(2) x = n p + (–1)n + , n Î I integral òp / 2 [2 sin x ]dx is
4 4
(1) –p (2) p
p
(3) x =2n p + , n Î I (3) p /2 (4) -p/2
2
79. If f(x) = ax2 + b, b ¹ 0, x £ 1;
p
(4) x = n ,n ÎI
2 = bx2 + ax + c, x > 1,
r r
75. If A = ˆi + ˆj + k,
ˆ B = 4iˆ + 3jˆ + 4kˆ and then f(x) is continuous and differentiable at x = 1 if
r (1) c = 0, a = 2b (2) a = b, c arbitrary
C = ˆi + aˆj + bkˆ are linearly independent vectors (3) a = b, c = 0 (4) a = b, c ¹ 0
r
and C = 3 , then
 MT-72 JEE MAIN

80. The values of the parameter a such that the a1 = a2 = 10, then value of m + n is ______ .
roots a, b of the equation 2x2 + 6x + a = 0 satisfy
86. The value of expression
a b
the inequality + < 2 are
b a é æ 3p ö ù
3 êsin 4 ç - a ÷ + sin 4 (3p + a ) ú
(1) a > 0 (2) a < 9/2 ë è 2 ø û
(3) a < 0 or a > 9/2 (4) None of these
é æp ö ù
Section - B -2 êsin 6 ç + a ÷ + sin 6 (5p - a ) ú is ______ .
ë è 2 ø û
81. It has been found that A and B play a game 12 r r r r r r
times, A wins 6 times, B wins 4 times and they 87. The value of [A - B, B - C, C - A] where
draw twice. A and B take part in a series of 3 r r r
games. The probability that they will win | A |= 1, | B |= 2 and | C |= 3 is ______ .
alternately is ______ .
2 x -3
x 3 x 88. If f(x) = , g (x) =
82. If period of the function sin + cos5 = x -3 x+4
2 5
kp, then value of x is ______ .
2(2 x + 1)
83. If the least difference between the roots, in the h(x) = – and
pö x 2 + x - 12
æ
first quadrant ç 0 £ x £ ÷ , of the equation
è 2ø lim [f(x) +g(x) +h(x)] = k then value of | k | is
x ®3
p ______ .
4 cos x (2 - 3 sin 2 x ) + (cos 2x + 1) = 0 is ,
n
then value of n is ______ . 89. If P and Q be two given points on the curve
84. If [x] denotes the greatest integer £ x and 1 uuur uuur
y=x+ such that OP.iˆ = 1 and OQ.iˆ = -1
x
1 p
lim ([12 x] + [ 22 x] + [32 x] + ........+ [ n 2 x]) = , where î is a unit vector along the x–axis and
x ®3 n 3 n
then value of n is ______ . the length of vector 2OP + 3OQ = n 5, then
value of n is ______ .
85. For natural numbers m, n if
90. The area bounded by parabola y2 = x, st. line
(1 - y )m (1 + y ) n = 1 + a1 y + a2 y 2 + ¼ and y = 4 and y-axis is ______ .
 Mock Test-6
ANSWER KEY
1 (3) 16 (4) 31 (3) 46 (2) 61 (1) 76 (4)
2 (3) 17 (4) 32 (3) 47 (2) 62 (2) 77 (2)
3 (2) 18 (4) 33 (3) 48 (3) 63 (1) 78 (4)
4 (3) 19 (2) 34 (2) 49 (2) 64 (1) 79 (1)
5 (4) 20 (4) 35 (2) 50 (3) 65 (3) 80 (3)
6 (1) 21 (250) 36 (1) 51 (10.43) 66 (4) 81 (0.14)
7 (1) 22 (4) 37 (1) 52 (1) 67 (2) 82 (10)
8 (4) 23 (4) 38 (1) 53 (464) 68 (4) 83 (6)
–3
9 (1) 24 (2 × 10 ) 39 (2) 54 (8) 69 (4) 84 (3)
10 (4) 25 (1.06) 40 (2) 55 (57.5) 70 (3) 85 (80)
11 (2) 26 (5451) 41 (2) 56 (105.7) 71 (2) 86 (1)
12 (2) 27 (0.01) 42 (4) 57 (0.05) 72 (1) 87 (0)
13 (3) 28 (0) 43 (2) 58 (21) 73 (1) 88 (0.29)
14 (4) 29 (80) 44 (1) 59 (2.57) 74 (2) 89 (1)
15 (3) 30 (30) 45 (3) 60 (2.42) 75 (4) 90 (21.33)

Solutions
j
PHYSICS
+
+

+
+ dl
+

1 k + dq
+
1. (3) Frequency of spring (f ) = = 1 Hz
2p m + dE q
+
cos q
i
O
2 k m = 1 kg dE
Þ 4p =
m dE sin q
æ ö
q q
dq = ç ÷ dl = (rd q) (Qdl = rd q)
è pr ø pr
If block of mass m = 1 kg is attached then,
k = 4p2 æqö
= ç ÷dq
Now, identical springs are attached in parallel è pø
with mass m = 8 kg. Hence, Electric field at O due to dq is
keq = 2k 1 dq 1 q
dE = . = . dq
k 4p Î0 r 2 4 p Î0 pr 2
1 k´2 1
F= = Hz 8 kg
The component dE cos q will be counter
2p m 2
balanced by another element on left portion.
2. (3) Let us consider a differential element dl. Hence resultant field at O is the resultant of the
charge on this element. component dE sinq only.
 MT-182 JEE MAIN

p
q 5
\ E = ò dE sin q = ò 4 p2 r 2 Î sin qd q \ i1 = i2
0 0 4
q p i1 = current through 4 W
= [ - cos q]0 i2 = current through Ammeter
4p2 r 2 Î0
q 5 ´ 4 20
= (+1 + 1) Total R = =
4p2 r 2 Î0 9 9
q 10 ´ 9 9 5 9
= I= = Þ i 2 + i 2 = Þ i 2 = 2A
2p2 r 2 Î0 20 2 4 2
The direction of E is towards negative y-axis. 9. (1) When positive terminal connected to A
then diode D1 is forward biased, current,
r q
\ E=- 2 2 ˆj 2
2p r Î0 I= = 0.4 A
5
3. (2) Let pole strength = m When positive terminal connected to B then
l diode D 2 is forward biased, current,
\ M = m ´ l when l' =
2 2
ml M I= = 0.2 A
M' = m ´ l' = = = 40 units 10
2 2 10. (4) Mass per unit length of the wire = r
1 é 1 1 ù Mass of L length, M = rL
4. (3) Wave number = RZ 2 ê - ú
l êë n1 n 2 úû
2 and since the wire of length L is bent in a form
1 L
Þlµ of circular loop therefore 2pR = L Þ R =
Z2 2p
By question n = 1 and n 1 = 2 Moment of inertia of loop about given axis
3 2
Then, l1 = l2 = 4l3 = 9l4 = MR
2
5. (4) From conservation of mechanical energy 2
3 æ Lö 3rL3
1 1 æ v2 ö æ 3v2 ö = rL ç ÷ =
mv 2 + I ç 2 ÷ = mg ç ÷ 2 è 2p ø 8p2
2 2 èR ø è 4g ø r r
11. (2) f = B. A ; f = BA cos wt
mR 2
after solving I = Which is for disc. df wBA
2 e=- = wBA sin wt ; i = sin wt
1 dt R
6. (1) X= 2
a w 2 - bw + c æ wBA ö
Pinst = i 2 R = ç ÷ ´ R sin 2 wt
At resonance X becomes maximum and è R ø
T
aw 2 - bw + c becomes minimum.
\ Differential above term and equating it to zero.
ò Pinst ´ dt
0
Pavg =
b T
\ 2aw - b = 0 Þ w = .
2a ò dt
0
(200 - T1 ) (T - T ) T
7. (1) Q = KA = (2K)A 1 2 2
L L 2 ò sin wtdt
1 =
(wBA) 0 1 ( wBA) 2
=(1.5K) A (T2-18) × R T =
L 2 R
200 – T1= 2T1 – 2T2 = 1.5 T2- 27, ò dt
0
Solving T1 = 116ºC and T2= 74ºC é
(w B pr 2 ) 2 pr 2 ù
8. (4) 4i1 = 5i 2 \ Pavg = êA = ú
8R ëê 2 ûú
 Solutions-Mock Test-6 MT-183

12. (2) Let V be volume of the load, and let its 4

relative density be r then At t = s we get
3
2
FL VrgL d2x æ pö p 4 -p2 p
Y= = . ......(1) = - ç ÷ sin ´ = sin
Al a Al a dt 2 è 4ø 4 3 16 3
when the load is immersed in liquid, the net - 3p 2
= cm / s 2
weight = weight - upthrust 32
F' L (Vrg - V ´ l ´ g )L 2 æ Df ö p
\Y = = ......(2) 15. (3) 2I0 = 4I0 cos ç ÷ here, Df =
Al w Al w è 2 ø 2
2p l
r r -1 But, Df = Dx so, Dx =
Equating (1) and (2), we get = l 4
la lw dy l
= ....(i)
D 4
la
which gives r = lD
la - l w =b ....(ii)
d
13. (3) Given: Amplitude of electric field, Multiplying equation (i) and (ii) we get,
E0 = 4 V/m b
Absolute permitivity, y=
e0 = 8.8 × 10–12 C2/N-m2 4
Average energy density uE = ? 16. (4) Internal energy is a state function hence in
Applying formula, a cyclic process change in internal energy is
zero.
1
Average energy density uE = e0 E 2 17. (4) From the law of conservation of momentum
4 we know that,
1 m1u1 + m2u2 + .... = m1v1 + m2v2 + ....
Þ uE = ´ 8.8 ´ 10 -12 ´ (4) 2
4 Given m1 = m, m2 = 2m and m3 = 3m
= 35.2 × 10–12 J/m3 and u1 = 3u, u2 = 2u and u3 = u
14. (4) From the graph it is clear that the ®
amplitude is 1 cm and the time period is 8 Let the velocity when they stick = v
second. Therefore the equation for the S.H.M. Then, according to question,
is Y
æ 2p ö æ 2p ö 2m, 2u
x = a sin ç ÷ ´ t = 1sin ç ÷ t
èT ø è 8ø
j sin 60°
p j
x = sin t 60°
4 m, 3u X
The velocity (v) of the particle at any instant of P 60° i i cos 60°
time ‘t’ is (–j) sin 60°

–3m, u
dx d é æ p ö ù p æ pö
v= = êsin ç ÷ t ú = cos ç ÷ t
dt dt ë è 4 ø û 4 è 4ø ()
m × 3u î + 2m × 2u
The acceleration of the particle is
2 2 ( -ˆi cos 60° - ˆjsin 60°) + 3 m × u
d x æ pö æ pö
= - ç ÷ sin ç ÷ t
( -ˆi cos 60° + ˆjsin 60°) = (m + 2m + 3m) v
®
dt 2 è 4ø è 4ø
 MT-184 JEE MAIN

ˆi æ 3 ˆö ˆi 21. (250) The magnetic field at a point on the axis

Þ 3muiˆ - 4mu - 4mu ç j÷ - 3mu of a circular loop at a distance x from centre is,
2 è 2 ø 2
æ 3 ˆö ® m 0i a 2
+ 3mu çç j ÷÷ = 6m v B=
2( x 2 + a 2 )3 / 2
è 2 ø
3 3 ® m i
Þ muiˆ - muiˆ - mujˆ = 6m v B' = 0
2 2 2a
®
1 ˆ
Þ - mui -
3 ˆ
muj = 6m v B.( x 2 + a2 )3/ 2
\ B' =
2 2 a3
®
54(53 )
Þ v=
u ˆ
12
(
- i - 3jˆ ) Put x = 4 & a = 3 Þ B ' =
3´ 3´ 3
= 250 µT
18. (4) Gravitational force provides the necessary 22. (4) mg – T = ma
centripetal force.
T 360
mv 2 GmM GM \ a = g - = 10 - = 4m / s 2
\ = also g = 2 m 60
( R + x ) ( R + x )2 R
T
mv 2 æ GM ö R 2 n!
\ = mç
( R + x) è R 2 ÷ø ( R + x )2 r !( n - r ) !
a

®
T
mv 2 R2
\ = mg
( R + x) ( R + x) 2
mg
1/ 2 mg
gR 2 æ gR 2 ö
\ v2 = Þ v = ç ÷ u 2 sin 2 q
R+ x è R + xø 23. (4) H= or H µ u 2
2g
1
19. (2) According to Wien’s law l m µ and DH Du
T = 2. = 2(+2%) = 4% increased
H u
from the figure (lm)1 < (lm)3 < (lm)2 therefore 1 q
T1 > T3 > T2. 24. (2 × 10–3) Electric Intensity = ´
4 p Î0 r 2
20. (4) Here, R = 4 kW = 4 × 103 W 1
Vi = 60 V or qmax = r2E
9
9 ´ 10
Zener voltage Vz = 10 V
1
RL = 2 kW = 2 × 103 W = × 2.5 × 2.5 × 3 × 106
9 ´10 9
VZ 10
Load current, IL = = = 5 mA or qmax = 2 × 10–3 coulomb
RL 2 ´ 103
25. (1.06) 20 cm
V - VZ
Current through R, I = i
R u0 v0 ue

60 - 10 50
= 3
= = 12.5 mA
4 ´ 10 4 ´ 103
Fom circuit diagram,
I = IZ + IL objective
Þ 12.5 = IZ + 5
Þ IZ = 12.5 – 5 = 7.5 mA Ve=25 cm Eye piece
 Solutions-Mock Test-6 MT-185

Final image distance L = v0 + ue = 20

1 1 1
The distance of point A ( 2, 2 ) from the
for objective = +
origin,
f0 v0 u 0
1 1 1 ur 2 2
for eye piece =- + OA = | r1 | = ( 2) + ( 2) = 4 = 2units.
fe 25 u e
The distance of point B(2, 0) from the origin,
1 1 1
or + = uur 2 2
5 25 u e OB = | r2 | = (2) + (0) = 2 units.
25 1 Q
\ue = cm Now, potential at A, VA = .
6 4p Î0 (OA)
\ v o = 20 - u e
1 Q
25 95 Potential at B, VB = .
v0 = 20 - = 4p Î0 (OB)
6 6
\ Potential difference between the points A and
1 1 95 89 B is given by
\ = 1- =1- = -
u0 v0 6 95
1 Q 1 Q
95 VA – VB = . - .
\u0 = - ; 1.06 4p Î0 OA 4p Î0 OB
89
1 ì hc ü Q æ 1 1 ö Q æ 1 1ö
26. (5451) V= í - fý = ç - ÷ = ç - ÷
eîl þ 4p Î0 è OA OB ø 4p Î0 è 2 2 ø
Put l1 = 3 ´10 -7 m, V1 = 1.85 , Q
= ´ 0 = 0.
l 2 = 4 ´ 10 -7 m, V2 = 0.82 4p Î0
in the above equation respectively 29. (80) 9.25 days is equal to three half-lives for Tl-
hc 201. The fraction remaining is then :
f = 1.216 ´ 10 -19 J = Þ l 0 = 5451Å 1/2 × 1/2 × 1/2 = 1/8. Thus 1/8 of 80 mCi remains.
l0
Distance travelled on pitch scale
27. (0.01) Pitch = H
Number of rotation A 0.9 km B I
2mm 30. (30) ENGINE L
= = 0.5 mm C L
4
Least count
Pitch Let after 5 sec engine at point C
=
Number of division on circular scale AB BC
t= +
0.5mm 330 330
= = 0.01 mm
50 0.9 ´ 1000 BC
28. (0) 5= +
Y 330 330
\ BC = 750 m
Distance travelled by engine in 5 sec
A(Ö2,Ö2)
® = 900 m – 750 m = 150 m
r1 Therefore velocity of engine
150 m
O X = = 30 m/s .
(0,0) ®
r2 B (2,0) 5sec
 MT-186 JEE MAIN

CHEMISTRY 37. (1) AgX + 2 Na2S2O3 ® Na3[Ag(S2O3)2] + NaX

thiosulphate Sodium argento (soluble complex)
31. (3) The correct order of acidic strength of the Q x + 2 (–2) = –3
given species is :
x = +1
HSO 3 F > H 3O + > HSO 4– > HCO 3–
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i) 38. (1) 2C2 H5OH ∗ 2Na ¾¾
↑
(i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) Ethanol
(A) 2C2 H5ONa ∗ H 2 ←
It corresponds to choice (3) which is correct
Sod. ethoxide
answer. (B)
32. (3) Solar energy is not responsible for green conc. H2SO4
house effect instead it is a source of energy for
2C2 H5OH ¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® C2 H 5 OC2 H5
- H 2O
Diethyl ether
the plants and animals.
Thus, (A) is ethanol and (B) is sodium ethoxide.
33. (3) CH3OCH2Cl is a 1° halide but still
39. (2) Claisen self condensation is given by esters
hydrolysis takes place through SN1 mechanism
+ which contain at least one hydrogen on an alpha
because CH 3O - C H 2 is stabilized by carbon atom (e.g., CH3COOC2H5). Compound,
resonance C6H5COOC2H5 will not give this reaction. All
+ remaining compounds will give this reaction.
C H3O CH 2Cl « CH 3– O – CH2 « 40. (2) The step involved is a precipitation step.
+
CH3– O = CH2 Increasing the Cl– concentration will reduce the
34. (2) It is an example of Diel’s-Alder reaction in concentration of Ag+ in solution. Remember
which a dienophile (maleic anhydride, here) Ksp = [Ag+ ] [Cl–] and the source of the Cl– is
reacts with a conjugated diene to form cyclic irrelevant. Thus increased concentration of Cl –
adduct. Here although structures (i), (iii) and (iv) must result in decreased concentration of Ag+
have conjugated system of double bonds, hence in order to maintain the solubility product
theoretically all the three can undergo Diel’s- constant. Addition of Ag2SO4 would probably
Alder reaction, but structure (iii) does not be counterproductive, since additional Ag+ is
undergo this reaction because this will lead to being added, and probably all will not be
larger ring (9-membered) which is unstable. recovered.
CH — CO 41. (2) 2F2 + 4KOH ® 4 KF + O 2 + 2H 2 O for 1 mole
+ O of F2 the molar ratio.
CH — CO F2 KOH KF O2 H2O
6 1
5 7 1 2 2 1
2
8 HOCl
3
4 42. (4) CH 2 < CH 2 ¾¾ ¾↑ ClCH 2 CH 2 OH
9
1 aq. NaHCO
2
CH — CH ¾¾¾ ¾¾
3 ↑ HOCH CH OH
2 2

CO CO 43. (2) All alkali metals dissolve in liquid ammonia

giving deep blue solution.
O 44. (1) According to van der Waal's equation for
35. (2) Ag2S + 2NaCN Na2S + 2AgCN one mole of gas
AgCN + NaCN ¾ ¾® Na[ Ag ( CN ) 2 ] æ a ö
36.
1
(1) M.P. µ (HCl having more covalent çççP ∗ 2 ÷÷÷ (V , b) < RT
è V ø
f
character) a
M.P. µ Lattice energy (Ionic compd.) at very high pressure P ==
LiF is ionic having highest Lattice energy. V2
 Solutions-Mock Test-6 MT-187

a 52. (1)
So, is negligible. H
V2 H
H CH3
P (V – b) = RT
CH3 CH3 CH3 +
PV – Pb = RT Br –
¾ ¾® Br ¾¾ ®
on dividing RT on both sides. Br
H
Pb
[ Z < 1∗ compressibility factor..
Br
Br CH3
RT
H H Br
45. (3) For electrophilic substitution reaction, the CH3
order of reactivity among the given compounds CH3 H Br
H
is as follows : Br CH3
C6H5OCH3 > benzene > C6H5NO2 (meso)
46. (2) KI ∗ AgNO 3 (slight excess) ¾ ¾ ↑ 1
AgI ∗ KNO3 53. (464) H 2 (g) + O2 (g) ® H 2 O(g) ΔH = – 249
2
∗ ,;
AgNO3 ¾¾ ↑ Ag ∗ NO3 Let the bond enthalpy of O - H is x. Then
AgI(s) ∗ Ag ∗ ¾¾ ↑ [AgI]Ag ∗ DH = SB.E. of reactant - S [Link] product
47. (2) Saffron is an artificial edible colour. 1
–249 = 433 + ´ 492 - 2 x
48. (3) Hydroxylamine and hydrazine, both do not 2
have carbon, hence NaCN will not be formed in Þ x = 464 kJ mol-1.
Lassaigne’s extract leading to negative test for 54. (8) KE = hv – hv0
nitrogen. hv1 – hv0 = 2(hv2 – hv0)
49. (2) Both egg yolk and mustard contain large v0 = 2 v2 – v1
quantity of sulphur (as its compounds) which = 2 (2.0 × 1016) – (3.2 × 1016)
react with Ag.
= 8 × 1015 s–1 = 8 × 1015 Hz
2Ag + S ® Ag2S (Black colour)
55. (57.5) Percentage by mass of copper in malachite
50. (3) In (c), sulphate ion is present outside the
coordination sphere so it can form white ppt of 2 ´ 63.5
= = 57.5%
BaSO4 with BaCl2 (aq). 221
K f ´ w ´ 1000
51. (10.43) Mass of H2SO4 in 100ml of 93% H2SO4 56. (105.7) Molar mass of solute =
DTf ´ W
solution = 93g
Given : Kf = 1.86, w = 1.25 g, W = 20 g,
\ Mass of H2SO4 in 1000 ml of the H2SO4 DTf = 273 – 271.9 = 1.1K
solution = 930g Therefore, molar mass of solute
Mass of 1000 ml H2SO4 solution
1.86 ´ 1.25 ´ 1000
= 1000 × 1.84 = 1840g = = 105.7
1.1´ 20
Mass of water in 1000 ml of solution
= 1840 – 930 = 910 g 57. (0.05) According to the Faraday’s law of
Wt. of H 2SO4 930 electrolysis, nF of current is required for the
Moles of H2SO4 = =
Mol Wt. of H 2SO4 98 deposition of 1 mole.
According to the reaction,
\ Moles of H2SO4 in 1 kg of water
930 1000 Ni ( NO3 ) 2 ¾¾
® Ni 2 + + 2NO 3-
= ´ = 10.43 mol kg–1
98 910 2 F of current deposits = 1 mol
\ Molality of 1 litre solution = 10.43 \ 0.1 F of current deposits = = 0.05 mol
 MT-188 JEE MAIN

58. (21) Molecular orbital electronic configuration

d2 y 1 dy y
of these species are : Þ = .2y . = . 1+ y2 = y
2 2 dx 1+ y2
dx 2 1+ y
O -2 (17e - ) : s1s 2 , s *1s 2 , s 2s 2 , s *2s2 , s 2p 2z ,
62. (2) | a1 x + a2x2 + … + anxn | £ | a1 | | x |+| a2 | | x | 2
p2p2x = p 2p2y , p * 2p2x = p *2p1y
+ | a3 | | x | 3 + ……. + | an | | x | n
O2 (16e - ) : s1s 2 , s *1s 2 , s 2s 2 , s * 2s 2 , s2p 2z ,
£ 2 [| x | + | x |2 + ….. + | x |n ] [Q a n < 2]
p2p2x = p 2p 2y , p * 2p1x
= p * 2p1y
O22 - (18e -
) : s1s , s *1s , s 2s , s * 2s 2 , s2p 2z ,
2 2 2 2| x|
[1- | x | n ] <
2| x| 2 1
<
=
p 2p2x : p2p2y , p * 2p x2 = p * 2p 2y 1- | x | 1- | x | 3 1- | x |
Hence number of antibonding electrons are 7, 6
and 8 respectively. 1 3
Therefore, | a1x + ….. + anxn | < 2. . =1
59. (2.57) Since in NaCl type of structure 4 formula 3 2
units form a cell. \ | a 1x + ….. + anxn | < 1 for all n .
58.5 g of NaCl = 6.023 × 1023 atoms
– 1 < a1x + ….. + anxn < 1 for all n
6.023 ´ 10 23
1 g of NaCl = atoms Þ 1 + a1x + a2x2 + … + anxn > 0 for all n
58.5
4 atoms constitute 1 unit cell
Þ 1 + a1x + .. + a nxn ¹ 0 for all n
23 23
6.023 ´ 10 6.023 ´ 10 p
\ atoms constitute = - p
58.5 58.5 ´ 4 63. (1) Since, e 2 < q <
= 2.57 × 1021 unit cells. 2
o
60. (2.42) Given : E 2+ = -2.36V -
p
p
Mg / Mg
2+ -
\ log e 2 < log q < log
Mg (aq) + 2e ® Mg(s) 2
p p p
o 0.059 [Mg 2+ ] i.e., – < log q < log <1 <
E =E + log 2 2 2
Mg 2 + / Mg Mg 2 + / Mg 2 [Mg] é p p pù
Given [Mg2+] = 0.01 M; [Mg] = 1 êQ 2 < e \ log 2 < log e = 1 and 1 < 2 ú
ë û
0.059
Hence, E Mg2+/Mg = -2.36 + log(0.01) p p
2 \– < log q < \ cos (log q) > 0
= -2.42V 2 2
MATHEMATICS But 0 < cos q < 1, \ log ( cos q) < log 1 = 0
i.e., log (cos q) < 0.
y 1 dy
dt . Hence, cos (log q) > log ( cos q)
61. (1) x = ò Þ 1=
1+ y 2 dx
0 1+ t2 s n
64. (1) å å n
Cs s Cr
r=0 s =1
é y ( x) r£s
dI(x)
êQ If I( x) = ò f (t ) dt , then = f {y ( x)}.
ê dx n
ë f ( x )
(
= å nCs s C 0 + s C1 + s C2 + ... + s Cs )
{ d
dx }
y ( x ) - f {f( x )} .
d
dx { ù
f( x ) ú
û
} s =1

n n
= å n
Cs 2 s = å n Cs 2s – n C0 2 0 =(1 + 2) – 1
n

dy
= 1 + y2 s =1 s=0
dx = 3 –1n
 Solutions-Mock Test-6 MT-189

65. (3) Number of ways of making 3 sets of 10 balls we get,

having 2, 3 and 5 balls

10!
and further they x + 1+ w + w2 w w2
2!.3!.5!
x + 1+ w + w2 x + w2 1 =0
can be given to 3 persons one each in 3! ways. 2
x + 1+ w + w 1 x+w
10!
Total number of ways = ´ 3!
2!3!5! x w w2
æ dy ö
66. (4) Given, sin 2 x çè - tan x ÷ø - y = 0 Þ x x + w2 1 =0
dx
x 1 x+w
dy y
or, = + tan x
dx sin 2 x [Q 1 + w + w2 = 0]
dy
or, - y cosec2 x = tan x ...(1) 1 w w2
dx
2
Þ x 1 x+w 1 =0Þx =0
Now, integrating factor (I.F) = e ò
- cosec2x
1 1 x+w
1
- log|tan x|
or, I.F = e 2 = e
( )
log tan x
-1

1 l m n
= = cot x 69. (4) Lines are concurrent if m n l =0
tan x
Now, general solution of eq. (1) is written as n l m
y (I. F.) = ò Q(I.F.) dx + c l+ m+n m n
Þ l+ m+n n l = 0 (C1 ® C1 + C2 + C3 )
\ y cot x = ò tan x . cot x dx + c l+ m+n l m

1 m n
\ y cot x = ò [Link] + c Þ (l + m + n) 1 n l =0
\ y cot x = x + c 1 l m
67. (2) From cosine and sine formula, we have Þ (l + m + n )( mn + nl + lm - l 2 - m 2 - n 2 ) = 0
b2 + c2 - a 2
cos A = and Þ l + m + n = 0; l 2 + m 2 + n 2 - lm - mn - nl = 0
2bc \ l2 + m2 + n2 = lm +mn + nl
sin A sin B sin C
= = = k. 3 4 2 3 4 2
a b c
70. (3) 5 8 2 = 2 4 0
Given, in any DABC,
sinB x y 2 x -5 y -8 0
cos A =
2sin C (R 2 ® R 2 - R1 , R 3 ® R 3 - R 2 )
From the above given formula, we have
= 2 (2y – 16 – 4x + 20 ) = 2 (2y – 4x + 4 )
sin B = bk, sin C = ck
\ given determinant = 0 Þ 2y – 4x + 4 = 0
bk b Þ 2x – y – 2 = 0 which represents st. line.
\ cos A = =
2ck 2 c 71. (2) Centre of the given circle is (1,2) and its
Put the value of cos A in the formula, which
gives radius = 1 + 4 + 20 = 5 . Since the radii of the
2 2 2 two circles are equal, therefore these will touch
b b +c -a
= externally and the point of contact will lie mid -
2c 2bc
2 2 way between the two centres. If (h,k) is the
Þc =a Þ c=a centre of the circle, then
68. (4) Operate C1+C2 +C3 ,
 MT-190 JEE MAIN

h +1 k+2 r
= 5, = 5 \ h = 9, k = 8 Again, | C | = 1 + a 2 + b 2 = 3
2 2
\ its equation is ( x –9)2 + ( y – 8)2 = 25 Þ 1 + a2 + b2 = 3 Þ 1 + a2 + 1 = 3
i.e., x2 + y2 – 18x – 16y + 120 = 0 \ a2 = 1 Þ a = ± 1
Hence, a = ± 1 , b = 1
x2 y 2 76. (4) We know that every quadratic equation has
72. (1) Ellipse is + =1 exactly two roots which are either, both real or
16 3
both are imaginary. So, any quadratic equation
Now, equation of normal at (2, 3/2) is has neither exactly one real root nor booth roots
16 x 3 y are always real.
- = 16 - 3
2 3/ 2 77. (2) We have a theorem that if a square matrix A
13 satisfies the equation;
Þ 8x – 2y = 13 Þ y = 4 x -
2 a0 + a1 x + a2 x 2 + ....... + a n x n = 0,
13 where a0 ¹ 0 then A is invertible.
Let y = 4 x - touches a parabola
2 Since A, B and C are n × n matrices and
y2 = 4ax. A satisfies the equation x3 + 2x2 + 3x + 5 = 0 as
We know, a straight line y = mx + c touches a
parabola y2 = 4ax if a – mc = 0 A 3 + 2 A 2 + 3A + 5I = 0 , therefore, A is
invertible.
æ 13ö 3p / 2 5p / 6 p
\ a - ( 4) ç - ÷ = 0 Þ a = – 26 78. (4) ò [ 2 sin x]dx = ò [2 sin x ]dx + ò [2 sin x ]dx
è 2ø
p/2 p/ 2 5p / 6
Hence, required equation of parabola is 7p / 6 3p / 2
y2 = 4 (– 26)x = – 104 x + ò [2 sin x ]dx + ò [ 2 sin x ]dx
p 7p / 6
73. (1) I study or I fail = p Ú q 5p / 6 p 7p /6
Now, ~ (p Ú q) º~ p Ù (~ q) = ò 1 dx + ò 0 dx + ò (-1) dx
p/2 5p / 6 p
Hence, negation of 'I study or I fail' is I do not
3p / 2
study and I do not fail.
æ pö p
+ ò (-2) dx
74. (2) sin x – cos x = 1 Þ sin ç x - ÷ = sin Þ x 7p / 6
è 4 ø 4
æ 5p p ö æ 7 p ö æ 7 p 3p ö p
=ç - + 0 + çp - ÷ + 2ç - ÷=-
p p p p è 6 2 ÷ø è 6 ø è 6 2 ø 2
– = np + (–1)n Þ x = np + (–1)n +
4 4 4 4 79. (1) L f ¢(1)
r r f ( x ) - f (1) ax 2 + b - a - b
75. (4) Vector A = ˆi + ˆj + k,ˆ B = 4iˆ + 3jˆ + 4kˆ = Lt = Lt
r x ®1 x -1 x ®1 x -1
And C = ˆi + aˆj + bkˆ are linearly independent, a ( x 2 - 1)
= Lt = Lt a ( x + 1) = 2a
1 1 1 x ®1 x - 1 x ®1
Rf ¢(1)
if 4 3 4 = 0
f ( x) - f (1) bx 2 + ax + c - a - b
1 a b = Lt = Lt
x ®1 x -1 x ®1 x -1
Operate C3®C3 – C1 ; C2®C2 – C1 c
= Lt [b ( x + 1) + a ] +
1 0 0 x ®1 x -1
we get, 4 -1 0 =0 c
= 2b + a + = 2b + a if c = 0
1 a -1 b -1 x -1
Since, f is diff. at x = 1\ 2 a = 2 b + a
Þ–(b–1)=0Þb=1 Þ a = 2 b. Thus, result holds if a = 2 b, c = 0.
 Solutions-Mock Test-6 MT-191

80. (3) We have a + b = – 3 and ab = a/2 83. (6.00) We have,

a b a2 + b 2 4 cos x (2 - 3 sin 2 x ) + (cos 2x + 1) = 0
Now + <2 Þ <2
b a ab Þ 4 cos x (3 cos 2 x - 1) + 2 cos 2 x = 0

(a + b)2 – 2ab 9–a Þ 2 cos x (6 cos 2 x + cos x - 2) = 0

Þ <2 Þ <2
ab a/2 Þ 2 cos x (3 cos x + 2)(2 cos x - 1) = 0
9–a Þ either cos x = 0 which gives x = p / 2 or
Þ <1 cos x = -2 / 3
a
Which gives no value of x for which 0 £ x £ p / 2
9–a 9 – 2a 2a – 9
Þ –1<0 Þ <0 Þ >0 or cos x = 1 / 2 , which gives x = p / 3
a a a
So, the required difference = p / 2 - p / 3 = p / 6
9
Þ a < 0 or a > p
2 = Þ n = 6.
n
81. (0.14) The probability of A winning in a game 84. (3.00) Since 12 x – 1 < [12 x] £ 12 . x
22 x – 1 < [22 x] £ 22 x
6 1
= P (A) = = 32 x – 1 < [32 x] £ 32 x ………………
12 2
n2 x – 1 < [n 2 x] £ n2 x
The probability of B winning in a game = P (B) Adding all terms, we get,

4 1 x å n 2 - n < {[12 x] + [22 x] + [32 x] + …

= =
12 3
+ [ n2 x]} £ x å n 2
\ Reqd. probability = P (A Ç B Ç A) + P (B Ç A Ç B)
Dividing each term by n3,
= P (A).P(B).P(A) + P (B).P(A).P(B) æ 1 öæ 1ö
x ç1 + ÷ç 2 + ÷
we get , è n øè nø 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 5 -
= × × + × × = = 0.14 6 n2
2 3 2 3 2 3 36 æ 1 öæ 1ö
xç1 + ÷ç 2 + ÷
[12 x ] + [2 2 x] + ..... + [ n 2 x] è n øè nø
82. (10.00) Period of sinx = 2π < £
n3 6
3
Þ period of sin x = 2π Let n ® ¥, we get,
x [12 x] + [2 2 x] + ....+ [n 2 x] x
3
period of sin x = π (2) - 0 < Lt £
6 n®¥ n3 3

3 x [12 x ] + [2 2 x ] + ..... + [n 2 x ] x
Þ period of sin = 2π Þ lim =
2 n ®¥ 3 3
n
period of cos5 x = 2π
x
= Þ n = 3.
Þ period of cos5 x = π n
85. (80.00) (1 - y ) m (1 + y )n
x 5
Þ period of cos = 5π = [1 - m C1 y + m C2 y 2 - ......] [1 + n C1 y + n C2 y 2 + .....]
5
Thus required period
= 1 + (n - m) y + ìí m(m - 1) + n(n - 1) - mn üý y 2 + .....
= LCM of 2π & 5π = 10π = kp Þ k = 10 î 2 2 þ
 MT-192 JEE MAIN

By comparing coefficients with the given 89. (1.00) Let P ( x1, y1 ), Q ( x2,y2 ) be two points on
expression, we get
1
the curve y = x + . Let î be unit vector along
m2 + n 2 - m - n - 2mn x
\ a1 = n - m = 10 and a2 = = 10
2
x-axis and let ĵ be a unit vector along y-axis.
So, n – m = 10 and (m - n) 2 - (m + n) = 20
Then
Þ m + n = 80 uuur uuur
OP = x1ˆi + y1ˆj, OQ = x 2ˆi + y 2ˆj
æ 3p ö
86. (1.00) sin 4 ç - a ÷ = cos 4 a, uuur
è 2 ø Since, OP × ˆi = 1 and OQ.î = -1
sin 4 ( 3p + a) = sin4 a, \ x1 = 1 and x2 = –1 Þ y1 = 2 and y2 = –2 ;
æp ö
sin 6 ç + a ÷ = cos6 a, sin6 (5p – a) = sin6 a \ OP = î + 2 ĵ; OQ = - î - 2 ĵ
è2 ø
\ given quantity
\ 2OP + 3OQ = 2i + 4 j - 3i - 6 j = -i - 2 j ;
= 3[cos4a + sin4 a] – 2 [cos6 a + sin6 a]
= 3 [1 – 2sin2 a cos2a] –2 [1 – 3 sin2 acos2a] = 1
r r r r r r Hence, 2OP + 3OQ = 1 + 4 = 5
87. (0) [A - B B - C C - A]
r r r r r r
= [(A - B) ´ (B - C)]. (C - A) = n 5 Þn=1
r r r r r r r r r
= [A ´ B - A ´ C - 0 + B ´ C].(C - A) 90. (21.33) y = 4 meets the parabola y2 = x at A, if
r r r r r r 16 = x
= [A ´ B].C - [B ´ C].A \ A is (16, 4)
rrr r rr
= [A BC] - [A BC] = 0 (Q [ABC] = [BCA]) Reqd. area = Area of rect. OMAC – Area OMA
88. (0.29) Lt [f (x ) + g ( x ) + h (x )]
x ®3

é 2 x -3 2(2 x + 1) ù
= Lt ê + - ú
x ®3 ë x - 3 x + 4 x 2 + x - 12 û

é 2 x + 8 + x 2 - 6x + 9 - 4 x - 2 ù
= Lt ê ú
x ®3ê
ë x 2 + x - 12 ûú 16
16 3/ 2
x
x 2 - 8x + 15(x - 3)( x - 5) = 4 ´ 16 – ò x dx = 64 - .
= Lt = Lt 0
3
2
x ®3 x + x - 12 x ®3 ( x + 4)( x - 3) 2 0

x -5 3-5 2
= Lt = =- =k 2 128 64
x + 4 3+ 4
x ®3 7 = 64 - (4)3 = 64 - = = 21.33 [Link]
3 3 3
2
Þ k = = 0.29.
7