DMSF Board Review 2020

1. Which part of the duodenum is referred to as the duodenal cap?

A. Proximal half of the superior portion
B. Distal part of the descending portion
C. Duodenojejunal junction
D. Distal end of the ascending portion

2. Which of the following demarcates the superior and inferior part of the anal canal?
A. Semicircular line
B. Pectinate line
C. Dentate line
D. Arcuate line

3. Which of the following divides the parotid gland into superficial and deep parts?
A. Retromandibular vein
B. Facial nerve branches
C. Parotideo-masseteric fascia
D. Medial pterygoid muscle

4. Which of the following tonsils are in the oropharynx?

A. Pharyngeal and tubal
B. Tubal and palatine
C. Palatine and lingual
D. Lingual and pharyngeal

5. Which of the following muscles depresses the mandible as in yawning?

A. Temporalis
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Lateral pterygoid
D. Masseter

6. Which of the following muscles is supplied by facial nerve?

A. Sternohyoid
B. Stylohyoid
C. Thyrohyoid
D. Omohyoid

7. A 28yo female slipped hitting her right shoulder on the floor. She was brought to the
nearest hospital where a radiograph of her shoulder showed a fracture of the surgical
neck of the humerus. Which of the following nerves is likely involved?
A. Axillary
B. Radial
C. Ulnar
 D. Musculocutaneous

8. Which of the following is the termination of the cephalic vein?

A. Basilic
B. Axillary
C. Subclavian
D. Innominate

9. Which branch of the lumbar plexus is responsible for the cremasteric reflex?
A. Iliohypogastric
B. Ilioinguinal
C. Genitofemoral
D. Obturator

10. Which of the following arteries is the main blood supply of the head of the femur?
A. Medial femoral circumflex
B. Lateral femoral circumflex
C. Obturator
D. Superior gluteal

11. Which of the following groups of muscles extends the knee joint?
A. Posterior thigh muscles
B. Anterior thigh muscles
C. Gluteal muscles
D. Medial thigh muscles

12. Which of the following is a landmark between the femoral and popliteal artery?
A. Adductor hiatus
B. Upper border of the popliteus
C. Head of fibula
D. Lower end of linea aspera

13. The dorsalis pedis can be palpated over the dorsum of foot between the tendons of
which muscles?
A. Tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus
B. Extensor hallucis longus and extensor digitorum longus
C. Extensor digitorum longus and peroneus tertius
D. Extensor hallucis longus and extensor hallucis brevis

14. In which of the following can you palpate the posterior tibial artery?
A. Between tendo calcaneus and lateral malleolus
B. Anterior to the medial malleolus
C. Between medial malleolus and calcaneus
D. Medial border of the foot midway between the head of 1st metatarsal and calcaneus
15. Which of the following muscles inserts into the tarsal plate?
A. Corrugator supercilii
B. Levator palpebrae superioris
C. Orbital part of the orbicularis oculi
D. Ciliary muscle

16. Which of the following is NOT supplied by oculomotor nerve?

A. Ciliary ganglion
B. Superior oblique
C. Inferior oblique
D. Medial rectus

17. Which of the following ganglia is supplied by the glossopharyngeal nerve?

A. Ciliary
B. Sphenopalatine
C. Submandibular
D. Otic ganglion

18. The mandibular fossa is part of which bone?

A. Maxilla
B. Temporal
C. Sphenoid
D. Mandible

19. Which of the following is attached to the tympanic membrane?

A. Body of incus
B. Handle of malleus
C. Head of malleus
D. Long crus of incus

20. Secretion of which paranasal sinus DOES NOT drain into the nasal cavity by gravity?
A. A. Frontal
B. B. Anterior ethmoid
C. C. Posterior ethmoid
D. D. Maxillary

21. Which among the extrinsic tongue muscles is supplied by vagus nerve?
A. Genioglossus
B. Palatoglossus
C. Hyoglossus
D. Styloglossus
22. Which of the following muscles direct the cornea vertically downward?
A. Inferior oblique
B. Inferior oblique and inferior rectus
C. Inferior rectus and superior oblique
D. Lateral rectus and inferior oblique

23. The pharyngeal recess lies posterior to which of the following?

A. Nasoharyngeal tonsil
B. Platopharyngeal fold
C. Tubal tonsils
D. Vallecula

24. Which type of muscle is present in upper 3rd of the esophagus?

A. Striated, voluntary
B. Striated, involuntary
C. Nonstriated, voluntary
D. Nonstriated, involuntary

25. Which of the following muscles will direct the cornea downward and laterally?
A. Inferior rectus
B. Inferior oblique
C. Lateral rectus
D. Superior oblique

26. Which of the following fasciae of the neck DOES NOT contribute in the formation of the
carotid sheath?
A. Superficial fascia
B. Investing fascia
C. Pretracheal fascia
D. Prevertebral fascia

27. Which of the following is the posterior boundary of the carotid triangle?
A. Superior belly of omohyoid
B. Posterior belly of digastric
C. Thyrohyoid muscle
D. Sternocleidomastoid

28. The superior thyroid artery descends to the thyroid gland accompanied by which of the
following nerves?
A. Superior laryngeal
B. External laryngeal
C. Recurrent laryngeal
D. Internal laryngeal
29. The axillary sheath that surrounds the brachial plexus and axillary artery is derived from
which of the following fasciae of the neck?
A. Investing
B. Superficial
C. Pretracheal
D. Prevertebral

30. The pretracheal fascia that encloses the thyroid gland is attached to which of the
following cartilages of the larynx?
A. Thyroid and cricoid
B. Cricoid and arytenoid
C. Thyroid and epiglottic
D. Thyroid and arytenoid

31. Which of the following statements regarding the parathyroid gland is NOT TRUE?
A. Usually 2 pairs
B. Secretion causes withdrawal of calcium from bones
C. Blood supply is derived from the superior and inferior thyroid arteries
D. Secretion is controlled by the pituitary gland

32. The lymphatic vessels that drain the larynx terminate into which group of lymph nodes?
A. Paratracheal
B. Superior mediastinal
C. Deep cervical
D. Posterior mediastinal

33. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?
A. There are no taste buds
B. Nodular surface is due to the lingual tonsil beneath
C. The nerve for general sensation is the glossopharyngeal nerve
D. The nerve for taste is vagus

34. Had there been an injury/damage to both recurrent laryngeal nerves, the only muscle
that would cause movement of the vocal folds would be what?
A. Arytenoid
B. Cricothyroid
C. Posterior cricoarytenoid
D. Thyroarytenoid

35. Fracture in the area of the pterion would most likely cause laceration of which of the
following blood vessels?
A. Anterior branch of the middle meningeal
B. Deep temporal
C. Anterior cerebral
 D. Superficial temporal

36. Which of the following cranial nerves crosses the posterior cervical triangle?
A. Vagus
B. Glossopharyngeal
C. Hypoglossal
D. Spinal accessory

37. Into which group of axillary nodes do the lateral quadrants of the breast drain?
A. Lateral
B. Subscapular
C. Pectoral
D. Deltopectoral

38. Where in the right atrium is the specific location of the SA node?
A. Septum
B. Upper part of the crista terminalis
C. In front of the orifice of inferior vena cava
D. Musculi pectinati

39. Which of the following veins opens directly into the right atrium?
A. Anterior cardiac
B. Small cardiac
C. Middle cardiac
D. Great cardiac

40. The moderator band transmits conducting fibers to which of the following chambers of
the heart?
A. Right atrium
B. Right ventricle
C. Left ventricle
D. Left atrium

41. Which of the following statements DOES NOT correctly describe the right atrium?
A. Forms the entire right border of the heart
B. Contains both SA and AV nodes
C. Lies anterior to the left atrium
D. Forms the greater part of the base of the heart

42. Which of the following organs is related posterior to the pericardium below the tracheal
bifurcation?
A. Thoracic duct
B. Azygos vein
C. Esophagus
 D. Thoracic aorta

43. Which division of the mediastinum is just behind the manubrium sterni?
A. Superior
B. Anterior
C. Middle
D. Posterior

44. The aortic sound is best heard close to the lateral border of the sternum at which
intercostal space?
A. Right 2nd
B. Right 3rd
C. Left 2nd
D. Left 3rd

45. Filling of the coronary arteries occurs during which of the following events in the cardiac
cycle?
A. At the height of ventricular contraction
B. At the beginning of the ventricular relaxation
C. During relaxation of the atria
D. End of atrial contraction

46. Which of the following parts of the conducting system of the heart is solely supplied by
the left coronary artery?
A. SA node
B. Left bundle branch
C. Right bundle branch
D. AV node

47. Pain arising from the heart is referred to the areas of somatic distribution of which
spinal nerves?
A. C8 – T1
B. T1 – T4
C. T5 – T7
D. T5 – T9

48. During pericardiocentecis, which of the following is the last structure pierced by the
aspirating needle?
A. Endothoracic fascia
B. Anterior intercostal membrane
C. Parietal pericardium
D. Visceral pericardium
49. A stab wound at midaxillary line at 6th intercostal space is likely to hit the following
muscles, EXCEPT:
A. Serratus anterior
B. Pectoralis major
C. Internal intercostal
D. Innermost intercostal

50. Lymph vessels draining an infected wound at the back close to medial border of the
right scapula will terminate into which group of axillary nodes?
A. Pectoral
B. Subscapular
C. Deltopectoral
D. Lateral

51. The left main bronchus and arch of aorta cross anterior to the esophagus at which
vertebral level?
A. T1
B. T2
C. T4
D. T6

52. Which of the following organs is posterior to the descending part of the duodenum?
A. Pancreas
B. Ascending colon
C. Right suprarenal gland
D. Right kidney

53. McBurney’s point approximates the location of which of the following?

A. Ileocecal junction
B. Attachment of the appendix to the cecum
C. Commencement of the ascending colon
D. Tip of the appendix

54. The pyloric plane is along the plane /level connecting the tips of which costal cartilages?
A. 7th
B. 8th
C. 9th
D. 10th

55. Which of the following is a landmark between the upper and lower GIT?
A. Gastroduodenal junction
B. Lower end of the descending segment of duodenum
C. Duodenojejunal flexure
D. Ileocecal junction
56. What vertebral level is the iliac crest?
A. L2
B. L3
C. L4
D. L5

57. Portocaval anastomosis occurs between the following the following veins, EXCEPT:
A. Superior and inferior epigastric
B. Azygos and left gastric
C. Superior and inferior rectal
D. Thoracoepigastric and paraumbilical

58. Which of the following blood vessels if dilated would possibly compress the left renal
vein?
A. Left suprarenal
B. Left colic
C. Gonadal
D. Superior mesenteric

59. Which of the following bony prominences is palpated and used as guide to block the
pudendal nerve?
A. Sacral promontory
B. Pubic tubercle
C. Ischial spine
D. Coccyx

60. Which of the following structures is cut in mediolateral episiotomy?

A. Ischiocavernosus
B. External anal sphincter
C. Bulbocavernosus
D. Perineal tendon

61. Which of the following muscles form the pelvic diaphragm?

A. Piriformis and coccygeus
B. Piriformis and levator ani
C. Obturator internus and coccygeus
D. Coccygeus and levator ani

62. Which of the following is a feature peculiar to the rectum?

A. Taenia coli
B. Appendices epiploicae
C. Permanent transverse mucosal folds
D. Plicae semilunaris
63. The pudendal canal (Alcock’s) is located at which boundary of the ischiorectal fossa?
A. Medial
B. Lateral
C. Superomedial
D. Inferomedial

64. Which of the following DOES NOT correctly describe the appendicial artery?
A. It is an end artery
B. Runs along the free border of the mesoappendix
C. Also supplies the inferior end of cecum
D. It is a branch of the posterior cecal

65. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the common bile duct?
A. One of the structures in the porta hepatis
B. Terminates/drains into the medial aspect of the 2nd part of duodenum
C. Descends anterior to the superior segment of the duodenum
D. Lies on the same plane and to the left of the hepatic artery in the lesser omentum

66. Which of the following surrounds the spermatic cord at the level of the deep inguinal
ring?
A. Parietal peritoneum
B. Transversalis fascia
C. Aponeurosis of internal oblique
D. Some fibers of the transversus abdominis

67. Which of the following is medial to the neck of the femoral hernia?
A. Femoral vein
B. Pectineal ligament
C. Inguinal ligament
D. Lacunar ligament

68. At which vertebral level does the arachnoid fuses with the dura mater?
A. L4
B. L5
C. S1
D. S2

69. Which of the following is NOT contained in a bronchopulmonary segment?

A. Autonomic nerve
B. Segmental vein
C. Segmental artery
D. Segmental bronchus
70. The physiologic/functional division of the liver is along the following structures:
A. Hilus of the liver
B. Ligamentum venosum and ligamentum teres hepatis
C. Gallbladder and inferior vena cava
D. Falciform ligament and ligamentum teres

71. Which of the following is NOT contained in the cystohepatic triangle?

A. Cystic duct
B. Right hepatic artery
C. Right hepatic duct
D. Lymph nodes of Lund (Calot)

72. The stomach forms which boundary of the lesser sac?

A. Inferior
B. Anterior
C. Superior
D. Posterior

73. If you insert your finger into the foramen of Winslow which of the following structures is
behind it (your finger)?
A. Common bile duct
B. Portal vein
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Hepatic artery

74. Which of the following blood vessels would be sacrificed if the gastrosplenic ligament is
severed/cut?
A. Left gastric
B. Splenic
C. Left inferior phrenic
D. Short gastric

75. Fracture of which of the following ribs will cause damage/injury to the spleen?
A. 5th - 7th
B. 6th – 8th
C. 9th – 11th
D. 12th

76. Posterior wall perforation of stomach is likely to involved which blood vessel?
A. Splenic artery
B. Splenic vein
C. Short gastric
D. Gastroduodenal
77. In Mcburney’s incision which of the following nerves may be injured or severed?
A. T10
B. T12
C. L1
D. L2L3

78. The cardiac notch of the left lung leaves a part of the pericardium free of lungs and
pleural coverings. Where in the anterior chest is this area/notch located?
A. Between the 2nd to the 4th ribs to the left of sternum
B. Between the 4th to the 6th ribs to the left of sternum
C. 6th to the 8th intercostal spaces just medial to the anterior axillary line

79. Inhaled foreign body is likely to enter the right rather than the left primary bronchus
because of the following?
A. It is wider
B. It is shorter
C. It is vertical
D. Its wall is cartilaginous

80. Which of the following arteries in the pelvis is NOT a branch of the internal iliac?
A. Middle rectal
B. Median sacral
C. Obturator
D. Superior gluteal

81. Which branch of the internal iliac is NOT accompanied by vein?

A. Internal pudendal
B. Uterine
C. Inferior vesical
D. Umbilical

82. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the seminal vesicle?

A. Passageway of immature spermatozoa
B. Stores matured spermatozoa
C. It is a glandular organ.
D. Its secretion is rich in acid phosphatase

83. Which of the following is the female homologue of Cowper’s (bulbourethral) gland?
A. Paraurethral gland of Skene
B. Cervical glands
C. Greater vestibular gland
D. Uterine glands
84. Lymph vessels draining the ovaries/testis terminate into which group of lymph nodes?
A. Deep inguinal
B. Superficial inguinal
C. Paraaortic/lumbar
D. External iliac

85. The articulation between vertebral bodies exemplifies which variety of joint?
A. Syndesmosis
B. Gomphosis
C. Symphysis
D. Synchondrosis

86. Which of the following groups of lymph nodes drains the lower half of the anal canal?
A. Inferior mesenteric
B. Internal iliac
C. External iliac
D. Superficial inguinal

87. Which of the following groups of nodes drains the clitoris?

A. Deep inguinal
B. Superficial inguinal
C. External iliac
D. Internal iliac

88. An aspirating needle inserted along the lower border of the rib is likely to hit which of
the following structures?
A. Vein
B. Nerve
C. Artery
D. Lymph vessel

89. At mid-inspiration the lower border of the lungs is at the 10th rib at which reference
line?
A. Anterior axillary
B. Midclavicular
C. Midaxillary
D. Scapular

90. The boundaries of the triangle of auscultation are the trapezius, latissimus dorsi and
what?
A. Scapula
B. Serratus anterior
C. Iliocostalis thoracis
D. Rhomboid
91. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE regarding an adult female breast?
A. Medial mammary arteries are from 2nd to 4th anterior intercostals
B. Main lymphatic drainage is into the axillary nodes
C. The size depends upon the number of lobes
D. Axillary tail if present arise from the upper lateral quadrant

92. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the caval hiatus of the diaphragm?
A. It lies to the right of the 10th thoracic vertebra
B. It transmits the right vagus nerve
C. It is the only opening in the diaphragm that is in the central tendon

93. Which of the following makes the 4th layer of the scalp the dangerous layer of the scalp?
A. It is a potential space
B. It consists of loose areolar connective tissue
C. Emissary veins in this layer connect with intracranial venous sinuses
D. Bleeding in this layer is diffused

94. The following arteries supply the ureter, EXCEPT:

A. Renal
B. Inferior suprarenal
C. Ovarian/testicular
D. Superior vesical

95. Afferent impulses from the ureter enter which of the following cord levels?
A. T8- T12
B. T11-L2
C. L3 – S1
D. S2-S4

96. Which among the renal investments encloses the suprarenal gland as well?
A. Pararenal fats
B. Renal fascia
C. Perirenal fats
D. Fibrous capsule

97. Compression of the left renal vein will compromise the venous drainage of the following
organs/structures on the left side of abdomen/pelvis, EXCEPT:
A. Suprarenal
B. Testis/ovary
C. Descending colon
D. Diaphragm
98. Which among the blood vessels that contributes to/constitute the Kisselbach’s plexus is
from the facial artery?
A. Greater palatine
B. Superior labial
C. Anterior ethmoidal
D. Posterior ethmoidal

99. Which among the following contents of the lesser omentum is along or is close to its
free margin?
A. Hepatic artery
B. Common bile duct
C. Portal vein

100. Which of the following structures is found in the hilus of the liver?
A. Hepatic vein
B. Common bile duct
C. Hepatic artery
D. Common hepatic duct

END