GEMINI CRIMINOLOGY REVIEW CENTER

OZAMIZ CITY BRANCH

CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION

1. Described by scholars as containing the first comprehensive statement prescribing savage punishment.
A. Hammurabi Code B. Kalantiao code C. Holy bible D. Quran
2. ‘’Lex taliones’’ means -
A. An eye for an eye B. A tooth for tooth C. Law of retaliation D. Sword for sword
3. Which of these introduced the combination of solitary confinement and work?
A. Walnut Street Jail B. Pennsylvania system C. Reformatory system D. Auburn system
4. Who among the following stated that ‘’the person subject to punishment should emerge a better man, or
failing that, less of a wretch?’’
A. Aristotle B. Plato C. Cesare Lombroso D. Beccaria
5. The word Penology is derived from the Latin word ‘’poena’’ which means –
A. Imprisonment B. Incarceration C. Punishment D. Suffering
6. The manner or practice of managing or controlling places of confinement as in jails or prisons is referred
to as –
A. Correctional Administration B. Penal Management C. Penology D. Jail Management
7. Correction as process is best defined as –

A. It is that field of Criminal Justice administration which utilizes the body of knowledge and
practices of the government and the society in general involving the process of handling
individuals who have been convicted of offenses for purposes of crime prevention and control.
B. It is the study of jail /prison management and administration as well as the rehabilitation and
reformation of criminals.
C. It is a generic term that includes all government agencies, facilities, programs, procedures,
personnel, and techniques concerned with the investigation, intake, custody, confinement,
supervision or treatment of alleged offenders.

D. The reorientation of criminal offenders to prevent him or her from repeating his deviant or
delinquent actions without necessity of taking punitive actions but rather the introduction of the
individual measures of reformation.
8. What is the study and practice of a systematic management of jails or prisons and other institutions
concerned with the custody, treatment, and rehabilitation of criminal offenders?
A. Correctional Administration B. Penal Management
C. Correctional Management D. Jail Management
9. What form of punishment which became prevalent in England in 1468?
A. Banishment B. Transportation C. Imprisonment D. Torture
10. Who wears the brown color uniform?
A. Super Maximum Security B. Maximum Security C. Medium Security D. Minimum Security
11. In the 17th and 18th centuries, death penalty became prevalent in England. Which of these is not one of
the reasons why death penalty was the usual punishment during this period?
A. Death of outlaws became a ´´protection for the English people´´.
B. People lack of confidence in the transportation of criminals.
C. Doctrine of Crude Intimidation appeared or seemed to be a logical form of threat in order to deter
or prevent the people from violating the law.
D. None of these
12. Which of these was operated by English sheriffs as a pre-trial detention facility?
A. Stockade B. Jail C. Gaol D. Galleys
13. Which of these maintains the ´´doctrine of psychological hedonism´´ or ´´free will´´? That the individual
calculates pleasures and pains in advance of action and regulates his conduct by the result of his
calculations.
A. Neo-classical school B. Classical school C. Positive school D. Modern school
14. What is the earliest remedy for a wrong act to anyone in the primitive society?
A. Fines B. Punishment C. Penalty D. Retaliation
15. History has shown that there are three main legal systems in the world, which have been extended to
and adopted by all countries aside from those that produced them. In their chronological order, they are
the Roman, the Mohammedan or Arabic and the Anglo-American Laws. Among the three, which has the
most lasting and most pervading influence?
A. Roman B. Arabic C. Mohammedan E. Anglo-American
16. In 500 A.D, which of these specified punishment according to the social class of offenders, dividing them
into: nobles, middle class and lower class and specifying the value of the life of each person according to
social status?
A. Babylonian Code B. Sumerian Code C. Justinian Code D. Burgundian code
17. In the Philippines, the Spanish Civil code became effective in the Philippines on December 7, 1889, the
´´Conquistadores´´ and the ´´Kodigo Penal´´ or the Revised Penal Code today, 1930 were introduced by the
Spaniards promulgated by the King of Spain. Basically, these laws adopted what principles of law?
A. English Law B. American Law C. Roman Law D. Babylonian Law
18. Mostly tribal traditions, customs and practices influenced laws during the Pre-Spanish Philippines. There
were also laws that were written. Which one is believed to be from Datu Sumakwel?
A. Code of Kalantiao B. Sikatuna Law C. Maragtas Code D. Lapu-lapu Code
19. This was originally constructed as a detention jail in Philadelphia. It was converted later into a state
prison and became the first American Penitentiary.
A. Auburn Prison B. Walnut street jail C. Philadelphia Prison D. Bridewell Workhouse
20. In the Philippines, this was famous as the ´´May Halique Estate.´´
A. Manila Old Bilibid Prison B. Manila City Jail C. Muntinlupa Bilibid D. A and / or B
th
21. In 4 A.D, Secular Laws were advocated by Christian philosophers who recognize the need for justice.
Some of the proponents of these laws were –
A. St. Augustine and St. Thomas Aquinas B. St. Augustine and St. Jerome
C. St. Thomas Aquinas and St. Jerome D. St. Benedict and St. Thomas
22. It is the redress that the state takes against an offending member of society that usually involves pain
and suffering. It is also the penalty imposed on an offender for a crime or wrongdoing.
A. Fine B. Penalty C. Punishment D. Redress
23. What is the form of ancient punishment which was usually affected by maiming, mutilation, whipping
and other inhumane or barbaric forms of inflicting pain?
A. Death Penalty B. Physical Torture C. Social degradation D. Banishment or exile
24. What is the early form of prison discipline which involved productive works?
A. Hard Labor B. Deprivation C. Uniformity D. Mass movement
25. The early form of prison discipline which involved the giving the same food that is ´´off´´ diet, or
requiring the prisoners to perform drab or boring daily routine.
A. Deprivation` B. Starving C. Monotony D. Corporal Punishment
26. What is the form of contemporary punishment where it involves the penalty of banishing a person from
the place where he committed a crime, prohibiting him to get near or enter the 25-kilometer perimeter?
A. Banishment B. Transportation C. Destierro D. Parole
27. What is the purpose or justification of punishment where punishment in the form of group vengeance
where the purpose is to appease the offended public or group?
A. Retribution B. Expiation C. Atonement D. B and / or C
28. Waldo was the convicted for the crime of multiple crimes and his conviction involves imprisonment so
that he will be prevented from committing similar crimes. This purpose of punishment is called –
A. Reformation B. Rehabilitation C. Incapacitation D. Prevention
29. It is the period of recognizing human dignity. It is the movement or reformation, the period of
introduction of certain reforms in the correctional field by certain person, gradually changing the old
positive philosophy of punishment to a more humane treatment of prisoners with innovational programs.
A. Age of ReformationB. Age of Enlightenment C. Modern Period D. Age of Reason
30. He was the most versatile of all philosophers during this period. He believes that fear of shame was a
deterrent to crime. He fought the legality-sanctioned practice of torture.
A. William Penn B. Charles Montesiquieu C. Cesare Bonesa D. Voltaire
31. Considered the greatest leader in the reform of English Criminal Law. He believes that whatever
punishment designed to negate whatever pleasure or gain the criminal derives from crime; the crime rate
would go down. He was also the one who devise the ultimate PANOPTICAN PRISON – a prison that consists
of a large circular building containing multi-cells around the periphery. It was never built.
A. John Howard B. Jeremy Bentham C. William Penn D. Manuel Montesimos
32. Walter Crofton was the Director of the Irish Prison in 1854 who introduced the Irish system that was
modified from the Mocanochie´s mark system. Among the four stages of this Irish system were, EXCEPT:
A. Work without supervision B. Solitary confinement for nine months
 C. Assignment t public works in association with other prisoners D. none of these
33. Zebulon Brockway was the Director of the Elmira Reformatory in New York (1876) who introduced
certain innovational programs like the following, except –
A. determinate sentence B. compulsory education of prisoners
C. casework methods D. extensive use of parole
34. Which of these is considered forerunner of modern penology because it had all the elements of a
modern system?
A. Auburn Prison System B. Pennsylvania Prison System
C. Elmira Reformatory D. Walnut Street system
35. What is defined as the suffering inflicted by the state against an offending member for the transgression
of law?
A. Fine B. Punishment C. Penalty D. Incarceration
36. One of the juridical conditions of penalty states that punishment must commensurate with the offense.
This is further understood as –
A. without however affecting the integrity of the humane personality
B. different crimes must be punished with different penalties
C. the guilty one must be the one to be punished, no proxy
D. changes the attitude of offenders and become law-abiding citizens
37. Which among the durations of penalties is dependent on the discretion of the court?
A. Capital Punishment B. Arresto Menor C. Destierro D. Bond to keep the peace
38. Which is incorrect in the following the principles as applied to the modern period of corrections?
A. Jail or prison rules shall be applied impartially without discrimination on ground of race, color,
language, religion or other opinion, national or social origin, property, birth or other status.
B. The religious beliefs and moral percepts not contrary to law, which a prisoner holds, must be
respected.
C. Prison or Jails rules and regulations shall be applied with firmness but tempered with
understanding.
D. None of these
39. In the Philippines, the Bureau of Prisons was renamed to Bureau of Corrections under –
A. R. A. 6975 B. E.O. 202 C. E.O. 292 D. R.A. 8551
40. Which of these is located in Rizal Province?
A. Camp Sampaguita B. Camp Bukang Liwayway C. New Bilibid Prisons D. All of these
41. Where Correctional Institution for Women is located?
A. Manila B. Muntinlupa city C. Mandaluyong City D. Pasig City
42. Which of the following is found in Zamboanga?
A. San Ramon Penal Colony B. Sablayan Penal Colony
C. Iwahig Penal Colony D. Abuyog Penal Colony
43. A building, usually with cells, or other places established for the purpose of taking safe custody or
confinement of criminals of more than 3 years of imprisonment.
A. Penal Colony B. Jail C. Correctional institution D. Prison
44. It refers t any person detained / confined in jail or prison for the commission of a criminal offense or
convicted and serving in a penal institution.
A. Convicted person B. Detainee C. Prisoner D. Criminal
45. A person committed to jail or prison by a competent authority for any of the following, except –
A. To serve a sentence after conviction B. While awaiting trial
C. While under investigation D. For being an activist
46. Which is not among the General classifications of Prisoners?
A. None of these B. Detention Prisoner C. Sentenced Prisoner D. Police Prisoners
47. Which is NOT true about City Prisoners?
A. Those sentence to suffer a term of imprisonment from 1 day to 3 years or a fine of not more than
1,000 pesos or both
B. those detained therein whose cases are filed with the MTC
C. those detained therein whose cases are cognizable by the RTC and under Preliminary
Investigation
D. Those who committed crimes within a city
48. Which of these best describes Insular or National Prisoners?
A. Those sentenced to suffer a term of sentence of 3 years and 1 day to life imprisonment
 B. those sentenced to suffer a term of imprisonment cited above but appealed the judgment and
unable to file a bond for their temporary liberty
C. A and B
D. None of these
49. Which of these is INCORRECT about Municipal Prisoners?
A. those confined in Municipal jails to serve an imprisonment from 1 day to 6 months
B. those persons sentenced to suffer a term of imprisonment from 6 months and 1 day to 3 years or
a fine not more than 1,000, pesos or both
C. those detained therein waiting for preliminary investigation of their cases cognizable by the RTC
D. B and C
50. The group of prisoners whose escape could be dangerous to the public or the security of the state is
called Maximum Security Prisoners. Which of the following statements is not true about them?
A. they consist of constant troublemakers but not as dangerous as the super maximum-security
prisoners
B. their movements are restricted and they are not allowed to work outside the institution but
rather assigned to industrial shops within the prison compound.
C. Prisoners include those sentenced to serve sentence 20 years or more, or those whose sentenced
are under the review of the Supreme Court, and offenders who are criminally insane having severe
personality or emotional disorders that make them dangerous to fellow offenders or staff members
D. None of these
51. Medium Security Prisoners – Those who cannot be trusted in open conditions and pose lesser danger
than maximum-security prisoners in case they escape are known as Medium Security Prisoners. Which is
true about them?
A. they consist of groups of prisoners who maybe allowed to work outside the fence or walls of the
penal institution under guards or with escorts.
B. Generally, they are employed as agricultural workers
C. they include prisoners whose minimum sentence is less than 20 years and life-sentenced
prisoners who served at least 10 years inside a maximum security prison
D. All of these
52. Who wears the brown color uniform?
A. Super Maximum Security B. Maximum Security C. Medium Security D. Minimum Security
53. Among the following types of jails, which is commonly used to detain a convicted criminal offender to
serve sentence less than three years?
A. Lock-up jails B. Ordinary jails C. Detention jails D. Jail Farms or Camps
54. Provincial jails in the Philippine are under the______________.
A. Bureau of Corrections B. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
C. Provincial Governments D. All of these
55. Who exercises supervision and control of all cities and municipal jails throughout the Philippines?
A. LGUs B. BJMP C. Bureau of Corrections D. DILG
56. Which of the following does not belong to the Command Groups of the BJMP?
A. Chief, BJMP B. Deputy C/BJMP C. Chief of Staff D. Coordinating Staff Groups
57. The head of the BJMP in the provincial level is referred to as –
A. Provincial Jail Warden B. Provincial Jail Director
C. Provincial Jail Administrator D. Chief, Provincial Jail
58. The Secretary of DILG has the appointing authority over the following, EXCEPT:
A. Chief / BJMP B. Deputy C/BJMP C. Asst. Regional Director D. C/Provincial Jail

59. What is the highest rank in the BJMP?

A. Deputy Director General B. Director C. Chief Superintendent D. Director General
60. Who among the following are not qualified to be appointed jail wardens?
A. Chief Inspector B. Senior Inspector C. Inspector D. SJO4
61. What is the warrant issued by a court directing the jail or prison authorities to receive the convicted
offender for the service of sentence imposed therein or for detention called?
A. Warrant of Arrest B. Detention order C. Confinement order D. Mittimus
62. The Reception and Diagnostic Center (RDC) is a special unit of prison where new prisoners undergo
diagnostic examination, study and observation for the purpose of determining the programs of treatment
and training best suited to their needs and the institution to which they should be transferred. It is
composed of the following, EXCEPT:
 A. The Psychiatrist B. The Sociologist C. The Psychologist D. None of these
63. The RDC is located in –
A. Camp Bukang Liwayway B. NBP Entrance C. Camp Sampaguita D. Bureau of Corrections
64. There are admission procedures followed in the RDC, the: 1. Receiving, 2. Checking of commitment
orders, 3. Identification, 4. Searching, and 5. Briefing and Orientation. Which of the following is the orderly
enumeration of such procedures?
A. 5, 3, 2, 4, 1 B. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1 C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 D. 4, 5, 3, 1, 2
65. What is considered as the cornerstone of rehabilitation?
A. Reformation programs B. Prison educations
C. Rehabilitation programs D. Correctional programs
66. The first legal recognition of education in prison was in 1847 in –
A. New York Reformatory B. Elmira Reformatory
C. Auburn Prisons D. Pennsylvania Prisons
67. Prison Work Programs are programs conductive to change behavior in morale by training prisoners for a
useful occupation. It is purposed to eliminate idleness on the part of prisoners, which may contribute to “
Prison stupor “, and it affects the incidence of Prison riot. According to these programs, who among the
following are described as those who are nearly to leave the institution, awaiting transfer, those disciplinary
status, and those who are chronically ill with mental disabilities?
A. Unassignable B. Educational Assignments
C. Maintenance Assignments D. Agricultural and Industrial Assignments
68. The purpose of this program is to change the attitudes of inmates by inculcating religious values or
belief.
A. Moral Recovery Programs B. Values Education
C. Chaplain´s Programs D. Religious Services
69. The Community – Based Treatment Programs are those programs that are intended to treat criminal
offenders within the free community as alternatives to confinement. It includes all correctional activities
directly addressed to the offender and aimed at helping him to become a law – abiding citizen. In relation to
these, which states that “ Imprisonment is not always advisable?” Placing a person to custodial coercion is
to place him in physical jeopardy, thus drastically narrowing his access to sources of personal satisfaction
and reducing his self –esteem.
A .Humanitarian aspect B. Restorative aspect C. Managerial aspect D. Reformative aspect
70. Which is incorrect regarding Probation?
A. It is a disposition whereby a defendant, after conviction of an offense, the penalty of which does
not exceed 6 year of imprisonment, released subject to the conditions imposed by the releasing
court under the supervision of a probation officer.
B. It is a substitute for imprisonment; the probationer is compared to an out-patient, a sick person
who does not need to be hospitalized because his illness is considered less serious
C. The convicted criminal offender can continue to work in his place of employment
D. None of these
71. What is not correct about Parole in the Philippine Setting?
A. It is the process of suspending the sentence of a convict after having served the minimum of his
sentence without granting him pardon, and prescribing the terms upon which the sentence shall be
suspended.
B. It is a procedure by which prisoners are selected for release and a service by which they are
provided with the necessary controls, assistance and guidance as they serve the remainder of their
sentence in the free community.
C. It is a form of conditional release that is granted after a prisoner has served a portion of his
sentence in a correctional institution.
D. It is a reward per se for good behavior but rather, it is a follow – up of his institutional program.
72. Can the offended party grant Pardon?
A. Yes B. No C. It depends on the crime D. It depends on the court
73. Which serves the purpose of releasing, through executive clemency, a prisoner who is already reformed
or rehabilitated but who cannot be paroled because the parole law does not apply to him?
A. Parole B. Conditional pardon C. Amnesty D. Absolute pardon
74. Which is NOT true about parole?
A. An administrative function exercised by the executive branch of government
B. Granted to a prisoner only after he has served minimum of his sentenced in prison
C. It is an extension of institutional treatment program
 D. It is granted by the court
75. Which of these may alter death sentence to life sentence or life sentence to a term of years? It does not
forgive the offender but merely to reduce the penalty pronounced by the court.
A. Amnesty B. Commutation C. Reprieve D. Pardon
76. Generally, which of these is extended to prisoners sentenced to death by setting back for several days
the execution of the penalty?
A. Commutation B. Conditional C. Parole D. Reprieve

77. The following are the limitation of the pardoning power of the President, EXCEPT:
A. Pardon cannot be extended in a case of impeachment.
B. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the violation of any election law may be granted
without favorable recommendation of the COMELEC.
C. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
D. None of these
78. Who is NOT disqualified for parole?
A. Those prisoners who are sentenced with capital punishment or life imprisonment,
B. Those who are convicted of treason, conspiracy or proposal to commit treason, misprision of
treason, rebellion, sedition or piracy,
C. Those who escaped from confinement or evaded sentence,
D. None of these
79. The President may extend pardon to any offenders –
A. Even before the prosecution of a criminal action B. Only after conviction
C. Even before conviction D. Upon the recommendation of the BPP
80. Which is not true regarding pardon granted by the Chief Executive?
A. it extinguishes the criminal liability of the offender
B. it does not include civil liability
C. it may be extended to any of the offenders after conviction
D. includes the civil liability
81. What is not true about amnesty?
A. a general pardon extended to a class of persons or community who may be guilty of political
offenses.
B. it may be exercised after trial or investigation
C. it looks backward and puts into oblivion the crime that has been committed.
D. it is proclaimed by the President with the concurrence of congress
82. It is an administrative device of correctional institutions of providing varied and flexible types of physical
plants for the more effective custody, security and control of the treatment programs of its diversified
population.
A. Segregation B. Diversification C. Classification D. Division
83. Which is not a factor being considered in diversification?
A. age B. Medical or Mental C. Sex D. Social Status
84. It is the formulation of tentative treatment of programs suited for the prisoner.
A. Diagnosis B. Execution of the TP C. Treatment Analysis D. Treatment Planning
85. The Classification Board for jails includes the following, EXCEPT:
A. Assistant Warden B. Jail Warden C. Chief Security Officer D. Medical Officer
86. Who heads the Classification Board for Jails?
A. Assistant Warden B. Jail Warden C. chief Security Officer D. Medical Officer
87. It is the state of good order and behavior. It includes maintenance of good standards of works,
sanitation, safety, education, health and recreation. It aims at self-reliance, self-control, self respect and
self-discipline.
A. Security B. Prison discipline C. Preventive Discipline D. Prison Control
88. It is the guarding or penal safekeeping; it involves security measures to insure security and control
within the prison.
A. Prison control B. Security C. Control D. Custody
89. The Prison Custodial Division is charged of all matters pertaining to the custody of the Prisoners and
security of the institution. Who heads this division?
A. Chief Security Officer B. Security Officer
C. Supervising Prison Guards D. Senior Prison Guards
90. Which is not a function of the Custodial Division?
 A. Supervision of prisoners B. Maintain order and discipline
C. Inspection and Security D. None of these
91. The Disciplinary Board for jails is a board that is organized and maintained without our local jails for the
purpose of hearing disciplinary cases involving violation of jail rules and regulations by the inmates. This is
composed of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Jail Warden B. Asst. Jail Warden C. Medical Health Officer D. Jail
Chaplain
92. Who is the chairman of the Jail Disciplinary Board?
A. Jail Warden B. Asst. Jail Warden C. Chief Security Officer D. Medical Health Officer
93. The Disciplinary Board is the authority that can impose disciplinary punishment such as, EXCEPT:
A. Reprimand
B. Temporary or permanent cancellation of privileges in jails (visiting privileges, recreational
privileges and other privileges).
C. Extra – fatigue duty or assignment to a disciplinary squad for manual labor
D. None of these
94. Who performs the function of the Disciplinary Board Summary Hearing Officer?
A. Chief Security Officer B. Jail Legal Officer
C. Jail Warden D. Asst. Jail Warden
95. Which is not a minor offense?
A. Bartering of items not classified as contraband
B. Rendering personal services to fellow offenders
C. Littering
D. Failure to report for work detail without sufficient justification
96. The following are special offenders, EXCEPT:
A. Women offenders B. Drug addicts
C. Mentally ill persons D. None of these
97. Which of the following is NOT considered an alternative to jail confinement?
A. Extensive use of probation B. Delayed sentence C. Bail D. None of these
98. It is a program specifically designed and given to a prisoner, during a limited period, prior to his release
from prison, in order to give him an opportunity to adjust himself from the regimented group life in prison
to the normal, independency life of a free individual.
A. Pre – release program B. Conditional Program
C. Debriefing Program D. Re – orientation Program
99. In relation to correction of prisoners, the Philippine Constitutional stipulates the following, EXCEPT:
A. The state values the dignity of every human person and guarantees full respect for human rights.
B. No person shall be detained solely by reason of his political beliefs and aspirations.
C. Involuntary servitude in any form shall exist except as a punishment for a crime whereof the party
shall have been fully convicted.
D. Excessive fines shall not be imposed, nor cruel, degrading or inhuman punishment inflicted.
E. The employment of physical, psychological, or degrading punishment against any prisoner or the
use of substandard or inadequate penal facilities under subhuman conditions shall be dealt by law.
100. The legal ground of detention are, EXCEPT:
A. Commission of a crime
B. Other ailment requiring compulsory confinement
C. Order of a competent authority
D. None of these
101. The following are the elements of Delivery of Prisoners from Jail as stated by Art. 156, RPC, EXCEPT:
A. The offender is a private individual
B. He removes a person confined in jail or a penal institution or helps in the escape of such person
C. The means are the violence, intimidation, bribery or any other means
D. The offender is a jail officer
102. What is not an element of Evasion of Service of Sentence o the Occasion of Disorders due to
Conflagrations, Earthquakes or other Calamities?
A. Offender is a prisoner serving sentence and is confined in a penal institution.
B. He evades his sentence by leaving the institution.
C. He escapes on the occasion of a disorder due to conflagration, earthquake, explosion or similar
catastrophe or mutiny in which he has not participated, and
 D. He fails to give himself up to the authorities within 72 hours following the issuance of a
proclamation by the Chief Executive regarding the passing away of the calamity.
103. What shall be granted to reward the convict’s manifest intent of paying his debts to society by
returning to prison after the passing away of the calamity?
A. Added Privileges B. Special Time Allowance for Loyalty C. GCTA D. Free
Visitors
104. Which is not a felony involving the custody of a prisoner?
A. Evasion of Service
B. Infidelity in the Custody of Prisoners through Connivance
C. Infidelity in the Custody of Prisoners through Negligence
D. Escape of a prisoner under the Custody of a person not a Public Officer
105. JO1 Wilson maltreats Alex who is detained for robbery. The former is assigned in another District Jail
other than where the latter’s place of incarceration. What crime is committed by the former?
A. Maltreatment of Prisoner B. Physical Injury
C. Grave Coercion D. A and / or B
106. Good Conduct Time Allowance (GCTA) is privilege granted to prisoner that shall entitle him to a
deduction of his term of imprisonment. Which is incorrect about it?
A. During the first two years of his imprisonment, he shall be allowed a deduction of 5 days for each
month of good behavior.
B. During the third to the fifth years of his imprisonment, he shall be allowed a deduction of 8 days
each month of good behavior.
C. During the following years until the tenth years of his imprisonment, he shall be allowed a
deduction of 10 days each month of good behavior.
D. During the eleventh and the successive years of his imprisonment, he shall be allowed a
deduction of 12 days each month of good behavior.
107. This model of prison management permits placing prisoners in the least restrictive prison consistent
with security, safety, and humane confinement.
A. Control Model B. Proper Classification Model
C. Security Model D. Responsibility Model
108. In prisons of this model, security and housekeeping activities are viewed primarily as a framework for
rehabilitative efforts.
A. Custodial Model B. Proper Classification Model C. Responsibility D. Rehabilitation Model
109. This model is linked to the structures and goals of community but has direct impact on prison
operations. Consistent with the perspective of community corrections, this model is based on the
assumption that it is important for the offender to maintain or develop ties with the free society.
A. Corrective model B. Reintegration Model C. Security Model D. Responsibility
model
110. What is the first prison systematically designed to harness pain in service of the reformation of men?
A. Prison B. Penal Colony C. Corrections D. Penitentiary

111. Blumstein list five possible approaches that prison administrators may make to deal with the prison
crisis. Each approach has economic, social and political costs, and each entails a different amount of time
for implementation and impact. Which of these urges the sentencing be linked to the availability of prison
space and management staff, that policies be developed allowing the release of the prisoners when prison
facilities become crowded and staff are greatly outnumbered to mange prisoners, and that each court be
allotted a certain amount of prison space and staff members so that judges and prosecutors make their
decisions accordingly?
A. Null Strategy Selective B. Incapacitation strategy
C. Population-seduction strategy D. Population-sensitive strategy
112. I this strategy says nothing should be done, that prisons should be allowed to become increasingly
congested and staff should remain to maintain them with the assumption that the problem is temporary
and will disappear in time.
A. Null strategy selective B. Incapacitation strategy
C. Population-reduction strategy D. Construction Strategy
113. Who grants allowances for good conduct under RPC?
A. Provincial Governor B. Director of the Bureau of Prisons
C. Jail Warden D. Municipal Mayor
114. Which does not partially extinguish criminal liability?
A. Conditional Pardon B. Commutation of the Sentence
C. Good conduct time allowance D. Death of the offender or prisoner
115. Peter, from a remote town is convicted or to suffer of the penalty of 6 months and 1 day to 8 months
imprisonment. Assuming the crime was committed within a city, where should Peter serve his sentence?
A. Municipal Jail where Peter resides B. City Jail where the crime was committed
C. Provincial Jail which the town and city are situated D. National Bilibid Prison
116. What s not correct about Evasion of Service of Sentence?
A. The pardon for the crime the service for which was evaded will not affect the judgment for
evasion of service of sentence
B. The evasion of service of sentence requires a new prosecution, trial and imposition of another
penalty
C. Service of the unexpired portion of the original sentence evaded does not preclude the penalty
for evasion of service of sentence
D. None of these applies
117. Jail Officer 1 Santos was sleeping when Gerry, a detention prisoner escaped from the former’s custody.
However, the former subsequently recaptured Gerry the following day. Is JO1 guilty of Evasion through
Negligence?
A. Yes
B. No
C. No because he was the one who was able to capture the escaped prisoner
D. No because of the subsequent capture
118. Vincent, a prisoner is used by Mayor Gonzales as a cook in the latter’s home. Is the mayor guilty of
violating Art. 223 of RPC regarding conniving with or consenting to evasion?
A. No because Vincent is not yet free from incarceration
B. Yes because regardless whether Vincent is a prisoner by final judgment or a mere detention
prisoner
C. No because it is one of the privileges of the mayor
D. It depends on how long the prisoner stays at the mayor’s house
E. It cannot be ascertained
119. What is the warrant issued by the court bearing its seal and signature of the judge directing the jail or
prison authorities to receive the convicted offender for service of sentence or detention?
A. Mittimus
B. Sentence Mittimus
C. Detention Mittimus
D. Detention Warrant
120. How a person who is detained for the violation of a law or ordinances awaiting trial or awaiting for the
promulgation of decision and was not yet convicted is classified?
A. Detainee B. Inmate C. Prisoner D. Custodial Detainee
121. Who coined the word probation?
A. William Davenport Hill B. Alexander Rice C. John Augustus D. Frederick Rainer
122. What is the historical root of probation?
A. Recognizance B. Judicial Reprieve C. Benefit of the Clergy D. Bail
123. The word probation was adopted from the Latin verb “probare,” which means –
A. To prove B. to release C. to test D. A and/ or C
124. Early in the modern period, the courts began the practice which was a form of temporary release
during which offenders could take measures to secure pardons or lesser sentences. This is known as –
A. binding over for good behaviors B. security for good behavior
C. release on recognizance D. temporary release through bail
th
125. In the mid-19 century, which of the following court decisions led to the passing of the National
Probation Act of 1925?
A. Killets Decision B. Jennings Case C. Johnson’s Decision D. Jackson’s
Decision
126. The young professional in England, who had witnessed the sentencing of youthful offenders to one-day
terms on the condition that they be returned to a parent or guardian who would closely supervise them.
When he eventually became the Recorder of Birmingham, a judicial post, he used a similar practice for
individuals who did not seem hopelessly corrupt. If offenders demonstrated a promise for rehabilitation,
they were placed in the hands of generous guardians who willingly took charge of them.
 A. Alexander Rice B. John Augustus C. Matthew Davenport Hill D. John Hill

127. Who is the Father of Probation?

A. William Davenport Hill B. Alexander Rice C. Frederick Rainer D. John
Augustus
128. In 1876, he was a printer from Hertfordshire (England), wants to help the large numbers of individuals
appearing for alcohol-related offending before the London police courts. He gives a donation to the Church
of England temperance Society to fund a response. The Society appoints a ‘police court missionary’, whose
task is to interview drunks in the court cells, evaluate which of them is likely to respond to help, and suggest
to the court a plan for putting the offender on the ‘straight and narrow’.
A. William Davenport Hill B. Alexander Rice C. Frederick Rainer D. John
Augustus
129. The first legislation enacted by the Philippine Legislature on August 07, 1935 and which created a
Probation Offices under the Department of Justice led by a Chief Probation Officer appointed by the
American Governor General with the advice and consent of the United State. This Law provided probation
for first time offenders, eighteen years of age and over, convicted of certain crime.
A. P.D. 968 B. Act 4221 C. Act 4121 D. P.D. 603
130. Who is the Father of Philippine Probation?
A. Ramon D. Bagatsing B. Teodulo S. Natividad
C. Manuel Roxas D. Teodulo C. Natividad
131. The following are the basic policies to guide the Probation Officer in the delivery of services to the
probationer, except –
A. Human being are extremely complicated and it is not possible to trace a complex pattern of
human behavior to any single cause
B. The individual has the inability to change and to modify his anti-social behavior with right kind of
help
C. The community pays for the operation of the components of the Criminal Justice System so that
society can best be protected from criminal depredations, and society can best be protected if the
individual violator is helped in solving his problem
D. The goal of probation is to provide, on a case basis, such services as will bring community and
private resources to the needs of the probationer towards his re-integration into the community as a
functioning and law abiding individual
132. Benefits of probation are the following, except –
A. Probation protects society B. Probation protects the family
C. Probation protects the family D. Probation helps the offended party
133. Probation assist the Government because of the following, except –
A. It reduces the population of prisons and jails B. It increases the clogging of courts
C. It lightens the Load of prosecutor D. It sustains then Law Enforcement
134. Probation justify the philosophy of men such as, except –
A. All men deserve a second time B. An individual can change
C. Society has a moral obligation to lift the fallen D. None of these
135. Presidential Decree 968 as amended established the Probation Administration, which exercises general
supervision over all probationers under the Department of Justice. It was made into a Parole and Probation
Administration under the 1987 Administration Code. The organization of Administration consists of the
officer of the following, except –
A. Administrator B. Administration Division
C. Training Division D. Security Division
136. What is the benefit enjoyed by youthful offenders under P.D. 603?
A. Release to the community where he/she resides B. Suspension of the promulgation of judgment
C. Extinguishment of the criminal liability D. Extinguishment of the civil liability
137. What is the disposition under which a defendant after conviction and sentence, and released subject to
condition imposed by the court and to the supervision of a probation officer?
A. Parole B. Probation C. Conditional Pardon D. Youth probation
138. It means a person placed under probation.
A. Probation officer B. Youthful offender C. Offenders D. Probationer
139. It refers to a convicted defendant who files a formal application for probation.
A. Probationer B. Youthful offender C. Petitioner D. Probation officer
140. One of the philosophies interpreting the probation law is to “Promote the correction and rehabilitation
of an offender by providing him with individualized treatment”. This means that the Probation law –
A. views each offender as a unique subject and it provides a rehabilitation program to suit his
character and needs.
B. established the nature of probation as an alternative to imprisonment.
C. is based on the belief that there are instances when a free environment will be more effective in
inducing a felon to be law abiding than repressive jail confinement.
D. provides offenders with “individualized”, community-based treatment programs.
141. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the four essential elements of probation?
A. None of these
B. Probation is a method of dealing with offenders i.e., persons whose guilt has been established.
C. Probation is a method which is applied on selective basis.
D. Probation involves the unconditional suspension of punishment.
142. When can an offender apply for probation?
A. During trial
B. After trial before the promulgation of judgment
C. After conviction and within the period for perfecting an appeal
D. After conviction and even after the period of making an appeal
143. When probation be granted?
A. When the sentence imposes a term of imprisonment
B. When the sentence imposes the penalty of prision mayor
C. When the offender is facing multiple charges
D. When the sentence imposes a term of imprisonment and/or a fine only
144. Making an appeal from a judgment of conviction is a –
A. Constitutional right B. Not a constitutional right C. Statutory right D. B and C
145. Application for probation is deemed to be –
A. A waiver of appeal B. An admission of guilt
C. Making the judgment final D. All of these
146. Upon perfection of an appeal, who acquires jurisdiction over a case?
A. The appellate courts B. The trial courts
C. The Court of Appeals D. The Supreme Court
147. An order granting or denying probation –
A. shall be appealable. B. is reversible. C. shall not be appealable. D. can be modified.
148. The Post- sentence Investigation Report is –
A. Discretionary on the part of the probation officer
B. Mandatory prior to granting or denying of probation
C. A right vested to every convicted persons
D. Mandatory right for all applicant for probation
149. The probation officer shall submit to the court the Post-sentence Investigation Report -
A. Not later than sixty days from receipt of the order of the said court to conduct the investigation
B. Not later than forty-five days from receipt of the order of the said court to conduct the
investigation
C. Not later than thirty days from receipt of the order of the said court to conduct the investigation
D. Within thirty days from receipt of the order of the said court to conduct the investigation
150. Once the court receives the investigation report, the court is given how many days to resolve the
application for probation?
A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20
151. How many days is the period for perfecting an appeal?
A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 15
152. Appeal is perfected by the occurrence of two (2) things: The filing of a notice of appeal with the trial
court within (15) days from promulgation on receipt of the judgment; and
A. The lapse of 15 days from the receipt of the judgment
B. The lapse of 10 days from the receipt of the judgment
C. the withdrawal of the appeal and filing of probation in lieu thereof
D. The court promulgates the finality and execution of the conviction
153. The following information about the offender are the criteria considered whether and offender may
be placed on probation, except –
A. Character, environment, and antecedents B. Available institutional and community resources
 C. Social and economic capability of the petitioner D. Mental and physical condition
154. Probation shall be denied if the court finds the following, EXCEPT:
A. The offender is in need of correctional treatment that be provided most effectively by his
commitment to an institution
B. There is undue risk that during the period of probation the offender will commit another crimes
C. The probation will depreciate the seriousness of the offense committed
D. The offender is not in need of correctional treatment that be provided most effectively by his
commitment to an institution
155. Who is not qualified to receive the benefits of the Probation Law?
A. Sentence to serve a maximum term of imprisonment of not more than six (6) years
B. Convicted of subversion or any crime against national security or public order
C. Who have previously been convicted by final judgment of an offense punished by imprisonment
of not less than one month and one day and/or a fine not less than two hundred pesos
D. Who have been once on probation under the provision of this Decree
156. It was held that an order placing a defendant on probation is –
A. Not a sentence but is rather in effect a suspension of the imposition of sentence
B. A replacement of his imprisonment thus making the probation the alternative sentence
C. A sentence while at the same time suspending the suspension of his sentence
D. Not a sentence but rather a fine
157. Probation is –
A. A mere privilege B. A matter of right C. A constitutional right D. A and B
158. The probationer is required to report to the probation officer at least –
A. Twice a month B. Once every two months
C. Once every fifteen days D. Once a month
159. The court requires the probationer to do the following, except –
A. Cooperate with a program of supervision
B. Meet his family responsibility
C. Devote himself to a specific employment and to change said employment without written
approval of the probation officer
D. Undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric examination and treatment and enter and remain
in a specified institution, when required for that purpose
160. The “conviction and sentence” clause of the statutory definition of probation clearly signifies that
probation affects –
A. Only the criminal aspect of the case
B. Only the civil aspect of the case
C. Both the criminal and civil aspects of the case
D. Both the criminal and civil aspects of the case including any subsidiary imprisonment

161. What is the result of the final discharge of the probationer?

A. Restoration of all his civil rights lost or suspended as a result of his conviction
B. Fully discharging his liability for any fine imposed as to the offense for which the probation was
granted
C. Freedom from the control of the probation officer
D. A and B
162. The probationer and his probation program is under the control of –
A. Probation officer B. Offended party
C. Probation and Parole Office D. Court who granted the probation
163. Who orders the termination of the probation?
A. The probation officer B. The legal counsel of the probationer
C. The court who granted the probation D. The recommendation of the probation officer
164. Whenever a probationer is permitted to reside in a place under the jurisdiction of another court,
control over him shall be –
A. Transferred to the Executive Judge of the Court of First Instance of that place
B. Remained in the court who granted his/her probation
C. Remained in the Probation Office where the probation officer belongs
D. Subjected to investigation by the Executive Judge of the Court of First Instance of that place
165. An order revoking the grant of probation or modifying the terms and conditions thereof shall –
A. Be appealable C. Be subject to further modifications or revisions
B. Not be appealable D. Be modified if it is questioned by the offended party
166. When the sentence imposes a fine only and the offender is made to serve subsidiary imprisonment in
case of insolvency, the period of probation shall –
A. Not be twice the total number of days of subsidiary imprisonment
B. Equal to the total number of days of subsidiary imprisonment
C. Not be less than or twice the total number of days of subsidiary imprisonment
D. Be twice the total number of days of subsidiary imprisonment
167. The probationer was sentence to suffer the imprisonment of six years. What is his period of probation?
A. One year B. Two years C. Three years D. Not exceeding 6 years
168. Some of the required things to be done by a petitioner are the following, except –
A. Attend in or reside in a facility established for instruction recreational or residence of a person’s
probation
B. Persist from visiting house of ill-refute
C. Abstain from drinking intoxicating beverages to excess
D. Permit to Probation officer or authorized social workers to visit his home and place of work
169. The conditions of the probation –
A. Cannot be modified
B. Can be modified upon the application of the probation officer
C. Can be modified upon order of the court
D. B and/or C
170. The petitioner is waiting for the approval of his application for probation. The petitioner –
A. Can no longer withdraw his application for probation
B. Can still withdraw such application to pursue an appeal of his case as long as the period of filing
an appeal is not yet perfected
C. Can still withdraw his application upon the discretion of the court
D. Can no longer withdraw the application because it was already an implied guilt on his part
171. What is the remedy if the trial court has committed a grave abuse of discretion either granting or
denying probation?
A. None because granting or denying an appeal is non appealable
B. Bring the case to the Supreme Court
C. File a Certiorari
D. File a motion for reconsideration
172. The petitioner Vera won an appeal granting him a probationable penalty. It was noted that he made
the appeal because he felt that the court erroneously imposed upon him a higher non-probationable
imprisonment term. Is the petitioner qualified to apply for probation?
A. No, because he has already filed an appeal
B. No, because of the perfection of the appeal
C. Yes because the court was erroneous not the petitioner
D. No, because the probation of an appeal waives the right for probation stands
173. During the conduct of post sentence investigation, is the petitioner has the right to counsel?
A. None of these
B. Yes because it is a constitutional right
C. Yes because he is under another investigation conducted under the control of the court
D. No because the investigation conducted is neither prosecutory nor accusatory in character
174. The petitioner committed espionage and he was denied of probation wihout prior post-sentence
investigation? Is the trial court right in denying the petitioner without conducting post-sentence
investigation?
A. No because granting and denying probation should be based from the recommendation stated in
the post-sentence investigation report
B. Yes because the crime is against national security and it is not outright disqualification
C. No because it is a mandatory that post-sentence investigation shall be conducted
D. Yes because the petitioner needs to avail of his post-sentence investigation rights

175. The report shall contain the following, except –

 A. None of these
B. The circumstances surrounding the offenses for which the petitioners was convicted. The finding
should be drawn from the court records, police records, statements of the defendant, the aggrieved
party, if available and willing to be interviewed
C. Psycho-social information regarding the petitioner
D. evaluation of the petitioner’s suitability for probation, and his potential for future social
adjustment; and re-integration into the community
176. Is the defendant has the right to demand for a copy of the post-sentence investigation report?
A. None C. It depends on the content of the investigation report
B. There is D. It depends on the court since the discretion belongs to the court
177. Is the defendant or his counsel entitled to have hearing on the investigation report or application for
probation?
A. Yes C. Yes, only after they made the necessary petition from the court
B. No D. Yes, if they so desire
178. Traditionally, a person on probation has not considered a free person, despite the fact that the
probationer is not incarcerated. The basis for imposing restrictions on probationer’s liberty and for
punishing violation thereon are explained by different theories. “Probation is a conditional privilege; an act
of mercy by the judge which has not been earned by the defendant. As such, probation can simply be
withdrawn if any condition of the privilege is violated.”
A. Grace theory B. Mercy theory C. Contract theory D. Custody theory
179. All, but one, are the primary purposes probation supervision.
A. To carry out the conditions set forth in the probation order
B. To ascertain whether the probationer is following said conditions
C. To bring about the rehabilitation of the probationer and his re-integration into the community
D. To bring justice to the grave done against the offended party
180. When does the Provincial or city probation Officer shall submit a monthly written report on the status
and the progress of all probationers under his charge to the Regional Probation Officer concerned?
A. Within the first 5 days of each month B. Within the first 10 days of each month
C. Within the first week of each month D. Within the first 15 days of each month
181. What is not true about the imposition of the period of probation?
A. None of these
B. If the imprisonment is one year, the probation period should not exceed two years
C. The minimum period of probation is left to the discretion of the court
D. The court may impose a “straight” period of probation anywhere within the range and
corresponding limits sets by law;
182. The probation program can be terminated through the following, EXCEPT:
A. Completion of the probation period
B. Termination before Expiration o the period when the end of justice will be served thereby and
when the good conduct and rehabilitation of the person so held on probation shall warrant
termination of probation.
C. Deportation of the probationer
D. None of these
183. When does the probation officer should submit the termination report?
A. At least 10 days before the expiration of the period of probation
B. At least 15 days before the expiration of the period of probation
C. At least 30 days before the expiration of the period of probation
D. At least 30 days after the expiration of the period of probation
184. Who first introduce the probation period in Massachusetts USA?
A. William Davenport hill B. Alexander rice C. Frederick Rainer D. None of
these
185. Who studies the character and behavior of prisoners?
A. The psychiatrist B. The psychologist C. The chaplain D. The sociologist
186. The Undersecretary of DILG has the appointing authority over the following, EXCEPT:
A. Chief Inspector B. Senior Inspector C. Inspector D. Superintendent
187. How many years are served by a provincial prisoner?
A. Not exceeding 6 months B. Not exceeding 3 years
C. 6 months 1 day to not more than 3 years D. Not exceeding 6 years
188. Which prison term is served by city and municipal prisoners?
 A. arresto mayor B. Prision Correccional C. Prision mayor D. Reclusion temporal
189. What prison term is not covered by probation?
A. Arresto menor B. Arresto mayor C. Prision correccional D. Prision
mayor
190. What year the National Bilibid Prison was built in Manila?
A. 1906 B. 1916 C. 1926 D. 1936
191. The principal officer in the probation system is the –
A. Judge B. Probation Administrator C. Probation Officer D. Probationer
192. The ideas advocated by John Howard are the following, EXCEPT:
A. Single cells for sleeping
B. Provision of sanitation facilities
C. Abolition of fee system by which jailers obtained money from prisoners
D. None of these

193. Who among the following is not disqualified for parole?

A. Those prisoners who are sentenced with capital punishment or life imprisonment
B. Those who are convicted of treason, conspiracy or proposal to commit treason, misprision
treason, rebellion, sedition or piracy.
C. Habitual offenders
D. None of these
194. Which of these serves as an informal basis for the court’s decision to grant or deny probation?
A. Result of preliminary investigation B. Nature if crime committed
C. Post-sentence investigation report D. Gravity of the offense
195. It is another term for the community based treatment after conviction of the offense.
A. Probation B. Parole C. Amnesty D. Pardon
196. Which of these offenses falls under the grounds for disqualification even if the penalties are not more
than 6 years?
A. Treason B. Inciting to war C. Violation of Neutrality D. Rebellion
197. The probationer is prohibited to visit this place so as to resist the temptations of the environment.
A. crowded places B. house of ill refute C. School D. park
198. Who was the commissioner who headed the inter-disciplinary committee in drafting the
Philippine Adult Probation Law?
A. Teodulo C. Natividad B. Juan Ponce Enrile C. Juan Talavera D. Fedinand Marcos
199. Who was the person n England who insisted on the compromise known as the “benefit of the clergy”?
A. King Henry II B. Queen Elizabeth II C. John Augustus D. King Henry V
200. It is a treatment of crime in England which was an attempt to substitute for the brutal punishment at
home an opportunity for rehabilitation in a new country.
A. Probation B. Benefit of the Clergy C. Recognizance D. Transportation
201. By this justification of punishment it resulted in retaliation and unending vendetta between the
offender and the victim.
a. Retribution b. Protection c. Expiation d. Deterrence
202. It believes that punishment gives a lesson to the offender, and that it holds crime commission in check.
a. Retribution b. Protection c. Atonement d. Deterrence
203. It is effected by the use of stocks and pillery, docking stool, branding and shaving off the hair of the
offender.
a. Corporal punishment b. Shaming c. Pubic humiliation d. Both B and C
204. It is effected by the use of stocks and pillery, docking stool, branding and shaving off the hair of the
offender.
a. Corporal punishment c. Shaming
b. Pubic humiliation d. Both B and C
205. Close confinement in cells shall not exceed _____ days in any calendar month.
a. 5 days b. 7 days c. 10 days d. 15 days
206. For escort duties there shall be _____ guards for every inmate.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
207. It is continuing state of good order.
a. Discipline b. Communication c. Morale d. Loyalty
208.This is the initial wave of an anti riot assault contingent who shall be armed with wicker shields,
protective headgear, gas masks and night sticks to disperse the rioter and get their leaders.
a. 1st group b. 3rd group c. 2nd group d. None of these
209. Age of an inmate who may be excused from mandatory labor.
a. 50 b. 55 c. 60 d. Over 60
210. Telephone calls is permitted for inmates for a period not exceeding 5 minutes every ___ days.
a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 120
211. Visiting days for immediate relatives of inmates is allowed from Sundays to Thurs from 9:00 am to ___
pm.
a. 3 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7
212. A colonist when classified by the director of the Bureau of Corrections who is punish with reclusion
perpetua will have benefit from an automatic reduction from a maximum term of forty years to______;
a. 20 years b. 25 years c. 30 years d. 35 years
213. Who among the following inmates may not be allowed to view the remains of a dead immediate family
member?
a. Minimum security b. Maximum security c. Medium security d. None of these
214. Duration of viewing privilege of a deceased relative is limited to ___ hours.
a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12
215. Ideally, a new confined inmate should remain at the RDC for psychiatric, sociological, vocational,
educational, religious and psychological examinations for a period not exceeding _____ days.
a. 30 b. 55 c. 60 d. 75
216. Personal items particularly electrical equipment such as a television, radio, cassette, video player,
electric fans is allowed in prison facilities, provide that;
a. The prison personnel will use them b. The warden permits it
c. they are intended for common use with other inmates d. All of these
217. A person confined in prison pending preliminary investigation, trial or appeal; or upon legal process
issued by a competent authority.
a. Inmate b. National Prisoner c. Detainee d. Insular Prisoner
218. It is the nucleus of the cumulative case history of the prisoner.
a. Admission Summary b. Reclassification c. Staff Conference d. Personal history

219. Periodic assessment of a prisoner’s treatment program to cater adjustment with his personality and
behavior.
a. Classification b. Treatment Planning
c. Executive of the treatment program d. Reclassification
220. He recommends the transfer and type of custody applicable to the prisoner.
a. Medical officer b. Vocations Counselor
c. Custodial-Correctional Officer d. Chaplain
221. An institution designed to service a big institution its make a critical study of the prisoners for their
proper treatment program.
a. Classification Committee c. Reception Diagnostic Center
b. Quarantine Unit d. Infirmary
222. The housing units are of cell type blocks and prisoners are not allowed to work outside.
a. Super- security prisoners b. Maximum Security prisoners
c. Medium security prisoners d. Minimum security prisoners
223. Type of institution usually constructed without a fence.
a. Super- security prisoners b. Maximum Security prisoners
c. Medium security prisoners d. Minimum security prisoners
224. In this institution, inmates may work allowed to work outside under guard supervision.
a. Super- security prisoners b. Maximum Security prisoners
c. Medium security prisoners d. Minimum security prisoners
225. The U.N. Standard Minimum Rules for the treatment of offenders prescribes that penal facilities should
not exceed _____ inmates.
a. 1000 b. 1200 c. 1500 d. 2000
226. A prison should be diversified by institution.
a. Diversification by sex b. Diversification by age
c. Segregation d. Diversification by degree of custody
227. It was made as an alternative corporal punishment and death penalty.
a. Transportation of prisoner b. Parole c. imprisonment d. Probation
228. This activity is undertaken to minimize the anxiety of the offender in returning to the free society.
a. Pre release leave b. Individual or group counseling
c. Granting greater freedom d. Leave for work
229. It is the primary objective of custodial and security division?
a. To prevent riots c. To implement discipline
b. To prevent escapes d. To help in the reformation of prisoners
230. It is regarded as one of the finest open penal institution in the world.
a. Iwahig Penal Colony c. Davao Penal Colony
b. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm d. Sablayan Prison and farm
231. A person held in custody for the violation of a law or ordinance and has yet not been convicted is a:
a. Detention prisoner b. Provincial prisoner c. Municipal prisoner d. Insular prisoner
232. A person who is sentenced to serve a prison term of over three (3) years is a-
a. City prisoner b. National prisoner c. Detention prisoner d. Municipal Prisoner
233. They are prisoners who may be allowed to work outside the fence of the institution under guard
escorts. Generally they are employed as agricultural workers.
a. Super- security prisoners b. Maximum Security prisoners
c. Medium security prisoners d. Minimum security prisoners
234. The BJMP is under the administration of________.
a. DILG b. PNP c. Executive Department d. DOJ
235. The basic of this school in penology is human free will.
a. Classical school b. Positivist School c. Neo Classical school d. Italian School
236. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instance.
a. Murder b. Rape c. Arson d. Impeachment
237. It has been regarded as the forerunner of modern penology due to its extensive use of parole, social
case work and training school type of institution.
a. Pennsylvania system b. Elmira Reformatory c. Auburn System d. Borstal institution
238. Pardon is exercised when a person is_____.
a. Already convicted b. About to be convicted c. Under custodial investigation d. Under trial
239. He advocated the progressive system, by issuing ticket to leave for deserving inmates which is
equivalent to parole, and he was noted as the Father of Modern Penology.
a. Alexander Maconochie b. Walter Crofton c. Z.R. Brockway d. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
240. Oldest penal institution operated under the Bureau of Corrections.
a. Iwahig Penal Colony b. Davao Penal Colony
c. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm d. Sablayan Penal Colony
241. Group vengeance as a justification for imposition of punishment.
a. Retribution b. Deterrence c. Expiation d. Protection
242. Primitive punishment of the transgressor carried out through personal vengeance.
a. Retribution b. Deterrence c. Expiation d. Protection
243. Sometimes referred to as case conference or guidance conference wherein the tentative formulation
of rehabilitation program is conducted with the inmate concerned.
a. Staff conference c. Classification meeting b. Admission classification d. Staff interview

244 .Ideal number of days for an intimate to be placed in the Quarantine unit at the Reception and
Diagnosis Center.
a. 55 days b. 15 days c. 10 days d. 5 days
245. Its main objective is to prevent unnecessary custodial risk and prevent physical and moral
contamination from one group to another.
a. Diversification b. Discipline c. segregation d. Classification
246. It is part of the classification wherein the prisoners are examined and tests are administered to check
on the physical and mental condition of the prisoners.
a. Diagnosis b. Treatment planning c. Executive of Treatment program d. Re-classification
247. This Forerunner of penology considered and made emphasis on physical characteristics as basis for
atavism.
a. Lombroso c. Ferri b. Becarria d. Garofalo
248. It is the original intention of imposing prison labor?
 a. Punitive b. Reformatory c. afflictive d. Business
249. Place wherein a newly convicted prisoner is housed for at least a minimum period of 5 days for the
conduct of medical examination, vaccination, x-ray to prevent physical contamination.
a. Reception Diagnostic center b. Infirmary c. medical center d. Quarantine unit
250. An advocate of the Classical School of penology who claimed that society must reward those who
accept responsibility and punish those who do not.
a. Bentham b. Lombroso c. Becarria d. Ferri