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Technology Multiple Choice Exam on Welding

The document contains a multiple choice exam with 47 questions testing technical knowledge about welding processes and procedures. Key topics covered include NDT methods, welding defects, joint design, preheat and post weld heat treatment requirements. Correct answers are not provided.

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Alex Kulleh
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
92 views8 pages

Technology Multiple Choice Exam on Welding

The document contains a multiple choice exam with 47 questions testing technical knowledge about welding processes and procedures. Key topics covered include NDT methods, welding defects, joint design, preheat and post weld heat treatment requirements. Correct answers are not provided.

Uploaded by

Alex Kulleh
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

TECHNOLOGY MULTIPLE CHOICE EXAM - 5

1. For ultrasonic testing which of the following statements is true?


a. It is easy to identify all defects
b. The equipment should be calibrated before use
c. The equipment cannot be automated
d. Sound waves will not travel through copper

2. Which one of these joints would be more susceptible to lamellar tearing?


a. U butt
b. Vee butt
c. Double Vee butt
d. Compound weld

3. Which welding process produces the highest level of hydrogen?


A. TIG autogenous
B. MIG solid wire
C. FCAW
D. MMA basic electrodes

4. What is the minimum requirement of stress for hydrogen cracking to be applicable?


A. 0.5 N/mm2
B. 0.5 joules of the yield
C. 0.5% of the yield of the material
D. 0.5 of the yield of the material

5. In MIG/MAG welding which mode of transfer is referred to as non-desired?


A. Dip
B. Pulse
C. Spray
D. Globular

6. A butt weld was produced in a 40mm plate: the electrode type was basic and the diameter
4mm. the welding parameters used for one of the welding runs was 190amps, 24volts and a
ROL of 120mm/min. what is the energy for that weld run?
A. 1.91KJ/mm
B. 0.98KJ/mm
C. 2.28KJ/mm
D. Not enough information to calculate arc energy

7. A tensile test was 120mm long before testing an dafter testing the length was 135mm long.
What is the percentage elongation?
A. 20%
B. 15%
C. 11%
D. 12.5%
8. A transverse tensile test was carried out on welding procedure. The cross sectional area of
the specimen was 30mm wide and 15mm thick. The maximum load applied was 170KN.
What is the ultimate tensile strength value?
A. 377 N/MM2
B. 450N/MM2
C. 300 N/MM2
D. 600 N/MM2
9. Which one of these tests is classed as qualitative?
A. Hardness test
B. Tensile
C. Macro test
D. Toughness test

10.Which one of these statements are true concerning lamellar tearing?


A. As hydrogen levels increase lamellar tearing is more likely
B. As material thickness increase ductility decrease making lamellar tearing more likely
C. Lamellar tearing occurs in the HAZ
D. Lamellar tearing affects all joint types

11. During a transverse tensile test, the first stage the specimen goes through is known as?
A. Plastic stage
B. Elastic stage
C. Deformed stage
D. UTS stage

12. When welding on a construction site which type of power source would be considered to be
the unsafe?
A. 110 volts mains machine
B. 440 volts mains machine
C. Diesel engine driven welding generators processes
D. All welding machines have the same safety factors

13. Which gas is not normally used in TIG welding?


A. Argon
B. Helium
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Hydrogen

14. With the DPI method of inspection, what should be carried out prior to applying the
penetrant?
A. Apply developer
B. Wash off excess penetrant
C. Apply a thin coat of white contrast paint
D. Ensure the surface under inspection is free of all contaminants that may hinder penetrant
access to surface breaking flaws
15. The main requirements of TIG welding are?
A. Heat
B. Protection
C. Cleanliness
D. All of the above

16. Which of these tests would most probably be used for welder qualification on a plate butt
weld using 13mm low carbon steel?
A. CTOD
B. Nick break test
C. Fracture fillet test
D. IZOD

17. When TIG welding the methods of initiation could be?


A. Lift arc
B. High frequency
C. Constant frequency
D. Both A and B

18. Which one of the following codes/standards is not a qualification code?


A. ASME section IX
B. AWS D1.1
C. EN ISO 15614
D. ASME B31.3

19. Solidification cracking takes place in carbon steels?


A. After post weld treatment
B. In the base metal
C. Immediately after welding
D. After a few hours

20. Concerning weldability of carbon steels which of the following statements is true?
A. Material grade influences weldability
B. Increasing carbon content makes welding easier
C. Thicker plates can be welded more easily then thinner plates
D. All of the above

21. Which of the following arc design is preferred in cyclic loading condition?
A. View A
B. View B
C. View C
D. View D
View A view B view C view D

22. To prevent HIC, with increasing CEV what measures may be taken?
A. Use higher pre heat
B. Use post weld heat treatment
C. Use low hydrogen electrode
D. All of the above

23. The main problem with solution treatment of stainless steel is that?
A. Controlling the rate of the temperature rate
B. Controlling the cooling rate
C. The length of the soak period
D. High risk of distortion

24. Which type of weld would you associate with the joint below
A. plug in a T joint
B. A plug weld in a edge joint
C. A fillet weld in a corner joint
D. An edge weld in a lap joint

25. Which of the following welds may be made in open corner joint?
A. Plug weld
B. Butt weld
C. Fillet weld
D. Any of the above

26. Reference to any inspection hold point during manufacture will be contained within the?
A. Quality manual
B. QA procedure
C. Quality plan
D. Standards

27. Who should have access to the WPS?


A. NDT operators
B. Inspectors
C. Welders only
D. Welders and inspectors

28. What is a STRA test?


A. Short track risk of area
B. Short transverse reduction in area
C. Shaved tensile reducing area
D. Strength to reduce area
29. Which one of these electrodes produces the highest level of hydrogen?
A. Cellulosic electrodes
B. Rutile
C. Basic
D. Iron powder electrodes

30. What course of action should be taken upon finding a welder using incorrect welding
consumables?
A. report the incident and record all relevant information
B. Allow welding to proceed if the workmanship is good
C. None if the tensile strength of the consumable is the same as the approved
D. Change the electrode for the correct type and continue welding

31. During root welding which of the following would be the main cause of burn through?
A. The current is too high
B. The root gap is too small in accordance with WPS
C. Preheat not used
D. Root face is too large

32. The main purpose of preheating is to?


A. Remove moisture
B. Delay the cooling rate
C. Remove hydrogen
D. Improve fusion

33. In order to prevent hydrogen cracking which of the following would need to be mainly
considered?
A. Material thickness
B. Welding position
C. Carbon equivalent value
D. Joint design

34. Cathodic cleaning is used to remove?


A. Sign waves
B. Oxides
C. Surface inclusions
D. Low melting point compounds

35. What is the main purpose post flow function on a TIG welding machine?
A. Avoid tungsten electrode contamination
B. Cool the weld during solidification
C. Give the welder time to adjust to welding conditions
D. Purge the gas line
36. When using multiple SAW arc systems (twin wires) the arcs often have different polarities or
use all AC rather than DC polarity?
A. Prevent arc blow between the arcs
B. To maximize productivity
C. To even out the power factor on the mains supply
D. Make it easier to initiate the arc

37. A post weld heat treatment may also be of benefit in minimizing the risk of weld decay; this
heat treatment would be called?
A. Stress relief
B. Normalizing
C. Quench and tempering
D. Solution treatment over 1000oC

38. The higher the alloy content of steels?


A. The lower the tendency for HIC to occur
B. The higher the tendency for HIC to occur
C. High alloy steels do not influence HIC susceptibility
D. None of the above

39. A solidification crack normally occurs where?


A) Through the HAZ
B) Longitudinal through the weld Centre line
C) Transverse through the weld
D) Can occur anywhere

40. Who should select the specific welds for NDT to cover 10% contractual percentage required
by the specification/code?
A) Anyone can select the welds as its just a random choice
B) The welder as he knows which welds are likely to produce the least defects
C) This will be referenced in the inspection and test plan
D) Nobody, as welding is always carried out to a high standard the use of percentage NDT
is of no real value

41. After PWHT it has been noticed that a repair must be carried out. How should this be done?
A) With the minimum amount of heat input
B) Weld, checked and PWHT again
C) Defect removed via non thermal process than checked
D) Welded and allowed to cool in air

42. After welding sometimes the removal of residual stresses are carried out by heat treatment
what is the typical heating range?
A) 4500C
B) 550-7000C
C) 700-8000C
D) 850-10000C

43. A typical temperature for normalizing carbon steels is?


A) 3000C
B) 4000C
C) 6000C
D) 9000C

44. How do we determine what the correct weld preparation (root gap, root face, included angle)
should be?
A) By consulting the WPS
B) The fabrication drawing will give all the information
C) The welder will decide
D) The inspector will recommend what is suitable

45. Which standard is used for the basic requirements of visual inspection?
A) BS EN 17637
B) API 1104
C) BSEN 7079
D) BSEN 4515

46. What is an essential variable?


A) Something essential for welding
B) Something that will affect mechanical properties
C) Something that varies during welding
D) A list of welding condition

47. Why are welding procedures produced? To check:


A) Quality
B) Mechanical properties
C) Welding equipment
D) The capabilities of the welders

48. For an all weld tensile test, which of the following is true?
A) The specimen is rectangular in cross section
B) The specimen contains base metal and weld metal
C) The specimen is taken in the longitudinal direction
D) The specimen is taken in the Z direction

49. High intensity energy beams are associated with which of the following welding processes?
A) Laser
B) Electron beam
C) Plasma
D) All of the above
50. Globular transfer is used in which welding process?
A) TIG
B) MMA/SMAW
C) GMAW/MAG
D) SAW

51. In GMAW which type of metal transfer deposits multiple droplets of metal across the arc
gap?
A) Pulsed transfer
B) Spray transfer
C) Dip transfer
D) Globular transfer

52. In the GTAW process, the use of pulsed current helps in achieving which of the following?
A) Electron cleaning effect and penetration
B) Controlling heat input and penetration
C) Controlling lack of sidewall fusion and heat input
D) Controlling spatter and penetration

53. In GMAW process, the use of pulsed current usually results in?
A) Globular transfer and dip transfer
B) Spray and globular transfer
C) An open arc transfer
D) None of the above

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