PROGRESS TEST 97
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. asked B. danced C. cashed D. studied
Question 2. A. compile B. facile C. facsimile D. textile
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. social B. common C. verbal D. polite
Question 4. A. solidarity B. effectively C. documentary D. dedication
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. The majority of the students _______ home for their holidays for the past few weeks.
A. has gone B. had gone C. goes D. have gone
Question 6. My sister often reads _______ fashion pages in_______ newspapers to keep up with
__________ latest styles.
A. 0/the/the B. the/the/the C. 0/0/the D. the/0/the
Question 7. Mrs Townsend was left _______________ all the arrangements for the outing by herself.
A. to make B. making C. having made D. to making
Question 8. “If I ________ and my life depended on the solution, I would spend the first 55 minutes
determining the proper question to ask, for once I know the proper question, I could solve the problem in
less than five minutes." _ Albert Einstein
A. have an hour to solve a problem B. had an hour solving a problem
C. had had an hour to solve a problem D. had an hour to solve a problem
Question 9. I’m sorry but I assure you that I had no intention ____________ offending you.
A. in B. of C. to D. for
Question 10. As a devoted and respectable woman, she makes a large donation to a ________ cause every
year.
A. worthless B. worthy C. worthwhile D. worth
Question 11. __________ you have thought about where you are at now and where you want to be, you
can work on getting to know your skills, interests and values.
A. As B. Although C. Unless D. Once
Question 12. When we went to Egypt he knew ______________ no Arabic, but within six months he had
become extremely fluent.
A. entirely B. barely C. virtually D. scarcely
Question 13. In ________________, I must acknowledge that we were guilty of errors of judgment.
A. retrospect B. review C. experience D. hindsight
Question 14. Union leaders feel it is time Cabinet Ministers put their _________________ on the table
regarding their long-term plans.
A. cards B. hands C. feet D. papers
Question 15. "Anyone who stops learning is old, ________. Anyone who keeps learning stays young." _
Henry Ford
A. either at twenty or eighty B. neither at twenty or eighty
C. neither at twenty nor eighty D. whether at twenty or eighty
Question 16. He has been given work as a window cleaner even though he has no _________ for height.
A. head B. skill C. ability D. balance
Question 17. The ________________ of his first novel appeared in The Times yesterday.
A. survey B. inspection C. appraisal D. review
Question 18. One moment you say you love me, the next moment you are dating another girl, __________?
A. don’t you B. aren’t you C. won’t you D. do you
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 19. If the rain doesn't let up soon, we shall have to look for a taxi.
A. brighten B. stop C. clear D. darken
Question 20. Veronica broke the school rules so many times that the headmistress finally had no alternative
but to expel her.
A. force her to leave a school B. make her meet the headmaster
C. punish her severely D. beat her violently
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 21. It is an ideal opportunity to make yourself memorable with employers for the right reasons
by asking sensible questions.
A. theoretical B. silly C. practical D. burning
Question 22. Steve was very happy in his job until he fell out with his boss. After that, it was difficult for
them to work together.
A. made up with B. made for C. made out D. made off
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
A little while ago, the European Parliament recommended a list of 8 key competencies which they
believe all (23) ____ institutions should provide their students with, to promote lifelong learning. These
key competencies consist of knowledge, skills, and attitudes which are central to the development of (24)
____ children, young people and eventually adults.
Finland isn't the first country to recognize the value of ‘lifelong learning’ but Finland is the first country
to base their teaching curriculum (25) ____ the eight key competencies. Instead of focusing on classic
academic subjects, like. History or English, Finnish schools will now structure lessons around broader,
crosscutting and interdisciplinary "topics".
Speaking on why Finland decided to make this shift towards lifelong learning. Pasi Sahlberg. Visiting
Professor at the Graduate School of Education Harvard University, said: “educators in Finland think, quite
correctly, that schools should teach what young people need in their lives... (26) ______Finnish youth need
more than before are more integrated knowledge and skills about real world issues”.
As Professor Sahlberg explains the key competencies don't focus on knowledge acquisition and test
score results, (27) ____ on developing skills for longer term learning, with an emphasis on social and
emotional development.
(Source: [Link]
Question 23. A. educate B. educating C. education D. educational
Question 24. A. good-rounding B. well-rounding C. good-rounded D. well-rounded
Question 25. A. in B. for C. over D. round
Question 26. A. that B. it C. what D. which
Question 27.A. rather B. instead C. but D. than
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 28. If students are going to an open day they should be familiarized themselves with a Range of
courses in that institution.
A. are going to B. should be familiarized
C. Range of courses D. that institution
Question 29. Employers offer pension or a salary for the workers in exchange for the worker's work or
labor.
A. pension B. for C. for D. or
Question 30. Many people suppose that the more popular television programmes become, the more badly
they seem.
A. suppose B. the more C. programmes become D. more badly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
In “How many hours does it take to make a friend?” (2018), Jeffrey A. Hall describes the types of
encounters that build a friendship.
His study found that hours of time spent together was linked with closer friendships, as was time spent
enjoying leisure activities together. Specifically, he found that the chance of making a “casual friend,” as
opposed to a mere acquaintance, was greater than 50 percent when people spent approximately 43 hours
together within three weeks of meeting. He further found that casual friends evolve into friends at some
point between 57 hours after three weeks, and 164 hours over three months. Hall's research also
demonstrated, however, that when it comes to time spent developing friendships, quality is more important
than quantity. And when it comes to conversation, topics matter. When it comes to building quality
relationships, the duration of conversation is not as important as the content. Meaningful conversation is
the key to bonding with others.
Hall found that when it comes to developing friendships, sharing daily life through catching up and
joking around promotes closeness; small talk does not. Consider the inane topics that often come up when
you are trapped in an elevator with an acquaintance. Discussing the weather or speculating on how many
stops you will make before finally reaching the lobby does not facilitate bonding. Nor does mere proximity.
Hall found that obligatory time spent together, such as in a classroom or workplace, does not promote
closeness. Friendships require an efficient use of time together. Someone who remembers the details of
your life and asks questions about your family, your job, your latest vacation, etc., is much more likely on
his or her way to becoming someone you consider a friend, as opposed to an acquaintance.
(source: [Link]
Question 31. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The priceless gift of time B. The cluttered social life
C. A world of online acquaintances. D. From best friends to acquaintances.
Question 32. The word “he” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. classmate B. friend C. acquaintance D. Jeffrey
Question 33. According to paragraph 2, what conclusion can be drawn from the finding of Jeffrey A. Hall?
A. Constant contact exhausting, the pressure to be positive all day long is draining.
B. Even in our fast-paced world, you can create friendships that truly last a lifetime.
C. Both quantity and quality of time spent together contribute to spark true friendships.
D. Individuals are motivated to engage in conversations that form and strengthen relationships.
Question 34. The word “inane” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. silly B. small C. regular D. normal
Question 35. According to paragraph 3, what kind of setting can foster real amity?
A. High-fiving with a stranger on the street. B. Travelling with your friend on holiday.
C. Boarding the same lift as your neighbor. D. Discussing with classmate for the class project.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Although television was first regarded by many as “radio with pictures,” public reaction to the arrival
of TV was strikingly different from that afforded the advent of radio. Radio in its early days was perceived
as a technological wonder rather than a medium of cultural significance. The public quickly adjusted to
radio broadcasting and either enjoyed its many programs or turned them off. Television, however, prompted
a tendency to criticize and evaluate rather than a simple on-off response.
One aspect of early television that can never be recaptured is the combined sense of astonishment and
glamour that greeted the medium during its infancy. At the midpoint of the 20th century, the public was
properly agog about being able to see and hear actual events that were happening across town or hundreds
of miles away. Relatively few people had sets in their homes, but popular fascination with TV was so
pronounced that crowds would gather on the sidewalks in front of stores that displayed a working television
set or two. The same thing happened in the typical tavern, where a set behind the bar virtually guaranteed
a full house. Sports events that might attract a crowd of 30,000 or 40,000 suddenly, with the addition of TV
cameras, had audiences numbering in the millions. By the end of television’s first decade, it was widely
believed to have greater influence on American culture than parents, schools, churches, and government-
institutions that had been until then the dominant influences on popular conduct. All were superseded by
this one cultural juggernaut.
The 1950s was a time of remarkable achievement in television, but this was not the case for the entire
medium. American viewers old enough to remember TV in the ’50s may fondly recall the shows of Sid
Caesar, Jackie Gleason, Milton Berle, and Lucille Ball, but such high-quality programs were the exception;
most of television during its formative years could be aptly described, as it was by one Broadway
playwright, as “amateurs playing at home movies.” The underlying problem was not a shortage of talented
writers, producers, and performers; there were plenty, but they were already busily involved on the
Broadway stage and in vaudeville, radio, and motion pictures. Consequently, television drew chiefly on a
talent pool of individuals who had not achieved success in the more popular media and on the young and
inexperienced who were years from reaching their potential. Nevertheless, the new medium ultimately
proved so fascinating a technical novelty that in the early stages of its development the quality of its content
seemed almost not to matter.
Fortunately, the dearth of talent was short-lived. Although it would take at least another decade before
areas such as news and sports coverage approached their potential, more than enough excellence in the
categories of comedy and drama emerged in the 1950s to deserve the attention of discriminating viewers.
They are the most fondly remembered of the Golden Age genres for both emotional and intellectual reasons.
Live TV drama was, in essence, the legitimate theatre’s contribution to the new medium; such shows were
regarded as “prestige” events and were afforded respect accordingly. The comedies of the era are
remembered for the same reason that comedy itself endures: human suffering and the ever-elusive pursuit
of happiness render laughter a necessary palliative, and people therefore have a particular fondness for
those who amuse them.
Source: [Link]
Question 36. Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Television development in comparison with radio
B. Sport events on television
C. High-quality programs enjoyed by American
D. Television in the United States
Question 37. The phrase “agog about” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by _____.
A. looking forward to B. interested in C. involved in D. keen on
Question 38. According to paragraph 2, why would the public gather on the sidewalks in front of stores?
A. They had no work B. They had sense of astonishment
C. Because of their fascination with TV D. They went to the tavern together
Question 39. Which of the following does the word “aptly” in paragraph 3 probably mean?
A. at a slow speed; not quickly
B. in a way that is suitable or appropriate in the circumstances
C. happening in a short time or without delay
D. the whole of; as much as
Question 40. According to paragraph 3, why is television described as “amateurs playing at home movies”?
A. Writers, producers, and performers don’t have enough money to invest on television.
B. There are no high-quality programs.
C. Because talented writers, producers, and performers are busy with Broadway stage and in vaudeville,
radio, and motion pictures.
D. There are no talented writers, producers, and performers.
Question 41. The word “dearth” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. lack B. plenty C. absence D. empty
Question 42. Which of the following is TRUE according to the paragraph?
A. Television in its early days was perceived as a technological wonder rather than a medium of cultural
significance.
B. Few people had TV set at home but they all enjoyed watching programs especially sports on TV.
C. Television could draw chiefly on a talent pool of individuals who had achieved success in the more
popular media.
D. The categories of comedy and drama emerged in the 1950s were not good enough to attract viewers.
Question 43. The passage can probably extracted from which of the following?
A. History book B. Textbook C. Daily newspaper D. Encyclopedia
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 44. He broke up with her but now he thinks that was a mistake.
A. He feels a pity that he had broken up with her. B. He wishes not to have broken her up.
C. He regrets having broken up with her. D. He was mistaken with breaking up with her.
Question 45. "Let's tell Dad about our problem” said Carol to Tony.
A. Carol ordered Tony to tell Dad about their problem.
B. Carol suggested telling Dad about their problem.
C. Carol forbid Tony to tell Dad about their problem.
D. Carol allowed Tony to tell Dad about their problem.
Question 46. People believed that Jane failed the test because of her laziness.
A. It is believed that Jane failed the test because of her laziness.
B. Jane was believed to fail the test on account of her laziness.
C. Jane is believed to fail the test owing to her laziness.
D. It was believed that Jane had failed the test due to laziness.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes following exchanges.
Question 47. A student is talking with his professor about his missing the midterm test. Complete the
exchanges with the best answer:
- Student: "What can I do to make up for the missing midterm test, professor?" Professor: “_________.”
A. Don't mention it. It's my pleasure to do this. B. Thank you very much for accepting the invitation.
C. You are supposed to write a chapter review. D. I agree to some extent with this statement.
Question 48. Hana and Jenifer are talking about a book they have just read.
- Hana: “The book is really interesting and educational.” - Jenifer: “___________.”
A. Don’t mention it B. That’s nice of you to say so.
C. I’d love it. D. I couldn’t agree more.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 49. The average lifespan is 79 years. However, the poorest men in this city have a life expectancy
of 54 years.
A. If the average lifespan is 79 years, the poorest men in this city have a life expectancy of 54 years.
B. The average life expectancy of 79 years is higher than that of the poorest men in this city. C. The
poorest men in this city have a life expectancy of 54 years, much lower than the average lifespan.
D. The average life expectancy is 25 years higher than the poorest men in this city.
Question 50. Sam has a new job title and she gets a higher salary now. This means, she has been promoted.
A. Sam has a new job title and gets a higher salary now, which means she has been promoted.
B. Sam has been promoted because she has a new job title to get a higher salary now
C. Getting a higher salary after having a new job title had made Sam promoted
D. Having been promoted, Sam has a new job title and gets a higher salary now.
THE END
Prepared by Mrs Vu Thi Hong Hanh-Le Quy Don Ha Dong-0984203425