CRIMINALISTICS BOARD QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICES:
1. Generally, spermatozoa may persist in the vagina up to:
A. 6 hours D. 3 days
B. 8 hours E. 5 days
C. 1 day
2. It is the standard number of questions in polygraph examinations.
A. 12 C. 13
B. 10 D. 8
3. What initiates the combustion of gunpowder in a shell?
A. firing pin C. Primer
B. Trigger D. Bullet
4. The caliber of the gun is:
A. Its barrel length
B. The circumference of the barrel
C. The size of the ammunition used
D. The diameter of the bore
5. It is the equal and opposite reaction of the gun against the forward movement of the bullet
after explosion?
A. Muzzle blast C. Recoil of the gun
B. Velocity D. Velocity
6. The bouncing off or deflection of a bullet from its original trajectory is:
A. Key hole shot C. Fouling
B. Range D. Ricochet
7. This is an indication that the writer is writing using his natural writings habits and style and no
intention on his part to alter his writing.
A. Carelessness C. Hesitation
B. Patching D. Blunt starts and stops
8. It is the act of changing the meaning of the document by means of adding some character.
A. Alteration C. Obliteration
B. Erasures D. A or B
9. In this category of forgery, the forger does not try to copy a model but writes something
resembling what we ordinarily call a signature.
A. spurious C. traced
B. simulated D. freehand
10. A fully rounded oval and circular form in a letter complete in an “O” or modified in “BDPR”
is
A.Plate
B. Bowl
C. Round
D. Oval
11. Circumstances under which the crime of rape is committed, EXCEPT:
A. Insertion of a finger into the woman’s genitalia against her will
B. Carnal knowledge employed by means of "fraudulent machination"
C. A female inserted her finger into the anus of a male without his consent
D. A consensual intercourse between a male and another male
E. Consensual intercourse with an 11-year-old child
12. Reclusion Perpetua shall be imposed if the crime of rape is committed with any of the
following aggravating circumstances, EXCEPT:
A.The victim is a child below seven years
B. The victim is a virgin prior to the assault
C.The offender knows the victim is pregnant
D. The offender is HIV-positive or has AIDS
E.The victim is a religious and is known to the offender as such
13. Rape Victim Assistance and Protection Act of 1998:
A.Republic Act 8353
B.Republic Act 8505
C.Republic Act 7610
D.Republic Act 9262
E.Republic Act 9208
14. Virginity of the victim is a necessary element in the crime of:
A. Rape D. Simple seduction
B. Statutory rape E. Sexual harassment
C. Qualified seduction
15. The 1st doctrine in the three-fold principles followed by courts in evaluating evidence in rape
cases. Based on generalization that “unfounded charges of rape have frequently been proffered
by women actuated by some sinister, ulterior or undisclosed motive”
A. “Rape is easily fabricated” doctrine
B. “Crime of lust or passion” doctrine
C. Doctrine of tenacious resistance
D. “Normal conduct” doctrine
E. “Assault on chastity, honor or virtue” doctrine
16. Scientific methods of human identification, EXCEPT:
A. Visual identification by relatives
B. Dental identification
C.DNA analysis
D. Fingerprints
E. Comparison of ante mortem and postmortem x-rays
17. An external examination of a dead body without incision being made:
A. Forensic Autopsy D. Crime Scene Investigation
B. Exhumation E. Hospital Autopsy
C. Postmortem Examination
18. Provisional methods of identification, EXCEPT:
A. Through decedent’s clothing
B. Through decedent’s jewelries
C. Fingerprint identification
D. Identification based on scars or tattoos
E. Visual identification by relatives
19. What metallic object is attached to the free end of the cylindrical tip of the cartridge case
propelled by the expansive force of the propellant and is responsible in damaging the target?
A. Bullet C. Primer
B. Gunpowder D. Shell
20. The caliber of the firearm expressed in millimeters belong to –
A. French system C. European system
B. English system D. None of the above
21. It is the sound created at the muzzle point of the barrel?
A. Muzzle blasts C. Muzzle energy
B. Pull of gravity D. Trajectory
22. A bullet fired from the suspected firearm in a bullet recovery box to be used for comparison
with the crime bullet?
A. Crime bullet C. Test bullet
B. Evidence bullet D. a and b only
23. How many numbers of photographs is needed in photographing crime scene?
A. 4 photographs C. 8 photographs
B. 12 photographs D. 50 photographs
24. It is the last part of the process to wash down the surface of the black and white film.
A. Drying C. Washing
B. Stop bath D. Developing
25. The inability of the lens to bring to focus both vertical and horizontal lines on the same plane.
A. Coma C. Chromatic aberration
B. Astigmatism D. Curvature of field
26. He is considered as an expert in the field of Sub Machine Gun, also known as Grease Gun,
developed in 1941?
A. Col. Calvin H. Goddard C. Gordon Ingram
B. George Hyde D. Samuel Colt
27. Is that part of the shell head on the base which indicate the name of the manufacturer and
year made?
A. Shoulder C. Neck
B. Head stamp D. None of the above
28. Carnal relation with a child below 12 years of age is considered:
A. Simple seduction D. Statutory rape
B. Qualified seduction E. Incestuous rape
C. Child sexual abuse
29. In prosecutions for rape, evidence of complainant’s past sexual conduct, opinion thereof or of
his/her reputation shall not be admitted unless, and only to the extent that the court finds that
such evidence is material and relevant to the case:
A. Evidentiary presumptions
B. “Normal conduct” doctrine
C. Doctrine of tenacious resistance
D. Grave abuse of authority
E. Rape shield clause
30. A gigantic catapult that was used to throw a stone?
A. Ballista C. Ballo
B. Ballein D. All of the above
31. All, except one, are firearms that contain rifling?
A. Revolver C. Pistol
B. Rifle D. Musket
32. It is a mechanical operation employed in loading metallic cartridges which consists in turning
over slightly or compressing the mouth of the metallic shell or case to hold the bullet in its place.
A. Erosioning C. Crimping
B. Corrosioning D. Impacting
34. If both the right and left little fingers are radial loop and ridge counting is obtained, what
classification formula is involved?
A. Major Classification C. Key Classification
B. Final Classification D. Secondary Classification
35. In ridge tracing, 3 or more ridges above the right delta is considered as whorl type of pattern
with
A. Inner Tracing C. Meeting Tracing
B. Outer Tracing D. IMO Tracing
36. In taking the fingerprint of dead bodies, were rigor mortis has already started, what should
the operator do?
A.Little massage of the fingers to make them flexible.
B.Submerging the lower part of the forearm in sufficiently hot water for a minute and rapidly
and continuously moving the wrist and fingers.
C.Soak the fingers in a solution of strong ammonia.
D.Air is injected in the edge of the fingers.
37. Any physical overt act manifesting resistance against the act of rape in any degree from the
offended party, or where the offended party is so situated as to render her/him incapable of
giving valid consent, may be accepted as evidence in the prosecution of rape:
A. Evidentiary presumptions in favor of rape victim
B. Doctrine of tenacious resistance
C. Rape shield clause
D. Grave abuse of authority
E. “Assault on chastity, honor or virtue” doctrine
38. Insidious words or machinations used to induce the rape victim to act in a manner which
would enable the offender to carry out his design:
A. Grave abuse of authority D. Intimidation
B. Threat E. Fraudulent machination
C. Deprived of reason
39. Refers to the size of the bullet grouping on the target?
A. Terminal accuracy C. Terminal energy
B. Terminal ballistics D. Terminal penetration
40. Primer with one flash hole:
A. Boxer type C. Berdan type
B. Lock D. Cup
41. To obtain confession without the use of violence, the following are defense mechanism to be
used, except:
A. Blame others C. Rationalize subject’s action.
B. Minimize the crime D. Gain the subject’s sympathy
42. Which of the following is not included in general rules of formulating questions?
A. Must be short as possible
B. Must be simple and direct
C. Must not be in the form of accusation
D. Must involve legal terminologies such as rape, murder etc.
43. What is the most satisfactory way of preserving dusted fingerprints?
A. Photographing C. Lifting
B. Developing D. Dusting
44. Erasures done by mechanical abrasion result in the translucency of paper. This can be easily
detected by examination with the aid of-
A. Oblique light C. Infra-red light
B. Transmitted light D. Ordinary light
45. It is the process wherein the pen re-inks a written portion of the line, usually in the opposite
direction, such as a downward movement followed by an upward movement over the existing
line.
A. Retouching C. Shading
B. Patching D. Retracing
46. Which of the following is not the other term for metol?
A. Rhodol C. Plenetol
B. Melon D. Pictol
47. It is the harmonious recurrence of strokes or impulse and is a quality of movement that
produces a natural result.
A. Alignment C. Shading
B. Quality D. Rhythm
48. One of the more popular film developers. This developer gives full emulsion speed,
maximum shadow detail, normal contrast, and good grain characteristics.
A. Potassium alum C. Kodak microdol
B. D-76 D. Kodak t max
49. In processing Black and White film, what is the first stage to develop the images on the
sensitized film?
A. Shaking C. Developer
B. Washing D. Smudging
50. It is the part of the processing of black and white film. Which you need to stop the reaction of
the developer.
A. Developing C. Using of red light
B. Stop bath D. Drying
51. A cartridge case is referred to as the:
A. Projectile C. Shell
B. Ammunition D. Primer
52. Refers to the actual curve path of the bullet during its flight.
A. Velocity C. Range
B. Trajectory D. Recoil of the gun
53. Which of the following houses the internal parts of the gun?
A. Frame C. Magazine
B. Yoke D. Barrel
54. It is the quality refers to the ability of a lens to produce fine detail on film.
A. Lens quality C. Resolve power
B. Fine detail D. Lines per inch pixel
55. The paraffin test is used to:
A. Detect whether the witness is telling the truth
B. To determine whether the deceased person was poisoned
C. Estimate the proximate time of death of the victim
D. Determine whether the suspect has fired a gun recently
56. A super-corrected lens for astigmatism. It has a better color correction and has the ability to
produce the best definition of image in the photographs.
A. Panchromatic lens C. Orthochromatic lens
B. Achromatic lens D. Process lens
57. What classification formula is involved if you need to obtain the ridge count of the right and
left index, middle and ring fingers?
A. Major Classification C. Sub-secondary Classification
B. Final Classification D. Secondary Classification
58. A lens used in all fixed focus camera. Basically, it has a short focal length and greater depth
of field.
A. Coma C. Chromatic aberration
B. Fixed focus lens D. Astigmatism
59. These are impressions of the inked finger bulbs that was transferred to the surface of the
paper without rolling motion.
A. Plain Impression C. Rolled Impression
B. Chance Impression D. Real Impression
60. What classification formula is involved if you need to obtain the ridge count of the first loop
appearing on the sets of patterns excluding the little fingers of both hands?
A. Sub-secondary Classification C. Key Classification
B. Final Classification D. Major Classification
61. What is the level of the camera when photographing crime scene?
A. Knee level C. Hip level
B. Shoulder level D. Eye level
62. Which is NOT a valid statement regarding postmortem lividity?
A. It may prove positively that death has occurred.
B. It indicates that death was due to violence.
C. It indicates the position of the body at the time of death.
D. Its color may suggest the cause of death.
E. It may determine how long a person has been dead.
63. For identification purposes of the test chart, following are information to be place near the
beginning of the test chart before the pneumo tracing, except:
A. Subject’s name, rank and profession
B. Time and date of the examination
D. Signature of the examiner
C. Test or chart number
64. The Primary or Key question is asked by the examiner in order to resolve a specific subject
matter is:
A. Sacrifice Question C. Control Question
B. Relevant Question D. SKY Question
65. The rate of the motor that pulls or drives the chart paper under the recording pen is:
A. 4 to 8 inches per minute C. 8 to 10 inches per minute
B. 8 to 12 inches per minute D. 6 to 12 inches per minute
66. Which of the following polygraph component records breathing of the subject?
A. Kymograph C. Cardiosphymograph
B. Galvanograph D. Pneumograph
67. Sometimes a forger spills ink on a document to hide parts he does not want to be seen. He
tries to make this look accidental. This is an act of –
A. Alteration C. Obliteration
B. Erasure D. Intercalation
68. This alignment defect in typewriting occurs when a character prints a double impression of
lighter to the right or left.
A. Horizontal alignment defect
B. Twisted alignment defect
C. Vertical alignment defect
D. Rebound alignment defect
69. It refers more specifically to a specimen of standard writing offered in evidence or obtained
on request for comparison with the questioned writing.
A. Writing Habits C. Standards
B. Characteristics D. Exemplars
70. If the subject take medication prior to the polygraph examination, how many hours should
the examiner wait before he should conduct the examination.
A. 2 hours C. 5 hours
B. 4 hours D. 6 hours
71. In polygraph examination, after the taking of each chart where should the examiner request
the subject to sign?
A. Beginning of the three tracings
B. Across the three tracings
B. Below the cardio tracing
D. Above the pneumo tracing
72. The WAT is concerned with the answer be it “yes” or “no”, this statement is _______.
A. True C. Either
B. False D. Neither
73. This is one of the camera accessories usually used to keep the camera steady and this is used
when using slow shutter speed.
A. Mono pod C. speed lights
B. Hand held flash D. tripod
74. What is the result of the photographs when your exposure system is on the lower or negative
side?
A. Medium exposure C. Medium normal exposure
B. Under exposure D. Negative normal exposure
75. In which of the following aspects is forged handwriting most likely to differ from the
genuine writing that the forger attempts to imitate?
A. Over-all flow or running quality
B. Average height and breadth of letters
C. Starting and finishing tails or extraneous flourishes
D. Width of pen or pencil lines.
76. It is the result of an attempt to transfer to a fraudulent document an exact facsimile of a
genuine writing.
A. Simple forgery C. Traced forgery
B. Simulated forgery D. Cut and paste
77. This class of signature cannot be shown or illustrated to be fraudulent for the simple reason
that no genuine signatures can be produced for comparison.
A. Forged signatures produced by tracing
B. Forged signatures of fictitious persons.
C. Forged signatures without the attempt to copy a genuine signature
D. Forged signatures taken by trickery.
78. Invisible markings are used to identify permuted tickets and lottery receipts. A counterfeit
can be detected by means if its fluorescent qualities through the use if this instrument.
A. Infra-red C. Filter
B. Ultra-violet D. Photomicrography
79. To be able to make a positive identification of a person, a document examiner must be able to
observe the-
A. Characteristics of his handwriting
B. Writing position of the writer
C. Distinguishing individual features of his handwriting
D. Manner on how the writer moves the pen
80. What is the procedure when activating the exposure system of the camera?
A. focus the camera and press the shutter release button.
B. Focus the camera lens and place the aperture on f5.6 and shutter speed of 125.
C. Focus the camera and Soft press your shutter release button to activate the exposure meter
D. none of the above
81. It is one of the help in tracing the age of the document that is influenced by storage of
materials.
A. Watermarks C. Wire marks
B. Discoloration D. Design
82. It is the part of the perspective photography which depicts the 4 corners of the wall and a top
view.
A. Near close up C. Shallow depth of field
B. Mid range photographs D. Over all photographs
83. Which of the following is not a composition of special powder?
A. 3 grams of Black Powder C. 1 cc of Distilled Water
B. 1 cc of Isopropyl D. 5 grams of TMB
84. Which of the following fingerprint pattern is not a composite pattern?
A. Central Pocket Loop Whorl C. Accidental Whorl
B. Double Loop Whorl D. Plain Whorl
85. Specimen handwritings consisting of writing or printing executed from day to day in the
course of business, social or personal affairs.
A. Collected standard C. Specimen signature
B. Evidence signature D. None of these
86. This act may be accomplished by the insertion of word, phrase, or sentence between two
lines of the original writing.
A. Forgery C. Substitution
B. Intercalation D. Obliteration
87. It is one of the categories of forgery wherein the forger has the skill in imitating the writings
of other person.
A. Simple forgery C. Traced forgery
B. Simulated forgery D. Cut and paste
88. In the examination of the standard and questioned fingerprints the ACE-V method is used.
What does E stands for?
A. Examination C. Experimentation
B. Evaluation D. Explanation
89. What is use to develop prints on human skin?
A. Black Powder C. Lycopodium Powder
B. Aluminum Powder D. NInhydrine Powder
90. The part of polygraph machine that records changes of blood pressure and pulse rate is:
A. Cardiosphymograph C. Kymograph
B. Galvanograph D. Pneumograph
91. How many feet long is the chart paper?
A. 90 ft. C. 80 ft.
B. 100 ft. D. 120 ft
92. The trembling or unstable rotating motion of bullet at the start of its flight?
A. Gyroscopic stability C. Air resistance
B. Velocity D. Yaw
93. What is the type of bullet intended for target paper purposes?
A. Hollow point C. Tracer
B. Wad cutter bullet D. Polygonal bullet
94. A center fire cartridge case whose rim diameter is smaller than the diameter of the body of
the case is called __________?
A. tapered cartridge case C. Rimless cartridge case
B. Rebated cartridge case D. Rimmed type
95. Definitive evidence of child sexual abuse, EXCEPT:
A. Healed hymenal laceration
B. Hymenal notch or cleft
C. Presence of spermatozoa in the genitalia
D. Positive for sexually transmitted infection
E. Bruising in the hymen
96. What part of the camera is to be adjusted when photographing moving subjects?
A. Focusing ring C. Aperture
B. Shutter speed D. Film speed
97. In polygraph examination, the examiner is supposed to ask relevant question but made a
mechanical adjustment prior to the question, what question should be ask by the polygraph
examiner after the mechanical adjustment?
A. Relevant Question C. Irrelevant Question
B. Control Question D. Knowledge Question
98. The primary evidence in sexual abuse cases:
A. Investigation report
B. Forensic evidence such as seminal stain
C. Medico-legal report
D. Victim’s testimony
E. Psychological report
99. This doctrinal myth in rape proceeds from the erroneous premise that there is a standard
behavior that can be expected of women during a rape attack and that, in every case, when a
woman’s chastity is threatened she will exert every effort to protect it, whether by violent
resistance, escape attempts or screams for help.
A. “Filipina of decent repute” doctrine
B. “Crime of lust or passion” doctrine
C. Doctrine of tenacious resistance
D. “Normal conduct” doctrine
E. “Assault on chastity, honor or virtue” doctrine

Criminal Jurisprudence Review Questions

1. Berto, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father.
What was the crime committed?
A. Murder
B. Parricide
C. Homicide
D. Qualified Homicide Answer: B
2. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latter’s will
on suspicion that Bitoy keep unlicensed firearms
in his home. What was the crime committed by PO3 Bagsik?
A. Trespass to Dwelling
B. Violation of Domicile
C. Usurpation Of Authority
D. Forcible Trespassing Answer: B
3. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than 6 months.They
live together with the children of Lea from her first husband.
Charlie had sexual relation with Jane, the 14 year old daughter of
Lea.Jane loves Charlie very much.What was the crime committed
by Charlie?
A. Simple Seduction
B. Qualified Seduction
C. Consented Abduction
D. Rape
Answer: B
4. Prof. Jose gave a failing grade to one of his students, Lito. When
the two met the following day, Lito slapped
Prof. Jose on the face. What was the crime committed by Lito?
A. Corruption of Public Officials
B. Direct Assault
C. Slight Physical Injuries
D. Grave Coercion Answer: B
5. A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for the killing of his
parents. When PO2 Tapang tried to arrest him,Fred gave him 1
million pesos to set him free. PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting
Fred. What was the crime committed by PO2 Tapang?
A. Indirect Bribery
B. Direct Bribery
C. Corruption of Public Officials
D. Qualified Bribery Answer: D
6. Which of the following is the exemption to the hearsy rule made
under the consciousness of an impending death?
A. Parol Evidence
B. Ante mortem statement
C. Suicide note
D. Dead man statute
Answer: D
7. Factum probans means __.
A. preponderance of evidence
B. ultimate fact
C. evidentiary fact
D. sufficiency of evidence Answer: C
8. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one
generation to another.
A. inheritance
B. heritage
C. pedigree
D. culture Answer: C
9. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the
first instance.
A. Appellate Jurisdiction
B. General Jurisdiction
C. Original Jurisdiction
D. Exclusive Jurisdiction Answer: C
10.A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants.
A. Counsel de officio
B. Attorney on record
C. Attorney at law
D. Special counsel Answer: A
11. Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary
Procedure?
A. Violation of rental laws
B. Violation of traffic laws
C. The penalty is more than six months of imprisonment
D. The penalty does not exceed six months imprisonment Answer: C
12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to
be exercised.
A. jurisdiction
B. jurisprudence
C. venue
D. bench Answer: C
13.The Anti-Bouncing Check Law.
A. RA 6425
B. RA 8353
C. BP.22
D. RA 6975 Answer: C
14. The taking of another person’s personal property, with intent to
gain, by means of force and intimidation.
A. qualified theft
B. robbery
C. theft
D. malicious mischief Answer: B
15. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of
force, violence or intimidation to do something against his will,
whether right or wrong.
A. grave threat
B. grave coercion
C. direct assault
D. slander by deed Answer: B
16. These are persons having no apparent means of subsistence but
have the physical ability to work and neglect to apply himself or
herself to lawful calling.
A. Pimps
B. prostitutes
C. gang members
D. vagrants Answer: D
17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant
noises designed to annoy and insult.
A. Tumultuous
B. charivari
C. sedition
D. scandal Answer: B
18. The unauthorized act of a public officer who compels another
person to change his residence.
A. violation of domicile
B. arbitrary detention
C. expulsion
D. direct assault Answer: C
19. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another
person without legal grounds.
A. illegal detention
B. arbitrary detention
C. forcible abduction
D. forcible detention Answer: A
20. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal
knowledge with a man not her husband who knows her to be
married, although the marriage can be later declared void.
A. concubinage
B. bigamy
C. adultery
D. immorality Answer: C
21. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.
A. 15-18 years old
B. 18-70 years old
C. 9 years old and below
D. between 9 and 15 years old Answer: C
22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of
the offense by previous or simultaneous acts.
A. Accomplices
B. Suspects
C. principal actors
D. accessories Answer: A
23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute
the final sentence after the lapse of a certaintime fixed by law.
A. prescription of crime
B. prescription of prosecution
C. prescription of judgement
D. prescription of penalty Answer: D
24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty
is suspended.
A. Pardon
B. commutation
C. amnesty
D. reprieve Answer: D
25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a
more orderly regulation of the affairs of the society.
A. mala prohibita
B. mala in se
C. private crimes
D. public crimes Answer: A
26. Felony committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an
act in consideration of a gift and this act is connected with the
discharge of his public duties.
A. qualified bribery
B. direct bribery
C. estafa
D. indirect bribery
Answer: B
27. The willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of
affirmation, administered by authority of law on a material matter.
A. libel
B. falsification
C. perjury
D. slander Answer: C
28. Deliberate planning of act before execution.
A. Treachery
B. evident premeditation
C. ignominy
D. cruelty Answer: B
29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted
together in the commission of a crime.
A. gang
B. conspiracy
C. band
D. piracy Answer: C
30. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
A. Negligence
B. imprudence
C. omission
D. act Answer: C
31. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan.
A. Misfeasance
B. entrapment
C. inducement
D. instigation Answer: B
32. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of
public policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed.
A. impossible crimes
B. aggravating circumstances
C. absolutory causes
D. Complex Crimes
Answer: C
33. One of the following is an alternative circumstance.
A. Insanity
B. intoxication
C. passion or obfuscation
D. evident premeditation Answer: B
34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty,
what shall be entered for him?
A. a plea of not guilty
B. a plea of guilty
C. a plea of mercy
D. a plea of surrender Answer: A
35. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or
information?
A. at any time before his arrest
B. only after entering his plea
C. any time before entering his plea
D. Monday morning
Answer: C
36. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a
criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory
disposition on the case subject to court approval.
A. Arraignment
B. plea bargaining
C. preliminary investigation
D. trial Answer: B
37. The security given for the release of a person in custody,
furnished by him or a bondsman, conditioned upon his
appearance before any court as required under the conditions
specified by law.
A. Subpoena
B. recognizance
C. bail
D. warrant Answer: C
38. The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the
laws of the land, of the acts in issue in a case, for the purpose
of determining such issue.
A. Trial
B. Arraignment
C. pre-trial
D. judgment
Answer: A
39. The adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or is not
guilty of the offense charged, and the imposition of the proper
penalty and
A. trial
B. Pre-trial
C. Arraignment
D. Judgment Answer: D
40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining
whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well founded
belief that an offense has been committed and the offender is
probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial.
A. pre-trial
B. arraignment
C. preliminary investigation
D. plea bargaining Answer: C
41. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence Answer: C
42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is
sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence Answer: B
43. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived
from conventional symbols, such as letters, by
which ideas are represented on material substances.
A. documentary evidence
B. testimonial evidence
C. material evidence
D. real evidence
Answer: A
44. When the witness states that he did not see or know the
occurrence of a fact.
A. positive evidence
B. corroborative evidence
C. secondary evidence
D. negative evidence Answer: D
45. Personal property that can be subjects for search and seizure.
A. used or intended to be used as means in committing an
offense
B. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the
offense
C. subject of the offense
D. all of the above Answer: D
46. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can make known
their perception to others.
A. Suspects
B. witnesses
C. victims
D. informers Answer: B
47. The unlawful destruction or the bringing forth prematurely, of
human fetus before the natural time of birth which results in
death.
A. abortion
B. infanticide
C. murder
D. parricide Answer: A
48. Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the
confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not
organized into groups and the parties responsible cannot be
ascertained.
A. alarm and scandal
B. mysterious homicide
C. death under exceptional circumstances
D. tumultuous affray
Answer: D
49. A question which arises in a case the resolution of which is the
logical antecedent of the issue involved in said case and the
cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal.
A. legal question
B. juridical question
C. prejudicial question
D. judicial question Answer: C
50. The RPC was based on the
A. Spanish penal code
B. English penal code
C. American penal code
D. Japanese penal code
Answer: A
51. An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts
that is voluntary but not intentional.
A. impossible crime
B. mistake of facts
C. accidental crime
D. complex crime Answer: B
52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than….
A. 36 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
Answer: D
53. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith.
A. ignorantia legis non excusat
B. parens patriae
C. res ipsa loquitur
D. dura lex sed lex
Answer: A
54. An act which would be an offense against persons or property if
it was not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment.
A. compound crime
B. impossible crime
C. complex crime
D. accidental crime Answer: B
55. The law which reimposed the death penalty.
A. RA 5425
B. RA 8553
C. RA 7659
D. RA 8551
Answer: C
56. One who is deprived completely of reason or discernment and
freedom of the will at the time of the commission of the crime.
A. discernment
B. insanity
C. epilepsy
D. imbecility Answer: D
57. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its
owner or author
A. responsibility
B. duty
C. guilt
D. imputability Answer: D
58. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and
although it comes about through some acts of our will,
lies beyond the bound s of humanly foreseeable consequences.
A. fortuitous event
B. fate
C. accident
D. destiny Answer: C
59. A sworn written statement charging a person with an
offense,subscribed by the offended party, any peace
officer or other public officer charged with the enforcement of
the law violated.
A. subpoena
B. information
C. complaint
D. writ Answer: C
60. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice
and is intended not to protect the guilty but to prevent as far as
human agencies can the conviction of an innocent person.
A. right to due process of law
B. presumption of innocence
C. right to remain silent
D. right against self-incrimination Answer: B
61. Known in other countries as the body of principles,
practices,usages and rules of action which are not
recognized in our country.
A. penal laws
B. special laws
C. common laws
D. statutory laws Answer: C
62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the
crime any of all the conditions that would make
an act voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal liability
there is civil liability.
A. Exempting
B. alternative
C. justifying
D. aggravating Answer: A
63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance
with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal and civil liability.
A. exempting
B. alternative
C. justifying
D. aggravating Answer: C
64. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim
suffers slowly and gradually, causing him unnecessary physical
pain in the consummation of the criminal act.
A. Ignominy
B. cruelty
C. treachery
D. masochism
Answer: B
65. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been
previously convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced
in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.
A. Recidivism
B. habitual delinquency
C. reiteracion
D. quasi-recidivism Answer: A
66. Alevosia means
A. Craft
B. treachery
C. evident premeditation
D. cruelty Answer: B
67. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and
render judgment after a fair trial.
A. ex post facto law
B. equal protection of the law
C. rule of law
D. due process of law Answer: D
68. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his
release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less serious
physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or falsification, he is
found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or oftener.
A. Recidivist
B. quasi-recidivist
C. habitual delinquent
D. hardened criminal Answer: C
69. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.
A. Primary
B. Best
C. Secondary
D. Conclusive
Answer: D
70. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.
A. Primary
B. Best
C. Secondary
D. Conclusive Answer: D
71. These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an
examining party requires.
A. leading
B. misleading
C. stupid
D. hearsay Answer: A
72. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of
persons alleged to have committed a crime, and
or their punishment in case of conviction
A. Criminal Law
B. Criminal Evidence
C. Criminal Procedure
D. Criminal Jurisprudence Answer: C
73. The period of prescription of crimes punishable by death.
A. 20 years
B. 15 years
C. 10 years
D. 40 years Answer: A
74. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime.
A. Accomplices
B. Accessories
C. Instigators
D. Principals Answer: D
75. A crime against honor which is committed by performing any act
which casts dishonor, discredit, or contempt upon another
person.
A. libel
B. slander by deed
C. incriminating innocent person
D. intriguing against honor Answer: B
76. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be
done.
A. misfeasance
B. malfeasance
C. nonfeasance
D. dereliction Answer: B
77. A sworn statement in writing, made upon oath before an
authorized magistrate or officer.
A. subpoena
B. writ
C. warrant
D. affidavit Answer: D
78. Any other name which a person publicly applies to himself
without authority of law.
A. alias
B. common name
C. fictitious name
D. screen name
Answer: C
79. A special aggravating circumstance where a person, after having
been convicted by final judgment, shall commit a new felony
before beginning to serve such sentence, or while serving
the same.
A. quasi-recidivism
B. recidivism
C. reiteracion
D. charivari Answer: A
80. Which of the following is not a person in authority?
A. Municipal mayor
B. Private School Teacher
C. Police Officer
D. Municipal Councilor Answer: C
81. In its general sense, it is the raising of commotions or
disturbances in the State.
A. Sedition
B. Rebellion
C. Treason
D. Coup d’ etat Answer: A
82. The length of validity of a search warrant from its date.
A. 30 days
B. 15 days
C. 10 days
D. 60 days Answer: C
83. The detention of a person without legal grounds by a public
officer or employee.
A. illegal detention
B. arbitrary detention
C. compulsory detention
D. unauthorized detention Answer: B
84. A breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person
who owes allegiance to it.
A. treason
B. espionage
C. rebellion
D. coup d’ etat Answer: A
85. A building or structure, exclusively used for rest and comfort.
A. sanctuary
B. prison
C. jail
D. dwelling Answer: D
86. The mental capacity to understand the difference between right
and wrong.
A. treachery
B. premeditation
C. recidivism
D. discernment Answer: D
87. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable under the law.
A. Estafa
B. Murder
C. Rebellion
D. Rape Answer: C
88. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is
intended.
A. Aberratio ictus
B. Error in personae
C. Dura Lex Sed lex
D. Praeter Intentionem Answer: D
89. It means mistake in the blow.
A. Aberratio Ictus
B. Error in Personae
C. Dura lex sed lex
D. Praeter Intentionem Answer: A
90. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its
execution and accomplishment are present.
A. Attempted
B. Frustrated
C. Consummated
D. Accomplished
answer: C
91. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of
facts that is voluntary but not intentional.
A. Absolutory Cause
B. Mistake of facts
C. Conspiracy
D. Felony Answer: B
92. Crimes that have three stages of execution.
A. Material
B. Formal
C. Seasonal
D. Continuing Answer: A
93. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the offender are
malicious.
A. Culpable
B. Intentional
C. Deliberate
D. Inculpable Answer: B
94. It indicates deficiency of perception.
A. Negligence
B. Diligence
C. Imprudence
D. Inference Answer: A
95. Acts and omissions punishable by special penal laws.
A. Offenses
B. Misdemeanors
C. Felonies
D. Ordinances
Answer: A
96. A character of Criminal Law, making it binding upon all persons
who live or sojourn in the Philippines.
A. General
B. Territorial
C. Prospective
D. Retroactive Answer: A
97. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without judicial trial.
A. Bill of Attainder
B. Bill of Rights
C. Ex Post Facto Law
D. Penal Law
Answer: A
98. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be
bound to answer for the commission of an offense.
A. Search
B. Seizure
C. Arrest
D. Detention Answer: C
99. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the crime committed?
A. Robbery
B. Farm Theft
C. Qualified Theft
D. Simple Theft Answer: C
100.Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse with her 11 year
old girlfriend without threat, force or intimidation. What was
the crime committed?
A. Child rape
B. Qualified Rape
C. Statutory Rape
D. None of these Answer: C