0% found this document useful (0 votes)
326 views21 pages

English Exam for 9th Graders

The document is about an English exam for grade 9 students in Vietnam. It covers 4 sections: Listening, Phonetics, Vocabulary and Grammar, and Reading. The Listening section has 3 parts involving comprehension questions about short audio passages. The Phonetics section involves identifying words pronounced differently or with different stress patterns. The Vocabulary and Grammar section contains multiple choice and fill-in-the-blank questions testing a variety of English skills. The Reading section contains a passage and questions about life in space and the development of a powerful new space telescope.

Uploaded by

Tâm Hoàng
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
326 views21 pages

English Exam for 9th Graders

The document is about an English exam for grade 9 students in Vietnam. It covers 4 sections: Listening, Phonetics, Vocabulary and Grammar, and Reading. The Listening section has 3 parts involving comprehension questions about short audio passages. The Phonetics section involves identifying words pronounced differently or with different stress patterns. The Vocabulary and Grammar section contains multiple choice and fill-in-the-blank questions testing a variety of English skills. The Reading section contains a passage and questions about life in space and the development of a powerful new space telescope.

Uploaded by

Tâm Hoàng
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

Đề Số 3

Kỳ thi: Chọn học sinh giỏi lớp 9


Môn thi: Tiếng Anh.
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút

SECTION A: LISTENING (3.0 points)

Part I. Listen and look. There is one example (1 point)

Example:

Where did Jack want to go on his birthday?

A. have a picnic in the countryside

B. go to see a movie C. go to the sports centre with his friends

1. Which film do they choose?

A. The film about rockets in space

B. The film about the big fire and all the firemen

C. The film about dinosaurs

2. When will Jack see the film?

A. Saturday B. Sunday C. Monday

3. What time must Jack’s friend come to his house?

A. 4.30 B. 4.45 C. 5.15

4. How will they buy the cinema tickets?

A. buy the tickets at the cinema

B. buy the tickets via phone

C. buy the tickets online

5. How will they get to the cinema?

A. by car B. on foot C. by taxi


Part II. Listen and complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS /OR A NUMBER (1 point)

MOVING COMPANY SERVICE REPORT

Full name: Jane Bond

Phone number: (1)………………………………

USA address: 509 (2)………………………….

1137 University Drive in Seattle

Packing day: (3) ………………………………

Date: 11th March

Clean-up by : 5:00 p.m

Day: (4) ………………………………

About the price: Rather expensive

Storage time: (5) ………………………………

Part III. Listen and write T for true, F for false or NG for not given (1 point)

1. The man is not interested in the game ……………………


2. The children sitting next to the man play the game ……………………
3. The woman makes the game more tempting for him so that he ………………
will play
4. The man drops his money and the woman takes it ……………………
5. The man doesn’t know the answer to the question she asks ……………………

SECTION B: PHONETICS (1.0 point)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the
others by circling A, B, C, or D: (0.5 point)

1. A. Clerk B. terse C. term D. jerk


2. A. Hand B. bank C. sand D. band
3. A. Honey B. rhythm C. exhume D. behold
4. A. Dormitory B. information C. organization D. forward
5. A. Food B. shoot C. shook D. spool

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling

A, B, C, or D: (0.5 point)

1. A. exchange B. invite C. economic D. embroider


2. A. intermediate B. documentary C. reputation D. communicate
3. A. benefit B. environment C. wonderful D. category
4. A. century B. conclusion C. available D. ambition
5.A. contain B. achieve C. improve D. visit

SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (6.5 points)

I. Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (1.5 points)

1. I had to get up early, ……………..….I would miss the train.

A. otherwise B. if not C. so that D. but


2. My parents are going to take three days…….next month to help my brother move his
house.

A. at B. over C. off D. out


3. English is used as an access …………….….a world scholarship and world trade.

A. into B. to C. for D. towards


4. Parents love and support their children ……….the children misbehave or do foolish
things.

A. if B. since C. only if D. even if


5.The Historical Museum is becoming ……………..…. crowded.
A. much and more B. more and more C. much and much D. more and much
6. The scheme allows students from many countries to communicate……………….

A. with other B. themselves C. each other D. with one another


7. Have you ever read anything……………..….Earnest Hengmingway?

A. by B. of C. from D. for
8. Not a good movie,……………..….?

A. did it B. didn’t it C. was it D. wasn’t it


9. Hoi An is……………..….for its old, small and tile-roofed houses.

A. well-done B. well-dressed C. well-organized D. well-known


10. Hurry up! They have only got……………..….seats left.

A. a lot of B. plenty of C. a little D. a few


11. The party, at ….. I was the guest honor, was extremely enjoyable.

A. that B. who C. which D. where


12. _______ parrots are native to tropical regions is untrue.

A. All B. That all C. Since all D. Why all

13. I came ..................an old friend while I was walking along the street.

A. across B. into C. over D. for


14. Everyone ..................Tom was invited to the party.

A. as B. from C. but D. for


15. If you .............to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess now.

A. listen B. will listen C. listened D. had listened


Your answer:

II. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (2.0 points)

The world is getting warmer and the oceans are rising. Why _________ this (1. happen)
________________________? One answer is that it could simply be part of a natural
process. After all, there (2. be) __________________ ice ages and long periods of
warmth, so we could just (3. experience) ________________________ another warming
trend. This kind of answer (4. have) _______________ more supporters a few years ago.
What scientists now (5. believe) ______________ is that human activity is the cause. For
more than two hundred years, human (6. gradually/change)
__________________________ the atmosphere, mainly as a result of industrial
pollution. We (7. create) ______________ an atmosphere around the earth that, like a
giant glass container, (8. let) _____________ heat from the sun through and then (9.
hold) _____________ it in. _______________ temperatures and sea levels (10.
keep)____________ rising? The general answer is unfortunately yes.

Your answer:

II. Use the words given to form a word that fits in the space. (2.0 points)

1. He has little……………..….of winning a prize. EXPECT

2. He resigned từ chức for a……………..….of reasons. VARIOUS

3. He is very generous and everyone admires his……………..…. . SELF

4. It seems……………..….to change the timetable so often. LOGIC

5. It is……………..….that you missed the meeting. FORTUNE

6. Could you……………..….the picture over the sofa? STRAIGHT

7. She wanted to have her skirt……………..…. LONG

8. They all cheered……………..….as their team came out. ENTHUSIASM

9. He will not benefit……………..….from the deal. FINANCE

10. “Look after your mother,” were his.. ……………..….words. DIE

Your answer:III. Complete each of the following sentences with one of the phrasal
verbs given below ( make any necessary changes) (1.0 point)

Go over give off hold back


call off pay off bring out
put aside make up for see( someone) off
put( someone) through to run out of bring( someone) round
1. They had to .................. the football match because of weather.

2. We managed to .................. by splashing his face with water.

3. Could you .................. the manager, please?

4. The detective carefully .................. the facts with the witness.

5. We’ve .................. sugar, could you go and buy some?


6. As the detective stories become popular once again, the publishing house decides
to .................. a new edition of Christie’s work.

7. The film was so sad that she couldn’t .................. her tears.

8. Ten employees were .................. as there wasn’t enough work for us.

9. He bought some flowers to .................. his bad behavior.

10. The old widow warned her two sons not to spend so much money so fast in case that
some thing could happen and told them to .................. some money for the future.

Your answer:

SECTION D: READING (5.0 points)

I. Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage: (2.0 points)

NEW HUNT FOR LIFE IN SPACE


British space scientists are planning to join the American in the race to find evidence of
life on (1) ……………..…. planets. Alan Penny and his team at the Rutherford Appleton
Laboratory have designed a telescope that is 40 times more powerful than Hubble. Known
as ‘Darwin’, his telescope could tell if planets 50 (2) ……………..….years away have any
kind of life on them. Two days (3) ……………..…., NASA scientists had shown a proof
that one of Jupiter’s moons could support life, Penny announced that his telescope may be
included in a European Space Agency mission. The Darwin project, with a (4)
……………..…. of 500 million, is on a short list of two proposals. If approved it will
probably be (5) ……………..…. around 2015, its destination somewhere between Mars
and Jupiter. The blueprint is actually for five telescopes positioned 50 meters apart in space,
slowly circling a (6) ……………..…. processing station. The combined data from these
telescopes would build up a full picture of a planet, picking out faint images that have never
been seen before. Darwin would not be able to take detailed photographs of the planets it (7)
……………..…., but Penny believes a second- generation telescope could be sent up to do
this. He claims it is worthwhile mapping the universe around our (8) ……………..
….galaxy, even though these planets lie (9)_______ our reach for the moment. The European
Space Agency will make its decision (10) ……………..…. Darwin within three years.
1. A. another B. other C. others D. the other

2. A. light B. lighten C. lightening D. lighting

3. A. following B. after C. next D. later

4. A. price B. schedule C. charge D. budget


5. A. driven B. fetched C. launched D. taken

6. A. central B. centre C. middle D. heart

7. A. invents B. searches C. discovers D. looks

8. A. alone B. same C. one D. own

9. A. out B. toward C. beyond D. over

10. A. of B. on C. about D. With

Your answer:

II. Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete the passage. (2.0 points)

Traveling to all corners of the world is (1) ……………..…. easier and easier. We live
(2) ……………..…. a global village, but how well do we know and understand each
other ? Here is (3) ……………..…. simple test. Imagine you have arranged a meeting at
4 p.m. What time should you expect your foreign business colleagues to arrive? If they
are German, they'll be exactly (4) ……………..…. time. If they are American, they'll
probably be 15 minutes early. If they are British, they be 15 minutes (5) ……………..
…., and you should allow up to an hour for the Indians. Therefore, these are some small
advice in (6) ……………..…. not to behave badly abroad. In France you shouldn’t sit
down in a cafard until you are shaken hands with everyone you know. In Afghanistan
you'd better spend at last 5 minutes (7) ……………..…. hello. In Pakistan you mustn’t
wink. It is offensive. In the Middle East you must never use the left hand for greeting,
eating, drinking or smoking. Also, you should care not to admire (8) ……………..…. in
your host’s home. They will feel that they have to give it to you. In Russia you must
your hosts drink for drink or they will think you are unfriendly. In Thailand you should
clasp your hands (9) ……………..…. and lower your head and your eyes when you
greet someone. In America you should eat your hamburger with both hands and as
quickly as (10) ……………..….. You shouldn’t try to have a conversation until it is
eaten.

Your answer:

III. Circle the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the following questions: (1.0 point)

Man is a land animal, but he is also closely tied to the sea. Throughout history the sea
has served the need of man. The sea has provided man with food and a convenient way to travel
to many parts of the world. Today, nearly two thirds of the world’s population live within 80 km
of the sea coast.

In the modern technological world, the sea offers many resources to help mankind survive.
Resources on land are beginning to be used up. The sea, however, still can be hoped to supply
many of man’s needs. The list of riches of the sea yet to be developed by man’s technology is
impressive. Oil and gas explorations have been carried out for nearly 30 years. A lot of valuable
minerals exist on the ocean floor ready to be mined.

Fish farming promises to be a good way to produce large quantities of food. The culture of
fish and shellfish is an ancient skill practiced in the past mainly by Oriental people.

Besides oil and gas, the sea may offer new sources of energy. Experts believe that the warm
temperature of the ocean can be used in a way similar to the steam in a steamship. Ocean
currents and waves offer possible use as a source of energy.

Technology is enabling man to explore ever more deeply under the sea. The development of
strong, new materials has made this possible.

The technology to harvest the sea continues to improve. Experts believe that by the year
2050s the problems that prevent us from fully exploiting the food, minerals, and energy sources
of the sea will be largely solved.

1. The best title for this passage is ……………..…..

A. Sea Harvest. B. Technology and the Exploiting of the Sea.

C. Sea Food. D. Man and Sea.


2. The major things that the sea offers man are ……………..…..

A. food, energy sources and minerals. B. fish and oil.

C. minerals and oil. D. ocean currents and waves.


3. The sea serves the needs of man because ……………..…..

A. it provides man with sea food. B. it offers oil to man.

C. it supplies man with minerals. D. all of the above.


4. The word Oriental people in the fourth paragraph probably means ……………..…..

A. European people. C. Asian people. B. African people. D. American people.


5. We can conclude from the passage that ……………..…..

A. the sea resources have largely been used up.

B. the sea, in a broad sense, hasn’t yet been developed.

C. the problems that prevent us from fully exploiting the sea have already been solved.

D. by the year 2050, the technology will be good enough to exploit all the sea resources.

SECTION E: WRITING: (4.5 points)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. (1.0 point)


1. It was wrong of you to allow a four-year-old child to walk home alone.

- You should ........................................................................................................

2. I could realize how important the family is only after I left home.

- Not until ...........................................................................................................

3. Mrs. Green is proud of her son’s contribution to the play.

- Mrs. Green is proud of what ................................................................

4. They recruited very few young engineers.


- Hardly .............................................................................

5. Only two out of the five rooms we have booked have air conditioning.

- We have booked five rooms, only .................................................................

II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one,
using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words in anyway.(1.0 point)
1. It's possible Karen didn't hear her name being called. might

→ Karen .…………………………………… ……………… her name being called.

2. “Don’t forget to lock the house when you go out, William,” his mother said.
reminded

→ William’s mother …………………………………………… when he went out.

3. Nobody expected her to lose, but she did. against

→ Against .……………………………………… …………………….. she lost

4. There weren't many guests at the wedding. only

→ There were ………………………………………………… guests at the wedding.

5. Promise to look after it and you can borrow my tennis racquet. long

→ You can borrow my tennis racquet, ……………………………. to look after it.

C. Some people say that the secondary school students should wear casual clothes at
school. Do you agree? Why? or Why not? Write about 200 words. (2.5points)

KEY+MP3
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=DO8ahVerSsU
Đề số 4
Kì thi chọn học sinh Giỏi cấp tỉnh

Môn thi : Tiếng Anh 9

Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút.

Section A. Listening (4 points)

Part 1. You will hear a conversation between a man, Marco, and his wife,
Sarash about a film they have just seen at the cinema. Then answer True (T)
or False (F). (1 point)

Statements T F
1. Marco and Sarah agree that the city in the film was London.

2. Marco feels that the length of the film made it rather boring.

3. Sarah was upset about how some of the audience behaved during the
film.

4. Sarah was disappointed with the way the main actor performed.

5. Marco thinks this film is the best the director has made.
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part 2: You will hear a radio talk about holidays in Northumberland. Listen
and fill in the missing words.(2 points)

Good morning! This morning on “Holiday Time” I want to tell you about the
cycling trip I took recently to Northumberland in the North of England. Before I
went I read a book by Peter Green (1)………….….. title is Cycling around
Northumberland , which I found really useful when planning my route.
Northumberland is a beautiful area of England and (2)……………… for cycling.
There is very little traffic on the roads and plenty to see and do. For example, why
not visit a castle? More of them are open to the public here than in any other part
of the country. While I was there I actually stayed in a flat in a castle, but there are
many hotels, cottages or bed and breakfast places to choose from. In the summer it
is important to book in advance, but I (3)…………………going in the spring, as it
is not so difficult to find somewhere to stay at that time of the year. You will find
that some places are closed in winter. Most of the small towns in the area have
cycling centres where you can hire a bicycle. A week’s hire will cost thirty-five
pounds, two weeks will be fifty-five pounds. There is also a (4)………………....of
fifty pounds , which you get back when you return the bicycle. Try to plan your
holiday when there is a local event or festival happening. I went in June and was
lucky enough to go to a festival of local food. Every August there’s an(5)
…………………..festival of music, but you’ll find something going on in almost
every month of the year. Ring the Northumberland National Park if you’re
interested in finding out about their activities – they have a programme of guided
walks, photography and bird watching. Ring them on double eight double 0 four
six.

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part 3: You will hear an interview with a singer called Nick Parker who plays
in a band called Krispy with his sister Mel. For each question choose the best
answer A, B, or C. (1 point)

1. When Nick and Mel started writing music together, they…………….

A. disagreed about the style they should have.

B. didn’t want to be the same as other bands.

C. were influenced by different kinds of music.

2. The band Krispy was started after………………..

A. Nick began studying at music school.

B. two other musicians heard Nick nd Mel playing.

C. Nick and Mel advertised for the band members.

3. In the band’s first year together,…………….

A. concert audiences liked their music.

B. they signed a recording contract.

C. their national tour was very successful.

4. What does Nick say about life in the band today ?

A. The older members look after him and Mel.

B. He’s pleased to have the chance to travel.


C. There’s no opportunity for them to relax together.

5. What disappointment has the band had?

A. They haven’t yet had a number one single.

B. Their first album sold under a million copies.

C. A health problem delayed their album recording.

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
SECTION B. PHONETICS (1 points)

Part I. Circle your choice (A, B, C or D) indicating the word whose


underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest. (0,5 point)

1. A. campus B. relax C. locate D. fashion


2. A. plays B. says C. rays D. stays
3. A. athletics B. health C. earthquake D. furthermore
4. A. sewage B. save C. treasure D. campus
5. A. cherish B. chorus C. chaos D. scholarship
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part II. Circle your choice (A, B, C or D) indicating the word that has a different
stress pattern from the others in the group. (0,5 point)

1. A. compulsory B. convenient C. correspond D. communicate


2. A. profession B. condition C. departure D. energy
3. A. hamburger B. minority C. material D. linguistics
4. A. generous B. humorous C. enormous D. dangerous
5. A. understand B. adventure C. engineer D. Vietnamese
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
SECTION C. LEXICO & GRAMMAR (5points)

Part I. Circle your choice of the word, phrase or expression (A, B, C or D) that
best completes each sentence. (1 point)

1. In a ___________________class, this is a great opportunity to learn about


different customs and traditions around the world.

A. multilingual B. multi-disciplinary C. multi-dimensional D.


multinational
2. Learning English isn’t so difficult once you ______________________.

A. get down to it B. get off it C. get on it D. get down with


it
3. Famous is most opposite to _____________________.

A. boring B. poor C. obscure D. untalented


4. 3/4 means _______________________.

A. third quarters B. three quarters C. three fourth D. thirth fourth


5. I am so tired that I can’t make _________________what you are saying.
A. up B. in C. out D. on

6. _______________is normally used to refer to the treatment and training of the


child within the home.

A. Feeding B. Mothering C. Upbringing D. Educating


7. We found that _______________ students in this class are from the same city.

A. most of B. most all C. almost the D. most of the


8. The captain as well as the passengers _______________frightened.

A. was B. be C. to be D. were
9. This school needs _______________. It looks so old.

A. to repaint B. repainting C. repainted D. to be repainting


10. Peter: “Thanks for your help” – Tom: “_______”

A. There’s nothing B. Nothing C. It sounds good D. It’s my pleasure


Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part II. Use the correct tense/form of the verbs in brackets to make sentences.

(1 point)

1. On their next anniversary. Doris and Fred (1. be) ………….married for twenty
years.

2. The news about the storm (2. already broadcast) …..……on radioseveral times
so far.
3. She is accustomed to (3. train) …………….for long hours.

4. She (4. sleep) ………..for ten hours! You must wake her up.

5. At this time next week, they (5. sit) ……………….in the train on their way to
Paris.

6. What tune (6. play)……………………. when we came in?

7. Scarcely they (7. move) ……………..into the new house when their friends
came in.

8. Just as I (8. wonder)………..….what to do next, the phone rang.

9. During the trip, try to avoid (9. bite)………..……… by mosquitoes.

10. My boss is angry with me. I didn’t do all the work that I (10. do)……….last
week.

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
III. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable preposition. (1point)

1. Rebecca cut ……………………….on our conversation to tell us that James had


just been rushed to hospital.

2. The teacher cleared……………………….the harder parts of the story.

3. Do you mind if I carry………………with my work while you are getting tea


ready?

4. If you would like to wait a moment, sir, I will just call………………………


your file on the computer screen.

5. The man who lives opposite us sometimes comes…………….for a cup of


coffee.

6. I’m not sure how old he is but he must be get……………………….for 70.

7. They had to call………………….……the match because of the rain.

8. When her millionaire father died, she came………………………. a fortune.

9. Joe is an orphan. He was brought…………………………….by his aunt.

10. Arm terrorists are reported to have taken……………………..the Embassy.


Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part IV: Give the correct form of the words in capital letters. (1point)

GETTING AHEAD IN BUSINESS

Your chances of success can be greatly increased if you


follow a few simple rules in your working life. First of all,
remember that your (1)……….wants you to do well-that’s
what you are being paid for. Many companies choose (2) 1. EMPLOY
…………young people to work for them and provide a lot
2. AMBITION
of (3)………….for their workers. Working for a large,
international company may provide job (4)……….. On the 3.
other hand, a smaller company might give you the chance to ENCOURAGE
use your (5)…………more.
4. SECURE
Secondly, remember that any experience you gain will
always (6)………..your position in the company. The
company wants (7)………..that you want to get to the top. 5. IMAGINE
Take any opportunity you get to go on (8)…………courses
related to your work. The more (9)………..you are, the
better chance you have of being promoted. Finally, don’t 6. STRONG
give up, even when you are (10)………… Stick with it and
you’ll get there in the end. 7. PROVE

8. TRAIN

9. QUALIFY

10. SUCCESS
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part V: The passage below contains 10 errors. UNDERLINE and CORRECT
the. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided. There is an
example at the beginning. (1 point)

All students here come from very difficult backgrounds; there are 0......is.......
street children, orphans, children of war-invalid, hearing-impaired
students and young people in very poor families. 1................

This school provides us with free training in one of these areas:


Vietnam and Asian cooking, French and European cooking, French 2................
baking and pastry, restaurant and catering services, domestic service,
sewing and embroider. After one year of training at the school, full- 3................
time jobs are finding for us and we could be working in any number
of hotels, restaurants, private houses, embassies or companies of 4................
Vietnam.
5................
To cover all the training costs, our school has four businesses: a
restaurant, a bakery, a catering service and a sewing & embroidery 6................
shop. These income-generating businesses also provide an
excellently opportunity for us to gain valuable practice 7................
experiences. If you ever come to Vietnam, don’t miss the chance
8................
tasting delicious Vietnamese and French dishes at our restaurant.
9................

10..............

SECTION C. READING (5 points)

Part I. Read the passage below and choose the best answer from the four
options marked A, B, C or D. (1 point)

Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to
become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it
today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that
was introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the 1600s, English was,
for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended even as far as Wales,
Scotland or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two centuries, English
began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave
trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English speakers
became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities
proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business,
banking and diplomacy.

Currently, about 80% of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in


English. Two - thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the
main language of technology, advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic
controllers. Today there are more than 700 million English users in the world, and
over half of these are non-native speakers, constituting the largest number of non-
native users than any language in the world.
1. What is the main topic of this passage?

A. The number of non-native users of English

B. The French influence on the English language.

C. The expansion of English as an international language.

D. The use of English for science and technology.

2. The word “ emerged” in paragraph 1 means ________.

A. appeared B. hailed C. frequented D. engaged


3. Approximately, when did English begin to be used beyond England?

A. in 1066 B. around 1350 C. before 1600 D. after 1600


4. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “stored” in paragraph
2?

A. bought B. saved C. spent D. valued


5. According to the passage, approximately how many non-native users of English
are there in the world today?

A. a quarter million C. 350 million

B. half a million D. 700 million


Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part II. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in each numbered
blank in the following passage. (2 points)

British space scientists are planning to join the American in the race to find
evidence of life on (1) _____planets. Alan Penny and his team at the Rutherford
Appleton Laboratory have designed a telescope that is 40 times more powerful
than Hubble. Known as “Darwin”, his telescope could tell if planets 50
(2)_______ years away have any kind of life on them. Two days (3) _____ ,
NASA scientists had shown a proof that one of Jupiter’s moons could support life,
Penny announced that his telescope may be included in a European Space Agency
mission. The Darwin project, with a (4) _____ of 500 million, is on a short list of
two proposals. If approved it will probably be (5) _____ around 2015, its
destination somewhere between Mars and Jupiter. The blueprint is actually for
five telescopes positioned 50 meters apart in space, slowly circling a (6) _____
processing station. The combined data from these telescopes would build up a full
picture of a planet, picking out faint images that have never been seen before.
Darwin would not be able to take detailed photographs of the planets it (7) _____ ,
but Penny believes a second – generation telescope could be sent up to do this. He
claims it is worthwhile mapping the universe around our (8) _____ galaxy, even
though these planets lie (9) _____ our reach for the moment. The European Space
Agency will make its decision (10) _____ Darwin within three years.

1. a. another b. other c. others d. the other


2. a. light b. lighten c. lightening d. lighting
3. a. following b. after c. next d. later
4. a. price b. schedule c. charge d. budget
5. a. driven b. fetched c. launched d. taken
6. a. central b. centre c. middle d. heart
7. a. invents b. searches c. discovers d. looks
8. a. alone b. same c. one d. own
9. a. out b. toward c. beyond d. over
10. a. of b. on c. about d. with
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part III. Fill in each gap in the following text with one suitable word.
(2points)

My Son Sanctuary

The sanctuary (1)............more than 70 architectural (2).............. They


include temples and towers that connect to each other with complicated red brick
designs. The main component of the Cham architectural design is the tower.
(3) ............. to reflect the divinity of the king. Bricks are main material for the
construction of the Cham Towers. However, it has yet been unable to figure out
the reasonable explanation for the linking material, brick baking method, and
(4) ..............method of the Cham Pa. Even these days, this still (5) ...........as an
attractive secret to contemporary people.

Among the ruins of many architectural (6)..................dug in 1898, a 24-


meter-high tower was found in the Thap Chua area. This tower is a(n)
(7).............of ancient Cham architecture. It has two doors, one in the east and the
other in the west. The tower body is high and delicate with a system of paved
pillars, six sub-towers surrounding the tower. This two-story tower (8) ............ a
lotus flower. The top of the upper layer is made of sandstone and carved with
elephant and lion designs. In the lower layer, the walls are carved with fairies,
water evils and men (9) .............elephants. (10).........., the tower was destroyed by
US bombs in 1969.

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
SECTION D. WRITING (5 points)

Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means
exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (2 points)

1. If nobody puts some more coal in, the fire will go out.
-> Unless
…………………………………………………………………………….

2. You may get hungry on the train, so take some sandwiches.

-> In
case…………………………………………………………………..................

3. I now regret spending too much money on clothes.

-> I wish …..


………………………………………………………………………….

4. You ought to fasten your seatbelt before driving away.

-> You shouldn’t .


…………………………………………………………………….

5. “I must see the manager! ” he cried.


-> He insisted
………………………………………………………………………..
6. I only realized how dangerous the situation had been when I got home.

-> Only …………………………………………………………………..


…………..

7. It’s Peter’s job to look after his little brother. (responsible)

-> Peter ………………………….


…………………………………………………..

8. Their car is Japanese. It is big and white.


-> They have ……..
…………………………………………………………………..

9. Couldn’t you take a bus to the station this morning?


-> Wasn’t
………………………………………………………………………….?

10. Scientists have tried very hard to find a cure for this disease.

-> Enormous
effort.......................................................................................................

Part II. Use suggestions to make complete sentences. Make any changes
necessary. You can add more words but cannot omit the given words.
(1point):
1. famed city / organize/ seasonal events/ such/ Sydney Comedy Festival/ April/
or/ Sydney International Food Festival/ october/.

…………………………..………..
………………………………………………………

2. A hundred years ago / people / all / world / live/ different/ how/ now/.

…….…………………………..
…………………………………………………………

3. Smart boards/ help/ students/ use/ fingers/ write directly/ them/.

…….…………………………..
…………………………………………………………

4. All gases/ most liquids/ solids/ expand/ heat/.

………………………………..
…………………………………………………………

5. The fossilized/ remain/ a type/ camel/ no longer/ a dog/ find/ Bed Lands/ South
Dakota.

………………………..
…………………………………………………………………

Part III. “Many people say that it is the main responsibility of schools for the
violence among students”. To what extent do you agree with this statement?
Write a composition, not more than 200 words. (2points)

KEY+FILE NGHE
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=4imKiGCow1U&t=80s

You might also like