MOCK TEST SERIES – 2

ENGLISH
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Yesterday was so much fun, __________ ?

a) was it b) is it
c) isn’t it d) wasn’t it
2. The teacher asked each of _______ students to bring ______ photograph of their grandparets or elderly
relatives. Choose the correct articles from the given alternatives.
a) a, a b) a, the
c) the, a d) the, the
3. Lightning danced across the sky. The figure of speech used here is
a) Alliteration b) Personification
c) Simile d) Metaphor
4. She lost her ring _______ the beach. The appropriate preposition to be filled in the blank is:
a) at b) in
c) between d) on
5. They _______ a new newsletter every Friday. It’s worth reading. The appropriate preposition to be filled in
the blank is :
a) put out b) put off
c) put in d) put down
6. I ______ to the shops, but they were closed. Choose the correct option from the given alternatives
a) have going b) had gone
c) is gone d) is go
7. Success : Successfully; Courage : __________ (Choose the correct option from the given alternatives).
a) courageously b) corageous
c) courageoused d) no change
8. Change the voice of the sentence:
A forest fire destroyed the whole suburb
a) The whole suburb was been destroyed by a forest fire.
b) The whole suburb was destroyed by a forest fire.
c) The whole suburb was being destroyed by a forest fire.
d) The whole suburb was had destroyed by a forest fire.
9. Re-write the sentence as exclamatory: “She sings beautifully.”
a) How beautifully she sings. b) How are she sings.
c) What a singer she was. d) She is a good singer.
10. Why hurrying feet became less hurried.
a) Idler man influenced on her b) She has gotten her to her leg.
c) Lazy man told her to walk slowly. d) She had no work.
11. What according to C. V. Raman is the Elixir of life?
a) Water b) Soil
c) Nature d) Amruta
12. The land where silt is deposited is usually
a) very fertile b) Barren
c) catchment area d) Dry land
13. In paragraph one, Mahatma Gandhi says our conventional acts are
a) Moral b) immoral
c) either moral or immoral d) neither moral nor immoral

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

14. The narrator guessed that the couple who saw the girl off at Rohana were probably her parents because,
a) they were middle-aged b) they seemed very anxious
c) they accompanied the girl to the railway station
d) they gave detailed instructions about the care she had to take
15. “The man indulged in mad whims.” Who considers the man’s work as “mad whims?”
a) The man himself b) The writer
c) The people in workers’ paradise d) The reader
16. What did Della buy for Jim?
a) Platinum fob Chain b) Watch
c) Comb d) Hair
17. She is ______ than her sister.
a) pretty b) prettier
c) more pretty d) most pretty
18. Harsha says, “ I will become a doctor.” Change into reported speech.
a) Harsha says that he will become a doctor. b) Harsha said that he will become a doctor.
c) Harsha says that he would become a doctor. d) Harsha says that he will becoming a doctor.
19. Do you enjoy _________ cricket?
a) to play b) play
c) playing d) played
20. Who was Mr. Van Daan?
a) Otto frank partner b) Police
c) Doctor d) Nazis
21. The stage of life between childhood and adulthood ______
a) early age b) old age
c) adolescence d) childhood
22. I don’t like his ________ nature. (argument)
(Choose appropriate form of the verb)
a) Argumentative b) argumentatively
c) argumented d) arguments
23. Which of the given expression is suggestion?
a) You’ll come and see us again. b) You may come and see us again.
c) You should come and see us again. d) You must come and see us again.
24. “I really don’t see the necessity,” said Judge Gaston. The remark is reflection on
a) The judge’s insensitivity. b) How people felt about vagbonds in those days.
c) The judge’s sense of humor. d) None of the above.
25. “I can’t very well be seen carrying an eel pie through the streets of Paris. Can I?” says Gaultier. This shows
that he is
a) Lazy b) Wise
c) Too conscious and proud of his position d) None of the above
26. Who does “her” in the first liner refer to?
a) Boat b) Poet
c) Poet’s mother d) Reader
27. In the expression “troubled pleasure” (line 6) with reference to the poem “The Stolen Boat.”
a) his conscience pricks him on his stealthy act b) the pleasure is short-lived
c) he is scared of his stealthy act being found out d) None of the above
28. Why had Buttoo gone to Dronacharya?
a) To learn archery. b) To talk to him.
c) To give him thumb. d) To meet Arjuna.
29. “I am so grown” in line 15 means, with reference to the poem C.L.M
a) that he has grown so much physically that she would not be able to recognize him.
b) that he has grown so unworthy of all her sacrifice that she would not be able to recognize him.
c) both a and b d) none of the above

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

30. Who were Cyclops?
a) Race of giants, having only one eye b) True warriors
c) Soldiers d) Sailors
31. The time of the day suggested in the poem is
a) sunrise b) sunset
c) either sunrise or sunset d) not clear
32. “ ________ all men are not just, all men are not true.” These lines convey
a) a one-sided view of life b) the harsh reality of life
c) Lincoln’s personal view d) none of the above
33. The lines “The rich/will make temples for Siva,” implies that
a) they want to please the lord b) they can afford to build temples
c) the believe that this is how they can serve
d) they believe that the temple is the only place to feel the presence of God
34. The word “Listen” in the last stanza is
a) an order b) an appeal
c) a request d) an advice
35. “sunned it with smiles” suggests that
a) the speaker cunningly hid his anger with bright smiles.
b) the speaker pretended that he was not angry.
c) the speaker let his anger grow secretly.
d) none of the above.
36. He’s still sleeping, ______. Choose the correct question tag from the given alternatives.
a) isn’t he? b) is he?
c) was he? d) wasn’t he?
37. __________ universal meet is being planned to discuss the measures to control carbon emission. The
appropriate article to be filled in is
a) A b) An
c) The d) Zero article
38. I took up this profession to please my father. The appropriate interrogative sentence to get the underlined
words as answer is
a) Why have you taken up this profession? b) What did you do to please your father?
c) What did you take up? d) Why did you take up this profession?
39. I ________ a dictionary to find out the meanings of difficult words. The suitable phrasal verb to be filled in
the blank is
a) look up b) look in
c) look after d) look down
40. An assertive sentence ends with a __________
a) full stop b) comma
c) question mark d) semicolon

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PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

 MOCK TEST SERIES – 2 – ENGLISH – ANSWER KEY

1. Ans: (d)
2. Ans: (c)
3. Ans: (b)
4. Ans: (a)
5. Ans: (a)
6. Ans: (b)
7. Ans: (a)
8. Ans: (b)
9. Ans: (a)
10. Ans: (a)
11. Ans: (a)
12. Ans: (a)
13. Ans: (c)
14. Ans: (d)
15. Ans: (b)
16. Ans: (a)
17. Ans: (b)
18. Ans: (b)
19. Ans: (c)
20. Ans: (a)
21. Ans: (c)
22. Ans: (a)
23. Ans: (b)
24. Ans: (c)
25. Ans: (c)
26. Ans: (c)
27. Ans: (a)
28. Ans: (a)
29. Ans: (a)
30. Ans: (a)
31. Ans: (a)
32. Ans: (b)
33. Ans: (c)
34. Ans: (b)
35. Ans: (a)
36. Ans: (a)
37. Ans: (a)
38. Ans: (d)
39. Ans: (b)
40. Ans: (a)
*************

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

 MOCK TEST SERIES – 1

ENGLISH

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1 x 40 = 40
1. When Jean comes begging to the cake shop, Marion says
a) Here take some food and money b) Why don’t you come tomorrow
c) My husband is out and I have nothing for you d) Go to the other street
2. Nile Valley is the creation of
a) River b) Earth quake
c) Flood d) Deluge
3. What does Della buy after leaving Mme. Sofronie?
a) Food for dinner b) A set of combs
c) A watch chain d) A curling iron
4. The man believed the couple seeing of the girl to be her
a) Friends b) Uncle and aunt
c) Parents d) Siblings
5. What cannot be found in Workers Paradise?
a) Leisure b) Idle man
c) Silent Torrents d) Busy farmers
6. Dronacharaya demands _________ from Buttoo.
a) His head as Gurudakshina b) His life as Gurudakshina
c) His bow and arrow as Gurudakshina d) His thumb as Gurudakshina
7. Who was the only survivor from Anne’s family?
a) Anne b) Anne’s father
c) Anne’s mother d) Anne’s sister
8. The most dominant feeling of the poet in the poem C.L.M is
a) A feeling of guilt b) A feeling of sorrows
c) A feeling of ingratitude d) A feeling of anger
9. Manly wisdom excels
a) Angry b) Sharpness
c) Brutish force d) Fashioned
10. According to Hume’s words, the Sarus Cranes
a) Exhibit great grief for their dead partner b) They certainly pair for life
c) A widowed bird pines away and dies d) All the above sentences are true
11. “And man’s lust roves the world untamed”. Here man’s lust refers to
a) Man’s beastily sexuality b) Man’s lust for power over women
c) a only d) Both a and b
12. The Magi the wise men brought gifts to
a) Della and Jim b) Baby Jesus
c) King Solomon and Queen Sheba d) People in Bethlehem
13. The teacher should move the students away from
a) Courage b) Laughter
c) Patience d) Jealousy
14. In 1854, Pasteur was appointed as head of a college of science at
a) Lille b) London
c) Paris d) Nice
15. What grew larger in stature?
a) The Boat b) The Sea
c) The Peak d) The Cave

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

16. What according to the author is the divine amrita?
a) Water b) Ice
c) Snow d) None of these
17. Listen O Lord of the meeting rivers, here the word ‘listen’ refers to
a) An order b) An appeal
c) A request d) An advice
18. Shakespeare says _________
a) Love born out of the profit motive is no love b) Love born out of the profit motive is true love
c) Love born out of the profit motive is natural love d) Love born out of profit motive is non-moral love
19. Kripa well-versed in the rules of ________ Combat, stepped between them and addressed Karna.
a) Triple b) Double
c) Single d) Square
20. Let him learn early that the bullies are easiest to _______ .
a) Leak b) Lick
c) Speak d) Sleep
21. What happened when speaker expressed his anger?
a) He was given back in the same coin b) His anger ended
c) His anger grew d) His enemy was killed
22. The dead crane was picked up
a) Like dirty laundry bag b) On hands and jaws
c) By the scruff of the neck d) With a stick
23. In the poem ‘The Stolen Boat’ the boy’s imagination, the mountain moves towards him in a _________
manner.
a) Lively and graceful b) Friendly amicable
c) Threatening and menacing d) Nervous and sporadic
24. “Till you learn to form your own opinions and express them, I do not care much what you think of me” said
a) M. K. Gandhi b) Wendell Phillips
c) Daniel Webster d) St. Francis Xavier
25. ‘Rash promises even ends in strife’. By saying this Drona is
a) Warning Buttoo of unpleasant.
b) Offering Buttoo a chance to change his stance
c) Hinting that his demand of recompense could be damaging or destructive to Buttoo
d) Regretting the rash promise he had made to Arjuna
26. When was the diary given to Anne?
a) 11th Birthday b) 12th Birthday
c) 13th Birthday d) 14th Birthday
27. He’s going to stay in Chamrajnagar for ten days. The correct question to get the underlined words as answer
is
a) How often is he staying in Chamrajnagar? b) How long is he staying in Chamrajnagar?
c) What time is he staying in Chamrajnagar? d) When is he going to stay in Chamrajngar?
28. India won the match. The figure of speech used here
a) Simile b) Synecdoche
c) Metaphor d) Personification
29. Our boys will win the football match. The appropriate question tag to be used here is:
a) Didn’t they ? b) Won’t they ?
c) Will they ? d) Do they ?
30. I saw _________ old man on ________ road. The articles to be used here are :
a) The, the b) A, the
c) An, the d) An, a
31. Sudha Chandran danced gracefully. The part of speech of the underlined word is :
a) Noun b) Adjective
c) Adverb d) Preposition

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

32. Ravi said, “I was reading a novel today”. The reported form of this sentence is
a) Ravi said that he has been reading a novel that day
b) Ravi said that she has been reading a novel that day
c) Ravi said that he had been reading a novel that day
d) Ravi said that he had been reading a novel on that day
33. Which of the following is a simple sentence?
a) He was ill but he attended the office b) Inspite of being ill, he attended the office
c) He was ill yet he attended the office d) Though he was ill, he attended the office
34. Very few cities are as big as Mumbai. The superlative degree of the sentence is
a) Mumbai is bigger than most other cities b) Mumbai was one of the biggest cities
c) Mumbai was bigger than most other cities d) Mumbai is one of the biggest cities
35. Veeresh is reading a novel. The passive form of the above sentence is
a) A novel had been read by Veeresh b) A novel is being read by Veeresh
c) A novel has been read by Veeresh d) A novel was being read by Veeresh
36. Observe the relationships in the first pair of words and complete the second pair :
Lure : attract :: sprout : ________
a) Calm b) Develop
c) Enormous d) Annoyed
37. Identify the correct pair of homophones in the following:
a) Pane – Pain b) Aisle - Eel
c) Gate - Greet d) Sweet - Seat
38. Give one word for the following, “Gradual recovery from illness”
a) Convalescence b) Autopsy
c) Physiognomy d) Antidote
39. He has ________ after ten days.
a) come by b) come round
c) come into d) come about
40. Identify the sentence with the right punctuation.
a) The Sun who, came out in the morning, gave a clear message now it’s a day.
b) The sun who came out in the morning gave a clear message, now it is a day.
c) The Sun who came out in the morning, gave a clear message, now it is a day.
d) The sun who came out in the morning gave a clear message; now it is a day.
******************

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

 MOCK TEST SERIES – 1 – ENGLISH – ANSWER KEY

1. Ans: (c)
2. Ans: (a)
3. Ans: (c)
4. Ans: (c)
5. Ans: (a)
6. Ans: (d)
7. Ans: (b)
8. Ans: (a)
9. Ans: (c)
10. Ans: (d)
11. Ans: (d)
12. Ans: (b)
13. Ans: (d)
14. Ans: (a)
15. Ans: (c)
16. Ans: (a)
17. Ans: (b)
18. Ans: (a)
19. Ans: (c)
20. Ans: (b)
21. Ans: (b)
22. Ans: (a)
23. Ans: (c)
24. Ans: (b)
25. Ans: (c)
26. Ans: (a)
27. Ans: (b)
28. Ans: (d)
29. Ans: (b)
30. Ans: (c)
31. Ans: (c)
32. Ans: (c)
33. Ans: (b)
34. Ans: (d)
35. Ans: (b)
36. Ans: (b)
37. Ans: (a)
38. Ans: (a)
39. Ans: (d)
40. Ans: (d)

********************

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

 MOCK TEST SERIES – 1
KANNADA
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

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38. PËgÀªÀ£À ¸ÉÃ£É GvÀÛgÀ¤UÉ PÀAqÀzÀÄÝ
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39. ªÉÊzÀågÀ ºÉAqÀwAiÀÄ ºÉ¸ÀgÀÄ
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40. ªÀÄ£ÉAiÀÄ°è MAzÀÄ PÁ¸ÀÆ, MAzÀÄ PÁ¼ÀÆ G½AiÀÄzÀAvÉ EzÀÄÝzÉÝ®èªÀ£ÀÆß zÉÆÃaPÉÆAqÀÄ ºÉÆÃzÀªÀgÀÄ
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**************

2
PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed
 MOCK TEST SERIES – 1

KANNADA
Qà GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼ÀÄ:
1. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
2. GvÀÛgÀ: (©)
3. GvÀÛgÀ: (¹)
4. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
5. GvÀÛgÀ: (©)
6. GvÀÛgÀ: (¹)
7. GvÀÛgÀ: (©)
8. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
9. GvÀÛgÀ: (©)
10. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
11. GvÀÛgÀ: (r)
12. GvÀÛgÀ: (r)
13. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
14. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
15. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
16. GvÀÛgÀ: (r)
17. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
18. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
19. GvÀÛgÀ: (r)
20. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
21. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
22. GvÀÛgÀ: (r)
23. GvÀÛgÀ: (¹)
24. GvÀÛgÀ: (¹)
25. GvÀÛgÀ: (r)
26. GvÀÛgÀ: (r)
27. GvÀÛgÀ: (r)
28. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
29. GvÀÛgÀ: (©)
30. GvÀÛgÀ: (©)
31. GvÀÛgÀ: (¹)
32. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
33. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
34. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
35. GvÀÛgÀ: (¹)
36. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
37. GvÀÛgÀ: (©)
38. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
39. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
40. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)

**********************

3
PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed
 MOCK TEST SERIES – 2
KANNADA
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

PɼÀV£À ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ½UÉ £Á®ÄÌ DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁVzÉ. EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀÆPÀÛªÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß Dj¹, PÀæªÀiÁPÀëgÀzÉÆA¢UÉ UÀÄgÀÄw¹. 40 x 1 = 40
1. ‘PɼÀPɼÀUÉ’ ¥ÀzÀªÀÅ F ªÁåPÀgÀuÁA±ÀPÉÌ GzÁºÀgÀuÉAiÀiÁVzÉ.
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3. ‘¨ÁµÀà’ ¥ÀzÀ ¤ÃqÀĪÀ CxÀð
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5. «µÀ ¸ÀªÀjzÀ ¨Át ªÀÄgÀPÉÌ vÀUÀÄ°zÀgÀ ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄ
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7. qÁ. ²æà ¥ÀArvÀgÁzsÀå ²ªÁZÁAiÀÄð ¸Áé«ÄUÀ¼À ¥ÀæªÁ¸À PÀxÀ£À
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8. ‘ºÀ½îUÀ¼À C©üªÀÈ¢ÞAiÉÄà zÉñÀzÀ C©üªÀÈ¢Þ’ JAzÀÄ ºÉýzÀªÀgÀÄ.
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9. AiÉÆÃzsÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ gÉÊvÀjUÉ DvÀ䧮 vÀÄA§¨ÉÃPÁzÀªÀgÀÄ
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10. ‘UÁ£ÀAiÉÆÃV ¥ÀArvÀ ¥ÀÅlÖgÁd UÀªÁ¬Ä’ ¥ÁoÀªÀ£ÀÄß §gÉzÀªÀgÀÄ
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11. ¥ÀÅlÖAiÀÄå£À ªÀiÁªÀ£À ºÉ¸ÀgÀÄ
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12. ²µÀå£À ªÀÄ£À¸Àì£ÀÄß NzÀ§®èªÀgÀÄ
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13. ¸À¸ÀÛ¤UÀ¼À D±ÀæAiÀÄvÁt
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14. §tÚzÀ UÁf£À ZÀÆgÀÄ, §mÉÖAiÀÄ aA¢UÀ½AzÀ vÀªÀÄä UÀÆqÀ£ÀÄß C®APÀj¸ÀĪÀ ¥ÀQëUÀ¼ÀÄ
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15. C¸ÀàöȱÀåvÉ DZÀj¸ÀĪÀ ªÀÄ£ÀĵÀåjUÉ ºÀQÌUÀ¼À UÀÆqÀÄ PÀ°¸ÀĪÀ ¥ÁoÀ
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16. ‘PÀ£ÀßqÀzÀ ªÀqïðìªÀvïð’ ºÁUÀÆ ‘gÁµÀÖçPÀ«’ JAzÀÄ SÁåvÀgÁzÀªÀgÀÄ.
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17. PÀ£ÀßqÀzÀ ªÉÆzÀ® G¥À®§Þ £ÁlPÀ
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18. §£ÀzÀ UÉÆÃ¥Á®
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19. ‘wæ±ÀAPÀÄ’ ¥ÀzÀzÀ CxÀð
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20. Kt PÀgÀUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
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21. PÁqÀ£ÀÄß C¯ÉzÀ ¹zÁÞxÀð¤UÉ
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22. §ÄzÀÞ£ÀÄ CjvÀÄPÉÆAqÀ §zÀÄQ£À ¸ÀvÀå
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23. ¨ÉÆâüªÀÈPÀëzÀ ºÁqÀÄ FvÀ£À fêÀ£ÀªÀ£ÀÄß PÀÄjvÀÄ w½¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
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1
PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed
24. w«ÄgÀPÉÌ ªÉÊj.
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25. PÀ« ¹.¦.PÉ AiÀĪÀgÀÄ ªÀiÁ£ÀªÀ£À §zÀÄPÀ£ÀÄß ºÉÆð¹zÀÄÝ EzÀPÉÌ
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26. ¹.¦.PÉ AiÀĪÀgÀ ¥ÀÇtð ºÉ¸ÀgÀÄ
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27. PÀÄtÂUÀ¯ï PÉgÉ ¨ÁVzÀÄzÀÄ
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28. PÀÄtÂUÀ¯ï PÉgÉAiÀÄ CAzÀªÀ£ÀÄß £ÉÆÃqÀ®Ä §AzÀªÀgÀÄ
J) EAzÀæ ©) ªÀgÀÄt ¹) ²ªÀ r) ªÁAiÀÄÄ
29. ‘ªÀÄÆqÀ®’ JAzÀgÉ
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30. ¸ÉÆ£Àß°UÉAiÀÄ ¹zÀÞgÁªÀÄgÀ CAQvÀ
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31. ªÉõÀ zsÀj¹zÀAvÉ
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32. PÉgÉUÀ¼ÀÄ ¤µÀàçAiÉÆÃdPÀªÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
J) ¥ÀÅtåwÃxÀðUÀ¼ÀÄ §gÀ¢zÁÝUÀ ©) PÉgÉAiÀÄ Kj MqÉzÁUÀ
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33. gÀƦzÀÄÝ ¥sÀ®ªÉãÀÄ ______ «®èzÀ£ÀßPÀÌ
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34. CdÄð£À£ÀÄ £ÁqÀ£ÀjAiÉÄAzÀÄ PÀgÉzÀzÀÄÝ FvÀ£À£ÀÄß
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35. PÀĪÀiÁgÀªÁå¸À£À ªÀÄÆ® ºÉ¸ÀgÀÄ
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36. zsÀÄgÀPÉÌ ¨É£ÀÄß ºÁQzÀgÉ ¥Áæ¦ÛAiÀiÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
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37. EAzÀæ¥ÀzÀ« ¨ÉÃqÀªÉAzÀªÀgÀÄ
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40. ªÉÆUÀ¸Á¯ÉAiÀÄ°è ªÀÄ®V UÉÆgÀPÉ ºÉÆqÉAiÀÄÄwÛzÀݪÀgÀÄ
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**************

2
PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed
 MOCK TEST SERIES – 2 – KANNADA
Qà GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼ÀÄ

1. GvÀÛgÀ: (©)
2. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
3. GvÀÛgÀ: (r)
4. GvÀÛgÀ: (©)
5. GvÀÛgÀ: (¹)
6. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
7. GvÀÛgÀ: (¹)
8. GvÀÛgÀ: (¹)
9. GvÀÛgÀ: (r)
10. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
11. GvÀÛgÀ: (©)
12. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
13. GvÀÛgÀ: (r)
14. GvÀÛgÀ: (r)
15. GvÀÛgÀ: (©)
16. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
17. GvÀÛgÀ: (¹)
18. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
19. GvÀÛgÀ: (r)
20. GvÀÛgÀ: (r)
21. GvÀÛgÀ: (r)
22. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
23. GvÀÛgÀ: (r)
24. GvÀÛgÀ: (r)
25. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
26. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
27. GvÀÛgÀ: (©)
28. GvÀÛgÀ: (¹)
29. GvÀÛgÀ: (©)
30. GvÀÛgÀ: (©)
31. GvÀÛgÀ: (©)
32. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
33. GvÀÛgÀ: (¹)
34. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
35. GvÀÛgÀ: (J)
36. GvÀÛgÀ: (©)
37. GvÀÛgÀ: (r)
38. GvÀÛgÀ: (¹)
39. GvÀÛgÀ: (r)
40. GvÀÛgÀ: (¹)

******************

3
PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed
 MOCK TEST SERIES – 1
HINDI
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

ÌlÉqlÉÍsÉÎZÉiÉ mÉëzlÉÉåÇ Måü ÍsÉL cÉÉU-cÉÉU ÌuÉMüsqÉ ÌSL aÉL Wæû, ElÉqÉåÇ xÉå xÉWûÏ E¨ÉU Måü uÉ×¨É MüÉå MüÉsÉå rÉÉ lÉÏsÉå mÉålÉ xÉå
AÇÌMüiÉ MüUlÉÉ Wæû | 40 x 1 = 40
1. ‘qÉWûÉåixÉuÉ’ zÉoS qÉåÇ xÉÇÍkÉ Wæû -
a) aÉÑhÉ xÉÇÍkÉ b) uÉ×SèÍkÉ xÉÇÍkÉ c) SÏbÉï xÉÇÍkÉ d) ArÉÉÌS xÉÇÍkÉ
2. ‘cÉsÉlÉÉ’ zÉoS MüÉ mÉëjÉqÉ mÉëåUhÉÉjÉïMü Ì¢ürÉÉ ÂmÉ Wæû -
a) cÉsÉlÉÉ b) cÉsÉ sÉålÉÉ c) cÉsÉÉlÉÉ d) cÉsÉuÉÉlÉÉ
3. ÌlÉqlÉÍsÉÎZÉiÉ qÉåÇ ²Ç² xÉqÉÉxÉ MüÉ ESÉWûUhÉ Wæû -
a) SåzÉpÉYiÉ b) AÉeÉlqÉ c) qÉÉiÉÉ-ÌmÉiÉÉ d) cÉÉæUÉWûÉ
4. ÌlÉqlÉÍsÉÎZÉiÉ zÉoSÉåÇ qÉåÇ oÉWÒûuÉcÉlÉ ÃmÉ Wæû -
a) ÍsÉTüÉTåü b) ÍsÉTüÉÄTüÉ c) ÍsÉTüÉTüÉåÇ d) ÍsÉTüÉåÇ
5. SÒMüÉlÉSÉU lÉå sÉåZÉMü eÉÏ MüÉå ÌMüiÉlÉå xÉåoÉ ÌSL?
a) 6 b) 5 c) 3 d) 4
6. ÌaÉsÉWûUÏ MüÉ oÉŠÉ -
a) aÉqÉsÉå AÉæU SÏuÉÉU MüÐ xÉÇÍkÉ Måü oÉÏcÉ qÉåÇ mÉÄQûÉ jÉÉ |
b) aÉqÉsÉå AÉæU SUuÉÉeÉå Måü xÉÇÍkÉ Måü oÉÏcÉ qÉåÇ mÉÄQûÉ jÉÉ |
c) aÉqÉsÉå AÉæU SåWûUÏ MüÐ xÉÇÍkÉ Måü oÉÏcÉ qÉåÇ mÉÄQûÉ jÉÉ |
d) aÉqÉsÉå AÉæU SÏuÉÉlÉ Måü xÉÇÍkÉ qÉåÇ mÉÄQûÉ jÉÉ |
7. AoSÒsÉ MüsÉÉqÉ oÉcÉmÉlÉ qÉåÇ
a) mÉÑUÉlÉå bÉU qÉåÇ UWûiÉå jÉå | b) mÉÑeÉÉUÏ Måü bÉU qÉåÇ UWûiÉå jÉå |
c) mÉÑziÉælÉÏ Måü bÉU qÉåÇ UWûiÉå jÉå | d) mÉÑUÉåÌWûiÉ Måü bÉU qÉåÇ UWûiÉå jÉå |
8. MüsÉÉqÉ Måü AÇiÉUÇaÉ ÍqÉ§É jÉå -
a) UÉqÉÉlÉÇS zÉÉx§ÉÏ b) AUÌuÉÇSlÉ c) ÍzÉuÉmÉëMüÉzÉ d) AWûqÉS eÉsÉÉsÉѬÏlÉ
9. xÉÉåÍzÉsÉ xÉÉCOûxÉ Måü MüÉUhÉ sÉÉåaÉÉåÇ Måü -
a) UWûlÉ - xÉWûlÉ mÉU mÉëpÉÉuÉ mÉÄQûÉ Wæû | b) uÉåzÉ - pÉÔwÉÉ mÉU mÉëpÉÉuÉ mÉÄQûÉ Wæû |
c) ZÉÉlÉ - mÉÉlÉ, MüsÉÉ uÉ xÉÇxM×üÌiÉ mÉU mÉëpÉÉuÉ mÉÄQûÉ Wæû | d) EmÉrÉÑïYiÉ xÉpÉÏ |
10. xÉÉæUqÉÇQûsÉ MüÉ xÉoÉxÉå oÉÄQûÉ aÉÑWû Wæû -
a) zÉÌlÉ b) qÉÇaÉsÉ c) oÉ×WûxmÉÌiÉ d) zÉÑ¢ü
11. iÉÑsÉxÉÏSÉxÉ eÉÏ Måü AlÉÑxÉÉU WÇûxÉ MüÉ aÉÑhÉ -
a) ÌuÉMüÉUÉåÇ MüÉå NûÉåÄQMüU AcNåû aÉÑhÉÉåÇ MüÉå AmÉlÉÉiÉÉ Wæû | b) ÌuÉMüÉUÉåÇ MüÉå NûÉåÄQûMüU oÉÑUå aÉÑhÉÉåÇ MüÉå AmÉlÉÉiÉÉ Wæû |
c) ÌuÉMüÉUÉåÇ MüÉå NûÉåÄQûMüU AcNåû aÉÑhÉÉåÇ MüÉå PÒûMüUÉiÉÉ Wæû | d) ÌuÉMüÉUÉåÇ MüÉå AmÉlÉÉMüU AcNåû aÉÑhÉÉåÇ MüÉå NûÉåÄQûiÉÉ Wæû |
12. ÍxÉrÉÉUÉqÉzÉUhÉ aÉÑmiÉ Måü AlÉÑxÉÉU xÉqÉrÉ -
a) DzÉ MüÉ ÌSrÉÉ WÒûAÉ AlÉÑmÉqÉ bÉlÉ Wæû | b) DzÉ MüÉ ÌSrÉÉ WÒûAÉ AlÉÑmÉqÉ qÉlÉ Wæû |
c) DzÉ MüÉ ÌSrÉÉ WÒûAÉ AlÉÑmÉqÉ iÉlÉ Wæû | d) DzÉ MüÉ ÌSrÉÉ WÒûAÉ AlÉÑmÉqÉ kÉlÉ Wæû |
13. pÉÉUiÉ Måü ZÉåiÉ -
a) WûUå - pÉUå AÉæU xÉÑÇSU Wæû | b) xÉÔlÉå - xÉÔlÉå Wæû
c) TüsÉ - TÔüsÉÉåÇ xÉå rÉÑiÉ lÉWûÏÇ Wæû | d) xÉÔZÉå - ÃZÉå AÉæU NûÉåOåû Wæû |
14. OûÉåqÉåOûÉå ÌMüxÉMüÉ AÉuÉzrÉMü AÇaÉ oÉlÉ aÉrÉÉ Wæû -
a) aÉUÏoÉÉåÇ MüÉ b) pÉÉåeÉlÉ MüÉ c) AqÉÏUÉåÇ MüÉ d) xÉpÉÏ MüÉ
15. sÉåÎZÉMüÉ lÉå ÌaÉsÉWûÉUÏ MüÐ xÉqÉÉÍkÉ -
a) xÉÉålÉeÉÑWûÏ sÉiÉÉ Måü lÉÏcÉå b) xÉÉålÉeÉÑWûÏ TÔüsÉ Måü lÉÏcÉå
c) xÉÉålÉeÉÑWûÏ mɨÉå Måü lÉÏcÉå d) xÉÉålÉeÉÑWûÏ QûÉsÉ Måü lÉÏcÉå
16. ÌaÉssÉÔ ÌMüxÉ ÌuÉkÉÉ MüÉ mÉÉPû Wæû -
a) MüWûÉlÉÏ b) LMüÉÇMüÐ c) EmÉlrÉÉxÉ d) UåZÉÉÍcɧÉ

1
PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed
17. mÉÇÌQûiÉ UÉeÉÌMüzÉÉåU eÉÏ LMü -
a) ÌMüxÉÉlÉÉåÇ Måü lÉåiÉÉ jÉå | b) qÉeÉSÕUÉåÇ Måü lÉåiÉÉ jÉå |
c) qÉåWûqÉÉlÉÉåÇ Måü lÉåiÉÉ jÉå | d) UÉåeÉaÉÉUÉåÇ Måü lÉåiÉÉ jÉå |
18. CÇOûUlÉåOû MüÉ AjÉï Wæû -
a) AÇiÉeÉÉïsÉ b) uÉUSÉlÉ c) MüÉqÉ - MüÉeÉ d) ÍzɤÉMü
19. CÇOûUlÉåOû oÉæÇÌMÇüaÉ ²ÉUÉ pÉåeÉÉ eÉÉ xÉMüiÉÉ Wæû -
a) UMüqÉ b) ÍcÉ§É c) xÉÉqÉÉlÉ d) EmÉrÉÑïYiÉ xÉpÉÏ
20. WûËUzÉÇMüU mÉUxÉÉD eÉÏ lÉå AmÉlÉå mÉWûlÉlÉå Måü MümÉQåû -
a) UeÉÉD Måü lÉÏcÉå SoÉÉMüU xÉÉårÉå | b) MÇüoÉsÉ Måü lÉÏcÉå SoÉÉMüU xÉÉårÉå |
c) cÉÉSU Måü lÉÏcÉå SoÉÉMüU xÉÉårÉå | d) ÍxÉUWûÉlÉå SoÉÉMüU xÉÉårÉå |
21. WûËUzÉÇMüU mÉUxÉÉD eÉÏ MüÉå PûWûUÉrÉÉ aÉrÉÉ -
a) bÉU Måü LMü oÉÄQåû MüqÉUå qÉåÇ b) WûÉåOûsÉ Måü oÉÄQåû MüqÉUå qÉåÇ
c) WûÉåOûsÉ Måü LMü NûÉåOåû xÉå MüqÉUå qÉåÇ d) LMü oÉÄQåû qÉæSÉlÉ qÉåÇ PûWûUÉrÉÉ aÉrÉÉ
22. LuÉåUåxOûû MüÐ cÉÉåOûÏ mÉU cÉÄRûlÉåuÉÉsÉÏ ÌoÉNåÇûSìÏ mÉÉsÉ MüÉå -
a) ÌuÉzuÉ MüÐ mÉWûsÉÏ qÉÌWûsÉÉ WûÉålÉå MüÉ aÉÉæUuÉ mÉëÉmiÉ b) mÉWûsÉÏ pÉÉUiÉÏrÉ qÉÌWûsÉÉ WûÉålÉå MüÉ aÉÉæUuÉ mÉëÉmiÉ
c) ÌuÉzuÉ MüÐ SÕxÉUÏ qÉÌWûsÉÉ WûÉålÉå MüÉ aÉÉæUuÉ mÉëÉmiÉ d) SÕxÉUÏ pÉÉUiÉÏrÉ qÉÌWûsÉÉ WûÉålÉå MüÉ aÉÉæUuÉ mÉëÉmiÉ
23. MülÉïsÉ MüÉ lÉÉqÉ -
a) MÑüqÉÉU b) xÉiÉÏzÉ c) ZÉÑssÉU d) iÉålÉÎeÉÇaÉ lÉÉåaÉï
24. SͤÉhÉ xÉå E¨ÉU Måü NûÉåU iÉMü TæüsÉÏ sÉÇoÉÏ mÉuÉïiÉqÉÉsÉÉAÉåÇ MüÉå -
a) E¨ÉUÏ bÉÉOû MüWûiÉå Wæû | b) mÉͶÉqÉÏ bÉÉOû MüWûiÉå Wæû |
c) AÇoÉÑsÉÏ bÉÉOû MüWûiÉå Wæû | d) cÉÉqÉÑïQûÏ bÉÉOû MüWûiÉå Wæû |
25. MülÉÉïOûMü MüÐ UÉeÉkÉÉlÉÏ Wæû -
a) qÉæxÉÔU b) oÉåÇaÉsÉÔU c) ÌuÉeÉrÉÉmÉÑUÉ d) oÉssÉÉUÏ
26. ´ÉuÉhÉoÉåsÉaÉÉåsÉ MüÐ aÉÉåqÉOåûµÉU qÉÔiÉÏï MüÐ FÆcÉÉD -
a) 56 TÑüOû b) 75 TÑüOû c) 57 TÑüOû d) 37 TÑüOû
27. “xÉirÉ LMü ÌuÉzÉÉsÉ uÉ×¤É Wæû, ExÉMüÉ ÎeÉiÉlÉÉ AÉSU ÌMürÉÉ eÉÉiÉÉ Wæû, EiÉlÉÉ WûÏ TüsÉ ExÉqÉåÇ sÉaÉiÉå Wæû | ElÉMüÉ AÇiÉ lÉWûÏÇ
WûÉåiÉÉ |” rÉWû MüjÉlÉ -
a) UÉeÉÉ WûËU¶ÉÇSì eÉÏ MüÉ Wæû | b) qÉWûÉiqÉÉ aÉÉðkÉÏ eÉÏ MüÉ Wæû |
c) eÉÉlÉ qÉålxÉTüÐsQû eÉÏ MüÉ Wæû | d) UÉeÉÉ SzÉUjÉ eÉÏ MüÉ Wæû |
28. pÉaÉuÉiÉÏcÉUhÉ uÉqÉÉï eÉÏ Måü EmÉlrÉÉxÉ mÉU SÉå oÉÉU ÌTüsqÉ oÉlÉÏ -
a) pÉÔsÉå ÌoÉxÉUå ÍcÉ§É b) ÍcɧÉsÉåZÉÉ c) rÉÑuÉUÉeÉ cÉÔhQûÉ d) qÉÉåcÉÉïoÉÇSÏ
29. qÉÉlÉuÉ - qÉÉlÉuÉ Måü oÉÏcÉ xlÉåWû MüÉ oÉÉðkÉ oÉÉðkÉlÉÉ -
a) qÉÉlÉuÉ MüÐ uÉ×ή Wæû | b) qÉÉlÉuÉ MüÐ ÍxÉ̬ Wæû | c) qÉÉlÉuÉ MüÐ oÉÑ̬ Wæû | d) qÉÉlÉuÉ MüÐ zÉÑ̬ Wæû |
30. ÌSlÉMüU eÉÏ Måü AlÉÑxÉÉU AÉkÉÑÌlÉMü qÉÉlÉuÉ LMü xÉqÉÉlÉ -
a) lÉSÏ, mÉuÉïiÉ AÉæU xÉÉaÉU sÉÉðbÉ xÉMüiÉÉ Wæû | b) lÉSÏ, mÉuÉïiÉ AÉæU xÉÉaÉU sÉÉðbÉ lÉWûÏÇ xÉMüiÉÉ |
c) lÉSÏ, mÉuÉïiÉ AÉæU xÉÉaÉU ÍqÉsÉÉ xÉMüiÉÉ Wæû | d) lÉSÏ, mÉuÉïiÉ AÉæU xÉÉaÉU ÍqÉsÉÉ lÉWûÏÇ xÉMüiÉÉ Wæû |
31. iÉÑsÉxÉÏSÉxÉ Måü oÉcÉmÉlÉ MüÉ lÉÉqÉ -
a) UÉqÉ b) WûlÉÑqÉÉlÉ c) MüoÉÏU d) UÉqÉoÉÉåsÉÉ
32. oÉWûÉlÉå oÉlÉÉlÉå MüÉ mÉëqÉÑZÉ MüÉUhÉ -
a) DqÉÉlÉSÉUÏ b) oÉÑUÉD c) xÉTüÉD d) AÉsÉxÉ
33. iÉÑsÉxÉÏSÉxÉ : UÉqÉpÉÎYiÉ zÉÉZÉÉ : : xÉÔUSÉxÉ : _______
a) ÌuÉwhÉÑpÉÎYiÉ zÉÉZÉÉ b) oÉë¼pÉÎYiÉ zÉÉZÉÉ c) M×üwhÉpÉÎYiÉ zÉÉZÉÉ d) ÍzÉuÉpÉÎYiÉ zÉÉZÉÉ
34. ÌlÉqlÉÍsÉÎZÉiÉ qÉåÇ xÉå ÌuÉwhÉÑ mÉëpÉÉMüU eÉÏ MüÐ UcÉlÉÉ lÉWûÏÇ Wæû -
a) AÉuÉÉUÉ qÉxÉÏWûÉ b) UÉqÉcÉËUiÉ qÉÉlÉxÉ c) iÉOû Måü oÉÇkÉlÉ d) ÌlÉÍzÉMüÉÇiÉ
35. ÌWûÇSÏ xÉÉÌWûirÉÉMüÉzÉ Måü xÉÔrÉï qÉÉlÉlÉåuÉÉsÉå jÉå -
a) iÉÑsÉxÉÏSÉxÉ b) MüoÉÏUSÉxÉ c) xÉÔUSÉxÉ d) mÉëåqÉcÉÇS
36. xÉÉaÉU qÉåÇ QÒûoÉÌMürÉÉð sÉaÉÉlÉåuÉÉsÉÉ Wæû -
a) cÉÏÇOûÏ b) aÉÉåiÉÉZÉÉåU c) sÉWûUÉåÇ d) mÉlÉÏ

2
PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed
37. YrÉÉ MüqÉÏ UWû aÉD _______ (mÉÇÎYiÉ MüÉå mɱ Måü AlÉÑxÉÉU mÉÔhÉï MüÐÎeÉL) |
a) eÉrÉ-eÉrÉMüÉU lÉWûÏÇ WûÉåiÉÏ | b) lÉÏÇS cÉælÉ MüÉå irÉÉaÉÉå iÉÑqÉ |
c) SåZÉÉå AÉæU xÉÑkÉÉU MüUÉå | d) NûÉåÄQMüU qÉiÉ pÉÉaÉÉå iÉÑqÉ |
38. ‘SÒMüÉlÉSÉU lÉå qÉÑfÉxÉå ¤ÉqÉÉ qÉÉðaÉÏ’ - CxÉ uÉÉYrÉ MüÉ MüllÉQû rÉÉ AÇaÉëåeÉÏ AlÉÑuÉÉS -
a) MAzÀÄ ¸ÉÃ§Ä PÀÆqÁ w£Àß®Ä AiÉÆÃUÀå«gÀ°®è / Not a single apple was fit for consumption.
b) CAUÀrAiÀĪÀ£ÀÄ £À£Àß°è PÀëªÉÄ PÉýzÀ / Merchant himself apologize to me.
c) M¼Éî gÀÄaPÀgÀ ¸ÉÃ§Ä §A¢ªÉ JAzÀÄ CAUÀrAiÀĪÀ£ÀÄ ºÉýzÀ / Merchant informed that good quality apples are
available.
d) UÀdÓj ¸ÀºÀ ªÉÆzÀ®Ä §qÀªÀgÀ ºÉÆmÉÖ vÀÄA§ÄªÀ ªÀ¸ÀÄÛªÁVvÀÄÛ. / Carrot was also a staple food of poor people
39. mÉ§É ÍsÉZÉlÉåuÉÉsÉå MüÉå -
a) mÉëåUMü MüWûiÉå Wæû | b) mÉëåËUiÉ MüWûiÉå Wæû | c) mÉëåwÉMü MüWûiÉå Wæû | d) pÉuÉSÏrÉ MüWûiÉå Wæû |
40. mÉëkÉÉlÉÉkrÉÉmÉMü eÉÏ MüÉå mÉ§É ÍsÉZÉlÉå mÉU ElÉMüÉå xÉÇoÉÉåkÉlÉ qÉåÇ -
a) ÌmÉërÉuÉU ÍsÉZÉåÇaÉå | b) ÍcÉUÇeÉÏuÉÏ ÍsÉZÉåÇaÉå |
c) oÉÇkÉÑuÉU ÍsÉZÉåÇaÉå | d) AÉSUhÉÏrÉ qÉWûÉåSrÉ ÍsÉZÉåÇaÉå |

**************

3
PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed
 MOCK TEST SERIES – 1 – HINDI – ANSWER KEYS

1. A. गुण संधि
2. C. चलाना
3. C. माता-पिता
4. A. ललफाफे
5. D. 4
6. A. गमले और दीवार की संधि के बीच मे िड़ा था।
7. C. िुश्तैनी के घर मे रहते थे।
8. D. अहमद जलालुद्दीन
9. D. उिर्क्
ु त सभी
10. C. बह
ृ स्ितत
11. A. पवकारो को छोड़कर अच्छे गुणों को अिनाता है ।
12. D. ईश का ददर्ा हुआ अनुिम िन है ।
13. A. हरे -भरे और सुंदर है ।
14. B. भोजन का
15. A. सोनजुही लता के नीचे
16. D. रे खाधचत्र
17. B. मजदरू ों के नेता थे।
18. A. अंतजाुल
19. A. रकम
20. D. लसरहाने दबाकर सोर्े।
21. B. होटल के बड़े कमरे में ।
22. B. िहली भारतीर् मदहला होने का गौरव प्राप्त
23. C. खल्
ु लर
24. B. िश्श्चमी घाट कहते है ।
25. B. गलरू
26. C. 57 फुट
27. B. महात्मा गााँिीजी का है ।
28. B. धचत्रलेखा
29. B. मानव की लसपि है ।
30. A. नदी िवुत और सागर लााँघ सकता है ।
31. D. रामबोला
32. D. आलस
33. C. कृष्णभश्क्त शाखा
34. B. तनलशकांत
35. C. सूरदास
36. B. गोताखोर
37. C. दे खो और सुिार करो।
38. B.
39. C. प्रेषक कहते है ।
40. D. आदरणीर् महोदर् ललखेंगे।

*******************

4
PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed
 MOCK TEST SERIES – 2
HINDI
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

ÌlÉqlÉÍsÉÎZÉiÉ mÉëzlÉÉåÇ Måü ÍsÉL cÉÉU-cÉÉU ÌuÉMüsqÉ ÌSL aÉL Wæû, ElÉqÉåÇ xÉå xÉWûÏ E¨ÉU Måü uÉ×¨É MüÉå MüÉsÉå rÉÉ lÉÏsÉå mÉålÉ xÉå
AÇÌMüiÉ MüUlÉÉ Wæû | 40 x 1 = 40
1. ‘MüqÉU MüxÉlÉÉ’ CxÉ qÉÑWûÉuÉUå MüÉ AjÉï Wæû -
a) zÉÉåU MüUlÉÉ b) iÉærÉÉU WûÉålÉÉ c) MüqÉU cÉÉåiÉ WûÉålÉÉ d) xÉTüsÉ WûÉålÉÉ
2. ‘cÉÉæqÉÉxÉÉ’ CxÉ xÉqÉÉxÉ MüÉ ESÉWûUhÉ Wæû -
a) oÉWÒÌuÉëÌWû b) ̲aÉÑ c) MüqÉïkÉÉUrÉ d) ²Ç²
3. ‘xÉ‹lÉ’ MüÉ ÌuÉsÉÉåqÉ zÉoS -
a) xÉuÉï¥É b) xÉSÉcÉÉU c) SÒeÉïlÉ d) ÌlÉeÉïlÉ
4. ‘AirÉÉcÉÉU’ zÉoS qÉåÇ xÉÇÍkÉ Wæû -
a) SÏbÉï xÉÇÍkÉ b) uÉ×ή xÉÇÍkÉ c) aÉÑhÉ xÉÇÍkÉ d) rÉhÉ xÉÇÍkÉ
5. TüsÉ ZÉÉlÉå MüÉ xÉqÉrÉ -
a) zrÉÉqÉ b) mÉëÉiÉÈ MüÉsÉ c) UÉiÉ d) SÉåmÉWûU
6. ‘MüzqÉÏUÏ xÉåoÉ’ mÉÉPû xÉå -
a) ZÉUÏSÉUÏ MüUiÉå xÉqÉrÉ xÉÉuÉkÉÉlÉÏ oÉUiÉlÉå MüÐ xÉÏZÉ ÍqÉsÉiÉÏ Wæû |
b) ZÉUÏSÉUÏ MüUiÉå xÉqÉrÉ AxÉÉuÉkÉÉlÉÏ oÉUiÉlÉå MüÐ xÉÏZÉ ÍqÉsÉiÉÏ Wæû |
c) ZÉUÏSÉUÏ MüUiÉå xÉqÉrÉ AxÉÉuÉkÉÉlÉÏ oÉUiÉlÉå MüÐ xÉÏZÉ lÉWûÏÇ ÍqÉsÉiÉÏ Wæû |
d) ZÉUÏSÉUÏ MüUiÉå xÉqÉrÉ xÉÉuÉkÉÉlÉÏ lÉ oÉUiÉlÉå MüÐ xÉÏZÉ ÍqÉsÉiÉÏ Wæû |
7. sÉåÎZÉMüÉ MüÉ krÉÉlÉ AÉMüÌwÉïiÉ MüUlÉå Måü ÍsÉL ÌaÉssÉÔ -
a) sÉåÎZÉMüÉ Måü WûÉjÉ iÉMü AÉMüU xÉUï xÉå mÉUSå mÉU cÉÄRûiÉÉ | b) sÉåÎZÉMüÉ Måü mÉæU iÉMü AÉMüU xÉUï xÉå mÉÇZÉå mÉU cÉÄRûiÉÉ |
c) sÉåÎZÉMüÉ Måü mÉæU iÉMü AÉMüU xÉUï xÉå mÉUSå mÉU cÉÄRûiÉÉ | d) sÉåÎZÉMüÉ Måü mÉæU iÉMü AÉMüU xÉUï xÉå mÉÇeÉå mÉU cÉÄRûiÉÉ |
8. qÉWûÉSåuÉÏ uÉqÉÉï eÉÏ ÌaÉssÉÔ Måü bÉÉuÉÉåÇ mÉU sÉaÉÉrÉÉ -
a) CÇeÉYzÉlÉ b) lÉqÉMü c) mÉÉlÉÏ d) mÉåÎlxÉÍsÉlÉ MüÉ qÉUWûqÉ
9. “AÉkÉÑÌlÉMü qÉÏUÉ” lÉÉqÉ xÉå mÉëÍxÉ® MüuÉÌrɧÉÏ Wæû -
a) iÉÑsÉxÉÏSÉxÉ b) WûËUzÉÇMüU mÉUxÉÉD c) qÉWûÉSåuÉÏ uÉqÉÉï d) ÌoÉNåÇûSìÏ mÉÉsÉ
10. AoSÒsÉ MüsÉÉqÉ eÉÏ Måü oÉcÉmÉlÉ qÉåÇ SÒsÉïpÉ uÉxiÉÑ jÉÏÇ-
a) mÉålÉ b) MümÉQåû c) mÉÑxiÉMåÇü d) OíåûlÉ
11. AoSÒsÉ MüsÉÉqÉ eÉÏ Måü ÌmÉiÉÉ MüÉ lÉÉqÉ -
a) eÉsÉÉsÉѬÏlÉ b) eÉælÉÑsÉÉoÉSÏlÉ c) zÉqxÉѬÏlÉ d) ÄeÉÉåWûUÉ
12. UÉeÉÌMüzÉÉåU Måü AlÉÑxÉÉU oÉxÉÇiÉ qÉåÇ ÌlÉÌWûiÉ SÒsÉïpÉ aÉÑhÉ Wæû -
a) mÉUÉåmÉMüÉU b) DqÉÉlÉSÉUÏ c) oÉÑUÉD d) xÉŠÉD
13. oÉxÉÇiÉ AÉæU mÉëiÉÉmÉ MüWûÉð UWûiÉå jÉå?
a) oÉÉeÉÉU b) ÌMüzÉlÉaÉÇeÉ c) AWûÏU OûÏsÉÉ d) aÉÉðuÉ
14. CÇOûUlÉåO - ¢üÉÇÌiÉ MüÉ AxÉU mÉÄQûÉ Wæû -
a) oÉŠÉåÇ b) oÉÔRûÉåÇ c) qÉÌWûsÉÉ d) oÉÔÄRûÉåÇ xÉå sÉåMüU NûÉåOåû oÉŠÉåÇ iÉMü
15. AÉD. OûÏ : ClÉTüÉUqÉåzÉlÉ OåûYlÉÉåsÉäÉeÉÏ : : AÉD. OûÏ. D. LxÉ : ______
a) ClÉTüÉUqÉåzÉlÉ OåûYlÉÉåsÉäÉeÉÏ LlÉåoÉsQû xÉÌuÉïxÉåxÉ b) ClÉTüÉUqÉåzÉlÉ OæûÌ¢üMüsÉ LlÉåoÉsQû xÉÌuÉïxÉåxÉ
c) ClÉTüÉUqÉåzÉlÉ OåûYlÉÉåsÉäÉeÉÏ CsÉåYOíûÉåÌlÉYxÉ xÉÌuÉïxÉåxÉ d) ClÉTüÉUqÉåzÉlÉ OåûÌ¢üMüsÉ CsÉåÎYOíûMüsÉ xÉÌuÉïxÉåxÉ
16. xÉqÉÉeÉ Måü ÌMülÉ ¤Éå§ÉÉåÇ qÉå CÇOûUlÉåOû MüÉ rÉÉåaÉSÉlÉ Wæû?
a) xÉqÉÉeÉ Måü MüD ¤Éå§ÉÉåÇ eÉæxÉå ÍcÉÌMüixÉÉ, M×üÌwÉ
b) AÇiÉËU¤É, ¥ÉÉlÉ, ÌuÉ¥ÉÉlÉ, ÍzɤÉÉ iÉjÉÉ U¤ÉÉSsÉÉåÇ MüÐ MüÉrÉïuÉÉWûÏ qÉåÇ CÇOûUlÉåOû MüÉ oÉWÒûiÉ oÉÄQûÉ rÉÉåaÉSÉlÉ Wæû
c) SÉå xÉWûÏ E¨ÉU Wæû |
d) LMü AÉæU SÉå xÉWûÏ E¨ÉU Wæû |
17. oÉëÏTüMåüxÉ qÉåÇ jÉÉ -
a) MüÉaÉeÉÉiÉ b) mÉæxÉå c) MümÉÄQåû d) mÉÑxiÉMü

1
PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed
18. WûËUzÉÇMüU mÉUxÉÉD eÉÏ SÕxÉUå SeÉåï qÉåÇ xÉTüU MüUlÉÉ cÉÉWûiÉå jÉå, YrÉÉåÇÌMü -
a) LMü xÉÉæ mÉcÉmÉlÉ ÂmÉrÉå oÉcÉÉlÉå Måü ÍsÉL b) SÉå xÉÉæ mÉcÉÉxÉ ÂmÉrÉå oÉcÉÉlÉåMåü ÍsÉL
c) LMü xÉÉæ AxxÉÏ ÂmÉrÉå oÉcÉÉlÉå Måü ÍsÉL d) LMü xÉÉæ mÉcÉÉxÉ ÂmÉrÉå oÉcÉÉlÉå Måü ÍsÉL
19. LuÉUåxOû ÍzÉZÉU mÉU mÉWÒðûcÉMüU ÌoÉNåÇûSìÏ lÉå jÉæsÉå xÉå -
a) WûlÉÑqÉÉlÉ cÉÉsÉÏxÉÉ AÉæU sɤqÉÏ qÉÉð MüÉ ÍcÉ§É ÌlÉMüÉsÉÉ | b) WûlÉÑqÉÉlÉ cÉÉsÉÏxÉÉ AÉæU xÉUxuÉiÉÏ qÉÉð MüÉ ÍcÉ§É ÌlÉMüÉsÉÉ
c) WûlÉÑqÉÉlÉ cÉÉsÉÏxÉÉ AÉæU pÉÑuÉlÉåzuÉÏ qÉÉð MüÉ ÍcÉ§É ÌlÉMüÉsÉÉ | d) WûlÉÑqÉÉlÉ cÉÉsÉÏxÉÉ AÉæU SÒaÉÉï qÉÉð MüÉ ÍcÉ§É ÌlÉMüÉsÉÉ |
20. ÌoÉNåÇûSìÏ Måü qÉÉiÉÉ - ÌmÉiÉÉ jÉå -
a) WÇûxÉÉSåD - ÌMüzÉlÉmÉÉsÉ b) WÒûsÉxÉÏ - AÉiqÉUÉqÉ
c) ÍzÉuÉ - mÉÉuÉïÌiÉ d) mÉÉuÉïÌiÉ - sɤÉÏ
21. MülÉÉïOûMü MüÐ pÉÉwÉÉ -
a) ÌWûlSÏ b) AÇaÉëåeÉÏ c) MüllÉQû d) iÉÍqÉsÉ
22. oÉåsÉÔU, WûsÉåoÉÏQÒû, xÉÉåqÉlÉÉjÉmÉÑU Måü qÉÇÌSUÉåÇ MüÐ qÉÔÌiÉïrÉÉð -
a) UÉqÉÉrÉhÉ, qÉWûÉpÉÉUiÉ, mÉÑUÉhÉÉåÇ MüÐ MüWûÉÌlÉrÉÉð xÉÑlÉÉiÉÏ Wæû |
b) UÉqÉÉrÉhÉ, qÉWûÉpÉÉUiÉ, mÉÑUÉhÉÉåÇ MüÐ MüWûÉÌlÉrÉÉð xÉÑlÉiÉÏ Wæû |
c) UÉqÉÉrÉhÉ, qÉWûÉpÉÉUiÉ, AÉkÉÑÌlÉMü MüWûÉÌlÉrÉÉð xÉÑlÉÉiÉÏ Wæû |
d) UÉqÉÉrÉhÉ, qÉWûÉpÉÉUiÉ, mÉÑUÉhÉÉåÇ MüÐ MüWûÉÌlÉrÉÉð lÉWûÏÇ xÉÑlÉÉiÉÏ Wæû |
23. MülÉÉïOûMü Måü xÉÇiÉÉåÇ lÉå AmÉlÉå AlÉqÉÉåsÉ uÉcÉlÉÉåÇ ²ÉUÉ -
a) mÉëåqÉ, SrÉÉ AÉæU kÉqÉï MüÐ xÉÏZÉ SÏ Wæû | b) pÉÎYiÉ, lÉÏÌiÉ, xÉSÉcÉÉU MüÐ xÉÏZÉ SÏ Wæû |
c) mÉëåqÉ, SrÉÉ AÉæU AkÉqÉï MüÐ xÉÏZÉ SÏ Wæû | d) mÉëåqÉ, SrÉÉ AÉæU xuÉÉjÉï MüÐ xÉÏZÉ SÏ Wæû |
24. mÉ×juÉÏ AÉæU xÉÔrÉï MüÐ TüÉxÉsÉÉ -
a) 20 MüUÉåÄQû ÌMüsÉÉåqÉÏOûU b) 15 MüUÉåÄQû ÌMüsÉÉåqÉÏOûU
c) 10 MüUÉåÄQû ÌMüsÉÉåqÉÏOûU d) 5 MüUÉåÄQû ÌMüsÉÉåqÉÏOûU
25. fÉÔPû oÉÉåsÉlÉåuÉÉsÉÉåÇ MüÐ WûÉsÉiÉ WûÉåiÉÏ Wæû -
a) ÌuÉzuÉÉxÉ pÉU eÉÉiÉÉ Wæû | b) ÌuÉzuÉÉxÉ EPû eÉÉiÉÉ Wæû |
c) ÌuÉzuÉÉxÉ erÉÉSÉ WûÉåiÉÉ Wæû | d) ÌuÉzuÉÉxÉ aÉWûUÉ WûÉåiÉÉ Wæû |
26. pÉaÉuÉiÉÏcÉUhÉ uÉqÉÉï eÉÏ Måü EmÉlrÉÉxÉ mÉU SÉå oÉÉU ÌTüsqÉ ÌlÉqÉÉïhÉ WÒûD jÉÏ -
a) pÉÔsÉå ÌoÉxÉUå ÍcÉ§É b) ÍcɧÉsÉåZÉÉ c) rÉÑuÉUÉeÉ cÉÔhQûÉ d) qÉÉåcÉÉïoÉÇSÏ
27. pÉÉUiÉ qÉÉð Måü WûÉjÉÉåÇ qÉåÇ -
a) lrÉÉrÉ mÉiÉÉMüÉ b) ¥ÉÉlÉ SÏmÉ
c) lrÉÉrÉ mÉiÉÉMüÉ AÉæU ¥ÉÉlÉ SÏmÉ d) MüÉåD pÉÏ lÉWûÏÇ
28. AÉkÉÑÌlÉMü mÉÑÂwÉ lÉå ÌuÉeÉrÉ mÉÉrÉÏ Wæû -
a) mÉëM×üÌiÉ mÉU b) eÉsÉ mÉU c) uÉÉrÉÑ mÉU d) aÉaÉlÉ mÉU
29. AÉeÉ MüÐ SÒÌlÉrÉÉ -
a) oÉWÒûiÉ AcNûÏ Wæû | b) ÌuÉÍcÉ§É AÉæU lÉuÉÏlÉ Wæû | c) oÉÑUÉ Wæû | d) MüÌPûlÉÉD Wæû |
30. iÉÑsÉxÉÏSÉxÉ eÉÏ Måü AlÉÑxÉÉU qÉÑZÉ Mü mÉÉsÉlÉ - mÉÉåwÉhÉ -
a) xÉMüsÉ aÉÉðuÉ MüÉ b) xÉMüsÉ qÉÑZÉ MüÉ c) xÉMüsÉ AÇaÉÉåÇ MüÉ d) xÉMüsÉ mÉåOû MüÉ
31. iÉÑsÉxÉÏSÉxÉ eÉÏ Måü AlÉÑxÉÉU ÌuÉmÉÌ¨É Måü xÉÉjÉÏ Wæû -
a) ÌuɱÉ, ÌuÉlÉrÉ AÉæU ÌuÉuÉåMü Wæû | b) ÌuÉ±É Wæû |
c) aÉÑÂeÉÏ Wæû | d) qÉÉiÉ×pÉÔÍqÉ Wæû |
32. ÍxÉrÉÉUÉqÉ zÉUhÉ aÉÑmiÉ Måü AlÉÑxÉÉU xÉqÉrÉ Måü ZÉÉålÉå xÉå -
a) xÉuÉïjÉÉ mÉNûiÉÉlÉÉ mÉÄQûiÉÉ Wæû | b) xÉuÉïjÉÉ mÉNûiÉÉlÉÉ lÉWûÏÇ mÉÄQûiÉÉ Wæû |
c) xÉuÉïjÉÉ mÉWûcÉÉlÉlÉÉ mÉÄQûiÉÉ Wæû | d) xÉuÉïjÉÉ mÉcÉÉlÉÉ mÉÄQûiÉÉ Wæû |
33. xÉqÉrÉ ÌMüxÉMüÉ ÌSrÉÉ WÒûAÉ AlÉÑmÉqÉ kÉlÉ Wæû -
a) pÉaÉuÉÉlÉ b) oÉMüÉxÉÑU c) MüÌuÉ d) ÌmÉiÉÉ
34. oÉxÉuÉhhÉÉ : uÉcÉlÉMüÉU : : MülÉMüSÉxÉ : ________
a) xÉÉÌWûirÉMüÉU b) MüÐiÉïlÉMüÉU c) xÉqÉÉeÉ xÉÑkÉÉUMü d) uÉcÉlÉMüÉU
35. cÉÑOûMüÐ Så-SåMüU WðûxÉlÉåuÉÉsÉå -
a) auÉÉsÉ ÍqÉ§É b) rÉzÉÉåSÉ c) lÉÇS d) MÑüqÉÉU

2
PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed
36. eÉoÉ iÉMü lÉ xÉTüsÉ WûÉå __________ (mÉÇÎYiÉ MüÉå mɱ Måü AlÉÑxÉÉU mÉÔhÉï MüÐÎeÉL) |
a) eÉrÉ-eÉrÉMüÉU lÉWûÏÇ WûÉåiÉÏ | b) lÉÏÇS cÉælÉ MüÉå irÉÉaÉÉåÇ iÉÑqÉ |
c) SåZÉÉå AÉæU xÉÑkÉÉU MüUÉå | d) MüpÉÏ WûÉU lÉWûÏÇ WûÉåiÉÏ
37. xÉÇbÉwÉï MüÉ qÉæSÉlÉ NûÉåÄQûMüU _________ (mÉÇÎYiÉ MüÉå mɱ Måü AlÉÑxÉÉU mÉÔhÉï MüÐÎeÉL) |
a) lÉÏÇS cÉælÉ MüÉå irÉÉaÉÉåÇ iÉÑqÉ | b) eÉrÉ-eÉrÉMüÉU lÉWûÏÇ WûÉåiÉÏ |
c) SåZÉÉå AÉæU xÉÑkÉÉU MüUÉå | d) qÉiÉ pÉÉaÉÉå iÉÑqÉ |
38. ‘ExÉMüÐ AÉrÉÑ sÉaÉpÉaÉ 12 uÉwÉï MüÐ WûÉå |’ - CxÉ uÉÉYrÉ MüÉ MüllÉQû rÉÉ AÇaÉëåeÉÏ AlÉÑuÉÉS -
a) CªÀ£À ªÀAiÀĸÀÄì 12 ªÀµÀð / He was nearly 12 years old.
b) CªÀ£À ªÀAiÀĸÀÄì ºÉZÀÄÑ PÀrªÉÄ 14 ªÀµÀðªÁVvÀÄÛ. /His age was around 14 years.
c) CªÀ£À ªÀAiÀĸÀÄì 11 ªÀµÀð / He was nearly 11 years old.
d) CªÀ£À ªÀAiÀĸÀÄì ºÉZÀÄÑ PÀrªÉÄ 16 ªÀµÀðªÁVvÀÄÛ. / His age was around 16 years.
39. mÉËUÍcÉiÉÉåÇ Måü ÍsÉL mÉ§É ÍsÉZÉlÉå mÉU ElÉMüÉå xÉÇoÉÉåkÉlÉ qÉåÇ -
a) ÌmÉërÉ oÉÇkÉÑ b) qÉWûÉåSrÉ c) ´ÉÏqÉÉlÉ d) pÉuÉSÏrÉ
40. aÉÑÂeÉlÉ MüÉå ÍsÉL AÍpÉuÉÉSlÉ Måü ÂmÉ qÉåÇ xÉÇoÉÉåkÉlÉ ²ÉUÉ -
a) cÉUhÉ xmÉzÉï b) iÉÑqWûÉUÉ ÍqÉ§É c) ÌWûiÉæwÉÏ d) zÉÑpÉ ÍcÉÇiÉMü

**************

3
PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed
 MOCK TEST SERIES – 2 – HINDI – ANSWER KEY

1. B
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. B
6. A
7. C
8. D
9. C
10. C
11. B
12. B
13. C
14. D
15. A
16. D
17. A
18. B
19. D
20. A
21. C
22. A
23. A
24. B
25. B
26. B
27. C
28. A
29. B
30. C
31. A
32. A
33. A
34. B
35. A
36. B
37. D
38. A
39. A
40. A

******************

4
PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed
 MOCK TEST SERIES – 1

MATHEMATICS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

a1 b1
1. If the ratio’s of pair of linear equations is  , then they have ______ solution/s
a2 b2
a) Unique b) No
c) Infinity d) Zero
2. Graphically, the pair of equations, 7x-y-5 = 0, 21x-3y = 10, represents two lines which are
a) Intersecting at one point b) Coincident
c) Parallel d) intersecting at two points
th
3. The n term of an A.P is given by an = 3 + 4n, the first term is
a) 7 b) 3
c) 4 d) 1
4. If 2x, x + 10, 3x + 2 are in A.P, then x equals to
a) 0 b) 2
c) 4 d) 6
5. Sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio 4:9. Then area of these triangles are in the ratio
a) 2:3 b) 9:4
c) 16:81 d) 81:16
6. In  ABC, DE || AB. If CD=3 cm, EC=4 cm, BE=6cm, then DA is equal to
a) 2 cm b) 4.5 cm
c) 6 cm d) 8 cm
7. The distance between two parallel tangents of a circle of radius 4 cm is
a) 8 cm b) 2 cm
c) 6 cm d) 4 cm
8. A secant intersects the circle at
a) one point b) two distinct point
c) no point d) none of these
9. The quadratic equations has degree
a) 0 b) 1
c) 2 d) 3
2
10. The equations 2x + kx + 3 = 0 has two equal roots, then k is
a)  6 b) 4
c) 3 2 d) 2 6
11. The point of intersection of both types (less than and more than) ogive curves, help in finding
a) Mean b) Median
c) Mode d) None
12. In the given figure, if RPS  25 , the value of ROS is
0

O
250 P

a) 1350 b) 1450
c) 1650 d) 1550
13. A tangent is drawn from a point at a distance of 17cms from centre of circle C of radius 8cm. It’s length is
a) 5 cm b) 9 cm
c) 15 cm d) 23 cm
PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed
14. To divide a line segment PQ in the ratio 5:7, first a ray AX is drawn so that BAX is an acute angle and then at
equal distances points are marked on the ray AX such that the minimum number of these points is
a) 13 b) 12
c) 11 d) 10
15. The coordinates of a point A, where AB is the diameter of a circle whose centre (2, -3) and B(1,4) is
a) (3, -9) b) (2, 9)
c) (3, -10) d) (4, 5)
16. The distance of the point P(2,4) from x-axis is
a) 2 b) 4
c) 1 d) 0
0 0
17. The value of cos 30 + sin 60 is
a) 3 b) 1
3 1
c) d) None
2
18. The angle of elevation of the top of tower from a point 20m away from it’s base is 45 0. The height of the
tower is
a) 10 m b) 20 m
c) 30 m d) 20 3 m
19. If r is the radius of the sphere, then the surface area of sphere is
a) 4r2 b) 2r2
4
c) r2 d) r2
3
20. The curved surface area of a right circular cone of height 15 cm and diameter 16 cm is
a) 60cm2 b) 68cm2
c) 1200cm2 d) 136 cm2
21. The father’s age is six times his son’s age. Four years later, the age of father will be four times his son’s age.
The present ages of the son and father (in years) respectively are
a) 4 and 24 b) 5 and 30
c) 6 and 36 d) 3 and 24
22. If a and b are solutions of the linear equations x – y = 2 and x + y = 4, then the values of a and b are
a) 3 and 5 b) 3 and 1
c) 5 and 3 d) -1 and -3
23. The quadratic equation 2x  5x  1  0 has
2

a) two distinct real roots b) two equal real roots

c) no real roots d) more than 2 real roots
24. __________ of the following equations has the sum of its roots as 3
a) 3x2 – 3x + 3 = 0 b) 2x2 – 3x + 6 = 0
c) –x2 + 3x – 3 = 0 d) x2 + 5x + 6 = 0
25. If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other two sides in distinct points, then the
other two sides are divided in the
a) same point b) same ratio
c) same distance d) same length
26. If ABC DEF such that 2AB = DE and BC = 8 cm, then EF = _______ cm
a) 12 b) 4
c) 16 d) 8
27. The length of the median through A of ABC with vertices A(7, -3), B(5, 3) and (3, -1) is _________
a) 3 units b) 5 units
c) 25 units d) 7 units
28. The value of k, if the point P(0,2) is equidistant from A(3, K) and B(K, 5) is
a) 0 b) 1
c) -3 d) 3
29. Mode and Mean of a data are 12 K and 15 K. Then Median of the data is ____
a) 12 K b) 15 K
c) 14 K d) 16 K

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

30. Mean of first 10 odd natural numbers is
a) 9 b) 10
c) 11 d) 12
31. A line drawn from the eye of an observer is said to be
a) angle of elevation b) angle of depression
c) line of light d) none of the above
32. If the length of the shadow is decreasing then the angle of elevation is ________
a) increasing b) decreaing
c) remains the same d) none of the above
33. sinA.cosA.tanA + cosA.sinA.cotA is equivalent to
a) sin2A – cos2A b) tan2A + cot2A
c) sin2A + cos2A d) sin2A + tan2A
34. If 13sin   5 , then the value of tan is
5 12
a) b)
12 5
12 5
c) d)
13 13
35. The value of cos480 – sin420 is
1
a) 0 b)
4
1
c) d) 1
2
36. Two circles of radius 5 cm and 2 cm touching externally. The distance between the centers is
a) 5 cm b) 7 cm
c) 3 cm d) 2 cm
37. The sum of first n natural number is
n(n  1)
a) Sn = n2 b) Sn 
2
n(n  1)
c) Sn = n(n + 1) d) Sn 
2
38. LSA of a cylinder whose circumference is 44 cm and height 10 cm is
a) 120 cm2 b) 440 cm2
c) 110 cm2 d) 220 cm2
39. A cone and a cylinder have their heights in the ratio 4:5 and this diameters are in the ratio 3:2. The ratio of
their volumes will be
a) 6:7 b) 4:3
c) 3:5 d) 5:3
40. If a sphere is melted and recast into cylinder, the thing which remains same is
a) length b) radius
c) area d) volume

********************

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

 MOCK TEST SERIES – 1 – MATHEMATICS – ANSWER KEY

1. Ans: (a)
2. Ans: (c)
3. Ans: (a)
4. Ans: (d)
5. Ans: (c)
6. Ans: (b)
7. Ans: (a)
8. Ans: (b)
9. Ans: (c)
10. Ans: (d)
11. Ans: (b)
12. Ans: (d)
13. Ans: (c)
14. Ans: (b)
15. Ans: (c)
16. Ans: (b)
17. Ans: (a)
18. Ans: (b)
19. Ans: (a)
20. Ans: (d)
21. Ans: (c)
22. Ans: (b)
23. Ans: (c)
24. Ans: (c)
25. Ans: (b)
26. Ans: (c)
27. Ans: (b)
28. Ans: (b)
29. Ans: (c)
30. Ans: (b)
31. Ans: (c)
32. Ans: (a)
33. Ans: (c)
34. Ans: (a)
35. Ans: (a)
36. Ans: (b)
37. Ans: (b)
38. Ans: (b)
39. Ans: (c)
40. Ans: (d)

*****************

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

 MOCK TEST SERIES – 2
MATHEMATICS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. If the nth term of an A.P is an = 24-3n, then its 2nd term is

a) 18 b) 15
c) 0 d) 2
2. In the given  ABC, DE || BC. If DE = 5cm, BC = 8cm and AD = 3.5cm, then the length of AB is
a) 5.6 cm b) 4.8 cm
c) 5.2 cm d) 6.4 cm
3. The lines represented by 2x + 3y – 9 = 0 and 4x + 6y -18 = 0 are
a) Intersecting lines b) Perpendicular lines
c) Parallel lines d) Coincident lines
4. A straight line which passes through two points on a circle is
a) chord b) secant
c) tangent d) radius
5. A funnel is a combination of frustum of cone and
a) Hemisphere b) Cylinder
c) Sphere d) Cone
6. The class mark of the class 15.5 – 20.5
a) 15.5 b) 20.5
c) 18 d) 5
0
7. If altitude of the sun is 60 , the height of a tower which casts a shadow of length 30m is
a) 10 3 m b) 20 3 m
c) 30 3 m d) 15 3
8. If sin   cos   0 , then the value of  is
a) 900 b) 300
c) 600 d) 450
9. The condition for equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 to be quadratic is
a) a < 0 b) a  0
c) a  0, b  0 d) a > 0
10. The midpoint of a line segment of the coordinates P(4,6) and Q(6,8) is
a) (10,14) b) (2,3)
c) (3,4) d) (5,7)
11. If TP and TQ are two tangents to circle with center O so that POQ  1100 , then PTQ is equal to

O
T

a) 1100 b) 900
c) 600 d) 700
3
12. Given a triangle with side PQ = 8cm. To get a line PQ '  of PQ, we decide the line segment PQ in the ratio
4
a) 3 : 4 b) 4 : 3
c) 1 : 3 d) 3 : 1
13. All ___________ triangles are similar
a) scalar b) isosceles
c) equilateral d) none

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

14. The sum of first n natural number is ________
n(n  1)
a) sn = n2 b) sn 
2
n(n  1)
c) sn = n(n + 1) d) sn 
2
15. The formula for curved surface area of cone is
a) rh b) 4r r  
c) r d) r2
16. The cumulative frequency table is useful in determining
a) mean b) median
c) mode d) none of the above
17. A ladder 14m long rests against a wall. If the foot of the ladder is 7m from the wall, then the angle of
elevation is
a) 600 b) 300
c) 450 d) 750
18. The value of sec2 350  cosec2 550 is
a) 1 b) 0
c) 2 d) not defined
19. The solution of the pair of linear equation x – y = 2 and x + y = 4
a) (3,1) b) (2,2)
c) (4,3) d) (2,0)
20. The tangent at any point of a circle is ________ to the radius through point of contact
a) Parallel b) Perprndicular
c) Tangent d) Secant
21. The value of y for which the distance between A(2, -3) and B(10,y) is 10 units
a) 0 b) -3
c) -4 d) 3 or -9
22. The quadratic equation having roots 2 and -3 is
a) x2 + x – 6 = 0 b) x2 – x + 6 = 0
c) x2 – 3x + 2 = 0 d) x2 + 5x + 6 = 0
23. If 2cos   1 and  is an acute angle, then the value of  is
a) 00 b) 300
c) 600 d) 450
24. A solid piece of iron of dimension 49 x 33 x 24 is moulded into a sphere. The radius of the sphere is
a) 21 cm b) 28 cm
c) 35 cm d) 36 cm
25. Sides of triangles are given below. Determine which of them are right triangle ?
a) 2, 3, 5 b) 6, 8, 10
c) 8, 4, 6 d) 6, 8, 9
26. How many two digit numbers are divisible by 3 ?
a) 33 b) 43
c) 40 d) 30
27. If (1,2), (4,y), (x,6) and (3,5) are the vertices of a parallelogram taken in order. Then (x,y) is
a) (6,2) b) (6,4)
c) (3,6) d) (6,3)
28. The relationship between mean, median and mode is
a) Mode = 3 Mean – 2 Median b) Mode = 2 Median + Mean
c) 3 Median = Mode + 2 Mean d) Mode = 3 Median + 2 Mean
29. The value of sin30 .cos60  sin60 .cos30 is
0 0 0 0

a) 1 b) 2
c) 0 d) None of these
2
30. The quadratic equation kx – 10x + 1 = 0 has equal roots, then the value of k is
a) -25 b) 25
c) 100 d) 10
PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed
31. A pair of linear equations is inconsistent if their graphs is
a) intersecting b) coincident
c) parallel d) perpendicular
32. How many tangents can be drawn from an external point to the circle ?
a) 2 b) 1
c) 3 d) 4
33. The formula to find area of circle is
a)  r2 b) 2  r
c) 4  r2 d) 3r2
34. The distance between the coordinates of a point (p, q) from the origin is
a) p2 – q2 b) p2  q2
c) p2  q2 d) q2 – p2
35. The median class of the following distribution is

0 -10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70

4 4 8 10 12 8 4

a) 20-30 b) 30-40
c) 40-50 d) 50-60
36. 4 pen and 5 pencils together cost Rs. 25. Represent this in the form of linear equation
a) 4x + 5y = 25 b) x + y = 25
c) x – y = 25 d) 4x – 5y = 25
37. In the figure, CP and CQ are tangents to the circle with center O. ARB is another tangent touching the circle at
R. If CP = 12cm and BC = 8cm; then find the length of BR

P
A

O R
C

B
Q

a) 7 b) 5
c) 12 d) 4
38. If Tn = 3n + 5. Find the value of S2 in A.P.
a) 19 b) 8
c) 16 d) 13
39. In the figure, tan P – cot R is ____________

P
13
12

5 12
a) b)
12 5
12
c) 0 d)
13
40. If the height of a cylinder whose lateral surface area is 132cm2 is 7 cm, then its radius is ______
a) 22 b) 3
c) 11 d) 4
*****************

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

 MOCK TEST SERIES – 2 – MATHEMATICS – ANSWER KEY
1. Ans: (a)
2. Ans: (b)
3. Ans: (d)
4. Ans: (b)
5. Ans: (b)
6. Ans: (c)
7. Ans: (a)
8. Ans: (d)
9. Ans: (b)
10. Ans: (d)
11. Ans: (d)
12. Ans: (d)
13. Ans: (c)
14. Ans: (b)
15. Ans: (c)
16. Ans: (b)
17. Ans: (a)
18. Ans: (b)
19. Ans: (a)
20. Ans: (b)
21. Ans: (d)
22. Ans: (a)
23. Ans: (c)
24. Ans: (a)
25. Ans: (b)
26. Ans: (d)
27. Ans: (d)
28. Ans: (c)
29. Ans: (a)
30. Ans: (b)
31. Ans: (c)
32. Ans: (a)
33. Ans: (a)
34. Ans: (c)
35. Ans: (b)
36. Ans: (a)
37. Ans: (d)
38. Ans: (a)
39. Ans: (c)
40. Ans: (b)

**************

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

 MOCK TEST SERIES – 1
SCIENCE
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

PHYSICS
1. When object moves closer to a concave lens the image by it shift
a) away from the lens on the same side of object b) towards lens
c) away from the lens on the other side of lens d) first towards and then away from the lens
2. If a ray travels from medium A to medium B, with angle of incidence 600 and angle of refraction 450 then
refractive index of medium B w.r.t medium A is
3 2
a) b)
2 3
1
c) d) 2
2
3. The image formed by convex lens can be
a) virtual and magnified b) virtual and diminished
c) virtual and of same size d) virtual image is not formed
4. If the power of a lens is -2D. What is its focal length?
a) +50 cm b) -100 cm
c) -50 cm d) +100 cm
5. A wire of length l and resistivity  is cut into two equal parts. The resistivity of the two parts are equal to
2
a)  b)

c) 2 d) 4
6. A battery of 10 volt carries 20,000 C of charge through a resistance of 20  . The work done in 10 seconds is
a) 2 x 103 J b) 2 x 105 J
c) 2 x 104 J d) 2 x 102 J
7. The resistance whose V-I graph is given below is

9
V volt 6
3

o 5 10 15 20
I (ampere)

5 3
a)  b) 
3 5
5 2
c)  d) 
2 5
8. The resistance of hot filament of the bulb is about 10 times the cold resistance. What will be the resistance of
100W-220V lamp, when not in use?
a) 48  b) 400 
c) 484  d) 48.4 
9. A fuse wire repeatedly gets burnt when used with a good heater. It is advised to use a fuse wire of
a) more length b) less radius
c) less length d) more radius
10. Magnetic effect of current was discovered by
a) Orested b) Faraday
c) Bohr d) Ampere

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

11. Inside the magnet the field lines move
a) from N-pole to S-pole b) from S-Pole to N-pole
c) away from S-pole d) away from N-pole
12. Which instrument is used to check the presence of magnetic field
a) ammeter b) galvanometer
c) voltmeter d) magnetic needle
13. An ideal source of energy should have
a) higher calorific value b) easy transportability
c) easy accessibility d) all of these
14. Fossil fuels are
a) non-renewable source b) renewable source
c) both and b d) neither a nor b

CHEMISTRY
15. The group of compounds that will dissociate partially in aqueous solution is
a) Hydrochloric acid, Nitric acid
b) Carbonic acid, Phosphoric acid
c) Hydrochloric acid, Phosphoric acid.
d) Copper sulphate solution, Sugar solution
16. Observe the following chemical equations and identify the correct statement.
(i) CuSO4 + Fe → FeSO4 + Cu
(ii) 2AgNO3 + Cu → Cu(NO3)2 + 2Ag
a) Copper is more reactive than Iron and Siler.
b) Iron is less reactive than Copper and Silver
c) Copper is more reactive than Silver but less than Iron
d) Silver is more reactive than Coper and Iron
17. The oxides of very reactive metal are reduced to metals by :
a) Electrolytic reduction
b) Heating with carbon
c) Heating with aluminium
d) Liquation
18. Identify a property of amorphous silicon in following:
a) Does not burn in dark.
b) Has dark grey colour
c) Oxidises at surface level when heated in the air.
d) Less reactive.
19. The atomic number of an element “X” is 16. In the modern periodic table the elements belongs to this block
and period.
a) p- block, 3rd period
b) p- block, 2nd period
c) s- block, 3rd period
d) s- block, 2nd period
20. Choose the ion with the largest size.
a) F-
b) O2-
c) Na+
d) Mg2+

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

21. In terms of acidic strength, which one of the following is in the correct increasing order?
(a) Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid
(b) Water < Hydrochloric acid < Acetic acid
(c) Acetic acid < Water < Hydrochloric acid
(d) Hydrochloric acid < Water < Acetic acid
22. When copper oxide and dilute hydrochloric acid react, colour changes to
(a) white
(b) bluish-green
(c) blue-black
(d) black
23. Non-metals form covalent chlorides because
(a) they can give electrons to chlorine
(b) they can share electrons with chlorine
(c) they can give electrons to chlorine atoms to form chloride ions
(d) they cannot share electrons with chlorine atoms
24. Which of the following statements are correct for carbon compounds?
(i) Most carbon compounds are good conductors of electricity.
(ii) Most carbon compounds are poor conductors of electricity.
(iii) Force of attraction between molecules of carbon compounds is not very strong.
(iv) Force of attraction between molecules of carbon compounds is very strong.
(a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
25. Name the functional group present in CH3COCH3 .
(a) Alcohol (b) Carboxylic acid
(c) Ketone (d) Aldehyde
26. Why does carbon form compounds mainly by covalent bonding?
(a) There are four electrons in the outermost shell of carbon.
(b) It requires large amount of energy to form C4+ or C4-.
(c) It shares its valence electrons to complete its octet.
(d) All the above
27. In Mendeleev’s Periodic Table, gaps were left for the elements to be discovered later. Which of the following
elements found a place in the Periodic Table later?
(a) Chlorine (b) Silicon (c) Oxygen (d) Germanium
28. Which of these belong to the same period?
Element A B C
Atomic Number 2 10 5
(a) A, B (b) B, C (c) C, A (d) A, B and C

BIOLOGY
29. Haemoglobin levels in the blood samples of two persons A and B are found to be 9 gm/dL and 13 gm/dL
respectively. Which statement is true with respect to amount of oxygen supply in their blood?
a) More in person B than in person A.
b) More in person A than in person B.
c) Equal in person A and person B.
d) No relation between oxygen supply and level of haemoglobin.
30. Transpiration pull accounts for:
a) Active absorption
b) Activate adsorption
c) Passive absorption
d) Both (a) and (c)

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

31. Urea formation takes place in
a) Liver
b) Kidney
c) Lungs
d) Skin
32. The growth of pollen tubes towards ovules is the example of:
a) Hydrotropism
b) Geotropism
c) Chemotropism
d) Phototropism’
33. Embryo sac is found in:
a) Endosperm
b) Embryo
c) Ovule
d) Seed
34. Which of following is not essential for individual but for the race?
a) Digestion
b) Reproduction
c) Respiration
d) Osmoregulation
35. A special property of DNA that ensures equal distribution of similar genetic material to offspring is:
a) Mutation
b) Recombination
c) Replication
d) Variation
36. Ozone layer is essential because it absorbs most of :
a) Infrared radiations
b) Heat
c) Solar radiations
d) Ultraviolet radiations
37. Which of the following chemicals causes depletion of the ozone layer?
(a) Carbon tetrachloride
(b) Methane
(c) Chlorofluoro carbon
(d) Carbon monoxide
38. The concept of sustainable development encourages:
a) Form of growth that meet current basic needs
b) Preservation of resources of need of future generation
c) A change in all respects of life.
d) Growth to meet current needs, preservation for needs of future and change in all respects of life.
39. The multi- crore project about Ganga Action Plan came in :
a) 1905
b) 1955
c) 1985
d) 1995
40. Which of the following is the ‘biodiversity hot spots?
(a) Rivers
(b) Forests
(c) Deserts
(d) Oceans
***************
PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed
 MOCK TEST 1 – SCIENCE – ANSWER KEY

PHYSICS
1. Ans: (b)
2. Ans: (a)
3. Ans: (a)
4. Ans: (c)
5. Ans: (a)
6. Ans: (b)
7. Ans: (b)
8. Ans: (c)
9. Ans: (d)
10. Ans: (a)
11. Ans: (b)
12. Ans: (d)
13. Ans: (d)
14. Ans: (a)
CHEMISTRY
15. Ans: (b) Carbonic acid, Phosphoric acid
16. Ans: (c) Copper is more reactive than Silver but less than Iron
17. Ans: (a) Electrolytic reduction
18. Ans: (c) Oxidises at surface level when heated in the air.
19. Ans: (a) p- block, 3rd period
20. Ans: (b) O2-
21. Ans: (a) Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid
22. Ans: (b) bluish-green
23. Ans: (b) they can share electrons with chlorine
24. Ans: ( b) (ii) and (iii)
25. Ans: ( c) Ketone
26. Ans: (d) All the above
27. Ans: (d) Germanium
28. Ans: (b) B, C

BIOLOGY
29. Ans: (a) More in person B than in person A.
30. Ans: (d) Both (a) and (c) 3.
31. Ans: (a) Liver
32. Ans: (c) Chemotropism
33. Ans: (c) Ovule
34. Ans: (b) Reproduction
35. Ans: (c) Replication
36. Ans: (d) Ultraviolet radiations
37. Ans: (c) Chlorofluoro carbon
38. Ans: (d) Growth to meet current needs, preservation for needs of future and change in all respects
of life.
39. Ans: (c) 1985
40. Ans: (b) Forests
*********************

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

 MOCK TEST SERIES – 2
SCIENCE
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

PHYSICS
1. SI unit of current is
a) Watt b) Coulomb
c) Volt d) Ampere
2. The work done to move a unit charge from one point to other in an electrical circuit is
a) current b) potential difference

c) resistance d) power
3. 1 coulomb charge is equivalent to
a) 2.6 x 1019 electrons b) 6.2 x 1019 electrons

c) 2.65 x 1018 electrons d) 6.25 x 1018 electrons

4. The resistance of a wire of length 30m and cross-section area 1mm2 made a material of
resistivity 2  107 m is
a) 2  b) 3 
c) 6  d) 5 
5. The symbol of variable resistor used in electrical circuit is

a) b)

c) d)
6. The potential of a live wire is
a) 0 b) 5 A
c) 220 V d) 1 V
7. Which rule gives the direction of a magnetic field due to a current carrying conductor
a) Right hand thumb rule b) Fleming’s left-hand rule

c) Fleming’s right-hand rule d) Screw rule

8. During short circuit the current in the circuit will be
a) 0 b) low
c) Very high d) normal
9. Fuel used in thermal power plant is
a) water b) Uranium
c) biomass d) fossil fuel
10. The source of energy which is least polluting is
a) nuclear energy b) thermal power energy
c) solar energy d) geothermal energy
11. Speed of wind energy needed for power generation from wind mills is
a) 10 kmph b) 10 kmph
c) 15 kmph d) 25 kmph
12. What type of image is formed in human eye
a) straight b) inverted
c) colourful d) larger than the object

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

13. Snell’s law of refraction is valid for
a) 0 < i < 900 b) 0 < i < 600
c) 450 < i < 750 d) 0 > i > 900
14. If object is placed at F1 of convex lens then image is formed at
a) at 2F2 b) at infinity
c) at F2 d) in between F2 and 2F2

CHEMISTRY
15. Sodium hydroxide is used
(a) as an antacid
(b) in manufacture of soap
(c) as a cleansing agent
(d) in alkaline batteries
16. The most abundant metal in the earth’s crust is
(a) Iron
(b) Aluminium
(c) Calcium
(d) Sodium
17. Al2 O3 + 2NaOH  …… + H2O
(a) Al(OH)3
(b) Na2 O
(c) NaAlO2
(d) AlNaO2
18. The process in which a carbonate ore is heated strongly in the absence of air to convert it into
metal oxide is called
(a) Roasting
(b) Reduction
(c) Calcination
(d) Smelting
19. The electronic configurations of three elements X, Y and Z are X — 2, 8; Y — 2, 8, 7 and Z — 2, 8,
2. Which of the following is correct?
(a) X is a metal
(b) Y is a metal
(c) Z is a non-metal
(d) Y is a non-metal and Z is a metal
20. Addition reactions are undergone by
(a) saturated hydrocarbons (alkanes)
(b) only alkenes
(c) only alkynes
(d) both alkenes and alkynes
21. Which of the following belongs to homologous series of alkynes? C6H6 , C2H6 , C2H4 , C3H4 .
(a) C6H6 (b) C2H4 (c) C2H6 (d) C3H4
22. In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms to form
(a) a hexagonal array
(b) a rigid three-dimensional structure
(c) a structure in the shape of a football
(d) a structure of a ring

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

23. Upto which element, the Law of Octaves was found applicable?
(a) Oxygen (b) Calcium (c) Cobalt (d) Potassium
24. The arrangement of elements in the Modem Periodic Table is based on their
(a) increasing atomic mass in the period
(b) increasing atomic number in the horizontal rows
(c) increasing atomic number in the vertical columns
(d) increasing atomic mass in the group
25. Carbon belongs to the second period and Group 14. Silicon belongs to the third period and
Group 14. If atomic number of carbon is 6, the atomic number of silicon is
(a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 24 (d) 16
26. In an acid solution, the pH is
(a) greater than pOH (b) less than pOH (c) equal to pOH (d) none of these
27. which type of following types of medicines is used for treatment of hyper acidity in the
stomach?
(a) antiseptic (b) analgesic (c) antibiotic (d) antacid
28. During electrolytic refining of zinc, it gets
(a) deposited on cathode (b) deposited on anode
(c) deposited on cathode as well as anode (d) remains in solution

BIOLOGY
29. Where is the dirty blood in our body filtered?
(a) Heart (b) Lungs (c) Ureter (d) Kidneys
30. Roots of plants are:
(a) positively geotropic (b) negatively geotropic
(c) positively phototropic (d) None of these
31. Posture and balance of the body is controlled by
(a) Pons (b) Medulla oblongata (c) Cerebellum (d) Cerebrum
32. The flower of the Hibiscus plant is
(a) bisexual (b) unisexual (c) neuter (d) very small
33. The seed that contains the future plant is called the
(a) cotyledons (b) seed coat (c) germ cells (d) embryo
34. Process of selecting individuals with desired characters by man is called
(a) Hybridization (b) Reproduction
(c) Artificial selection (d) Natural selection
35. The number of pairs of sex chromosomes in the zygote of a human being is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 4
36. An ecosystem includes
(a) all living organisms
(b) non-living objects
(c) both living organisms and non-living objects
(d) sometimes living organisms and sometimes nonliving objects
37. Acid rain is caused by the oxides of
(a) carbon (b) nitrogen only
(c) sulphur only (d) sulphur and nitrogen
38. Which one of the following is an example of renewable resource?
(a) Coal (b) Petroleum (c) Wildlife (d) Natural gas
39. Which of the following is the age old concept of water harvesting system in Madhya Pradesh?
(a) Bundhis (b) Ponds (c) Bandharas (d) Nadis
40. Which among the following diseases is not sexually transmitted?
(a) Syphyllis (b) Hepatitis (c) HIV-AIDS (d) Gonorrhoea
**********************

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

 MOCK TEST SERIES – 2 – SCIENCE – ANSWER KEY

PHYSICS
1. Ans: (d)
2. Ans: (b)
3. Ans: (d)
4. Ans: (c)
5. Ans: (d)
6. Ans: (c)
7. Ans: (a)
8. Ans: (c)
9. Ans: (b)
10. Ans: (d)
11. Ans: (c)
12. Ans: (b)
13. Ans: (a)
14. Ans: (b)
CHEMISTRY

15. Ans: (b) in manufacture of soap

16. Ans: (b) Aluminium
17. Ans: (c) NaAlO2
18. Ans: (c) Calcination
19. Ans: (c) Z is a non-metal
20. Ans: (d) both alkenes and alkynes
21. Ans: (d) C3H4
22. Ans: (b) a rigid three-dimensional structure
23. Ans: (b) Calcium
24. Ans: (b) increasing atomic number in the horizontal rows
25. Ans: (b) 14
26. Ans: (a) greater than pOH
27. Ans: (d) antacid
28. Ans: (a) deposited on cathode

BIOLOGY:

29. Ans: (d) Kidneys

30. Ans: (a) positively geotropic
31. Ans: (c) Cerebellum
32. Ans: (a) bisexual
33. Ans: (d) embryo
34. Ans: (c) Artificial selection
35. Ans: (c) 1
36. Ans: (c) both living organisms and non-living objects
37. Ans: (d) sulphur and nitrogen
38. Ans: (c) Wildlife
39. Ans: (a) Bundhis
40. Ans: (b) Hepatitis

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PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

 MOCK TEST SERIES – 1

SOCIAL SCIENCE

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1 x 40 = 40
1. The merchants who monopolized trade among European nations are
a) Italian Merchants b) Arab Merchants
c) French Merchants d) Indian Merchants
2. The first Anglo-Maratha war ended with
a) Treaty of Madras b) Treaty of Salbai
c) Treaty Mangalore d) Treaty of Lahore
3. The post of Superintendent of Police was created by
a) Lord Cornwallis b) Lord Wellesley
c) Lord Dalhousie d) Robert Clive
4. Rani Chenamma was a queen of
a) Halagali b) Kittur
c) Surpur d) Koppala
5. Raja Ram Mohan Roy started periodical named
a) Gulamgiri b) Kesari
c) Mookanayak d) Samvada Kaumudi
6. The revolt of 1857 was first began at
a) Lucknow b) Barakpur
c) Jhansi d) Meerut
7. The Indian National Congress was founded in the year
a) 1857 b) 1905
c) 1885 d) 1858
8. The radical leader of Indian freedom struggle Tilak declared
a) Give me blood, I will give you freedom b) Go back to Vedas
c) Development of villages is the true development of India
d) Swaraj is my birth right
9. The First Round Table conference was held in
a) 1930 b) 1931
c) 1932 d) 1942
10. Mahad and Kalaram movement was formed by
a) Gandhiji b) B. R. Ambedkar
c) G. K. Gokak d) Jwaharlal Nehru
11. The British Government’s last Governor general was
a) Rajgopal Achari b) Stafford Cripps
c) Mountbatten d) Lord Canning
12. The committee created in Karnataka to address the regional imbalance is :
a) Nanjundappa committee b) Lokayukta
c) Lokpal d) COFEPOSA
13. Panchasheela principles were signed between
a) Jwaharlal Nehru and Ayub Khan b) Jawaharlal Nehru and Chou Enlai
c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Muzubbir Rehman d) Jawaharlal Nehru and Churchill
14. The two biggest democratic countries of the world are
a) India and Russia b) China and India
c) India and Australia d) India and USA
15. Every year Human Rights Day is celebrated on
a) 15th March b) 15th August
c) 15th September d) 10th December
PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed
16. The UNO was founded in the year
a) 1919 b) 1939
c) 1945 d) 1948
17. The head office of the UNO is in the city
a) Washington b) Geneva
c) Rome d) New York
18. The practice of untouchability is prohibited by
a) Article 15 b) Article 17
c) Article 16 d) Article 38
19. One of the features of unorganized sector is
a) Labour b) Migration
c) Wages d) Without pay labour
20. Narmada Bachavo movement was lead by
a) Sundarlal Bahuguna b) Kusuma Sorab
c) Shivaram Karanth d) Medha Patkar
21. The law prohibiting female foeticide was implemented in the year
a) 1994 b) 2006
c) 2011 d) 2015
22. The India’s highest peak is
a) Mount Everest b) Mount Guru Shikar
c) Mount K2 d) Mount Makalu
23. The lowest temperature in India is recorded at
a) Royli b) Ganganagar
c) Drass d) Mawsyram
24. The soil that are formed from the sedements deposited by the rivers is called
a) Alluvial soil b) Black soil
c) Mountain soil d) Dessert soil
25. Monsoon Forests are also known as
a) Tropical Evergreen Forests b) Tropical Deciduous Forests
c) Desert Vegetation d) Mangrove Forest
26. The longest river in South India is
a) River Ganga b) River Krishna
c) River Kaveri d) River Godavari
27. The Kosi Project is a joint venture of
a) India and Nepal b) India and zchina
c) India and Pakistan d) India and Bangladesh
28. The System of farming involving both crops and livestock is known as
a) Sedentary Farming b) Intensive Farming
c) Commercial Farming d) Mixed Framing
29. The largest rice producing state in India is
a) Karnataka b) West Bengal
c) Punjab d) Andra Pradesh
30. The new mode of land transport, best suitable for transporting crude oil and gas is
a) Road Transport b) Railways
c) Air Transport d) Pipeline Transport
31. The queen of Arabian Sea is
a) Mumbai b) Chennai
c) Kochi d) Vishakapatnam
32. Bauxite is the main raw material for
a) Iron and Steel Industry b) Aluminium Industry
c) Paper Industry d) Sugar Industry

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

33. The city which is called “ Silicon Valley of India” is
a) Mysore b) Hubballi
c) Udupi d) Bangalore
34. The inundation of land by river water is called
a) Floods b) Cyclones
c) Lanslide d) Earthquake
35. The states which were worst affected to tropical cyclones are
a) Tamil Nadu, Andra Pradesh and Odisha b) Karnataka, Goa and Odisha
c) Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Gujarat d) Tamil Nadu, Odisha and Kerala
36. The value of Goods and Services produced in a year is called as
a) Real income b) National income
c) Per Capita income d) Human Development Index
37. The true development of India is the development of its villages was told by
a) Rajiv Gandhi b) Mahatma Gandhi
c) Jyotiba Phule d) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
38. The National Saving certificates are issued by
a) State Bank of India b) Post Offices
c) Commercial Banks d) Co-operative Banks
39. An account opened by businessman is
a) Savings Bank Account b) Current Account
c) Recurring Deposit Amount d) Term or Fixed Deposit Amount
40. The Consumer Day is observed every year on
a) June 5th b) October 24th
c) December 10th d) March 15th
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PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

 MOCK TEST SERIES – 1 – SOCIAL SCIENCE – ANSWER KEY

1. Ans: (a)
2. Ans: (b)
3. Ans: (a)
4. Ans: (b)
5. Ans: (d)
6. Ans: (b)
7. Ans: (c)
8. Ans: (d)
9. Ans: (a)
10. Ans: (b)
11. Ans: (c)
12. Ans: (a)
13. Ans: (b)
14. Ans: (d)
15. Ans: (d)
16. Ans: (c)
17. Ans: (d)
18. Ans: (c)
19. Ans: (b)
20. Ans: (d)
21. Ans: (a)
22. Ans: (c)
23. Ans: (c)
24. Ans: (a)
25. Ans: (b)
26. Ans: (d)
27. Ans: (a)
28. Ans: (d)
29. Ans: (b)
30. Ans: (d)
31. Ans: (c)
32. Ans: (b)
33. Ans: (d)
34. Ans: (a)
35. Ans: (a)
36. Ans: (b)
37. Ans: (b)
38. Ans: (b)
39. Ans: (b)
40. Ans: (d)

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

 MOCK TEST SERIES – 2

SOCIAL SCIENCE

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The Diwani rights over Bengal to the British was accorded by

a) Shah Alam - I b) Shah Alam - II
c) Jahangir d) Mir Qasim
2. This incident was a major setback to Marathas
a) The Peshwa agreed to the Subsidiary Alliance b) The death of Narayana Rao
c) The death of Madhav Rao d) The third Anglo-Maratha War
3. Sanskrit College in Banaras was started by
a) Charles Grant b) Macaulay
c) Warren Hastings d) Jonathan Duncan
4. The first Anglo-Mysore War came to an end by the treaty of
a) Treaty of Mangalore b) Treaty of Salbai
c) Treaty of Madras d) Treaty of Srirangapatna
5. ‘Cow Protection Association’ was started by
a) Brahmo Samaj b) Satya Shodhak Samaj
c) Prarthana Samaj d) Arya Samaj
6. The leader of Kanpur revolt was
a) Mangal Pandey b) Bahadur Shah II
c) Nana Saheb d) Tatya Tope
7. The Article that gave special status to backward areas in Karnataka is
a) Article 371 (J) b) Article 372 (J)
c) Article 371 (A) d) Article 373 (J)
8. The principle of eye for an eye in foreign policy was followed by
a) Lal Bahadur Shastri and Jawaharlal Nehru b) Jawaharlal Nehru and Indira Gandhi
c) Lal Bahadur Shastri and A. B. Vajppayee d) Lal Bahadur Shastri and Indira Gandhi
9. The Tashkent Agreement was signed between
a) India and China b) India and Russia
c) India and Pakistan d) India and USA
10. “Untouchability is a heinous expression of caste system and it a heinous expression of caste system and it is
the hatefelleot expression of caste”
a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Gandhiji
c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar d) Jyothiba Phule
11. A study of Circular migration is done in
a) Foot Losers b) The Republic
c) Gulamagiri d) Young India
12. The Largest Physical Division of India is
a) The Peninsular Plateaus b) The Northern Mountains
c) The Northern Great Plains d) The Coastal Plains and Islands
13. The Convectional rain occurs in Uttar Pradesh is known as
a) Mango showers b) Kalabaisakhis
c) Andhis d) Coffee Blossom
14. This soil is also known as ‘Regur’ soil
a) Laterite Soil b) Red Soil
c) Alluvial Soil d) Black Soil
15. The state of India which has the largest area under forests is
a) Kerala b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Goa d) Uttar Pradesh
PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed
16. The longest tributary of river Ganga is
a) Yamuna b) Ghaghra
c) Gandak d) Rama Ganga
17. A method of farming in which a large amount of capital and labour are applied per unit of land is called
a) Miked Farming b) Intensive Farming
c) Sedentary Framing d) Dry Framing
18. The sex ratio of India as per the census of 2011 is
a) 950 b) 957
c) 946 d) 943
19. A uniform system of Panchayat Raj Institution throughout the country was established as per article
a) 17 b) 51
c) 24 d) 73
20. The bank account in which the Deposit amount cannot be withdrawn before the expiry of the term is
a) Term or Fixed Deposit Account b) Recurring Deposit Account
c) Current Account d) Savings Bank Account
21. Vernacular Press Act was enacted by
a) Lord Cornwallis b) Lord Lytton
c) Lord Rippon d) Lord Curzon
22. The periodicals started by Mahatma Gandhi were
a) Mookanayaka and Bhaishkruta Bharata b) New India and Common Wealth
c) Young India and Harijan d) Kesari and Maratha
23. India Independence League was formed by
a) Subhas Chandra Bose b) Captain Lakshmi Sehagal
c) Chnadrashekar Azad d) Ras Behari Bose
24. The accession of this princely state is different from all the other accessions
a) Hyderabad b) Junagad
c) Jammu and Kashmir d) Goa
25. The UN general body adopted the Human Rights Declaration in
a) 1945 b) 1961
c) 1948 d) 1947
26. The organ which is known as the cabinet of UNO is
a) Economic and Social Council b) General Assembly
c) Security Council d) Trusteeship Council
27. The Organization of UNO that received Nobel award is
a) UNICEF b) IMF
c) UNESCO d) IBRD
28. Appiko Movement of Karnataka started in
a) Tehri-Gharwal b) Salyani
c) Udupi d) Palghat
29. The toll free number for children is
a) 1092 b) 1098
c) 1900 d) 1009
30. The oldest port of India is
a) Ennore b) Kochi
c) Chennai d) Kolkata
31. ‘Manchester of India’ is
a) Chennai b) Mumbai
c) Kolkata d) Kochi
32. The recurring disaster in India is
a) Flood b) Mumbai
c) Earthquake d) Kochi

PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

33. The Consumer Protection Act came into force in
a) 1961 b) 1948
c) 1986 d) 2004
34. The leader of Surapura rebellion was
a) Venkatappa Nayaka b) Krishna Nayaka
c) Peddanayaka d) Veerappa
35. The Wadeyer of Mysore who started schools for untouchable children was
a) Krishnaraja Wadeyer III b) Dodda Devaraja Wadeyer
c) Chikkadevaraja Wadeyer d) Chamaraja Wadeyer X
36. Article 19 says about
a) The establishment of minority educational institution
b) The protection of Cultural rights of the minorities
c) Right to speak and Right to express
d) Education interest of Scheduled Casts and Tribes
37. The largest producer of wheat in India is
a) Uttar Pradesh b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Orissa d) West Bengal
38. The revolutionary Organization started in USA was
a) Anusheelan Samiti b) Lotus and Dagger
c) Gadhar Party d) Abhinav Bharatha
39. Swaraj party was founded by
a) Motilal Nehru and Ambedkar b) Motilal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose
c) C. R. Das and Jawaharlal Nehru d) Motilal Nehru and C. R. Das
40. The words ‘Secular and Socialist’ were added to the constitution as per
a) 43rd amendment b) 26th amendment
c) 42nd amendment d) 24th amendment

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PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed

 MOCK TEST SERIES – 2 – SOCIAL SCIENCE – ANSER KEY

1. Ans: (b)
2. Ans: (c)
3. Ans: (d)
4. Ans: (c)
5. Ans: (d)
6. Ans: (c)
7. Ans: (a)
8. Ans: (d)
9. Ans: (c)
10. Ans: (b)
11. Ans: (a)
12. Ans: (a)
13. Ans: (c)
14. Ans: (d)
15. Ans: (b)
16. Ans: (a)
17. Ans: (b)
18. Ans: (d)
19. Ans: (d)
20. Ans: (a)
21. Ans: (c)
22. Ans: (c)
23. Ans: (d)
24. Ans: (c)
25. Ans: (c)
26. Ans: (c)
27. Ans: (a)
28. Ans: (b)
29. Ans: (b)
30. Ans: (c)
31. Ans: (b)
32. Ans: (a)
33. Ans: (c)
34. Ans: (a)
35. Ans: (d)
36. Ans: (c)
37. Ans: (a)
38. Ans: (c)
39. Ans: (d)
40. Ans: (c)
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PRASANTH KUMAR ROYAL'S, M.A, B.Ed, D.Ed