MICROBILOGY: PROF.
ARYEH-KUMI AND BMS SOWAH
ALLIED HEALTH COUNCIL EXAMINATION QUESTIONS
MICROBIOLOGY – CERTIFICATE LEVEL
1. The followings are diagnostic techniques except
a. Microscopy
b. Culture
c. Serology
d. Evaporation
2. what is the effective concentration of disinfectants used in the Lab for cleaning bench tops,
floors etc
a. 100%
b. 50%
c. 10%
d. 1%
3. Which of the following is enables the laboratory technician to verify the validity of a test result.
a. Reagent
b. Controls
c. Conjugate
d. Substrate
4. The followings are examples of safety materials used in the Laboratory
a. Face mask
b. Laboratory coat
c .Eye Goggles
d. Latex gloves
5. Which of the following is the most effective and correct way of cleaning bench tops
a. From the most contaminated area to the less contaminated area
b. From anywhere on the bench
c . From the less contaminated area to the most contaminated area
d. From the middle of the contaminant
6.The main use of the x10 Objective is for
a. Scanning the preparation
b. Detail examination of the organism
c. Stained Specimen examination
d. None of the above
7. Which objective lenses listed is use for examination of specimens under oil immersion?
a. x 40
b. x10
c. x 100
d. x 4
8. The x 40 objective is used for
a. Scanning the preparation
b. Details examination of the organism
c. Stained Specimen examination
d. None of the above
PARASITOLOGY
9. Name two (2) parasites that can be identified in a Skin Snip examination
a. Wuchereria bancrofti
b.Mansonella streptocerca
c. Ochocerca.volvolus
d. Ascaris lumbricoides
10. Identification of Shistosoma haematobium is by the presence of
a. Lateral spine
b. Terminal spine
c. Both Lateral spine and Terminal spine
d. None of the above
11. Why is Saline used in the emulsification of stool and not Distilled Water?
a. It is Hypertonic
b. It is Hypotonic
c. It is Isotonic
d. it is Dypotonic
12. The present of a lateral spine is useful for the identification of which of the following;
a. Shistosoma haematobium
b. Shistosoma mansoni
c. Ochocerca.volvolus
d. Ascaris lumbricoides
13. The following are intestinal parasites:
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Hook worm
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Ochocerca.volvolus
14. These are morphological characteristics for identification of malaria parasites
a. presence of yellowish –greenish particles in the cytoplasm
b. the presence of a bluish cytoplasm
c. Pink/Red chromatin dots
d. None of the above
15.The following are Crystals found in urine
a. Calcium oxalates
b. Triple phosphates
c. Yeast-like cells
d. None of the above
16. The Blood Parasite responsible for Elephantiasis is referred to as.
a. . Wuchereria bancrofti
b. Ochocerca.volvolus
c. Hookworm
d. None of the above
17. In Routine Examination, the following could identified:
a. Casts
b. Crystals
c. Cysts
d. Larva
18. Which of the underlisted is the ideal specimen for the diagnosis of Schistosomiasis (Bilharzia)
a. Stool Specimen
b. CSF Specimen
c. Blood Specimen
d. Skin Snip
19. In the examination of blood samples for malaria parasites
a. macroscopic examination is necessary
b. unstained thick or thin films can be useful for examination
c. concentration techniques may be necessary
d. Parasites density of 11-100 per 100 high power field is reported as +++
20. During stool examination for the detection of intestinal parasites
a. Only fresh samples are useful
b. Gross examination does not reveal any information about protozoan infections
c. Liquid stool samples are examined before semi-formed stool
d. Application of the formol-ether concentration method enhances detection of trophozoites
21. The formol-ether concentration technique
a. Works on the principle of floatation
b. Minimizes risk of infection in the laboratory
c. Concentrates the parasites in the ether layer after centrifugation
d. Is not applied to preserved samples
22. Reasons for placing faecal specimens in preservatives include
a. To maintain protozoan morphology
b. To facilitate staining procedures
c. To prevent infections in the laboratory
d. To keep for examination at a later time
23. Giemsa stain
a. Can precipitate on films during staining
b. Is economical because stain could be re-used
c. Denature RBC on thick films
d. Is useful for batch staining of thick and thin films
24. Common reagents used for direct wet preparations include
a. Physiological salien
b. Lugol’s iodine
c. Methylene blue
d. Normal KOH
25. The eggs of parasitic worms found in stools are identified based on
a. Size
b. Colour
c. Shape
d. External features
24. The appropriate concentration technique for parasite diagnosis is chosen according to
a. The equipment available
b. The parasites sought
c. The time available
d. Cost-benefit factors
25. Parasites that may be diagnosed in urine deposits after centrifuging include
a. Trichomonas vaginalis
b. Wuchereria bancrofti
c. Onchocerca volvulus
d. Paragonimus westermani
26. The following activities cannot be considered as good laboratory practice
a. Inability of laboratory scientist to complete examination of fresh stool samples
b. The transfer of samples from one laboratory to the other for examination
c. Storage of concentrated acid in the laboratory
d. Autoclaving laboratory wastes
27. Concerning the collection of urine samples for detecting S. mansoni,
a. It is appropriate to collect urine between 10. 00 – 14.00 hours
b. 1 ml of undiluted formalin per 100ml of urine is recommended to preserve parasite eggs
c. Bleach can also be used to preserve eggs in the absence of formalin
d. Specimen should be usually terminal urine and quantity should be at least 10ml
BACTERIOLOGY
28. The urinary pathogen that "swirms" across agar surfaces and causes bladder and renal
calculi is referred to as
a. Citrobacter freundii
b. Enterobacter aerogenes
c. Serratia marcescens
d. Proteus mirabilis
29. An important characteristic of Mycobacteria is that they are:
a Gram negative
b. Rapid growing
c. Acid fast
d. Alpha hemolytic
30. The Coagulase Test is used to differentiate:
a. Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis
b. Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. Streptococcus pyogens from Staphylococcus aureus
d. Streptococcus pyogens from Enterococcus faecalis
31. The followings are used to perform Gram Staining Technique except .
a.Crystal violet
b Neutral red
c Gram iodine
d. Indian ink
32.The Catalase Test is used to differentiate:
a. Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis
b. Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. Staphylococcus species from Streptococcus species
d. Streptococcus pyogens from Enterococcus faecalis
33. The followings are Lactose Fermenters (LFs) except
a. E. coli
b. Klebsiella species
c. Citrobacter species
d. Salmonella species
34. The followings are Non Lactose Fermenters (LFs)
a. E. coli
b. Klebsiella species
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Salmonella species
35. What is the strength of the McFarland Standard?
a. 0.5 dilution
b. 0.1 dilution
c. 1.0 dilution
d. 2.5 dilution
36. Culture Media used in bacteriology include:
a. Simon Citrate
b. Blood Agar
c. McConkeyAgar
d. CLED
VIROLOGY & IMMUNOLOGY
37.The current diagnostic technique used in the identification of HIV is
a. Microscopy
b. Culture
c. Serology
d. None of the above
38. The followings are viruses except
a. Cryptococcus neoformans
b Hepatitis B
c Herpes simplex
d. Influeza
39. Hepatitis B is a
a. Bacterium
b Parasite
c. Virus
d. Fungus
40.Hepatest is base on which of the following the principle
a. Serology
b Microscopy
c. Culture
d. All the above
41. Skin Scrapping is for the diagnosis of
a. Bacteria
b Parasites
c. Viruses
d. Fungi
42. Widal test is based on the principle of
a. Antigen - Antibody Reaction
b. Microscopy
c. Culture
d. None of the above
43. The diagnosis of the following parasitic infection is by the identification of oocysts in stool
specimens
a. Trichomonas vaginalis
b. Trichomonas tenax
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Blantidium coli
44. Organisms isolated from the following sites are always considered significant
a. CSF
b. wound swab
c. sputum
d. blood
45. Procedures to ensure quality assurance in parasitological tests should include
a. choosing appropriate test methods
b. controlling the use of stains and preparations
c. embarking on health education
d. undertaking disease control programmes
46. Specimen for laboratory examination should be accepted only when it is
a. correctly labeled
b. submitted in appropriate container
c. collected after drug administration
d. submitted together with appropriate request form
47. Public health functions of health laboratory service may include
a. participation in health education
b. detecting sources of infection and identifying carries
c. helping in drug administration
d. assisting in disease surveillance
48. Which of the following infections can be diagnosed through routine stool examination?
a Trichomonas vaginalis infection
b. Trichomonas tenax infection
c. Entamoeba histolytica infection
d. Blantidium coli infection
49. Milky appearance of urine is suggestive of which of the following.
a. Schistosomiasis mansoni infection
b. Onchocerca volvolus infection
c. Wuchereria banchrofti infection
d. Mansonella perstans infection
50. Immunodiagnosis of parasitic infections may be indicated
a. If the culprit parasite cannot be detected
b. As an adjunct to microscopy
c. To support diagnostic information in certain instances
d. When patients are suspected to be immunosuppressed
MICROBIOLOGY – DIPLOMA LEVEL
1. The followings are diagnostic techniques except
a. Microscopy
b. Culture
c. Serology
d. Evaporation
2. what is the effective concentration of disinfectants used in the Lab for cleaning bench tops,
floors etc
a. 100%
b. 50%
c. 10%
d. 1%
3. Which of the following is enables the laboratory technician to verify the validity of a test result.
a. Reagent
b. Controls
c. Conjugate
d. Substrate
4. The followings are examples of safety materials used in the Laboratory
a. Face mask
b. Laboratory coat
c .Eye Goggles
d. Latex gloves
5. Which of the following is the most effective and correct way of cleaning bench tops
a. From the most contaminated area to the less contaminated area
b. From anywhere on the bench
c . From the less contaminated area to the most contaminated area
d. From the middle of the contaminant
6. The main use of the x10 Objective is for
a. Scanning the preparation
b. Detail examination of the organism
c. Stained Specimen examination
d. None of the above
7. Which objective lenses listed is use for examination of specimens under oil immersion?
a. x 40
b. x10
c. x 100
d. x 4
8. The x 40 objective is used for
a. Scanning the preparation
b. Details examination of the organism
c. Stained Specimen examination
d. None of the above
PARASITOLOGY
9. Name two (2) parasites that can be identified in a Skin Snip examination
a. Wuchereria bancrofti
b.Mansonella streptocerca
c. Ochocerca.volvolus
d. Ascaris lumbricoides
10. Identification of Shistosoma haematobium is by the presence of
a. Lateral spine
b. Terminal spine
c. Both Lateral spine and Terminal spine
d. None of the above
11. Why is Saline used in the emulsification of stool and not Distilled Water?
a. It is Hypertonic
b. It is Hypotonic
c. It is Isotonic
d. it is Dypotonic
12. The present of a lateral spine is useful for the identification of which of the following;
a. Shistosoma haematobium
b. Shistosoma mansoni
c. Ochocerca.volvolus
d. Ascaris lumbricoides
13. The following are intestinal parasites:
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Hook worm
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Ochocerca.volvolus
14. These are morphological characteristics for identification of malaria parasites
a. presence of yellowish –greenish particles in the cytoplasm
b. the presence of a bluish cytoplasm
c. Pink/Red chromatin dots
d. None of the above
15.The following are Crystals found in urine
a. Calcium oxalates
b. Triple phosphates
c. Yeast-like cells
d. None of the above
16. The Blood Parasite responsible for Elephantiasis is referred to as.
a. . Wuchereria bancrofti
b. Ochocerca.volvolus
c. Hookworm
d. None of the above
17. In Routine Examination, the following could identified:
a. Casts
b. Crystals
c. Cysts
d. Larva
18. Which of the underlisted is the ideal specimen for the diagnosis of Schistosomiasis (Bilharzia)
a. Stool Specimen
b. CSF Specimen
c. Blood Specimen
d. Skin Snip
19. In the examination of blood samples for malaria parasites
a. macroscopic examination is necessary
b. unstained thick or thin films can be useful for examination
c. concentration techniques may be necessary
d. Parasites density of 11-100 per 100 high power field is reported as +++
20. During stool examination for the detection of intestinal parasites
a. Only fresh samples are useful
b. Gross examination does not reveal any information about protozoan infections
c. Liquid stool samples are examined before semi-formed stool
d. Application of the formol-ether concentration method enhances detection of trophozoites
21. The formol-ether concentration technique
a. Works on the principle of floatation
b. Minimizes risk of infection in the laboratory
c. Concentrates the parasites in the ether layer after centrifugation
d. Is not applied to preserved samples
22. Reasons for placing faecal specimens in preservatives include
a. To maintain protozoan morphology
b. To facilitate staining procedures
c. To prevent infections in the laboratory
d. To keep for examination at a later time
23. Giemsa stain
a. Can precipitate on films during staining
b. Is economical because stain could be re-used
c. Denature RBC on thick films
d. Is useful for batch staining of thick and thin films
24. Common reagents used for direct wet preparations include
a. Physiological saline
b. Lugol’s iodine
c. Methylene blue
d. Normal KOH
25. The eggs of parasitic worms found in stools are identified based on
a. Size
b. Colour
c. Shape
d. External features
24. The appropriate concentration technique for parasite diagnosis is chosen according to
a. The equipment available
b. The parasites sought
c. The time available
d. Cost-benefit factors
25. Parasites that may be diagnosed in urine deposits after centrifuging include
a. Trichomonas vaginalis
b. Wuchereria bancrofti
c. Onchocerca volvulus
d. Paragonimus westermani
26. The following activities cannot be considered as good laboratory practice
a. Inability of laboratory scientist to complete examination of fresh stool samples
b. The transfer of samples from one laboratory to the other for examination
c. Storage of concentrated acid in the laboratory
d. Autoclaving laboratory wastes
27. Concerning the collection of urine samples for detecting S. mansoni,
a. It is appropriate to collect urine between 10. 00 – 14.00 hours
b. 1 ml of undiluted formalin per 100ml of urine is recommended to preserve parasite eggs
c. Bleach can also be used to preserve eggs in the absence of formalin
d. Specimen should be usually terminal urine and quantity should be at least 10ml
BACTERIOLOGY
28. The urinary pathogen that "swirms" across agar surfaces and causes bladder and renal
calculi is referred to as
a. Citrobacter freundii
b. Enterobacter aerogenes
c. Serratia marcescens
d. Proteus mirabilis
29. An important characteristic of Mycobacteria is that they are:
a Gram negative
b. Rapid growing
c. Acid fast
d. Alpha hemolytic
30. The Coagulase Test is used to differentiate:
a. Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis
b. Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. Streptococcus pyogens from Staphylococcus aureus
d. Streptococcus pyogens from Enterococcus faecalis
31. The followings are used to perform Gram Staining Technique except .
a.Crystal violet
b Neutral red
c Gram iodine
d. Indian ink
32.The Catalase Test is used to differentiate:
a. Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis
b. Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. Staphylococcus species from Streptococcus species
d. Streptococcus pyogens from Enterococcus faecalis
33. The followings are Lactose Fermenters (LFs) except
a. E. coli
b. Klebsiella species
c. Citrobacter species
d. Salmonella species
34. The followings are Non Lactose Fermenters (LFs)
a. E. coli
b. Klebsiella species
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Salmonella species
35. What is the strength of the McFarland Standard?
a. 0.5 dilution
b. 0.1 dilution
c. 1.0 dilution
d. 2.5 dilution
36. Culture Media used in bacteriology include:
a. Simon Citrate
b. Blood Agar
c. McConkeyAgar
d. CLED
37. The following parasites can be transmitted orally and their infections could be detected
through stool examination.
a. Giardia lamblia
b. Strongyloides stercoralis
c. Enterobius vermicularis
d. Entamoeba histolytica
38. Nosocomial parasitic infections which could be acquired in the laboratory include those caused
by which of the following organisms?
a. Necator americanus
b. Schistosoma haematobium
c. Enterobius vermicularis
d. Strongyloides stercoralis
39. Different diagnostic approaches could be used for the detection one of following parasites
noted to cause markedly different clinical symptoms, depending the stage of the parasite is
ingested. Select the parasite in question.
a. Taenia saginata
b. Dracunculus medinensis
c. Taenia solium
d. Hymenolepis diminuta
40. Trichinella spiralis infection which could be diagnosed through tissue examination is associated
with which of the following organisms.
a. Dogs
b. Horses
c. Rats
d. Chicken
41. Which of the following statements is helpful for the effective diagnosis of Ascaris lumbricoides
infection in humans.
a. Freshly passed embryonated egg in the stool
b. Embryonated egg containing a filariform larvae
c. Rhabditiform larvae in egg found in the soil
d. Egg containing the second larval form in the soil
42. Morphological features of Taenia solium that distinguishes it from Taenia saginata include
a. rostellum
b. cuboidal scolex
c. highly branched uterus
d. fewer numbers of segments
43. Morphological features of Giardia lamblia include
a. sucking disc
b. single flagellum
c. pseudopodia
d. median bodies
44. Specimens useful for diagnosis of Trichinella infection include
a. skin snip
b. blood
c. urine
d. stool
45 Diagnostic procedures for Trypanosoma infection include
a. xonodiagnosis
b. blood smear
c. skin snip
d. heart smear
46. Which of the following descriptions would accurately describe a typical Cryptosporidium
parvum oocyst?
a. spherical with 8 nuclei and unevenly distributed peripheral chromatin
b. spherical with 4 naked nuclei and evenly distributed chromatin
c. thin and shapeless with albuminous coat
d. spherical with 8 naked nuclei
47. Laboratory diagnostic methods for identification of Chilomastix mesnili infection
include:
a. Routine stool examination
b. Examination of small bowel biopsies
c. Stool culture
d. Specific flocculation test
48. During the collection of stool samples for parasitological tests/ investigations
a. mucus and blood containing stools are rejected
b. excreta could be equally useful used
c. stool samples should always be covered to prevent drying
d. stool samples should be in saline solution
49. Common reagents used for direct wet preparations include
a. physiological saline
b. Lugol’s iodine
c. Methylene blue
d. Normal KOH
50. Reasons for placing faecal specimen in preservatives include
a. to maintain protozoan morphology
b. to facilitate staining procedures
c. to prevent infections in the laboratory
d. to keep for examination at a later time
MICROBIOLOGY – DEGREE LEVEL
1. In parasitological tests
a. macroscopic examination of stool samples helps to determine
consistency.
b. microscopy is the only method for identifying protozoan
Parasites in stool samples.
c. watery stool samples are examined before the formed
stool samples
d. charcot-Leyden crystals may be observed in addition
to parasites.
2. Specimens for laboratory examination should not be accepted when it is
a. not correctly labelled
b. submitted in the appropriate container
c. collected before drug administration
d. submitted through patient’s relative
e. not possible to examine within 24 hours
3. Preservation of faecal specimens before examination is to
a. facilitate staining procedures
b. maintain morphology of parasites
c. prevent laboratory contamination
d. keep them for examination later
4 Reagents used for direct wet preparations may include
a. Normal KOH
b. Lugol’s iodine
c. D’ Antoni’s iodine
d. Physiological saline
5 Detection of blood parasites is best done using blood samples collected
a. and examined within an hour
b. without any anticoagulant
c. by venipuncture
d. and kept at freezing temperatures
6 Direct mount smears of expectorated sputa may detect
a. Cryptosporidium oocysts
b. Hookworms
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Trichinella species
e. Ascaris ova
6 Detection of S. haematobium eggs in faecal samples indicates
a. sample may not have been properly collected
b. patient has mixed infection
c. examination procedure was not properly followed
d. reagents used in examination were not fresh
7 Iron Hematoxylin stain does not contain
a. Ethanol
b. D’Antoni’s iodine solution
c. Sulphuric acid
d. Ferric ammonium sulphate solution
8 Diagnosis of Strongyloides infection may include the detection of
a. filariform larvae in faecal specimens
b. rhabditiform larvae in faecal specimens
c. ova in sputa
d. ova in duodenal aspirates
9 Non-parasitic structures in stools likely to be reported as parasites include
a. Chartcot Leyden Crystal
b. Arthropod mouthparts
c. Yeasts and spores
d. air bubbles
10 Thick blood films are preferred for routine diagnosis of blood parasites because
a. they provide a larger volume of blood for examination
b. there is no need for fixing before staining
c. these films may be heated to facilitate drying
d. blood collected and kept beyond one hour may be used
e. lysing of RBCs during staining renders parasites more visible
11 Permanent stained smears
a. are unnecessary for routine stool examination
b. facilitate detection of cysts of protozoa
c. do not have longer shelf life
d. are the only techniques for detection of C. parvum
e. can only be prepared after concentration of stool samples
12. Identification of motile trophozoites in stools is best done by
a. preserving specimens and examining after 6hours
b. preparing direct wet smears
c. preparing permanent stained smears
d. examining prepared slides using x100 objectives
13 In stool concentration by formo-ethyl acetate method,
a. ethyl acetate extracts debris from stool
b. trophozoites and eggs are suspended after centrifugation
c. only eggs and larvae of helminthes are recovered
d. only polyvinyl alcohol-preserved stools can be used.
14 In urine concentration technique,
a. only single void samples can be used
b. no preservative is needed for sample collection
c. motile T. vaginalis trophozoites may be identified
d. 24 hour sample is needed for diagnosis of schistosomiasis
15 Pneumocystis carinii infection in humans
a. may be diagnosed by examining induced sputum
b. is an opportunistic infection in HIV patients
c. may be detected in stained smears of lung tissues
d. may be detected in stained smears of tracheobronchial aspirates
16 The following statements concern Giardia lamblia are true:
a. trophozoites and cysts are found in stools of infected persons
b. only trophozoites can be identified in diagnosis
c. multiplication is by binary fission
d. Antigen detection ELISA is a useful diagnostic tool
17 Some quality control procedures for stool examination include the
a. use of clean containers for specimen collection
b. transport of specimens to the laboratory soon after collection
c. storage of specimens before examination
d. collection of specimens in fixatives
e. examination of diarrhoeal specimens first
18 In the trichrome staining procedure for fresh stool slides,
a. slides fixed in Schaudin’s fixative are first dehydrated in 90% alcohol
b. slides are placed into 90% ethanol and acetic acid after staining
c. after clearing in xylene slides are dried overnight
d. polyvinyl alcohol-preserved stools cannot be used
e. cytoplasm of protozoan trophozoites stains blue-green
19 In the modified Kinyoun’s acid-fast staining procedure
a. formalin-preserved stool specimens are used
b. methylene blue is used as counter stain
c. various genera of Coccidia can be identified
d. no heating is needed
20 The Willis technique may be used for diagnosis of
a. Giardiasis
b. Schistosomiasis
c. Trypanosomiasis
d. Ascariasis
21 In the ELISA technique
a. blocking buffer is added to the wells of a microtitre plate to
prevent non-specific binding
b. there is the need for intermittent washing with buffer
c. results are produced usually immediately the required conjugate is added
d. many samples can be processed at a time
22 The Kato-Katz technique
a. helps to detect malaria parasites in watery stool samples
b. involves pressing faecal specimens through a mesh to remove large particles
c. is unsuitable for fluid faecal samples
d. can alter morphological appearance of schistosome eggs in stool samples
e. may be used for diagnosis of amoebiasis
23 The Baermann technique
a. is useful for culturing protozoan parasites
b. relies on the principle of parasite migration into culture medium
c. is useful in the study of the epidemiology of geoparasites
d. requires the use of glacial acetic acid
24 Disinfectants used in Parasitology laboratories include
a. 9% vinegar solution
b. 70% ethanol/isopropanol
c. 1% phenol solution
d. 0.5-1% hypochlorite solution
25 Detection of gastrointestinal tract trematodes involves
a. finding the eggs in urine by direct examination
b. examination of rectal biopsy for eggs when absent from stool
c. detecting increase in globulin level
d. finding eggs in faecal samples by concentration method
e. detecting alkaline phosphatase activity
26 In the Stoll’s technique,
a. helminth eggs can be estimated in stool samples
b. distilled water is added to formed stool during processing
c. the number of eggs obtained is a multiple of 5
d. 0.1 NaOH solution is added to formed stool during the process
e. only cysts of parasites can be identified
27 The identifying characteristics of parasite eggs include
a. size
b. stage of development
c. type of laboratory specimen used
d. thickness of the shell
28 The second stage of trypanosome infection may be diagnosed by
a. detection of trypomastigotes in plasma
b. detection of trypomastigotes in cerebrospinal fluid
c. determining protein concentration in cerebrospinal fluid
d. red blood cell counts in urine
29 Schüffner’s dots are observed in blood films associated with
a. red blood cells infected with Plasmodium ovale
b. monocytes infected with Leishmania amastigotes
c. sporozoites of Plamodium vivax
d. red blood cells infected with Plasmodium falciparum
e. gametocytes of Plasmodium vivax hypnozoites
30 Clonorchis sinensis infection
a. cannot be detected serologically
b. is common among immunocompromised hosts
c. leads to haematuria in patients
d. can be prevented by isolation of infected hosts
e. may be diagnosed by identifying eggs in duodenal fluid
31 Diagnosis of parasitic infection by faecal-culture method is used
a. when diagnosis by concentration technique is negative
b. to distinguish between hookworm and Strongyloides infection
c. for quantifying parasite numbers in faecal samples
d. to allow development of nematode larvae into filariform stage
e. as a quality control technique in diagnosis
32 Tapeworms the infect humans can be identified by
a. the colours of their ova
b. the shape of their ova
c. macroscopy of stool samples of patients
d. the pattern of the uterine branches in gravid segments
33 Chyleuria is
a. macroscopic appearance of urine sample
b. indicative of filarial infection
c. due to contamination of duodenal content with urine
d. not a good sample for laboratory diagnosis
e. may contain eggs of S. haematobium
34 Trichomoniasis may be diagnosed from
a. faecal samples of patients
b. urethral discharge
c. penile discharge
d. mid-day urine samples
e. duodenal aspirates
35 Wright’s stain
a. is suitable for staining fixed thin blood films only
b. may be used for thick blood films after lysing of red cells
c. is most suitable for unfixed thin blood films
d. does not contain methyl alcohol
e. stains white cells bright blue
36.The main use of the X10 Objective is for
a. Scanning the preparation
b. Detail examination of the organism
c. Stained Specimen examination
d. None of the above
37. Which objective lens is use for Oil Immersion
a. x 40
b. x10
c. x 100
d. x 4
38. The x 40 objective is used for
a. Scanning the preparation
b. Details examination of the organism
c. Stained Specimen examination
d. None of the above
39. The followings are used to verify Sterilization process.
a. Autoclave Tape
b. Bacillus stearothermophilus
c . Sodium Chloride
d. Cellotape
BACTERIOLOGY
28. The urinary pathogen that "swirms" across agar surfaces and causes bladder and renal
calculi is referred to as
a. Citrobacter freundii
b. Enterobacter aerogenes
c. Serratia marcescens
d. Proteus mirabilis
29. An important characteristic of Mycobacteria is that they are:
a Gram negative
b. Rapid growing
c. Acid fast
d. Alpha hemolytic
30. The Coagulase Test is used to differentiate:
a. Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis
b. Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. Streptococcus pyogens from Staphylococcus aureus
d. Streptococcus pyogens from Enterococcus faecalis
31. The followings are used to perform Gram Staining Technique except .
a.Crystal violet
b Neutral red
c Gram iodine
d. Indian ink
32.The Catalase Test is used to differentiate:
a. Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis
b. Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. Staphylococcus species from Streptococcus species
d. Streptococcus pyogens from Enterococcus faecalis
33. The followings are Lactose Fermenters (LFs) except
a. E. coli
b. Klebsiella species
c. Citrobacter species
d. Salmonella species
34. The followings are Non Lactose Fermenters (LFs)
a. E. coli
b. Klebsiella species
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Salmonella species
35. What is the strength of the McFarland Standard?
a. 0.5 dilution
b. 0.1 dilution
c. 1.0 dilution
d. 2.5 dilution
36. Culture Media used in bacteriology include:
a. Simon Citrate
b. Blood Agar
c. McConkeyAgar
d. CLED
VIROLOGY & IMMUNOLOGY
37.The current diagnostic technique used in the identification of HIV is
a. Microscopy
b. Culture
c. Serology
d. None of the above
38. The followings are viruses except
a. Cryptococcus neoformans
b Hepatitis B
c Herpes simplex
d. Influeza
39. Hepatitis B is a
a. Bacterium
b Parasite
c. Virus
d. Fungus
40.Hepatest is base on which of the following the principle
a. Serology
b Microscopy
c. Culture
d. All the above
41. Skin Scrapping is for the diagnosis of
a. Bacteria
b Parasites
c. Viruses
d. Fungi
42. Widal test is based on the principle of
a. Antigen - Antibody Reaction
b. Microscopy
c. Culture
d. None of the above
43. The followings are diagnostic techniques except
a. Microscopy
b. Culture
c. Serology
d. Evaporation
44. what is the effective concentration of disinfectants used in the Lab for cleaning bench tops,
floors etc
a. 100%
b. 50%
c. 10%
d. 1%
45. Which of the following is enables the laboratory technician to verify the validity of a test result.
a. Reagent
b. Controls
c. Conjugate
d. Substrate
46. The followings are examples of safety materials used in the Laboratory
a. Face mask
b. Laboratory coat
c .Eye Goggles
d. Latex gloves
47. Which of the following is the most effective and correct way of cleaning bench tops
a. From the most contaminated area to the less contaminated area
b. From anywhere on the bench
c . From the less contaminated area to the most contaminated area
d. From the middle of the contaminant
48.The main use of the x10 Objective is for
a. Scanning the preparation
b. Detail examination of the organism
c. Stained Specimen examination
d. None of the above
49. Which objective lenses listed is use for examination of specimens under oil immersion?
a. x 40
b. x10
c. x 100
d. x 4
50. The x 40 objective is used for
a. Scanning the preparation
b. Details examination of the organism
c. Stained Specimen examination
d. None of the above
