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TECH *

Final Coaching
CLUSTER 5
April 2021 Philippine Radiologic Technology Licensure Examination Review
Prepared by: Prof. Adrian Morte, RRT

NAME: DATE: SCORE: _____

MULTIPLE CHOICE: Shade the letter that corresponds to your answer on the answer sheet provided. If answer is not found
among the choices, shade letter E.
1. In TNM System, which of the following statements 1. Grenz rays
correctly describes T3?
2. Contact therapy
A. The tumor is confined, localized and mobile to the
3. Superficial therapy
organ of origin and usually measures 2 cm in its largest
diameter. 4. Orthovoltage
B. The tumor is deeply invading to adjacent structures A. 1 and 2
and measures 2-5 cm in its largest diameter.
B. 2 and 3
C. The tumor is regionally confined and measures 5 – 10
cm in its largest diameter. C. 3 only

D. The tumor is massive, measures greater than 10 cm D. 3 and 4

and capable of invasion.

5. Which of the following radioisotopes will undergo

2. The radiation oncologist assesses Patient A’s lymph neutron activation to produce Co-60?
nodes for staging of her breast cancer. He palpated the A. Co-59
axilla and noticed that the nodes are hard but partially
mobile. What is the most likely score for the node? B. Co-61

A. N1 C. Ni-59

B. N2 D. Ni-60

C. N3
D. N4 6. All of the following are energy emissions of Co-60:
1. 0.32 MeV negatrons

3. Which of the following treatment modalities for cancer 2. 1.17 MeV gamma rays
will most likely be chosen for a localized tumor? 3. 1.33 MeV gamma rays
1. Surgery A. 1 and 2
2. Chemotherapy B. 1 and 3
3. Radiation Therapy C. 2 and 3
A. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3 7. Which of the megavoltage x-ray generators may be
D. 1, 2 and 3 considered an analogue of a transformer?
A. Van de Graaf Generator

4. A tumor is confined to about 5 mm in depth. Which of B. Betatron

the following kilovoltage therapy units in radiotherapy will C. LINAC
be suitable?
1|P age
D. Microtron A. Single field
B. Parallel Opposed Lateral Fields
8. Which of the following types of bending magnets, C. Parallel Opposed Anterior Posterior Fields
electrons will take a zigzag course after acceleration?
D. Box Field Technique
A. 90 degree
B. 270 degree
14. The applicator is preloaded and contains radioactive
C. achromatic sources at the time of placement into the patient.
D. slalom A. Hot loading
B. Manual afterloading
9. Which of the following best describes the target in C. Remote afterloading
LINAC?
D. Cold loading
A. transmission
B. reflection
15. In intracavitary brachytherapy, the Fletcher-Suit
C. emission system is most commonly used apparatus for
gynecological malignancies. Which of the following
D. deflection
equipment comprise the Fletcher-Suit system?
A. Heyman capsules
10. Which of the following is the most suitable target
B. Burnett cylinders
material for LINAC?
C. Henschke tandem and colpostat
A. tungsten
D. Ovoids and vaginal cylinders
B. copper
C. gold
16. Which of the following is not a cancer warning sign?
D. iridium
A. Lump
B. Dysphagia
11. The scattering foil is used to scatter the thin pencil
electron beam which causes a uniform electron C. Weight loss
distribution within the field. What is the primary
D. Dyspnea
composition of the electron scattering foil?
A. lead
17. Which of the following statements below best
B. aluminum
describes PTV?
C. tin
A. PTV comprises the CTV and 1.5 cm physical margin
D. tungsten around it.
B. PTV includes margins for geometric and position
uncertainties.
12. The collimator consists of two pairs of tungsten
blocks. At 100 SSD, what is the maximum field size that C. PTV ensures that the prescribed dose is actually
can be projected? absorbed in the CTV
A. 30 cm x 30 cm D. All of the choices
B. 40 cm x 40 cm
C. 80 cm x 80 cm 18. Which of the following treatment volume margins
must be treated adequately to achieve the aim of
D. 100 cm x 100 cm
radiotherapy?
A. Gross Tumor Volume
13. Which of the following field arrangements will be most
B. Clinical Target Volume
appropriate for malignancies that arises in the pelvis?
C. Planning Target Volume
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D. Treated Volume 24. Which of the following statement correctly describes
the Manchester system?
A. The sources are distributed non-uniformly with more
19. In treatment simulation, which of the following are
source strength concentrated in the periphery
taken into consideration?
B. The sources are distributed uniformly with more source
1. Patient position
strength concentrated in the periphery
2. Target volumes and organs at risk
C. The sources are distributed non-uniformly with more
3. Treatment field geometry source strength concentrated in the center
D. The sources are distributed uniformly with more
source strength concentrated in the center
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
25. In Paris system, what rules are followed to place the
C. 2 and 3 implants?
D. 1, 2 and 3 A. The sources must be linear and placement parallel
B. Adjacent sources must be equidistant from each other
20. Which of the following immobilization devices is ideal C. The spacing between sources should be wider when
in the treatment of head and neck malignancies? using long sources
A. alpha cradle D. All of the choices
B. thermoplastic mask
C. head rest 26. All of the following radioactive sources can be used in
D. Both B and C the treatment of prostate cancer, except:
A. Iodine-125

21. All of the following imaging modalities can be used in B. Gold-198

treatment planning, except: C. Palladium-103
A. Radiography D. Iridium-192
B. Fluoroscopy
C. Computed Tomography 27. To compare T1 and T2 weighted images, the
D. Magnetic Resonance Imaging technologist should look for the:
A. bone

22. Which of the following should be used to compensate B. urinary bladder

for missing tissue during dose delivery? C. gray matter
A. Bolus D. liver
B. Wedge
C. Compensating Filter 28. It intersects the beam central axis and identifies the
D. All of the choices SSD.
A. Collimator

23. Which of the following is not a system used in B. Optical Range Finder
interstitial brachytherapy? C. Reticule
A. Patterson-Parker system D. Graticule
B. Quimby system
C. Paris system 29. When the Co-60 source is in off position, what dose
D. Fletcher-Suit-Delcos system rate of leakage radiation will be permitted?
A. 1 mR/hr
3|P age
B. 2 mR/hr 35. To determine whether a mass is cystic or solid, which
of the following diagnostic modalities will be best
C. 100 mR/hr
suitable?
D. 200 mR/hr
A. Breast UTZ
B. Breast MRI
30. Which of the following EBRT machines will accelerate
C. Mammography
electrons in a toroidal vacuum chamber?
D. Breast CT scan
A. Betatron
B. Microtron
36. Which of the following scenario is considered safe for
C. Linear Accelerator
a patient who will undergo contrast media administration?
D. Cyclotron
A. Performing chest CT scan with iodinated contrast
media for a patient with eGFR of 20

31. If a region with few acoustic interfaces reflect a lot of B. Performing brain MRI with gadolinium DTPA to a
sound back to the transducer, which of the following patient with creatinine value of 1.9 mg/dl
accurately describes the signal?
C. Performing CT stonogram to a patient with history of
A. anechoic renal failure

B. echogenic D. Performing liver dynamic CT scan to a patient with a

creatinine level of 2.2 mg/dl
C. hyperechoic
D. hypoechoic
37. Which of the following is true about contrast media
administration in CT and MRI?
32. In CT scan, areas with lower electron density will be A. Patients who received iodinated contrast media in CT
rendered _________ because it attenuate ________ x- should never be scanned in MRI on the same day.
rays.
B. Patients who received gadolinium DTPA in MRI should
A. dark, few never be scanned in CT on the same day.
B. dark, more C. Patients who received gadolinium DTPA in MRI may
C. bright, few undergo CT contrast media administration on the same
day.
D. bright, more
D. Patients who received iodinated contrast media in CT
and gadolinium DTPA in MRI given on the same day can
33. It has been recommended that mammography must induce adverse reaction to the kidneys.
be performed among women when they reach the age of:
A. 30 38. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
B. 35 acute stroke in CT and MRI?

C. 40 A. Acute stroke will be presented in brain CT within

minutes of onset
D. 45
B. Acute stroke appears normal in brain MRI
C. Brain CT is the most valuable tool in the diagnosis of
34. If the TE is equal to 30 ms and the TR is equal to acute stroke
1,500 ms, what would be the resultant image?
D. Diffusion weighted imaging MRI will present acute
A. T1 weighted image stroke within minutes of onset
B. T2 weighted image
C. Proton density image 39. What imaging modality should be selected if we want
D. Both A and C to assess adult-onset sensorineural hearing loss?
A. CT scan
B. General radiography
4|P age
C. MRI A. Malrotation
D. UTZ B. duodenal atresia
C. jejunal atresia
40. The nuclear medicine doctor wrote superscan in the D. All of the choices
finding of Patient A’s bone scan. What is the meaning of
this?
45. Performing transabdominal ultrasound, confirmation
A. Tc-99m MDP fails to accumulate within the
of early pregnancy can be determined if the gestational
hydroxyapatite crystals in the bone
sac diameter is:
B. Tc-99m MDP was significantly excreted by the kidneys
A. 6 mm
two to four hours after injection
B. 8 mm
C. It implies widespread osseous metastasis but can
individually be distinguished. C. 20 mm
D. It implies widespread osseous metastasis but cannot D. 25 mm
be individually be distinguished.

46. Which of the following will help elicit diagnosis of

41. In nuclear medicine, what is more likely the acute cholecystitis using ultrasound?
scintigraphical presentation of thyroid cancer?
A. Focal tenderness over the gallbladder when
A. Cold thyroid nodule compressed by the transducer
B. Hot thyroid nodule B. Gallstone impacted in the cystic duct
C. Solitary thyroid nodule C. Gall bladder thickening and distention
D. Multiple thyroid nodule D. All of the choices

42. When should exercise stress test be stopped? 47. How does mammographic technique differ from chest
radiographic technique?
1. the patient develops ST segment depression
of greater than 3 mm 1. high kV
2. the patient has ST segment elevation 2. low kV
3. the patient experiences potentially dangerous 3. high mAs
arrhythmia
4. low mAs
A. 1 and 2
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 2 and 4

43. If a patient is suspected of foreign body aspiration,

what should be ordered for the patient? 48. If a patient with bilateral breast implant is imaged with
mammography, what views should be acquired?
A. chest AP radiograph
A. CC views of both breast
B. chest PA radiograph
B. MLO views of both breast
C. bilateral lateral chest radiograph
C. CC and MLO views of both breast
D. bilateral lateral decubitus radiograph
D. 2 CC views and 2 MLO views of both breast

44. The double bubble sign on plain films is represented

as an air-filled or fluid-filled distended stomach and 49. What is the appearance of fibroglandular tissue in
duodenal bulb. Which of the following disease process is mammography?
a likely finding?
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A. bright C. A fluid filled urinary bladder will compress the uterus
and ovaries posteriorly
B. dark
D. Fluid filled urinary bladder will reflect more of the
C. gray
ultrasound waves for better contrast between uterus and
D. It depends on the clinical presentation ovaries

50. What is the reason for using coupling gel in 55. Because cysts transmit a great deal of sound the area
ultrasound? beyond cysts will display _____________.

A. It will help transmit UTZ waves to and from the A. posterior acoustic enhancement
transducer.
B. anterior acoustic enhancement
B. It will help in the absorption of UTZ waves to and from
C. anterior acoustic shadowing
the transducer.
D. posterior acoustic shadowing
C. It will improve reflection of UTZ waves in air-skin
interface
D. It will improve the axial resolution 56. Which of the following disease process will exhibit
posterior acoustic shadowing?
A. hydronephrosis
51. Which of the following tissue interfaces will reflect the
ultrasound beam? B. nephrolithiasis
A. air-tissue interface C. polycystic kidney disease
B. bone-tissue interface D. pyelonephritis
C. water-tissue interface
D. Both A and B 57. In Doppler UTZ, echoes returning from blood flowing
away from the transducer have:
1. low frequency
52. All of the following will be presented as hypoechoic in
ultrasound, except: 2. high frequency
A. urine filled urinary bladder 3. red
B. large blood vessels 4. blue
C. cysts A. 1 and 3
D. large bowel B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
53. What type of transducer should be selected in thyroid D. 2 and 4
sonography?
A. 3 MHz transducer
58. Which of the following accurately describes serial CT
B. 5 MHz transducer scanning?
C. 8 MHz transducer A. The detector array moves around the patient
continuously in the same direction and table moves
D. 10 MHz transducer
continuously through the scanner
B. The detector whirls 360 degrees around the patient to
54. Why are patients asked to come with a full bladder for acquire a slice, then the table moves the patient and the
a pelvic ultrasound? detector whirls 360 degrees the other way to acquire the
next slice
A. Fluid in the urinary bladder will facilitate transmission
of sound waves for better visualization of uterus and C. The detector whirls 360 degrees around the patient to
ovaries. acquire a slice, then the table moves the patient and the
detector whirls 360 degrees continuously to acquire the
B. A fluid filled urinary bladder will compress the uterus next slice
and ovaries anteriorly
6|P age
D. The detector whirls 180 degrees around the patient to D. 180 degree pulse followed by series of 90 degree
acquire a slice, then the table moves the patient and the pulses
detector whirls 180 degrees the other way to acquire the
next slice
64. Which of the following is an unreliable predictor of
image weighting?
59. Which of the following is true about Hounsfield units?
A. water
A. Things that absorb more x-rays have a greater HU
B. CSF
values
C. fat
B. Things that absorb less x-rays have a greater HU
values D. All of the choices are reliable predictors
C. HU values that are positive numbers are said to be
hypodense
65. Which of the following will appear dark in both T1 and
D. HU values that are negative numbers will be rendered T2 weighting images?
bright
1. air
2. blood
60. What is the typical matrix size and shape for most MR
images? 3. cortical bone

A. square 512 x 512 matrix A. 1 and 2

B. square 1024 x 1024 matrix B. 1 and 3

C. rectangular 256 x 192 matrix C. 2 and 3

D. rectangular 256 x 512 matrix D. 1, 2, and 3

61. Among digital cross-sectional modalities, which of the 66. Which of the following is true about gradient echo
following will offer the best spatial resolution? images?

A. Mammography A. Images are acquired using 90 degree pulse followed

by 180 degree refocusing pulse
B. CT scan
B. Images are acquired using pulses less than 90
C. MRI degrees and do not have 180 degree refocusing pulse
D. UTZ C. Images are acquired using pulses more than 90
degrees and do not have 180 degree refocusing pulse
D. Images are acquired using pulses less than 90
62. In CT data acquisition, what is the typical orientation
degrees followed by 180 degree refocusing pulse
of the collected data?
A. axial
67. Which image weighting should be used pre and post
B. coronal
contrast administration of gadolinium DTPA?
C. sagittal
A. T1-weighting
D. All of the choices
B. T2-weighting
C. Proton density
63. Which of the following correctly describes a spin-echo
D. Inversion recovery
pulse sequence?
A. 90 degree pulse followed by 180 degree pulse
68. Which of the following diagnostic nuclear medicine
B. 90 degree pulse followed by series of 180 degree
imaging procedures will properly assess osteomyelitis?
pulses
A. Bone Scan
C. 180 degree pulse followed by 90 degree pulse and
another 180 degree pulse B. Three-phase bone scan
C. Lymphoscintigraphy
7|P age
D. Bone marrow scan
73. Which of the following scenario will present a normal
gall bladder scan?
69. All of the following radiopharmaceuticals can be used
to evaluate lung physiology, except: A. The gall bladder and small bowel is seen more than 60
minutes post radiopharmaceutical administration
A. Tc-99m MAA
B. Non-visualization of the gall bladder but small intestine
B. Xenon-131 gas
is visualized
C. Krypton-81m gas
C. The gall bladder and small bowel is seen within 60
D. Tc-99m DTPA minutes post radiopharmaceutical administration
D. Non-visualization of the small intestine but gall bladder
is visualized
70. Performing lung ventilation scintigraphy can be
accomplished by which of the following phases:
1. single breath 74. A positive bleeding scan of the GI tract will be
presented as:
2. equilibrium
A. Abnormal radiotracer hot spot conforming bowel
3. wash-out anatomy
A. 1 and 2 B. Abnormal radiotracer cold spot conforming bowel
B. 1 and 3 anatomy

C. 2 and 3 C. Slow movement of radiotracer in the GI tract in two

directions
D. 1, 2 and 3
D. Rapid movement of radiotracer in the GI tract in only
one direction
71. In lung perfusion, which of the following statements
correctly describes the transit of radiopharmaceutical to
the lungs? 75. A patient who will undergo thyroid scan experiences
dysphagia. Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals
A. The radiopharmaceutical travel to the right side of the will be most suitable for the examination?
heart and then to pulmonary artery then it is trapped in
the pulmonary beds A. Iodine-123 sodium iodide

B. The radiopharmaceutical travel to the left side of the B. Iodine-131 sodium iodide
heart and then to pulmonary artery then it is trapped in C. Tc-99m pertechnetate
the pulmonary beds
D. Both A and B
C. The radiopharmaceutical travel to the right side of the
heart and then to pulmonary vein then it is trapped in the
pulmonary beds
76. A patient underwent thyroidectomy because of thyroid
D. The radiopharmaceutical travel to the left side of the cancer. Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals will
heart and then to pulmonary vein then it is trapped in the most likely identify the presence of remnant thyroid
pulmonary beds tissues in the whole body?
A. Iodine-123 sodium iodide

72. If Tc-99m HIDA is injected to the patient, how will the B. Iodine-131 sodium iodide
radiopharmaceutical be localized into the gallbladder?
C. Tc-99m pertechnetate
A. It will be taken up, transported and excreted by the
D. Both A and B
Kupffer cells.
B. It will be taken up, transported and excreted by the
hepatocytes 77. Which of the following disease process of the thyroid
gland is characterized scintigraphically as enlarged gland
C. It will be phagocytosized by the Kupffer cells present in
and diffusely increased uptake?
the gallbladder
A. Thyroiditis
D. It will be localized via sodium-potassium pump within
the gall bladder B. Thyroid cancer

8|P age
C. Grave’s disease B. Only photons of the correct energy that are detected
simultaneously by detectors 360 degrees apart from each
D. Thyroid nodule
other.
C. Only photons of the correct energy that are detected
78. Tc-99m methylene diphosphonate is the most consecutively by detectors 180 degrees apart from each
radiopharmaceutical for bone imaging and the localization other.
is mainly dependent on the following:
D. Only photons of the correct energy that are detected
1. osteoblastic activity consecutively by detectors 360 degrees apart from each
other.
2. osteoblastic activity
3. regional blood flow
83. A very important concept in the interpretation of PET
A. 1 and 2 scan which denotes measurement of the activity seen in
B. 1 and 3 the region of interest relative to the body as a whole.

C. 2 and 3 A. Hounsfield units

D. 1, 2, and 3 B. Standard Uptake Value

C. Region of Interest

79. In three-phase bone scan, how many post injection of D. Localized dose
the radiopharmaceutical should blood pool phase be
started?
84. Which of the following are the uses of PET imaging?
A. 1 minute
1. Cancer detection
B. 5 minutes
2. Cancer stage determination
C. 2 hours
3. Evaluation of cancer treatment effectiveness
D. 4 hours
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
80. Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals can be
used to diagnose the presence of occult infections? C. 2 and 3

A. Indium 111- WBC D. 1, 2, and 3

B. Gallium-67 citrate
C. Tc-99m pyrophosphate 85. All of the following imaging planes can be
reconstructed in MPR, except:
D. Both A and B
A. axial
B. coronal
81. Which x-ray interaction with matter is the basis for
positron emission tomography scan? C. sagittal

A. Compton effect D. oblique

B. Photoelectric effect
C. Pair production 86. How many views are obtained for a routine
mammogram?
D. Photodisintegration
A. 2
B. 4
82. In PET imaging, which of the following accurately
describes coincidence detection? C. 6

A. Only photons of the correct energy that are detected D. 8

simultaneously by detectors 180 degrees apart from each
other.
87. Which of the following views will demonstrate better
visualization of the medial breast tissue?
9|P age
A. Medio-lateral oblique D. The liver have an echogenic periphery with
hypoechoic center
B. Latero-medial oblique
C. Cranio-caudad
93. What is the sonographical appearance of
D. Caudo-cranial
cholelithiasis?
A. Curvilinear hypoechoic leading edge with posterior
88. What is the most accurate measurement to assess acoustic shadowing
gestational age in the second trimester?
B. Curvilinear hyperechoic leading edge with posterior
A. double decidual sac acoustic shadowing

B. crown-rump length C. Curvilinear hypoechoic leading edge with anterior

acoustic shadowing
C. bi-parietal diameter
D. Curvilinear hyperechoic leading edge with anterior
D. femur length acoustic shadowing

89. For abnormality localization, which of the following 94. What is the normal thickness of the gall bladder wall?
anatomical landmarks in liver sonography will be used to
separate the anterior segment of the right hepatic lobe A. 3 mm
from the medial segment of the left hepatic lobe?
B. 4 mm
A. right hepatic vein
C. 5 mm
B. middle hepatic vein
D. 6 mm
C. left hepatic vein
D. ligamentum teres
95. What is the typical measurement of kidneys among
adults in ultrasound?
90. With regards to liver echogenicity, which of the A. 5-7 cm
following is correct?
B. 6-9 cm
A. The liver normally slightly more echogenic compared
C. 9-13 cm
with the right kidney.
D. 15-20 cm
B. The liver is more echogenic than the pancreas.
C. The liver is normally slightly less echogenic compared
with the right kidney 96. To minimize motion and acquire images of diagnostic
quality, coronary CT should be performed at what heart
D. The liver is more hypoechoic than the spleen
rate?
A. 60 beats/min
91. Sonographically, what is the main difference between
B. 70 beats/min
a hepatic vein and a portal vein?
C. 80 beats/min
A. The portal vein has an echogenic rim
D. 90 beats/min
B. The hepatic veins have no echogenic rim
C. The hepatic and portal vein are hypoechoic
97. Which of the following disease processes, Rigler sign
D. Both A and B
denotes?
A. pneumoperitoneum
92. Which of the following sonographical appearance is
B. pleural effusion
indicative of fatty liver?
C. ascites
A. The liver appears more echogenic than the right
kidney. D. pneumothorax
B. The liver appears less echogenic than the right kidney.
C. The liver comprise an anechoic lumen
10 | P a g e
98. Which of the following diagnostic imaging procedures 103. In second generation CT scanners, bow tie filters
will be ordered for a patient who suffered an acute head are used. Which of the following statements incorrectly
trauma? describes the purpose for this type of filtration?
A. Brain CT scan A. Bow tie filters minimize the dynamic range of
exposures at the detector.
B. Brain CT scan with contrast
B. Bow tie filters attenuate little in the center, but
C. Brain MRI
attenuation increases with increasing distance from the
D. Brain MRI with contrast central ray.
C. Bow tie filters attenuate more in the center, but
attenuation increases with increasing distance from the
99. Which of the following best describes subarachnoid central ray.
hemorrhage?
D. Bow tie filters reduces scatter radiation incident to the
A. It is usually caused by injury to the middle meningeal detectors.
artery which is biconvex and lenticular shape
B. It is caused by venous injury of the bridging cortical
veins which is crescentic in shape 104. The corresponding field of view for a 50 degree fan
beam angle is _____________.
C. It is caused by aneurysm rupture or post-traumatic
superficial cortical contusions A. 50 cm diameter

D. None of the choices B. 7 cm diameter

C. 18 cm diameter

100. Which of the following disease process is D. 40 mm diameter

considered a surgical emergency?
A. Epidural hemorrhage
105. Which of the following terms below is associated
B. Subdural hemorrhage with number crunchers?
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage A. algorithm

D. Aneurysm B. array processors

C. convolution

101. What is the appearance of an acute intracranial D. image reconstruction

hemorrhage in a T1-weighted image?
A. hyperintense
106. In helical scanning, what interpolation algorithm will
B. hypointense allow greater flexibility in the choice of pitch?

C. hyperintense surrounded by hypointense margin A. z-filtering

D. hypointense surrounded by hyperintense margin B. linear interpolation

C. c-filtering

102. Which of the following is not true about tube currents D. non-linear interpolation
in CT scan?
A. Tube currents can range up to 1,000 mA
107. In Mo-99 – Tc99m generator systems, how many
B. Tube currents are frequently modulated as the x-ray hours will it take for the generator to reach equilibrium?
tube rotates around the patient
A. 4 hours
C. Tube currents increase when the path length
B. 6 hours
decreases.
C. 24 hours
D. Tube currents increase when the path length
increases. D. 66 hours

11 | P a g e
108. If a nuclear medicine technologist wanted to A. Increased scan time
increase the resolution, which of the following parameter
B. Decreased scan time
manipulations is correct?
C. Increased resolution
A. The NM technologist should select the thickest
scintillation crystal available. D. Decreased resolution
B. The NM technologist should select the largest
collimator hole available
114. In PET scanning, which of the following terms
C. The NM technologist should select the thickest septa describe the measurement of the difference in arrival
collimators available times of the two annihilation photons from an annihilation
event?
D. The NM technologist should select the most number of
PMT for a detector available. A. Line of Response
B. Coincidence Detection
109. What is the corresponding energy resolution of a C. Ordered Subset Expectation Maximization
gamma camera if the measured photopeak width is set at
21 keV for Tc-99m? D. Time of Flight

A. 10%
B. 15% 115. Which of the following statements below is false
about quality control procedures in nuclear medicine?
C. 20%
A. Dose calibrator is used to determine the amount of
D. 25% Mo-99 that breakthrough the eluate.
B. Color indicator paper is used in alumina breakthrough
110. In pulse height analysis, which of the following C. Aurin tricarboxylic acid is the agent used to check for
statements is correct? the presence of pyrogens
A. Wide windows produce images in a short time. D. Mo-99 is a radionuclide contaminant
B. Wide windows minimizes scatter photons which
improves image quality
116. To check the field uniformity of a scintillation
C. Narrow windows produce images in a short time camera, which of the following should be used?
D. Narrow windows accepts more Compton events than A. Co-57 sheet source
wide windows
B. Quadrant bar phantom
111. Which of the following collimators below will most
likely be used in SPECT imaging? C. Bar pattern phantom

A. Parallel-hole collimators D. Cesium-137 check source

B. Pin-hole collimators
C. Converging collimators 117. Which of the following types of radionuclides would
be most ideal for therapeutic nuclear medicine?
D. Diverging collimators
A. Alpha emitters
B. Negatron emitters
112. What reconstruction algorithm will most likely be
used in SPECT imaging to minimize artifacts? C. Positron emitters

A. back projection algorithm D. Gamma emitters

B. filtered back projection algorithm

C. iterative algorithm 118. Which of the following dosimeters will most likely be
used if one wants to monitor extremity doses of personnel
D. algebraic reconstruction algorithm handling radionuclides?
A. TLD
113. What is the significant effect of using multi-headed B. OSL
cameras over single head cameras?
C. Ring
12 | P a g e
D. Pen dosimeter 3. UTZ
A. 1 only
119. What happens when a superconducting magnet B. 1 and 2
experience quench?
C. 1 and 3
A. The superconducting wire increases its temperature
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. The energy stored in the magnetic field is converted
into heat
124. Which of the following gradients is also called the
C. The superconducting wire will allow flow of electricity
read-out gradient?
with no electric resistance
A. Phase encoding gradient
D. Both A and B
B. Frequency encoding gradient
C. Slice selection gradient
120. What shielding material is used in RF shielding?
D. RF gradient
A. aluminum
B. iron
125. Which of the following tissue relaxation
C. copper
characteristics will appear dark?
D. cobalt
1. short T1
2. short T2
121. Which of the following statements below describes
3. long T1
the frequency encode gradient?
4. long T2
A. It is used to locate a slice in the scan plane selected
A. 1 and 3
B. It is used to spatially locate a signal along the short
axis of the image B. 1 and 4
C. It is used to spatially locate a signal along the long axis C. 2 and 3
of the image
D. 2 and 4
D. It is used to adjust the frequency of signals in the
image
126. Which of the following statements below correctly
describes Dixon technique?
122. To improve spatial resolution using the slice
thickness parameter: A. It involves selecting a TE at half the periodicity so that
fat and water are out of phase
1. narrow transmit bandwidth
B. It involves selecting a TR at half the periodicity so that
2. broad transmit bandwidth fat and water are out of phase
3. steep slope C. Image with the spin in-phase and image with the spin
out of phase are acquired
4. shallow slope
D. Both A and C
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3
127. Which of the following substances will affect the
C. 1 and 4
external magnetic field by locally decreasing it?
D. 2 and 4
A. Paramagnetic substances
B. Diamagnetic substances
123. Which of the following imaging modality will depend
C. Ferromagnetic substances
image production based on the radiation emitted from the
body? D. Non-magnetic substances
1. Nuclear medicine
2. MRI
13 | P a g e
128. At 0.5 Tesla, what would be the precessional D. 12
frequency of a hydrogen nuclei?
A. 21.23 MHz
133. Which of the following happens after a radiowave is
B. 42.57 MHz turned off?
C. 63.86 MHz 1. Increase longitudinal magnetization
D. None of the choices 2. Decrease longitudinal magnetization
3. Increase transverse magnetization
129. Which of the following statements does not support 4. Decrease transverse magnetization
Faraday’s law of induction?
A. 1 and 3
A. The induced voltage is proportional to the rate of
B. 1 and 4
change of magnetic field
C. 2 and 3
B. The induced voltage is proportional to the rate of
change of electric field D. 2 and 4
C. The induced voltage is proportional to the number of
turns in a coil of wire
134. Alignment of the magnetic moment in the same
D. The induced voltage is in a direction that it opposes direction to the external magnetic field have:
magnetic field which causes it.
1. Low energy state
2. High energy state
130. Which of the following external parameters will
produce a T2-weighted image? 3. Spin-down

1. short TR 4. Spin-up

2. short TE A. 1 and 3

3. long TR B. 1 and 4

4. long TE C. 2 and 3

A. 1 and 2 D. 2 and 4

B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3 135. He used excised rat tissue to conclude that there
were significant differences in NMR parameters on
D. 3 and 4 normal and tumor tissues.
131. What is the net magnetization vector of the patient in A. Raymond Damadian
a normal environment?
B. Otto Stern
A. random
C. Paul Lauterbur
B. zero
D. Felix Bloch
C. increasing
D. decreasing
136. Which of the following is true regarding external
magnetic field?
132. After placing the patient in strong external magnetic A. SNR increases with increasing external magnetic field
field, there were ten protons pointing down and twenty
protons pointing up. An RF was delivered causing 3 B. The probability of protons that are aligned parallel
protons to point down. What is the net nuclear increases with increasing external magnetic field
magnetization vector? C. The net magnetization vector increases with
A. 4 increasing external magnetic field

B. 7 D. All of the choices

C. 10

14 | P a g e
137. The protons are said to be out of phase when: 142. Which of the following statements below is true?
A. RF is sent in A. The faster the molecular motion, the more difficult it is
for a substance to release energy to its surroundings.
B. Exposed to strong external magnetic field
B. The slower the molecular motion, the more difficult it is
C. RF is turned off
for a substance to release energy to its surroundings.
D. Both B and C
C. Fat has a high inherent energy that makes it efficient
to absorb energy.

138. Which of the following external parameters will D. Water have low inherent energy that makes it efficient
produce a proton density-weighted image? to absorb energy

1. short TR
2. short TE 143. In MRI, what term best describes the loss of energy?

3. long TR A. Resonance

4. long TE B. Relaxation

A. 1 and 2 C. Repetition

B. 1 and 3 D. Rephasing

C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4 144. Which of the following will be used to rephase the
protons?
A. Gradients
139. What will happen to the precessing protons when an
RF is delivered to it? B. 90 degree RF pulse

A. The protons will remain in equilibrium C. 180 degree RF pulse

B. Phase coherence is established D. Both A and C

C. The protons loses phase coherence

D. The protons will lose energy 145. When the RF is sent in:
1. Increase longitudinal magnetization

140. Which of the following is true about free induction 2. Decrease longitudinal magnetization
decay signal?
3. Increase transverse magnetization
A. The term free refers to the absence of RF pulse
4. Decrease transverse magnetization
B. The term induction decay refers to the decay of the
A. 1 and 3
induced signal in the receiver coil
B. 1 and 4
C. FID is produced when all spins diphase after an RF is
removed C. 2 and 3
D. All of the choices D. 2 and 4

141. If there is a large component of the transverse 146. Which of the following best describes T2 relaxation
magnetization, the amplitude of the magnetization that time?
cuts the coil is large. What is the signal?
A. Time it takes for 63% of the longitudinal magnetization
A. hyperintense to recover in tissue.
B. isointense B. Time it takes for 37% of the longitudinal magnetization
to recover in tissue.
C. hypointense
C. Time it takes for 63% of the transverse magnetization
D. metaintense
to be lost due to dephasing
D. Time it takes for 37% of the transverse magnetization
to be lost due to dephasing
15 | P a g e
 1. increased TR
147. If the TE is equal to 80 ms and the TR is equal to 2. decreased TR
1500 ms, what would be the resultant image?
3. increased TE
A. T1 weighted image
4. decreased TE
B. T2 weighted image
A. 1 and 3
C. Proton density image
B. 1 and 4
D. Both A and C
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
148. Which of the following parameters will produce short
scale of contrast?
153. Which of the following will diminish T1 effects?
1. short TE
A. short TE
2. long TE
B. long TE
3. short TR
C. short TR
4. long TR
D. long TR
A. 1 and 3
B. 3 only
154. Which of the following disease process will not
C. 2 and 3
generate high signal in T2-weighted image?
D. 2 and 4
A. Infection
B. Inflammation
149. Which of the following will not allow full recovery of
C. Edema
the longitudinal components in most tissues?
D. Calcification
A. short TR
B. long TR
155. What is the solution for Gibbs artifact in MRI?
C. short TE
A. increase FOV
D. long TE
B. decrease FOV
C. increase matrix size
150. Which of the following will allow full dephasing of the
transverse components in fat and water? D. increase matrix size
A. short TE
B. long TE 156. What is the best solution for ghosting artifact seen in
brain MRI?
C. short TR
A. Good patient communication
D. long TR
B. Decrease in exposure factors
C. Cardiac and respiratory gating
151. Which of the following tissue compositions have the
longest T2 relaxation time? D. All of the choices
A. Water
B. Fat 157. In passive shielding, what material is placed in the
walls of the examination room?
C. CSF
A. copper
D. White matter
B. iron
C. niobium
152. Which of the following will increase SNR?
16 | P a g e
D. titanium B. Hounsfield number
C. Agatston score
D. Lambert-Beer value
158. Which of the following coils will provide large
coverage but relatively poor SNR? 164. A CT angiogram of the neck is performed primarily
for the evaluation of what blood vessel?
A. small coil A. Carotid veins
B. large coil B. Jugular veins
C. Carotid arteries
C. surface coil D. Coronary arteries
D. transceiver coil
165. Which of the following pathology would most likely
require the intravenous injection of an iodinated contrast
159. Which of the following will null the signal from media during a CT study of the chest to present accurate
normal marrow, thereby increasing the conspicuity of demonstration?
bone lesions? A. bronchiectasis
B. pneumonia
A. T1-weighting C. mediastinal lymphadenopathy
B. T2-weighting D. pulmonary nodule

C. FLAIR 166. The most common indication for CT-guided biopsy is

the ____________________.
D. STIR
A. Identification of foreign bodies
B. Confirmation of malignancy
C. Quantification of bone density
160. After administration of iron oxide, a neoplasm will
D. Measurement of tissue perfusion
appear ________ in a T2-weighted image
A. bright 167. CTA of the renal arteries should be performed using
a section width of:
B. brighter A. 1.25 mm or less
C. dark B. 2-3 mm
C. 3-5 mm
D. darker D. 5-7 mm

168. Complete CT examination of the chest for

161. In an effort to reduce patient radiation dose, the investigation of bronchogenic carcinoma should include
technical factors of the applied CT protocol should be sections from the __________________
optimized on the basis of: A. Mandible through the liver
A. age B. Apices to the diaphragm
C. Top of the apices to the liver
B. sex D. Clavicles through the adrenals
C. physical condition 169. After initiation of rapid bolus administration of an
D. height and weight iodinated contrast agent, approximately, how many
seconds will contrast enhancement occur in the portal
venous phase of the liver?
162. Which of the following laboratory measurements can A. 15-20 seconds
be used to evaluate the renal function of the patient? B. 25-35 seconds
1. BUN C. 60-70 seconds
2. PTT D. 120-180 seconds
3. creatinine
A. 1 only 170. The bolus duration of any IV contrast agent
B. 1 and 2 only administration can be calculated as a product of injection
C. 1 and 3 only flow rate and ________________?
D. 1, 2 and 3 A. Scan time
B. Osmolality
163. The volume and density of calcium measured in the C. Cardiac output
coronary arteries on MDCT examination are quantified D. Contrast agent volume
with the use of a value called ____________________.
A. Euler constant
17 | P a g e
171. During contrast-enhanced CT examination of the B. Pre-detector collimation reduces the production
chest, streaking artifact may obscure portions of the of scatter radiation
superior mediastinum because of dense concentrations C. Pre-detector collimation determines the scan field
of iodine in the: of view
A. Descending aorta D. Pre-detector collimation removes scatter
B. Superior vena cava radiation before it reaches the detectors
C. Ascending aorta
D. Pulmonary artery 179. Which of the following would be considered the best
method to reduce respiratory motion in a CT image?
172. The average density of a mass within the kidney A. Good patient-technologist communication
measures -75 HU. What is most likely the mass B. Reduce scan time
composition? C. Immobilization device
A. cyst D. Glucagon administration
B. lipoma
C. stone
D. hydrocele 180. When a radiologic technologist reduces the scan
field of view for a particular body part, which of the
173. Which component of the CT scanner is responsible following technical changes will occur?
for the mathematical calculations of the image A. The displayed image will appear larger
reconstruction process? B. Spatial resolution increases
A. DAS C. Smaller number of detectors are activated
B. Analog to digital converter D. The displayed image appears smaller.
C. Digital to analog converter
D. Array processor 181. What is the average CT number value for blood?
A. -20 HU
174. Filament sizes of modern CT x-ray tubes range B. +10 HU
between: C. +45 HU
A. 0.5 mm to 1.2 mm D. +100 HU
B. 2.0 mm to 3.0 mm
182. During which of the following CT examinations is
C. 5.5 mm to 7.8 mm
misregistration artifact most likely to occur?
D. 25.0 mm to 31.5 mm
A. brain
175. Which of the following is used to archive a hard copy
B. pelvis
of a CT image?
C. neck
A. Laser film D. abdomen
B. PACS
C. CD 183. Bow-tie filters are employed in CT x-ray system to
D. DICOM reduce:
A. image noise
176. What detector configuration does fourth generation
B. low spatial frequency signal
CT scanners use?
C. patient radiation dose
A. Rotate-translate D. high spatial frequency signal
B. Stationary-stationary
C. Rotate-stationary 184. Which of the following technical factors is/are
D. Rotate-rotate involved in the determination of section width for MDCT
images?
1. scan field of view
177. Which of the following mathematical reconstruction 2. beam collimation
methods is used by most modern CT scanners? 3. detector configuration
A. Back-projection A. 2 only
B. Iterative methods B. 1 and 2 only
C. Fourier transform C. 1 and 3 only
D. Filtered back projection D. 2 and 3 only

185. A region of interest measurement placed over a

178. Which of the following statements regarding pre- portion of a CT image provides which of the following?
detector collimation of the CT x-ray beam is true? A. distance
A. Pre-detector collimation reduces patient radiation B. diameter
dose C. linear attenuation coefficient
D. average CT number
18 | P a g e
 B. hypoglossal adenoma
186. The maximum beam collimation for a MDCT system C. olfactory neuroblastoma
with a detector array of 64 detectors, each 0.625mm wide D. optic nerve glioma
is:
A. 1.25 mm 193. After initiation of rapid bolus demonstration of an
B. 5.00 mm iodinated contrast agent, the nephrographic phase of
C. 10.00 mm renal contrast enhancement occurs at approximately:
D. 40.00 mm A. 20-25 seconds
B. 30-40 seconds
187. Which of the following statements comparing the C. 70-90 seconds
efficiency of scintillation and gas ionization detector is D. 3-5minutes
correct?
A. Both have approximately the same capture 194. Which of the following is a common complication of
efficiency CT-guided biopsy of the lung?
B. The scintillation detector has a higher capture A. Pulmonary embolism
efficiency B. aspiration
C. Unlike the scintillation detector, the gas ionization C. pneumoconiosis
detector has a problem with afterglow. D. pneumothorax
D. Gas ionization detector has a higher conversion
efficiency. 195. A CT examination of the lumbar spine reveals a
herniated disc at the level of L2-L3. Which of the following
188. During CT x-ray production, the electromagnetic reformation planes would best demonstrate posterior
steering of the electron beam from the cathode to two compression of the disc material onto the spinal cord?
alternating targets is referred to as: A. coronal
A. Prospective gating B. sagittal
B. Ultrafast CT C. axial
C. Twin CAT D. oblique
D. Flying focal spot
196. During HRCT of the lungs, edematous changes in
189. A CT image is displayed in a window with a level of
the posterior lungs may be differentiated by positioning
+200 and a width of 1000. Which of the following
the patient to which of the following positions?
statements is correct?
A. supine
A. Pixels with values between +200 HU and -1000 B. prone
will appear white. C. right lateral decubitus
B. Pixels with values greater than +200 HU and - D. left lateral decubitus
1000 will appear black
C. Pixels with values between -300 HU and +700 197. Coronary artery calcium quantitation by MDCT exam
HU will be assigned shades of gray is used primarily to assess which of the following
D. Pixels with values between -1200 HU and +1200 pathologies?
HU will be assigned shades of gray. A. Aortic aneurysm
B. Atherosclerotic disease
190. Which of the following is the preferred contrast C. Coronary artery stenosis
enhancement phase for CT acquisition of the spleen? D. Ejection fraction
A. Pre-contrast phase
B. Equilibrium phase 198. Which of the following describes a long term
C. Arterial phase condition in which excessive mucus is secreted into the
D. Portal venous phase bronchi, causing cough and shortness of breath?
A. Acute bronchitis
B. Chronic bronchitis
191. Which of following diseases or conditions will most C. Acute bronchiectasis
likely require intravenous injection of contrast media D. Chronic bronchiectasis
during chest CT scan for accurate demonstration?
A. pneumonia 199. Foreign objects that happen to enter the respiratory
B. asbestosis system are most likely to lodge into what portion of the
C. dissecting aortic aneurysm respiratory tract?
D. solitary pulmonary nodule A. trachea
B. right primary bronchus
192. The benign mass of the eighth cranial nerve known C. left primary bronchus
as vestibular schwannoma may be also termed as: D. carina
A. acoustic neuroma
19 | P a g e
200. The radiologist describes the radiograph of Patient A D. Rickets
having increased lung dimensions, barrel chest with
depressed and flattened diaphragm obscuring
208. Patient B underwent an x-ray examination of the leg
costophrenic angles and elongated heart shadows.
and the radiologist noticed lucent areas with thin cortex
Which of the following is the diagnosis?
and sharp boundaries in the upper leg of his radiograph.
A. Atelectasis
What is the most likely diagnosis?
B. Emphysema
C. Pneumonia A. Bone cyst
D. Empyema B. Chondrosarcoma
C. Enchondroma
201. It is most common in young adults and is D. Osteochondroma
characterized by loops of small bowel joined by fistulas or
connected openings with adjacent loops of intestine. 209. It is an abnormal or exaggerated convex curvature
A. Fibrous adhesions of the thoracic spine that results in stooped posture and
B. Crohn’s disease reduced height.
C. Intussusception A. Scoliosis
D. Volvulus B. Lordosis
C. Kyphosis
202. Air-filled coiled-spring appearance in the radiograph D. Scheuermann’s disease
is a characteristic of what pathology?
A. Fibrous adhesions
B. Crohn’s disease 210. What portion of the vertebral column is injured when
C. Intussusception the diagnosis is Jefferson’s fracture?
D. Volvulus A. atlas
B. axis
203. Which of the following pathologic indications is often C. dens
associated with an anterior dislocation of the humeral D. vertebra prominens
head?
A. Bankart lesion 211. A double spinous process sign found on AP
B. Hill-Sachs defect radiograph of the spine will suggest which of the following
C. Frozen shoulder fracture?
D. Impingement syndrome A. Hangman’s fracture
B. Clay shoveler’s fracture
204. What nerve is compressed resulting to carpal tunnel C. Jefferson’s fracture
syndrome? D. Teardrop burst fracture
A. Radial nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Median nerve 212. A patient wearing a lap-type seat belt during a car
D. Lateral nerve accident will most likely sustain what type of fracture?

205. The following fractures are specifically transverse A. Compression fracture

types, except: B. Chance fracture
C. Spondylolisthesis
A. Colle’s fracture D. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Smith’s fracture
C. Boxer’s fracture
D. Bennett’s fracture 213. Which of the following is the acoustic window for
206. What portion of the thumb is sprained or teared demonstrating bladder calculi or masses within the
resulting to the diagnosis of Skier’s thumb? bladder?

A. Ulnar collateral ligament A. uterus

B. Radial collateral ligament B. half-filled bladder
C. Metacarpal ligament C. filled bladder
D. 1st Metacarphophalangeal ligament D. prostate

207. Which of the following disease affecting children is 214. It is the most common benign solid lumps or tumors
caused by lack of calcium, phosphorus and vitamin D in composed of fibrous and glandular tissue.
bones resulting to bone softening? A. Cyst
A. Osteomalacia B. Fibroadenoma
B. Osteogenesis imperfecta congenita C. Fibrocystic changes
C. Osteogenesis imperfecta tarda D. Intraductal papilloma
20 | P a g e
 D. Gallbladder for stones
215. Which of the following sonographic pattern best
223. What anatomic landmark can be used to
describes hydronephrosis?
sonographically locate the left adrenal gland?
A. Distortion of the reniform shape A. Aorta, stomach, spleen
B. Multiple cystic space masses throughout the B. Aorta, spleen, left kidney
kidneys C. Inferior vena cava, stomach spleen
C. Fluid filled pelvocalyceal collecting system D. Inferior vena cana, spleen, left kidney
D. Fluid filled pararenal space
224. Which of the following most likely appears as non-
216. A patient presents with a dilated intrahepatic duct, shadowing, non-mobile, echogenic foci imaged within the
dilated gallbladder, and a dilated common bile duct. gallbladder lumen?
Which of the following is most likely the level of A. polyps
obstruction? B. calculi
A. Proximal common bile duct C. biliary gravel
B. Distal common bile duct D. sludge balls
C. Distal common hepatic duct
D. Cystic duct 225. A malignant solid renal mass can be all of the
following except:
217. What is the best sonographic window to image the A. renal cell carcinoma
left hemidiaphragm? B. adenocarcinoma of the kidneys
A. liver C. oncocytoma
B. spleen D. transitional cell carcinoma
C. stomach
D. left kidney 226. Which of the following statements correctly
describes the anatomic location of structures adjacent to
218. In a patient with acute hepatitis, what is the the spleen?
appearance of the liver parenchyma sonographically? A. The diaphragm is superior, lateral, and adjacent
A. hypoechoic to the spleen
B. echogenic B. The fundus of the stomach and lesser sac are
C. normal medial and posterior to the splenic hilum
D. anechoic C. The left kidney lies inferior and medial to the
spleen
219. If a mass in the area of the pancreatic head is found, D. The pancreas lies anterior and medial to the
what other structure should be examined spleen
sonographically?
A. liver 227. A 44 year old patient presents with painless jaundice
B. inferior vena cava and a palpable right upper quadrant mass which is most
C. spleen characteristic of which of the following?
D. kidney A. Acute hepatitis
B. cirrhosis
220. What is the most common benign neoplasm of the C. Courvoisier’s gallbladder
liver? D. Porcelain gallbladder
A. hemangioma
B. angiomyolipoma 228. What is the calcification of the gallbladder wall
C. focal nodular hyperplasia called?
D. hepatocellular carcinoma A. cholesterolosis
B. Courvoisier’s gallbladder
221. What is the most common primary carcinoma of the C. Hydropic gallbladder
pancreas? D. Porcelain gallbladder
A. insulinoma
B. cystadenocarcinoma 229. Which of the following is characteristic of a pelvic
C. adenocarcinoma kidney?
D. pancreatic pseudocyst A. An abnormal appearance in normal location
B. A normal appearance in abnormal location
222. If the prostate is found to be enlarged, which of the C. A normal appearance in normal location
following should the sonographer also check? D. Irregular shape
A. Spleen for possible enlargement
B. Scrotum for hydroceles 230. Where are transplanted kidneys usually placed?
C. Kidneys for hydronephrosis A. Within the renal fossa
21 | P a g e
 B. In the pelvis along the iliopsoas margin A. 1.7 MHz
C. In the pelvis anterior to the urinary bladder B. 2.2 MHz
D. Within the abdominal rectus sheath C. 2.9 MHz
D. 3.8 MHz
231. Sonographers are sometimes asked to assist in
sonographic guided needle thoracentesis? What is the
239. Which of the following are characteristic of
recommended position of the patient?
diagnostic ultrasound?
A. Trendelenberg position 1. can be transmitted through a vacuum
B. Sitting upright 2. transverse wave
C. Sims position 3. electromagnetic wave
D. Supine position 4. mechanical vibration wave
A. 1, 2, and 3
232. In ultrasound examination of the liver, one can B. 1 and 3 only
recognize fatty infiltration of the liver by all of the following C. 2 and 4 only
except: D. 4 only
A. Hepatomegaly
B. Parenchymal echoes are echogenic 240. From slowest to fastest, which of the following
C. Decreased through transmission properly sequences ultrasound velocity in tissue?
D. Focal mass A. Air, fat, bone, blood, muscle
B. Fat, air, blood, muscle, bone
233. What term is used to describe onset pain while C. Air, fat, blood, muscle, bone
scanning over the gallbladder? D. Bone, muscle, fat, blood, air
A. Kehr’s sign
B. Candle sign 241. Ultrasound and x-rays differ in which of the following
C. Murphy’s sign ways?
D. Chanderlier’s sign 1. One is transverse, other is longitudinal
2. One has constant frequency, the other variable
234. Which of the following terms describes a normal frequency
variant of the liver in which the right lobe of the liver 3. One has constant velocity, the other variable
extends below the lower pole of the right kidney? velocity
A. Murphy’s lobe 4. One has constant wavelength, the other
B. Caudate lobe variable wavelength
C. Extra lobe A. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D. Riedel’s lobe B. 1 and 2 are correct
C. 1 and 3 are correct
235. Which of the following terms describes the D. All are correct
malformation variant in the gallbladder that involves an
acutely angulated pouch of the fundus? 242. From lowest to highest, which of the following is the
A. Phyrygian cup correct arrangement of tissue types based on acoustic
B. Murphy’s cup impedance?
C. Duplication of the gallbladder A. Solid, liquid, gas
D. Hartmann’s pouch B. Gas, liquid, solid
C. Liquid, solid, gas
236. Splenomegaly is diagnosed when the spleen is D. Solid, gas, liquid
greater than how many centimeter?
A. 8 243. The following types of resolution apply to diagnostic
B. 11 ultrasound, except:
C. 13 A. Spatial resolution
D. 15 B. Contrast resolution
C. Energy resolution
237. Which of the following will improve lateral D. Temporal resolution
resolution?
A. Ring-down 244. An increase in ultrasound frequency will result in:
B. Decreased beam diameter 1. shorter wavelength
C. Spatial pulse length 2. deeper penetration
D. Damping 3. better axial resolution
4. better lateral resolution
238. What is the approximate frequency of ultrasound A. 1, 2 and 3
that has a wavelength of 0.4 mm in soft tissue? B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
22 | P a g e
 D. Only 4 D. Piezoelectric crystal

245. Which of the following is inversely proportional to 253. A duplex scanner is one that incorporates which of
ultrasound frequency? the following?
1. velocity A. Realtime and deadtime
2. period B. Realtime and Doppler
3. intensity C. Doppler and M-mode
4. wavelength D. Doppler and segmental arrays
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3 254. Which of the following organs will the mirror-image
C. 2 and 4 artifact is most likely observed?
D. All are correct A. Diaphragm
B. Kidney
246. For an unfocused ultrasound transducer, the near C. Lung
field will depend on which of the following? D. Pancreas
A. Backing material and wavelength
B. Crystal diameter and frequency 255. Which type of artifact could result from surgical clips,
C. Crystal thickness and wavelength shotgun pellets or other small metallic bodies?
D. Matching layer and crystal diameter A. Comet tail
B. Mirror image
247. What is the critical dimension of a piezoelectric C. Ring down
crystal? D. Reverberation
A. Length
B. Diameter 256. Which of the following component of a
C. Thickness radiopharmaceutical is responsible for providing gamma
D. Height rays necessary for image formation nuclear medicine?
A. Biologically active molecule
248. Which of the following transducer components is B. Tracer
found immediately behind the piezoelectric crystal? C. Radionuclide
A. Matching layer D. Nuclide
B. Acoustic coupling
C. Damping material 257. All of the following organs exhibit a localization
D. Case mechanism through phagocytosis of radicolloids, except:
A. Liver
249. Which of the following describes the frequency B. Spleen
homogeneity of the ultrasound beam? C. Bone marrow
A. Bandwidth D. Pancreas
B. Q value
C. Spatial pulse length 258. Tc-99m red blood cells is utilized in all of the
D. Resonance frequency following nuclear medicine imaging procedures, except:
A. Gastrointestinal bleeding
250. What ultrasound operational mode is used B. Pulmonary perfusion imaging
principally to measure the depth of interfaces and their C. Radionuclide ventriculography
separation accurately? D. Hepatic hemangioma imaging
A. A-mode
B. B-mode 259. The following radiopharmaceuticals are used
C. M-mode exclusively in the evaluation of the thyroid, except:
D. None of the above A. Tc-99m Pertechnetate
B. Iodine-125 chloride
251. The amplification function of the receiver will C. Iodine-123 sodium iodide
increase sensitivity to which of the following? D. Iodine-131 sodium iodide
A. Weak signals
B. Weak echoes 260. Collimator A has thicker septa than Collimator B.
C. Strong signals What is the advantage of collimator A over collimator B?
D. Strong echoes A. High resolution
B. High sensitivity
252. Which part of the transducer controls ringdown? C. Increased magnification
A. Radiofrequency insulation D. Increased light conversion
B. Matching layer
C. Backing material
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261. The following nuclear medicine examinations will 269. In MRI, iron oxide is considered as:
employ the use of Low Energy High Resolution A. Negative contrast
collimators, except: B. Positive contrast
A. Bone imaging C. Relaxation contrast
B. Myocardial perfusion imaging using technetium D. Proton density contrast
C. Myocardial perfusion imaging using thallium
270. In an effort to prevent misregistration artifacts, CT
D. Parathyroid imaging
scan of the chest are typically obtained:
262. A nuclear medicine technologist accidentally drop an A. In full respiration during a single breath hold
unknown dose and type of radiopharmaceutical to the
floor and it spilled. What is the first thing to do? B. In full inspiration during a single breath hold
A. Immediately wipe the spill C. In full expiration during a single breath hold
B. Measure the activity of the spill
C. Inform the radiation safety officer D. In suspended expiration
D. Ask a janitor to clean the spill

263. In myocardial perfusion imaging using thallium, Prepared by: Adrian Luigi J. Morte, RRT
which of the following should be done first?
A. Administration of thallium-201 chloride
B. Stress test
C. Rest phase scanning
D. Stress phase scanning

264. Prior to any nuclear medicine imaging procedure

involving the lungs, what other diagnostic information
must be obtained from the patient?
A. Recent chest x-ray
B. Creatinine result
C. TB screening
D. CT pulmonary angiography

265. To demonstrate the right lobe of the thyroid gland,

what is most likely the position of the camera?
A. RAO
B. RPO
C. LPO
D. LAO

266. The following diagnostic imaging modalities require

the use of electromagnetic energy, except:
A. CT scan
B. MRI
C. Nuclear medicine
D. UTZ

267. MR scanning of the hip with ferromagnetic

prosthesis will induce which of the following artifact?
A. Aliasing
B. Ghosting
C. Warping distortion
D. Truncation

268. The following patients cannot be imaged using MRI,

except:
A. Claustrophobic patients
B. Patients with pacemaker
C. Patients with surgical clips
D. Patients with sensitivity to iodinated contrast
media

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