Martin Caon

Examination
Questions and
Answers in Basic
Anatomy and
Physiology
2000 Multiple Choice Questions
Examination Questions and Answers in Basic Anatomy and Physiology
Martin Caon

Examination Questions and Answers in Basic

Anatomy and Physiology
2000 Multiple Choice Questions
Martin Caon

School of Health Sciences

Flinders University

Bedford Park , South Australia , Australia

Additional material to this book can be downloaded from [Link]

ISBN 978-981-10-2331-6 ISBN 978-981-10-2332-3 (eBook) DOI 10.1007/978-981-10-2332-3

Library of Congress Control Number: 2016955049

© Springer Science+Business Media Singapore 2016

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Pref ace
Two thousand multiple choice questions that could be asked of a student of introduc tory human anatomy and physiology are
presented in 40 categories. It is assumed that users of these questions are teachers or students who have completed at least part of an
anatomy and physiology course that might be offered in the fi rst year of a university degree programme. It is also assumed that they
would have access to one of the anatomy and physiology textbooks (or similar) listed in the bibliography below. Each category has
an Introduction containing a summary of useful knowl edge pertinent to that category of question. However not all possible
information is provided within these Introductions, so a textbook is indispensable. The summary Introductions are composed with
vocabulary that may be unfamiliar to the beginning student but which should be known in order to understand the questions. You will

need to look up the meaning of many unfamiliar words as your studies progress. All questions have been used at least once, during
the author’s teaching career, in end of semester examinations of a university fi rst year undergraduate introductory anatomy and
physiology course or a physical science course for health science stu dents to support their anatomy and physiology study.
Consequently they refl ect the author’s choice of content. Students enrolled in the courses for which these ques tions were written
include nursing, midwifery, paramedic, physiotherapy, occupa tional therapy, nutrition and dietetics, health science students, exercise
science students and students taking the course as an elective. Often, the students did not have an extensive background in science
from their secondary schooling. Some knowledge of physical science is required to understand physiology; hence, physical science
questions are included. Students without some background knowledge in chemistry and physics will fi nd such questions challenging
and will need to work a little harder to develop their background knowledge. The boundary between chem istry and biochemistry is
not distinct; nevertheless, chemistry is implicit in physiol ogy. Furthermore, the physics of the body becomes physiology so gradually
that sometimes the boundary between the two is only noticed after it has been crossed. Some questions were diffi cult to categorise
and may span two (or more) catego ries. Furthermore, in order to answer some questions, you may need knowledge drawn from other
“sections” of anatomy different from the name of the section in
v

vi

Preface

which the question appears. This is not a bad thing as it emphasises the connected nature of human anatomy and physiology. Each
question is unique (there are no duplicates). However, many questions will be examining the same (or similar) material albeit with a
differently worded question or different choice of answers. If the questions are to be used to compile an examination, then care should
be taken to exclude questions that are too similar to already selected ones. On the other hand, if the questions are to be used for
instruction or study purposes, I would suggest including several similar questions in consecutive order to emphasise the point and to
give the student practice.

Advice to the Exam Candidate

The correct choice of answer for each question is provided. Accompanying the cor rect choice is a justifi cation for the choice or an
explanation of the correct answer and sometimes of why the other choices are incorrect. The degree of diffi culty var ies, but not by
intentional design. The perception of diffi culty depends on that part of science that the question examines, the level of scientifi c
background brought to the course by the student and their level of studious preparation for the examination.

There is only one best correct answer for each of the multiple choice questions among the four choices presented. However, there
may be more than one correct answer. You must choose the best one. In an examination, never leave a question unanswered. If you
cannot decide on an answer, guess at it (after eliminating any choices that you deem to be incorrect). That is, you will be rewarded for
the ability to decrease the number of choices from which you are guessing, from 4 to 3 or 2. In marking multiple choice questions, I
suggest that that one mark be allocated for a correct answer and that a quarter of a mark be deducted for a wrong answer or an
unanswered question. Deducting a quarter mark will reduce the score that would be gained by selecting an answer from the four choices
purely at random (i.e. guess ing), from about 25 % to about 6 %. Not to deduct a quarter mark is, in my opinion, unsound.

Be aware of questions that are asked in the negative. That is, those that have NOT true; or FALSE; or INCORRECT; or EXCEPT
one, in the stem. In this case you are seeking a statement that is wrong in order to answer the question. Do not be intimi dated by
arithmetical calculations. The calculation itself will be simple. Deciding what to add, multiply or divide with what, is the tricky part.

Some questions have been paraphrased from those published in the third edition of the book Human Science: Matter and Energy in
the Human Body (Caon, M., & Hickman, R. (2003), Crawford House Australia Publishing, Belair South Australia), and are used with
the authors’ permission.

Bedford Park, SA, Australia Martin Caon

Preface

Bibliography
vii

Textbooks suitable for use in an introductory anatomy and physiology course. Later editions may exist, and earlier editions will suffi ce:

Caon, M. & Hickman, R. (2003) Human Science: Matter and Energy in the Human Body 3rd ed, Crawford House Australia Publishing, Belair South
Australia. ISBN 0863332552 Marieb, E.N & Hoehn K.N. (2015) Human Anatomy & Physiology 10th ed, Pearson Martini, F.H., Nath, J.L. &
Bartholomew, E. F. (2015) Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology 10th ed, Pearson

McKinley, M.P. Oloughlin, V.D. & Bidle T.S. (2013) Anatomy & Physiology An Integrative Approach, McGraw Hill

Patton, K.T. & Thibodeau, G.A. (2016) Anatomy & Physiology 9th ed, Elsevier Saladin, K.S. (2012) Anatomy & Physiology: The unity of form and
function 6th ed, McGraw Hill Tortora, G.J. & Derrickson, B. (2012) Principles of Anatomy & Physiology 13th ed, Wiley Van De Graff, K.M. & Fox, S.I.
(1999) Concepts of human Anatomy & Physiology 5th ed, WCB VanPutte, C. Regan, A. Russo, A. & Seeley, R. (2016?) Seeley’s Anatomy & Physiology
11th ed, McGraw Hill

Contents
1 Organisation of the Body ........................................................................ 1

2 Cells and Tissues ..................................................................................... 7 2.1 Cells and Tissues

........................................................................... 7 2.2 Cell Cycle (Mitosis and Protein Synthesis) ................................... 27

3 Measurement, Errors and Data ............................................................. 35

4 Chemistry for Physiology ....................................................................... 43 4.1 Atoms and Molecules

.................................................................... 43 4.2 Solutions ........................................................................................ 52 4.3 Diffusion
and Osmosis ................................................................... 61 4.4 Tonicity, Moles and Osmoles ........ ................................................. 69
4.5 Acids, Bases and Buffers ............................................................... 79 4.6 Organic Chemistry and Macromolecules
...................................... 93

5 Integument ............................................................................................... 105 6 Homeostasis

............................................................................................. 119 7 Skeleton and Joints
................................................................................. 125 8 Muscles ..................................................................................................... 143
9 Gastro-Intestinal System ........................................................................ 161 10 Endocrine System
.................................................................................... 191 11 Renal System ...........................................................................................
211
 12 Cardiovascular System ........................................................................... 237 12.1 Blood
.............................................................................................. 237 12.2 Heart ..............................................................................................
250 12.3 Blood Vessels ................................................................................. 262 12.4 Pressur e: The Physics of Pressure
................................................. 274
ix

Contents

12.5 Pressure Applied to the Cardiovascular System ............................ 286 12.6 Blood Pressure and Its Control
...................................................... 297

13 Respiratory System ................................................................................. 315 13.1 Anatomy and Physiology

............................................................... 315 13.2 Pressure Applied to the Respiratory System ................................. 335

14 Nervous System ....................................................................................... 347 14.1 Cells and Action Potential

............................................................. 347 14.2 Brain and Spinal Cord Anatomy .................................................... 360 14.3
Autonomic System, Neurotransmitters, Refl exes .......................... 377 14.4 Special Senses (Eye & Ear)
........................................................... 389 14.4.1 Eye ................................................................................... 389 14.4.2 Ear
.................................................................................... 397

15 Reproductive System .............................................................................. 405

16 Waves, Light Waves, Sound Waves, Ultrasound

(The Physics Of) ...................................................................................... 419 16.1 Waves

............................................................................................. 419 16.2 Light Waves ........................... ........................................................
424 16.3 Sound ............................................................................................. 429 16.4 Ultrasound
...................................................................................... 432

17 Ionising Radiation ................................................................................... 437 17.1 Medical Imaging with X-Radiation

............................................... 437 17.2 Radioactivity, Radiotherapy, Nuclear Medicine,

Radiation Safety ............................................................................. 445 18 Electricity

................................................................................................. 465 19 Biomechanics
........................................................................................... 475 20 Energy and Heat
..................................................................................... 493

Chapter 1
Organisation of the Body
A large part of beginning the study of anatomy and physiology is learning the spe cialised words that are used. This new terminology
may seem daunting but the chal lenge lies in its unfamiliarity rather than its diffi culty of comprehension. You must expect to
encounter a lot of new words and be prepared to learn them over the course of your study. Many of the words contain information as
the words are con structed with a prefi x and a suffi x or a stem that identifi es the word as referring to a specifi c part of anatomy or
physiology. This sometimes makes the words rather long or unusual.

You should know what the anatomical position of the body is and in what direc tion the transverse, sagittal & coronal planes of the
body lie. Directional terms such as: proximal/distal; deep/superfi cial; superior/inferior; lateral/medial; anterior/pos terior;
caudal/cephalic allow the location of one anatomical feature to be placed relative to another. The dorsal and ventral body cavities are
located on different sides of the body and contain different organs. For ease of communication, the abdomen is divided into nine
regions: right hypochondriac, epigastric, left hypo chondriac, right lumbar, umbilical, left lumbar, right inguinal, hypogastric (or
pubic), left inguinal regions. You should know the difference between physiology and anatomy and the defi nitions of metabolism,
anabolism and catabolism.

1. Which of the listed terms is described by: “All the chemical processes that take place in the organelles and cytoplasm the cells of
the body”?
A. Metabolism

B. Cellular respiration

C. Homeostasis

D. Physiology

Answer is A: The quoted statement is a defi nition of metabolism

© Springer Science+Business Media Singapore 2016 1 M. Caon, Examination Questions and Answers in Basic Anatomy and

Physiology, DOI 10.1007/978-981-10-2332-3_1

1 Organisation of the Body

2. Which major organ lies deep to the right hypochondriac region?

A. The stomach

B. The spleen

C. The liver

D. The duodenum

Answer is C: hypochondriac = below the rib cartilage; liver is located mostly on the right side.

3. Which plane of the body divides it into dorsal and ventral regions?

A. Transverse

B. Axial

C. Coronal

D. Sagittal

Answer is C: dorsal and ventral = front and back – a coronal section so divides the body into these sections.

4. To which of the following does the “tissue level” of structural organisation refer?

A. atoms, ions, molecules and electrolytes

B. mitochondria, ribosomes, nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum

C. nephron, alveolus, villus, lobule

D. muscle, nervous, connective, epithelial

Answer is D: the listed structures are the four major tissue types. 5. The directional term “superior” in anatomy means which of the
following?

A. cephalic

B. ventral

C. caudal

D. dorsal

Answer is A: cephalic refers to the head region. While superior refers to being closer to the head than is the other anatomical
structure in question.

6. Which of the following is the best defi nition of physiology?

A. The microscopic study of tissues and cells

B. The study of how the body works.

C. All the chemical processes that take place in the organelles of the body’s cells.

D. The body’s automatic tendency to maintain a relatively constant internal environment.

Answer is B: physiology is indeed the study of how the (healthy) body functions.
1 Organisation of the Body

7. The “anatomical position” could be described as which of the following?

A. Lying down prone

B. Lying down supine

C. Standing displaying the ventral surface of the body

D. Standing with arms and legs abducted

Answer is C: this is the best answer. Standing is required, as is having the arms hanging parallel to the sides, with palms facing
forward.

8. Which choice best describes the location of the majority of the musculo- skeletal system?

A. It is in the dorsal cavity

B. It is in the ventral cavity

C. It is in the abdomino-pelvic cavity

D. It is not located in a body cavity

Answer is D: the musculo-skeletal system is located in the arms and legs, and surrounding, but outside of the abdomino-pelvic, thoracic
and the dorsal cavities.

9. Which of the following is/are the contents of the ventral cavity?

A. heart and lungs

B. brain and spinal cord

C. viscera

D. gut, kidneys, liver, pancreas, spleen, bladder, internal reproductive organs.

Answer is C: this is the best answer. It is a collective term for all organs in the thoracic and abdomino-pelvic cavities.

10. Which of the stated relationships is correct?

A. the heart is inferior to the clavicle

B. the shoulder is distal to the carpals

C. the phalanges are proximal to the metacarpals

D. the eye is medial to the eyebrows

Answer is A: The heart is indeed below (inferior) to the clavicle. All other choices are wrong.

11. Which of the following is/are the contents of the dorsal body cavity?

A. heart and lungs

B. brain and spinal cord

C. viscera
 D. gut, kidneys, liver, pancreas, spleen, bladder, internal reproductive organs.

Answer is B: dorsal refers to the back, the cavity enclosed by the skull and vertebrae.

12. Which of the stated relationships is correct?

A. the heart is superior to the large intestine B. the shoulder is distal to the metacarpals C. the phalanges are proximal to the carpals
D. the eye is medial to the nose
1 Organisation of the Body

Answer is A: the heart is indeed above (superior) to the intestine. All other answers are wrong.

13. What is the study of how body parts function called?

A. histology

B. physiology

C. homeostasis

D. metabolism

Answer is B: physiology refers to function

14. Which of the following correctly describes the two named body parts?

A. the elbow is proximal to the shoulder

B. the phalanges are distal to the carpals

C. the ribs are proximal to the sternum

D. the elbow is distal to the knee

Answer is B: phalanges (fi nger bones) are indeed further from the trunk along the arm, than are the carpals (wrist bones)

15. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. the diaphragm separates the brain and spinal cord

B. the ventral cavity contains the male and female reproductive system C. the abdomino-pelvic cavity contains the spinal cord.

D. the dorsal cavity contains the brain and spinal cord

Answer is D: dorsal means back and that is the cavity with spinal cord and brain. B is incorrect as the genitalia are outside the ventral
cavity.

16. Complete the sentence correctly: “Cervical vertebrae are……

A. superior to the rib cage.

B. inferior to the thoracic vertebrae.

C. located between the thoracic and sacral vertebrae.

D. fused into a single bone called the sacrum.

Answer is A: cervix refers to “neck”. The cervical vertebrae are in the neck hence are above (superior) to the rib cage.

17. The dorsal body cavity contains which of the following organs?

A. The brain.

B. The brain and spinal cord.

1 Organisation of the Body

C. The brain, spinal cord and heart.

D. The brain, spinal cord, heart and kidneys.

Answer is B: Dorsal refers to the back and is opposite to ventral. Only the brain and spinal cord occupy the dorsal cavity. All other
answers are incorrect.

18. What does the process known as anabolism refer to?

A. the use of energy for producing chemical substances.

B. the breaking down phase of metabolism.

C. all the chemical process that take place in the organelles of the cells. D. the supply of nutrients to the body’s cells.

Answer is A: anabolism refers to the process of constructing/building mole cules (think anabolic steroids). B refers to catabolism. C
refers to metabolism.

19. To what does the term “hypochondriac” refer?

A. A condition of having too few chondria.

B. The region of abdomen inferior to the ribs.

C. A person who often complains of an ailment.

D. Having insuffi cient cartilage in the knees.

Answer is B: In this case “hypo-” means below, while “-chondr” refers to the cartilage joining the ribs to the sternum (the costal
cartilages). The regions of the abdomen immediately inferior to these rib cartilages (on the left and right sides of the body) is what is
being referred to

20. If a medical image displays internal anatomy in mid-sagittal section, which of the following describes the section?

A. A vertical section through the nose and umbilicus that divides the body into right and left halves.

B. A cross-section through the midriff at about the level of the liver. C. A cross-section through the upper chest at about the level of
the shoulders. D. A vertical section through the midpoint of the clavicle and through either the right or left thigh.

Answer is A: A Sagittal section divides the body into left and right portions. A mid sagittal section means that the dividing line is in
the vertical mid line of the body so that the halves are equal.

21. Which of the following best describes the “anatomical position”?

A. Standing vertically, arms held horizontally, legs apart so that the tips of the head, hands and feet lie on an imaginary circle, drawn
around the body. B. Standing “to attention”, with hands held so that thumbs are ventral while the fi fth digit is dorsal.
6

1 Organisation of the Body

C. Standing “at ease” with hands clasped behind your back while adjacent and dorsal to the sacrum.

D. Standing vertically, arms parallel and lateral to the ribs with hands inferior to the elbows and supinated.

Answer is D: The anatomical position is achieved when standing with feet comfortably apart while displaying the ventral surface of
the head, body and forearms to the same direction (forwards).

22. Which term describes the location of the adrenal glands with reference to the kidneys?

A. proximal

B. distal

C. superior
D. inferior

Answer is C: The adrenal glands are on the cephalic side of the kidneys. Being closer to the head, they are termed “superior to the
kidneys”.

23. Which of the following terms is NOT used to identify a region of the abdomen?

A. left hypochondriac

B. hypogastric

C. epigastric

D. right sacral

Answer is D: Right sacral is not a region on the anterior surface of the abdomen.

24. What structure separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity?

A. The mediastinum

B. The diaphragm

C. The peritoneum

D. The pylorus

Answer is B: The muscular diaphragm physically separates these two ventral cavities.

Chapter 2
Cells and Tissues
2.1 Cells and Tissues
Cells are composed of their cytoplasm, which includes the cytosol and organelles; the nucleus and the surrounding plasma
membrane. You should know that the plasma membrane is a double layer of phospholipid molecules and that these mol ecules have a
hydrophilic end and a hydrophobic end. The plasma membrane con tains proteins including the ATPase (the sodium-potassium pump)
which moves sodium ions out of the cell while moving potassium ions into the cell. You should know the names and function of
some of the organelles. For example you should know that mitochondria produce ATP and that ribosomes synthesise proteins from
amino acids.

You will become familiar with the names of many cells. Often a word can be recognised as the name of a cell because it ends in “-
cyte” or, if it is an immature cell, by ending in “-blast”. Four major types of tissue are identifi ed in the body: epithelial, connective,
muscle and neural tissues. Of course there are many sub

types within these categories. For example epithelial tissue may be squamous, cuboidal, columnar or glandular. Muscle may be skeletal,
smooth or cardiac. Connective tissue is quite varied and you should be aware of the many different examples of tissue that are
categorised as “connective”. For example, blood, bone, dermis, cartilage and tendon are all connective tissue.

1. Which structure within the cell produces ATP (adenosine triphosphate)?

A. the mitochondria

B. the nucleus

C. peripheral proteins

D. the endoplasmic reticulum

Answer is A: This is a basic function of mitochondria. All other answers are wrong.
© Springer Science+Business Media Singapore 2016 7 M. Caon, Examination Questions and Answers in Basic Anatomy and

Physiology, DOI 10.1007/978-981-10-2332-3_2

8
 2 Cells and Tissues

2. Which of the following is NOT a component of the cell plasma membrane?

A. cholesterol

B. proteins

C. microfi laments

D. phospholipids

Answer is C: microfi laments occur inside the cell.

3. Which list below contains the four types of tissue?

A. extracellular fl uid, skeletal tissue, glandular tissue, connective tissue. B. extracellular fl uid, muscle tissue, glandular tissue,
cartilaginous tissue. C. neural tissue, skeletal tissue, epithelial tissue, cartilaginous tissue. D. Neural tissue, muscle tissue, epithelial
tissue, connective tissue.

Answer is D: These are the four types. Extracellular fl uid is not a tissue. Cartilage is a type of connective tissue.

4. Except for one, the following are types of cells. Which one is NOT a type of cell?

A. platelets

B. leucocytes

C. macrophages

D. osteoblasts

Answer is A: Platelets are fragments of a cell (a megakaryocyte) bound by a membrane.

5. In which part of a cell does the process of making ATP from oxygen and glu cose take place?

A. lysosomes

B. ribosomes

C. mitochondria

D. golgi apparatus

Answer is C: ATP production is the function of mitochondria.

6. Which of the following is a function of membrane proteins?

A. to process lipids and proteins for secretion through the plasma membrane B. to act as receptors for hormones

C. to synthesise proteins from amino acids

D. to act as a cytoskeleton to support and shape the cell

Answer is B: One function of membrane proteins is to receive (amino acid based) hormones that cannot pass through the plasma
membrane.
2.1 Cells and Tissues

7. What is the difference between simple squamous cells and simple columnar cells?

A. squamous cells are fl attened while columnar cells are taller than they are wide.

B. simple squamous cells are one layer thick while simple columnar cells are several layers thick.

C. simple squamous cells are epithelial tissue while simple columnar cells are connective tissue.

D. squamous cells are fl attened while columnar cells are cuboidal.

Answer is A: The names of the cells contains a description of their shape: either fl at, or like columns. Simple refers to a single layer
of cells

8. Which of the following is NOT an example of a cell?

A. macrophages

B. lysosomes

C. plasmocytes

D. chondroblasts

Answer is B: the suffi x “–some” refers to an organelle within a cell. The other suffi xes all indicate a type of cell.

9. Which cell organelles contain an acidic environment capable of digesting a wide variety of molecules?

A. Lysosomes

B. Ribosomes

C. Centrosomes

D. Golgi complex

Answer is A: the prefi x “lyso-” refers to the ability to dissolve or destroy mol ecules or cells.

10. Which form of transport through the plasma membrane requires the expendi ture of energy by the cell?

A. Facilitated diffusion

B. Osmosis

C. Active transport

D. Diffusion

Answer is C: The term “active” implies using energy (in the form of ATP) to move a molecule against its concentration gradient, while
the other processes are all passive.

11. Which of the tissue types below consists of a single layer of cells?

A. stratifi ed squamous epithelial tissue

B. glandular epithelium

10

C. areolar connective tissue

D. simple columnar epithelial tissue

2 Cells and Tissues

Answer is D: the word “simple” indicates a single layer of cells. Stratifi ed means several layers (or strata) of cells.

12. One of the following is NOT a serous membrane. Which one?

A. pleura

B. peritoneum

C. mucosa

D. pericardium
 Answer is C: mucosa is a mucus membrane (& secretes mucus) 13. Which of the following is NOT made predominantly from
epithelial tissue?

A. In the dermis

B. In exocrine glands

C. In endocrine glands

D. In the endothelium of blood vessels

Answer is A: The dermis contains connective tissue, nervous tissue & muscle as well as epithelial tissue.

14. What are tendons and ligaments composed of?

A. Dense connective tissue

B. Liquid connective tissue

C. Muscular tissue

D. Epithelial tissue

Answer is A: tendons & ligaments are dense CT. This is strong as there is a high proportion of fi bres.

15. What is the composition of the intercellular matrix in connective tissue?

A. Cells and fi bres

B. Serous and mucus membranes and lamina propria

C. Protein fi bres and ground substance

D. Interstitial fl uid

Answer is C: “intercellular” means between cells. So matrix is fi bres & ground substance (but no cells).

16. Which statement about the plasma membrane is INCORRECT ?

A. It is selectively permeable.

B. It is composed of two layers of glycoprotein molecules.

C. It contains receptors for specifi c signalling molecules.

2.1 Cells and Tissues

11

D. The plasma membranes of adjacent cells are held together by desmosomes.

Answer is B: The PM is indeed made of two layers, but they are phospholipid (not glycoprotein) molecules.

17. Which of the following is NOT epithelial tissue?

A. the epidermis

B. glandular tissue

C. the internal lining of blood vessels

D. the dermis

Answer is D: The dermis contains some of all four types of tissue. 18. Which of the following is NOT a cell found in
connective tissue?

A. adipocytes
B. chondroblasts

C. keratinocytes

D. osteoblasts

Answer is C: Keratinocytes are in the epidermis which is epithelial tissue. The other cell types occur in fat, cartilage and bone.

19. What tissue has cells that are closely packed and that have one surface attached to a basement membrane and the other free to a
space?

A. epithelial tissue

B. muscle tissue

C. connective tissue

D. nervous tissue

Answer is A: This is a defi nition of epithelial tissue.

20. What is the name of the mechanism that ensures that there is a higher concen tration of sodium ions in the extracellular fl uid than
in the intracellular fl uid?

A. Facilitated diffusion

B. The sodium-potassium pump

C. Secondary active transport

D. Osmosis

Answer is B: The “pump” (or ATPase) transports Na + out and K + into the cell. 21. What are lysosomes, centrosomes and
ribosomes example of?

A. stem cells

B. organelles within a cell

C. sensory receptors in the dermis

D. exocrine glands

Answer is B: the suffi x “–some” refers to small body or organelle within a cell.

12

2 Cells and Tissues

22. What does simple columnar epithelial tissue refer to? Tissue with

A. a single layer of cells longer than they are wide.

B. a single layer of cells whose length, breadth and depth are about the same size. C. several layers of cells, all of the same type.

D. several layers of cells but without a basement membrane.

Answer is A: simple = one layer. Columnar means oblong or shaped like a column.

23. Which of the following is NOT an example of connective tissue?

A. blood

B. bone

C. tendon
D. epidermis

Answer is D: the epidermis (on top of the dermis) is epithelial tissue. 24. What is the function of phospholipids in the plasma
membrane?

A. to maintain the intracellular fl uid at a similar composition to that of the interstitial fl uid.

B. to form channels to selectively allow passage of small molecules. C. to act as receptors for signalling chemicals.

D. to present a barrier to the passage of water-soluble molecules.

Answer is D: molecules that are soluble in water cannot pass through lipid (fat). So the phospholipids are a barrier. The functions
described by B. & C. are per formed by other molecules in the plasma membrane.

25. Which one of the following cell types is found in epithelial tissue?

A. plasma cells

B. leucocytes

C. keratinocytes

D. chondroblasts

Answer is C: keratinocytes produce keratin, the protein of the epidermis, which is epithelial tissue.

26. Which of the following is NOT part of the plasma membrane of a cell?

A. integral proteins

B. glycoproteins

C. plasma proteins

D. peripheral proteins

Answer is C: as the name implies, plasma proteins are found in the blood plasma. Not to be confused with the plasma membrane.
2.1 Cells and Tissues

13

27. A major role for mitochondria is to

A. transcribe the information in DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) B. produce ATP (adenosine triphosphate)

C. synthesise proteins from amino acids

D. use enzymes to lyse molecules

Answer is B: ATP is only produced within the mitochondria.

28. Choose the tissue below that is one of the four primary types of body tissue.

A. epidermal tissue

B. epithelial tissue

C. interstitial tissue

D. osseous tissue

Answer is B: epithelial is a major tissue type (as is muscle, nervous & connective)

29. What are the primary types of tissue in the body?

A. Muscle, nervous, connective and epithelial

B. Muscle, nervous, connective, osseous and epithelial

C. Muscle, nervous, connective, osseous, blood and epithelial D. Muscle, nervous, connective, glandular and epithelial

Answer is A: There are 4 major types (not 5 or 6). Osseous & blood are also connective, while glandular tissue is also epithelial.

30. What is the name of the membrane that surrounds the lungs?

A. visceral peritoneum

B. parietal peritoneum

C. visceral pleura

D. dura mater

Answer is C: Pleura is around the lung, while visceral refers to the layer of the pleura that is attached to the lung surface.

31. What is a role performed by mitochondria?

A. contain enzymes capable of digesting molecules

B. produce ATP

C. synthesise proteins

D. synthesise fatty acids, phospholipids & cholesterol

Answer is B: mitochondria produce ATP. The other tasks are performed by lysosomes, ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum
respectively.

14

2 Cells and Tissues

32. Which of the following is NOT found in the plasma membrane?

A. proteins

B. cholesterol

C. endoplasmic reticulum

D. phospholipids

Answer is C: endoplasmic reticulum is an organelle and found within the cell. 33. Which one of the following cell types is
found in epithelial tissue?

A. mast cells

B. adipocytes

C. chondroblasts

D. keratinocytes

Answer is D: These cells produce keratin, the protein of the stratum corneum 34. Which of the following is NOT part of the
plasma membrane of a cell?

A. phospholipid

B. glycoprotein

C. chromatin

D. cholesterol

Answer is C: chromatin makes up chromosomes.

35. A major role for mitochondria is to

A. synthesise fatty acids, phospholipids & steroids

B. deliver lipids and proteins to plasma membrane for secretion C. synthesise proteins from amino acids

D. produce ATP (adenosine triphosphate)

Answer is D: mitochondria produce ATP from glucose

36. Choose the tissue below that is NOT one of the four primary types of body tissue.

A. connective tissue

B. muscular tissue

C. nervous tissue

D. osseous tissue

Answer is D: osseous tissue (or bone) is a connective tissue

37. What is the purpose of mitochondria?

A. to store the nucleolus and chromatin

B. to produce adenosine triphosphate

2.1 Cells and Tissues

15

C. to support and shape the cell.

D. they produce enzymes to break down molecules

Answer is B: Mitochondria are the site of ATP production

38. The plasma membrane of a cell contains molecules that have a hydrophobic end and a hydrophilic end What are they called?

A. phospholipids

B. cholesterol

C. integral proteins

D. glycoproteins

Answer is A: the phosphate end is hydrophilic (water soluble) while the lipid end is hydrophobic (insoluble in water).

39. Adipocytes are found in which type of tissue?

A. muscle tissue

B. epithelial tissue

C. nervous tissue

D. connective tissue

Answer is D: adipocytes are found in fat (adipose tissue) which is a type of connective tissue.

40. What is the role of mitochondria? To:

A. function in cell division

B. synthesise proteins

C. form part of the plasma membrane

D. synthesise fatty acids, phospholipids and steroids.

Answer is C: mitochondria produce ATP

41. Which one of the following cell types is found in epithelial tissue?

A. mast cells

B. adipocytes

C. chondroblasts

D. melanocytes

Answer is D: melanocytes produce melanin to protect the skin from ultraviolet radiation and it results in tanning of the skin.

42. What is the difference between “loose” connective tissue (CT) and “dense” connective tissue?

A. Fibres occupy most of the volume in dense CT

B. Dense CT includes cartilage, loose CT does not.

16

2 Cells and Tissues

C. Loose CT has a good blood supply while dense CT does not. D. Loose CT has no fi bres (and dense CT does).

Answer is A: the preponderance of fi bres is what makes the CT “dense”. Cartilage is classifi ed as supportive CT.

43. Facilitated diffusion refers to the process of

A. movement along a concentration gradient assisted by protein carrier molecules.

B. movement of ions and molecules along a concentration gradient. C. transport of molecules and ions against their concentration
gradient. D. water movement through a semi-permeable membrane

Answer is A: facilitated refers to the role of the protein carriers. The other choices refer to diffusion, active transport and osmosis
respectively

44. What do fi broblasts, chondroblasts, osteoblasts and haemocytoblasts have in common?

A. they are all types of white blood cell.

B. they are all macrophages.

C. they are all immature cells.

D. they are all types of epithelial cell.

Answer is C: the suffi x “-blast” implies that these cells have not yet fi nished their differentiation. That is are immature.

45. Which is NOT true of connective tissue (CT)?

A. the cells are closely packed

B. the tissue contains protein fi bres and ground substance.

C. types include loose CT, dense CT and liquid CT.

D. CT contains white blood cells.

Answer is A: being close packed in a property of epithelial tissue. In CT the cells are widely spaced, being separated by the ground
substance.

46. Active transport across the plasma membrane may be described by which statement?

A. active transport requires energy from ATP.

B. active transport is also known as endocytosis.

C. active transport moves molecules along their concentration gradient. D. active transport is the movement of lipid-soluble
molecules through the plasma membrane.

Answer is A: this is the only correct answer. The others are not true.
2.1 Cells and Tissues

17

47. Which of the following cell types denotes an immature cell?

A. macrophages

B. monocytes

C. osteoblasts

D. ribosomes

Answer is C: The suffi x “-blast” indicates that the cell is immature. 48. Choose the membrane that is NOT a serous membrane.

A. pleura

B. peritoneum

C. pericardium

D. lamina propria

Answer is D: the lamina propria is a “basement membrane” attached to epithe lial tissue. The others are serous membranes.

49. Which organelle is the site of ATP production?

A. the nucleus

B. endoplasmic reticulum

C. mitochondria

D. golgi apparatus

Answer is C: the mitochondria is where ATP is produced.

50. Which of the following is ONE major function of epithelial cells?

A. movement

B. secretion

C. support of other cell types

D. transmit electrical signals

Answer is B: glandular tissue are one type of epithelial tissue and their function is to produce material to secrete.

51. What are the major types of tissue in the body?

A. nervous, muscle, epithelial, connective.

B. squamous, cuboidal, columnar, transitional.

C. osteocytes, chondrocytes, leucocytes, adipocytes.

D. protein, adipose, cartilage, osseous.

Answer is A: choice C refers to cell types; B is a list of epithelial tissue. Protein is applied to molecules.

18
2 Cells and Tissues

52. Which of the following is NOT one of the organelles within a cell?

A. desmosome

B. endoplasmic reticulum

C. mitochondrion

D. golgi apparatus

Answer is A: desmosome (despite having the suffi x “-some”) are not within the cell. They are structures that join adjacent plasma
membranes to each other.

53. Which list contains the main body tissue types?

A. glandular, connective, osseous, nervous

B. epithelial, nervous, connective, muscle.

C. endothelial, connective, muscle, cartilaginous

D. epithelial, cartilaginous, muscle, glandular

Answer is B: the terms osseous, glandular and cartilaginous disqualify the other choices.

54. The process of “diffusion” through a membrane may be described by which of the following?

A. the movement of ions and molecules away from regions where they are in high concentration towards regions where they are in
lower concentration. B. the use of energy from ATP to move ions and small molecules into regions where they are in lower
concentration.

C. the plasma membrane engulfs the substance and moves it through the membrane.

D. the use of energy from ATP to move water molecules against their concen tration gradient.

Answer is A: the choices with ATP are nonsense. While choice C refers to endocytosis.

55. The process of “active transport” through a membrane may be described by which of the following?

A. the movement of ions and small molecules away from regions where they are in high concentration.

B. the use of energy from ATP to move ions and small molecules into regions where they are in lower concentration.

C. the plasma membrane engulfs the substance and moves it through the membrane.

D. the use of energy from ATP to move ions and small molecules against their concentration gradient.

Answer is D: energy (ATP) is required to force molecules against their concen tration gradient.
2.1 Cells and Tissues

19

56. Which of the following is the smallest living structural unit of the body?

A. atom

B. molecule

C. organelle

D cell

Answer is D: the cell is smallest structural unit that is deemed to be alive.

57. Which of the following enables ions such as sodium to cross a plasma membrane?
A. phospholipid bilayer

B. peripheral proteins

C. integral proteins

D. desmosomes

Answer is C: one function of integral protein in the PM is to form channels to allow for the passage of ions.

58. Cell membranes can maintain a difference in electrical charge between the inte rior of the cell and the extracellular fl uid. What is
this charge difference called?

A. excitability

B. the membrane potential

C. the action potential

D. the sodium-potassium pump

Answer is B: the inside of a cell is negative while the exterior side of the mem brane is positive. This difference in charge constitutes
a difference in electrical potential (or voltage), known as the resting membrane potential. An action potential is generated when the
membrane is stimulated and the potential reversed.

59. The resting membrane potential of a cell is the consequence of which of the following concentrations of ions?

A. High K + and Cl − outside the cell and high Na + and large anions inside the cell.

B. High K + and Na + outside the cell and high Cl − and large anions inside the cell.

C. High Cl − and Na + outside the cell and high K + and large cations inside the cell.

D. High Ca 2+ and Na + outside the cell and high K + and large cations inside the cell.

Answer is C: These ionic species are largely responsible for the membrane potential (cations are negative ions). While there is a higher
concentration of Ca outside the cell than inside, there are fewer Ca than Cl ions.

20

60. What is one function of mitochondria? To

A. produce enzymes to break down molecules B. produce molecules of ATP

C. hold adjacent cells together

2 Cells and Tissues

D. allow passage of molecules through the plasma membrane Answer is B: Mitochondria are organelles within which ATP is made.

61. Membrane proteins perform the following functions EXCEPT one. Which One?

A. form the glycocalyx

B. act as receptor proteins

C. form pores to allow the passage of small solutes

D. behave as enzymes.

Answer is A: the glycocalyx refers to molecules in the plasma membrane that have a carbohydrate chain attached (prefi x “glyco-”).

62. Facilitated diffusion differs from active transport because facilitated diffusion:

A. requires energy from ATP

B. moves molecules from where they are in lower concentration to higher concentration
C. moves molecules from where they are in higher concentration to lower concentration.

D. involves ions & molecules that pass through membrane channels.

Answer is C: diffusion always refers to movement from high to low concentra tion (without energy expenditure). Facilitated refers to
the assistance provided by a transport molecule that is designed for the purpose.

63. Which of the following is NOT a connective tissue?

A. blood

B. mesothelium

C. fat

D. tendon

Answer is B: mesothelium is simple squamous epithelium that is found in serous membranes.

64. The cells that are found in tendons are called:

A. osteocytes

B. adipocytes

C. haemocytoblasts

D. fi broblasts

2.1 Cells and Tissues

21

Answer is D: Simple Squamous. A single layer of fl at (squashed) cells so diffu sion through the layer takes place easily. Lines heart,
lymph & blood vessels (known as endothelium). Called mesothelium when in serous membranes.

65. Which one of the following terms best describes the structure of the cell membrane:

A. fl uid mosaic model

B. static mosaic model

C. quaternary structure

D. multilayered structure

Answer is A: “fl uid” implies the structure can move and change (not like a brick wall); mosaic refers to the presence of proteins
scattered among the glycolipids.

66. Which one of the following terms best describes a phospholipid. It consists of a:

A. polar head and polar tail

B. non-polar head and a polar tail

C. polar head and non-polar tail

D. non-polar head and a non-polar tail

Answer is C: polar = hydrophilic head of phosphate (which can dissolve in the aqueous extracellular solution because water molecules
are polar); non-polar = hydrophobic tails of lipid, which being non-polar, cannot dissolve in aqueous solutions.

67. One of the functions of integral proteins in cell membranes is to:

A. maintain the rigid structure of the cell

B. support mechanically the phospholipids

C. interact with the cytoplasm

D. form channels for transport functions

Answer is D: some proteins form channels which allow molecules and ions to enter the cell.

68. Which one of the following best describes what a cell membrane consists of?

A. lipids, proteins, ribosomes

B. lipids, cholesterol, proteins

C. cholesterol, proteins, cytoplasm

D. lipids, proteins, cytoplasm

Answer is B: these are the three major constituents. Ribosomes and cytoplasm are found inside the cell.

22

2 Cells and Tissues

69. Which one of the following organelles is considered as the “energy producing” centre of the cell?

A. rough endoplasmic reticulum

B. Golgi apparatus

C. mitochondria

D. ribosomes

Answer is C: mitochondria are where ATP molecules are produced from glucose.

70. What is the major function of lysosomes? They:

A. package proteins

B. detoxify toxic substances

C. catalyse lipid metabolism

D. digest unwanted particles within the cell

Answer is D: the prefi x “lys-” refers to the ability to alter molecules by dividing them into smaller pieces.

71. What is the purpose of the “sodium/potassium pump”

A. to perform endocytosis.

B. to move sodium and potassium by facilitated diffusion.

C. to perform bulk transport through the plasma membrane.

D. To produce a concentration gradient for sodium ions

Answer is D: a concentration gradient is set up by the use of energy to move Na ions to where they are in greater concentration. This
requirement for energy means choice B is wrong.

72. Which of the following is NOT a type of cell?

A. ribosome

B. haemocytoblast

C. neutrophil

D. phagocyte
Answer is A: a ribosome is a cell organelle, not a cell type

73. What is the name of the mechanism that ensures that there is a higher concen tration of sodium ions in the extracellular fl uid than
in the intracellular fl uid?

A. Facilitated diffusion

B. The sodium-potassium pump

C. Secondary active transport

D. Osmosis

Answer is B: the “pump” exchanges Na for K and uses energy from ATP to function.

2.1 Cells and Tissues

23

74. What is the name given to the type of transport where glucose or an amino acid binds to a receptor protein on the plasma membrane,
which then moves the molecule into the cell without the expenditure of energy?

A. facilitated diffusion

B. bulk transport

C. secondary active transport

D. active transport

Answer is A: the membrane protein facilitates the entry into the cell. No energy is expended so it is not active transport.

75. What is the name given to the movement of glucose or amino acids from the gut into the cells lining the gut, when they bind to a
transport protein that has also bound a sodium ion. The sodium ion is entering the cell along its concentration gradient.

A. facilitated diffusion

B. the sodium potassium pump

C. active transport

D. secondary active transport

Answer is D: the sodium ion was transported out of the cell with the use of energy in order to set up the sodium concentration gradient.
This gradient then allows other molecules to enter the cell along with sodium’s re-entry. This is active (because energy used), but
secondary as it occurs as a result of the previ

ous active transport event.

76. Mitochondria produce which of the following?

A. ATP

B. DNA

C. RNA

D. proteins

Answer is A: adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

77. Why does the plasma membrane of a cell present a barrier to the movement of electrolytes through it?

A. There are no channels in the membrane for the passage of electrolytes. B. Electrolytes are not soluble in the lipid of the
membrane.

C. Electrolytes are too large to pass through membrane channels. D. Membrane proteins electrically repel charged particles.
 Answer is B: electrolytes, being charged particles are not able to dissolve their way through the lipid plasma membrane (which is
non-polar). Hence it is a bar rier to them.

24

2 Cells and Tissues

78. Which of the following statements about “leak channels” in the plasma mem brane is correct?

A. Proteins that form these channels bind to solutes to allow them to pass into the cell.

B. They are passageways formed by proteins to allow water and ions to move passively through the membrane.

C. They allow small ions and molecules to move between adjacent cells. D. They are formed by glycoprotein and proteoglycans to
allow hormones to enter cells.

Answer is B: this is the defi nition of leak channels. They may be “gated” which means shut until stimulated to open. J refers to
facilitated diffusion.

79. What are the primary types of body tissue?

A. connective tissue, blood, muscle tissue, nervous tissue, epithelial tissue. B. muscle tissue, osseous tissue, epithelial tissue, nervous
tissue, blood, con nective tissue.

C. nervous tissue, epithelial tissue, muscle tissue, connective tissue D. epithelial tissue, connective tissue, adipose tissue, muscle
tissue, nervous tissue.

Answer is C: These are the four primary types. Blood is not a “type’ of tissue.

80. Epithelial and connective tissue differ from each other in which of the follow ing characteristics?

A. epithelial tissue contains fi bres but connective tissue does not. B. connective tissue is avascular but epithelial tissue is well-
vascularised. C. cells in epithelial tissue are closely packed, whereas in connective tissue they are not.

D. connective tissue includes tissue that makes up glands, but epithelial tissue does not occur in glands.

Answer is C: The other choices are not correct.

81. Which of the following is a component of the plasma membrane of a cell?

A. plasma

B. glycolipid

C. plasma proteins

D. cholesterol

Answer is D: despite the term “plasma” A & C are wrong. And it is phospho lipids, not glycolipids that occur in the membrane.

2.1 Cells and Tissues

25

82. What term is used to describe the movement of dissolved particles along (or down) their concentration gradient?

A. endocytosis

B. active transport

C. osmosis

D. diffusion

Answer is D: Following the concentration gradient is a passive process. Choice C applies only to water molecules.
 83. Which of the following molecules cannot pass through the plasma membrane?

A. water molecules

B. non-polar molecules

C. amino acid based hormones

D. fat-soluble molecules

Answer is C: These hormones are not lipid soluble and too large to pass through channels.

84. Which of the following is a connective tissue?

A. pancreas

B. spinal cord

C. muscle

D. blood

Answer is D: blood contains cells separated by a liquid matrix. Choices A & B are epithelial and nervous tissues.

85. Which of the following is an epithelial tissue?

A. adipose tissue

B. the adrenal gland

C. the heart

D. blood

Answer is B: the adrenal gland is glandular epithelial tissue.

86. What is the major component of the plasma membrane of a cell?

A. phospholipid

B. glycolipid

C. integral protein

D. cholesterol

Answer is A: cholesterol and proteins are also present in the plasma membrane but as more minor components.

26

2 Cells and Tissues

87. Which one of the following is NOT a function of membrane proteins?

A. they form a structure called a glycocalyx

B. they attach cells to each other

C. they form passageways to allow solutes to pass through the membrane D. they from receptors which can bind messenger
molecules

Answer is A: the glycocalyx is thought of as membrane carbohydrates.

88. Facilitated diffusion through a membrane involves which of the following scenarios?

A. the diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane along its concentration gradient.

B. the movement of a molecule against its concentration gradient with the expenditure of energy
C. the plasma membrane surrounding (engulfi ng) the molecule & the molecule moving into the cell.

D. a molecule binding to a receptor which moves the molecule through the membrane without the expenditure of energy

Answer is D: facilitation is by binding to a membrane protein. 89. The diffusion of water through a membrane is referred to as

A. secondary active transport

B. bulk transport

C. osmosis

D. endocytosis

Answer is C: osmosis is a word that is reserved for the movement of water through a membrane.

90. What is the tissue that covers the body surface and lines internal tubes called?

A. epithelial tissue

B. connective tissue

C. glandular epithelium

D. muscle tissue

Answer is A: epithelial tissue has one surface “open” to the exterior or to the contents of the tube.

91. Which of the following is true for connective tissue?

A. it consists of cells, a basement membrane and intercellular matrix B. its cells are closely packed and held together by protein fi
bres. C. it has a high rate of cell division and no blood supply

D. it is made of cells, protein fi bres and ground substance

Answer is D: Connective tissue includes fi bres and cells which are not closely packed.
2.2 Cell Cycle (Mitosis and Protein Synthesis)

27

92. The cell membrane’s resting potential (about −70 mV inside with respect to the outside) is due mainly to which of the following
mechanisms?

A. The sodium potassium pump.

B. The diffusion of cations and anions through the membrane along their con centration gradients.

C. The diffusion of sodium and potassium across the cell membrane. D. The presence inside the cell of anions too large to passively
cross the cell membrane.

Answer is A: The ATPase pump shifts 3 Na + out of the cell and 2 K + into the cell. This disparity in positive charge is the major infl
uence on the resting potential.

2.2 Cell Cycle (Mitosis and Protein Synthesis)

The cell nucleus contains chromosomes which are composed of molecules of DNA. DNA is composed of units called nucleotides
which consist of a sugar (deoxy ribose) attached to a phosphoric acid group (PO 3 OH) and one of four bases. Chromosomes contain
the code for the sequence of amino acids used to construct different proteins. Each amino acid is coded for by a particular sequence of
three of the four bases (adenine, guanine, cytosine & thymine). This sequence is called a “codon”. mRNA “transcribes” this code then
moves from the nucleus to a ribosome in the cytoplasm where it is “translated” and the protein is assembled by joining the required
amino acids in the appropriate sequence.

Mitosis is the process by which a somatic cell divides to produce two cells with identical DNA. In this way an organism can grow.
Before mitosis, the DNA must be duplicated. Hence the chromosomes (consisting of one strand or “chromatid”) dou ble up by
becoming two chromatids. Then during mitosis the two chromatids sepa rate and move into the two daughter cells.
 Meiosis occurs only in the gonads. This process results in four daughter cells. Human cells have two copies of each of 23
chromosomes, one copy being inherited from the father and the other copy from the mother. The gametes need to have only one copy
of each of the 23 chromosomes, so that when the sperm fuses with the ovum, the “diploid” number of 46 (two copies of each
chromosome) is restored. Meiosis is the process by which cells reduce their number of chromosomes from 46 to 23 different
chromosomes. Of the 23 chromosomes in a sperm (or ovum), some (between 0 and 23) will have come from the sperm owner’s mother
and the rest from the sperm owner’s father. The same can be said of the 23 chromosomes in the ovum. In this way the resulting children
will be genetically different from each of their parents (and siblings) as each sperm/ovum will have a different assortment of the 23
available chromosomes.

28

2 Cells and Tissues

1. The term “chromatin” would be used in reference to which of the following?

A. genetic substance

B. cellular energy

C. membrane support

D. nuclear membrane

Answer is A: Chromatin is DNA & the associated proteins so pertains to genetic material.

2. In protein synthesis, where dose translation occur? In the:

A. cytoplasm between ribosomes, tRNA and mRNA

B. nucleus between ribosomes, tRNA and mRNA

C. nucleus between DNA and mRNA

D. cytoplasm between DNA and mRNA

Answer is A: translation occurs in the cytoplasm (transcription occurs in the nucleus). DNA does not exist in the cytoplasm.

3. If the DNA strand sequence of bases is CTT AGA CTA ATA, what would the tRNA read?

A. GAA TCT GAT TAT

B. CUU AGA CUA AUA

C. GAA UCU GAU UAU

D. GUU ACA GUA AUA

Answer is C: guanine (G) must be matched to cytosine (C) and vice versa. Adenine (A) must match with thymine (T). In RNA, uracil
(U) replaces thy mine, while both bind to adenine. Hence U must be matched to A.

4. Which one of the following statements best describes DNA?

A. single stranded, deoxyribonucleic acid

B. single stranded, ribonucleic acid

C. double stranded, deoxyribonucleic acid

D. double stranded, ribonucleic acid

Answer is C: DNA is double stranded, while the “D” refers to “deoxy-”.

5. In which phase of mitosis would chromosomes line up at the centre of the spindle:

A. anaphase
B. interphase

C. prophase

D. metaphase

Answer is D: Remember the metaphase plate occupies the middle of the cell.
2.2 Cell Cycle (Mitosis and Protein Synthesis)

29

6. In a cell cycle which phase takes the longest time to complete:

A. anaphase

B. interphase

C. prophase

D. telophase

Answer is B: interphase is the time when the cell is performing its normal func tion and not dividing.

7. What is the purpose of meiosis? To produce:

A. DNA

B. somatic cells

C. diploid cells

D. haploid cells

Answer is D: meiosis produces sperm or egg so these must have half the com plement of chromosomes (be haploid) to allow for the
full complement to be present (and not more!) when sperm combines with egg.

8. What results from the events that occur during metaphase of mitosis?

A. The nuclear membranes form around two nuclei.

B. The chromosomes are aligned on a plane in the centre of the cell. C. The chromosomes become visible and attach to the spindle fi
bres. D. The chromatids from each chromosome separate and move to opposite sides of the cell.

Answer is B: during metaphase, chromosomes are arranged on a plane (the metaphase plate) in the middle of the cell, attached to
microtubules of the spindle.

9. What is the name of the process of division of a somatic cell’s nucleus into two daughter nuclei?

A. prophase

B. cytokinesis

C. mitosis

D. meiosis

Answer is C: mitosis involves somatic cells. Meiosis refers to the production of the sex cells.

10. In a strand of DNA, what is the combination of deoxyribose and phosphate and base known as?

A. A ribosome

B. A chromatid

30

C. A codon
D. A nucleotide
2 Cells and Tissues

Answer is D: three nucleotides form a codon and many codons form a chromatid.

11. What happens during anaphase of mitosis?

A. spindle fi bres pull each chromatid to opposite sides of the cell B. the sense and non-sense strands “unzip” along their hydrogen
bonds C. RNA polymerase forms a complementary strand by reading the sense strand D. the cell cytoplasm divides into two cells

Answer is A: separation of the two chromatids of a chromosome occurs at ana phase. Choice D is cytokinesis and begins in late
anaphase and continues into telophase.

12. The process by which information is read from DNA, encoded and transported outside the nucleus is known as:

A. translation

B. transcription

C. encoding

D. catalysis

Answer is B: to “transcribe” is to record the information from a source and to record it at another place (onto mRNA). Then messenger
RNA moves out of the nucleus

13. How many nucleotides are required to code for a single amino acid?

A. twenty

B. fi ve

C. three

D. one

Answer is C: A sequence of three nucleotides constitute a codon. Each codon is specifi c for one of the 20 amino acids.

14. The combination of a sugar, a base and at least one phosphate group is given the general term of:

A. nucleoside

B. amino acid

C. polypeptide

D. nucleotide

Answer is D: a nucleoside is a nucleotide without a phosphate group.

2.2 Cell Cycle (Mitosis and Protein Synthesis)

31

15. The nucleus of the cell contains the master nucleic acid:

A. DNA

B. RNA

C. mRNA

D. tRNA

Answer is A: DNA exists in the nucleus. The other three are ribonucleic acids.

16. Which of the following is the correct combination of the components for the nucleic acid DNA?
A. Phosphate, Ribose, Uracil

B. Phosphate, Deoxyribose, Proline

C. Phosphate, Ribose, Thymine

D. Phosphate, Deoxyribose, Adenine

Answer is D: DNA has the sugar deoxyribose, proline is an amino acid that does not occur in DNA.

17. In the ribosome of a cell, the mRNA is read to produce the particular amino acid sequence for the formation of a protein. What is
this process called?

A. Translation

B. Transcription

C. Transportation

D. Transmutation

Answer is A: translation occurs in the cytoplasm of a cell with a ribosome. It is when the information in mRNA is read to produce the
sequence of amino acids needed to form a protein.

18. Which of the base pairings in DNA would be correct?

A. A–T pair

B. A–G pair

C. C–T pair

D. C–A pair

Answer is A: A pairs with T, while C pairs with G.

19. The combination of a sugar and a base is given the general term of:

A. nucleoside

B. amino acid

C. polypeptide

D. nucleotide

Answer is A: a nucleotide is formed from a nucleoside and a phosphate group.

32

2 Cells and Tissues

20. The nucleic acid which carries the information for protein synthesis from the cell nucleus to the ribosomes is:

A. DNA

B. RNA

C. mRNA

D. tRNA

Answer is C: “messenger” RNA carries the data (the message) from the chro mosomes in the nucleus to the ribosomes in the
cytoplasm.

21. Which of the following is the correct combination of the components for the nucleic acid RNA?
A. Phosphate, Ribose, Uracil

B. Phosphate, Deoxyribose, Proline

C. Phosphate, Ribose, Thymine

D. Phosphate, Deoxyribose, Adenine

Answer is A: RNA must have the sugar ribose. Thymine exists in DNA but not RNA, where it is replaced with uracil.

22. In the nucleus of the cell DNA is used as a template to form mRNA. What is the process called?

A. Translation

B. Transcription

C. Transportation

D. Transmutation

Answer is B: transcription refers to the conversion of information on DNA into the form of mRNA.

23. Which statement is true of the 23 chromosomes within a sperm?

A. 23 chromosomes is the diploid number

B. 11 chromosomes came from the father, 11 chromosomes came from the mother, while one of either the Y or the X came from the
father or mother respectively.

C. Some of the 23 came from the father and the rest came from the mother. D. 11 chromosomes and the Y came from the father,
while 11 chromosomes came from the mother.

Answer is C: A sperm has 23 chromosomes which is the haploid number. The male that produced the sperm has 46 chromosomes
(23 pairs) in their somatic
2.2 Cell Cycle (Mitosis and Protein Synthesis)

33

cells – 23 each from the man’s father and mother. When sperm are produced, the 46 chromosome assemble and pair up. The man’s X
and Y chromosomes pair up. Each pair of chromosomes then separates so that only one of each pair moves into a new sperm. Which
one of the pair ends up in which sperm is a random process. It is possible that an individual sperm has any number of chro

mosomes between 0 and 23 that originated from the father.

Chapter 3
Measurement, Errors and Data
All measurements involve a number, a unit and a level of uncertainty. The number is usually expressed in scientifi c notation (with a
power of 10) while the units should be metric units, and be part of the standard international system of units. These units will have
standard prefi xes (kilo, milli etc.) to denote known multiples of the stan

dard unit. No measurement of a continuous variable is known with absolute accu racy so its level of uncertainty is usually stated.
Uncertainty is sometimes stated as the “error” but this does not imply that a mistake has been made.

Large amounts of data are handled by using a statistic (a number) to summarise the data. Many biological data are “normally
distributed”. That is, are symmetri cally distributed with most data clustered about a central value with progressively fewer data
points the further you move away from the centre. For such data, the “mean” (or average) is an indication of where the middle value
of the group of data lies, while the “standard deviation” describes how closely around the mean value the data are clustered.

1. Say that someone’s body temperature is measured by four different devices and the resulting four measurements are given below.
Which reading has an abso lute error of ± 0.05 °C?

A. 38 °C

B. 37.8 °C
C. 37.85 °C

D. 37.855 °C

Answer is B: absolute error is plus or minus half the smallest scale interval. Two times 0.05 = 0.1, so the smallest scale interval is 0.1
of a degree which applies to the 37.8 °C value.
© Springer Science+Business Media Singapore 2016 35 M. Caon, Examination Questions and Answers in Basic Anatomy and

Physiology, DOI 10.1007/978-981-10-2332-3_3

36

3 Measurement, Errors and Data

2. What can be correctly said of data that are “normally distributed”?

A. The upper and lower values of the distribution describe the healthy range of physiological values.

B. The standard deviation characterises the dispersion of data and the variance characterises the central tendency of the data.

C. The mean and range are statistics that are strictly only applicable to nor mally distributed data.

D. Sixty eight percent of all data values will be within one standard deviation from the mean.

Answer is D: normally distributed data have this predicable relationship between their mean and the spread of values around the
mean.

3. If someone’s height is measured while the person is wearing shoes, the height will be overestimated. This type of error is known as
which of the following?

A. Absolute error

B. Parallax error

C. Calibration error

D. Zeroing error

Answer is D: zeroing error because in this example, the object being measured is not aligned with the start of the measuring scale.

4. Which of the following metric prefi xes is used to denote one thousandth of a gram?

A. micro

B. milli

C. centi

D. kilo

Answer is B: “milli” refers to thousandth or 10 −3 (nothing to do with million!).

5. What is the standard deviation used for?

A. as a measure of central tendency

B. as a measure of dispersion

C. as a measure of spread of data that are normally distributed D. as a measure of the error of the mean value

Answer is C: B is also correct but is not as good an answer as choice C.

6. A bathroom scales displays a mass reading of 68.4 kg. Which one of the follow ing could NOT be the true mass of the person
standing on the scales?

A. 68.40 kg
B. 68.44 kg

C. 68.47 kg

3 Measurement, Errors and Data D. 68.37 kg

37

Answer is C: A reading of 68.4 (that is, stated to the nearest 0.1 kg) means that the actual value is between 68.35 and 68.44, so only
68.47 (which is closer to 68.5) is outside this range.

7. Which of the following g does NOT describe a milligram?

A. 1 × 10 3 gram

B. 1 × 10 −3 gram

C. one thousandth of a gram

D. 0.001 gram

Answer is A: This (1 × 10 3 gram) is one thousand grams = 1 kilogram. 8. Look at the fi gure of a thermometer. What is the
temperature reading?

A. 15 °C

B. 15.4 °C

C. 17 °C

D. 20 °C

Answer is C: every 5 scale intervals is labelled with a number, and each interval corresponds to 1 degree. As the reading is two
intervals above 15: 15 + 2 = 17.

9. Look again at the fi gure of a thermometer. What is the absolute error of the tem perature reading?

A. ± 0.05 °C

B. ± 0.5 °C

38

C. ± 1.0 °C

D. ± 5.0 °C
3 Measurement, Errors and Data

Answer is B: absolute error is plus or minus half of the smallest scale interval (which is 1 degree), half of one is 0.5.

10. What information does the “standard deviation” of a mean value tell us?

A. It gives us the healthy range of values for the measured physiological quantity.

B. It is the range within which 68 % of measured values are found. C. It tells us that the measured values are normally distributed.
D. It tells us the number of values that were used to calculate the mean.

Answer is B: C is also correct but choice B is the better answer.

11. On a clinical thermometer where the smallest scale interval is 0.1 °C, a person’s temperature is measured to be 37.7 °C. Which of
the listed temperatures could NOT be the person’s true temperature?

A. 37.72 °C
B. 37.76 °C

C. 37.67 °C

D. 37.685 °C

Answer is B: an actual value of 37.76 °C would be seen on a scale that has 0.1 as its smallest interval, as 37.8. All other values are
closer to 37.7 than they are to 37.8 or to 37.6.

12. How many micrograms are there in 5 milligram?

A. 0.005

B. 0.5

C. 500

D. 5000

Answer is D: one milligram is one thousand micrograms, so 5 mg = 5000 μg.

13. What does the standard deviation of the mean represent? For values that are normally distributed, it represents:

A. the value above and below the mean that includes 68 % of all data values B. the difference between the highest data value and the
lowest data value C. the average of the difference between each data value and the mean value. D. the spread of the normal
distribution.

Answer is A: The term “standard” in standard deviation of a distribution of measured values, means that it may be relied upon to
encompass 68 % of all measured values.
3 Measurement, Errors and Data

39

14. Given that a milligram 1 × 10 −3 gram, what is a microgram?

A. 1 × 10 3 gram

B. One thousand milligram

C. 1 × 10 −6 gram

D. 0.001 gram

Answer is C: a microgram is one millionth (0.000 001 or 10-6) of a gram. A = 1 kg; B = 1 g; D = 1 milligram.

15. How many micrograms are there in one milligram?

A. 0.001

B. 0.1

C. 100

D. 1000

Answer is D: 1 μg = 10 −3 × 1 mg, so one thousand micrograms is the same as one milligram.

16. How many milligrams are there in one microgram?

A. 0.001

B. 1000

C. 0.1

D. 1,000,000

Answer is A: 1 mg = 10 3 × 1 μg, so one thousandth of a milligram is the same as one microgram.

17. What is meant when a person’s mass is stated as 73.6 kg? That

A. the mass is closer to 73.6 than it is to 73.7 or 73.5

B. the mass is closer to 73.6 than to any other value

C. the mass is between 73.5 and 73.7

D. the mass is 73.6 ± 0.1 kg

Answer is A: because the mass is stated to one decimal place, the absolute error is ± 0.05.

18. Which of the following statements applies to the statistic known as the “stan dard deviation”?

A. It is a measure of central tendency.

B. It is only applicable to qualitative measurements.

C. Standard deviation is also known as the “variance”.

D. 95 % of all data lie within two standard deviations of the mean. Answer is D: This is the only true statement for normally
distrusted data.

40

3 Measurement, Errors and Data

19. Which of the following units is NOT part of the Australian metric system of units?

A. mmHg for measuring blood pressure

B. degree Celsius for measuring temperature

C. Pascal for measuring pressure

D. second for measuring time

Answer is A: Pascal (Pa) is the SI unit for pressure.

20. In the Australian Metric System of units, what does the prefi x micro stand for?

A. one thousand

B. one thousandth

C. one million

D. one millionth

Answer is D: one millionth = 10 −6

21. Which of the following measurements is a semi-quantitative one?

A. a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg

B. a blood glucose level of + + +

C. a state of anxiety measure of “calm”

D. the patient’s name is Tim Cruise

Answer is B: the number of “+” signs indicates a level of magnitude that is semi-quantitative, but there is no unit of magnitude. C is
“qualitative”, while D is “nominal’.

22. A baby’s mass measurement is 3.8 kg ± 0.05 kg. What is the absolute error in the measurement?

A. ± 0.05 ÷ 3.8
B. ± (0.05 ÷ 3.8) × 100 %

C. ± 0.05 kg

D. 0.05 kg

Answer is C: by defi nition, absolute error is half the smallest scale interval (0.1 in this case) above and below the measured value.

23. 1 ml of water has a mass of 1.00 g. Which of the following sets of 3 measure ments of the mass of 1 ml of water is the most
precise set?

A. 0.98 g, 1.00 g, 1.02 g

B. 0.99 g, 0.99 g, 0.99 g

C. 1.00 g, 1.01 g, 1.02 g

D. 0.99 g, 0.99 g, 1.00 g

Answer is B: precision refers to the repeatability of the measurement. In choice B, all measurements are the same so are precise.

3 Measurement, Errors and Data

41

24. Systematic errors arise from some inadequacy of equipment or technique. Which of the following is NOT an example of
systematic error?

A. parallax error

B. calibration error

C. random error

D. zeroing error

Answer is C: as the words suggest, random error is not systematic as it is unpredictable.

25. The median is a measure of central tendency. It may be defi ned as:

A. the value that has half the values greater than it and half less than it B. the value that occurs most often

C. the distribution of values that has the mode, mean and average equal to each other

D. the sum of all values divided by the number of values.

Answer is A: median is the mid-point of the number of measured values. The value that appears most often in a set of data is called
the mode.

26. What is 3400 square centimetres converted to square metres?

A. 0.0034 m 2

B. 0.34 m 2

C. 3.4 m 2

D. 34 m 2

Answer is B: A square metre has sides that are 100 cm long, so 100 × 100 = 10,000 cm 2 in a square metre. So 3400÷10,000 = 0.34.

27. What is the number 0.028 when correctly expressed in scientifi c notation?

A. 28 × 10 2

B. 2.8 × 10 2
C. 2.8 × 10 −2

D. 28 × 10 −2

Answer is C: scientifi c notation requires one number to the right of the decimal point (choices B & C). The decimal point must be
shifted 2 places to achieve this. As 0.028 is less than one, the power of ten is negative.

28. Which of the following numbers has four signifi cant fi gures?

A. 3300.0

B. 37.60

C. 0.008

D. 0.0540

Answer is B: any zero to the left of the fi rst non-zero digit – when approached from the left – are not signifi cant (zeros on the right
are).

42

3 Measurement, Errors and Data

29. Which of the following statements involves a nominal measurement?

A. James has a height of 170 cm.

B. Barry’s blood pressure is elevated.

C. Gino was born in Italy.

D. More than 5 % of Australians receive a pension.

Answer is C: Gino’s birthplace is “named” so the information is nominal, but no other information is available.

30. In the Australian Metric System of measurement what does the prefi x “milli” stand for?

A. one thousandth

B. one thousand

C. one millionth

D. one million

Answer is A: milli = one thousandth = 10 −3

31. The millimetre of mercury is a unit commonly used for the measurement of blood pressure. Which of the following statements
about this unit is true?

A. It is part of the Australian Metric System but not part of the SI system. B. It is part of the SI system but not part of the Australian
Metric System. C. It belongs to both the SI system and the Australian Metric System. D. It does not belong to either the SI system
or the Australian Metric System.

Answer is D: both the SI system and the Australian Metric System are “metric”, the mmHg is not (despite having millimetre in its
name).

Chapter 4
Chemistry for Physiology
4.1 Atoms and Molecules
There are 90 naturally occurring simplest substances called chemical “elements”. The smallest particle of an element is called an atom
of that element. The names of these elements are shortened to one or two-letter symbols that are displayed on the “periodic table”.
Metal elements (e.g. Na, Ca, K) appear on the left while non-metal elements (e.g. Cl, O, N) appear on the right hand side of this table.
A metal element may react with a non-metal element to form a new substance which will be a type of “ionic” compound. A non-metal
element may react with another non-metal element to form a new sub

stance which will be a type of “covalent” compound. Ionic compounds in solid form, are continuous lattice structures, which when they
dissolve, allow the particles move about separately as positive ions if they have lost an electron(s) or negative ions if they gained
electron(s). Covalent compounds exist as groups of atoms (known as molecules), with a fixed ratio of different atoms. The atoms in
these molecules stay together. Examples are H2O (water), C6H2O6 (glucose), CO2 (carbon dioxide), CH3COOH (acetic acid). Ions and
small molecules such as these, and amino acids and lipid molecules are able to move into and out of cells through the plasma membrane
during normal cell functioning.

On a macroscopic scale, humans are a skinful of solids and liquids with no spaces (molecules and ions are “shoulder to shoulder”).
However on the sub atomic scale, atoms are mostly empty space! If the central nucleus (which consists of 2 types of particle called
protons and neutrons) of an atom was the size of a tennis ball, the whole atom would have a diameter of about 600 m with just a few
electrons occupy

ing the mostly empty space which surrounds the “tennis-ball-sized” nucleus. Therefore humans are mostly empty space surrounding
the nuclei of our atoms.

1. The chemical formula C6H12O6 contains much information. However, what information is NOT provided by the formula?

A. the number of atoms in a molecule

B. the name of the substance

© Springer Science+Business Media Singapore 2016 43 M. Caon, Examination Questions and Answers in Basic Anatomy and

Physiology, DOI 10.1007/978-981-10-2332-3_4

44

C. the elements that make up the substance D. whether the substance is covalent or ionic
4 Chemistry for Physiology

Answer is B: the name may be guessed at, but it is possible for two substances to have the same formula but a different structure.

2. Which of the particles listed below is the smallest?

A. an atom

B. a proton

C. an ion

D. a molecule

Answer is B: a proton is a sub-atomic particle so is smaller than all of the others

3. The chemical name for sodium is which of the following?

A. Na

B. So

C. K

D. Si

Answer is A: Na is short for Natrium which is the Latin name for sodium. 4. A molecular compound may be defined by which of
the following?

A. atoms from non-metal elements covalently bonded.

B. atoms from metal elements covalently bonded

C. atoms from metal elements and non-metal elements covalently bonded D. atoms from non-metal elements ironically bonded

Answer is A: only non-metal elements are involved in covalent (molecular) bonding.

5. Many drugs are neutralised to form salts and administered in this form. What is the main advantage of administering the salt form
of the drug? It is usually:

A. less toxic

B. more soluble in water

C. more pleasant to taste

D. more soluble in lipid

Answer is B: salts, having particles that are electrically charged, are more likely to be soluble in water.

6. One of the following is INCORRECT. Which one?

A. metal atoms will form compounds with non-metal atoms.

B. metal atoms will form compounds with metal atoms.

C. non-metal atoms will form compounds with non-metal atoms. D. metal atoms will not form compounds with metal atoms.

Answer is B: metal atoms can only form (ionic non-molecular) compounds with non-metal atoms.
4.1 Atoms and Molecules

45

7. Choose the correct statement about hydrogen bonds. They

A. are stronger than covalent bonds.

B. act between the H in one –OH or –NH group, and the O or N in another. C. operate within molecules.

D. act between the H in one –OH or –NH group, and the H in another.

Answer is B: the slightly positive H atom in one molecule is attracted to the adjacent slightly negative O (or N).

8. Given that the atomic mass of nitrogen is 14 and of hydrogen is 1, what is the mass in grams of one mole of ammonia (NH 3)?

A. 15

B. 16

C. 17

D. 18

Answer is C: from the formula, there is one N and three H atoms. So (1×14)+(3×1)=17.

9. Choose the ending that will correctly complete the sentence: When atoms of a metal element and atoms of a non-metal element
react, the result is

A. a covalent compound consisting of molecules

B. a covalent compound consisting of ions

C. an ionic compound consisting of ions in a lattice

D. an ionic compound consisting of molecules in a lattice

Answer is C: atoms of a metal element react with atoms of a non-metal element to form an ionic compound (ions held within a lattice
when in solid form).

10. In a water molecule, the bond between oxygen (O) and hydrogen (H) is
A. a covalent bond and a polar bond

B. an ionic bond

C. a covalent bond

D. an ionic bond and forms an electrolyte

Answer is A: as both atoms are non-metals, the bonding is covalent. As the atoms differ in their attraction for the bonding electrons,
the bond is polar (the electrons are more closely attracted to O).

11. Some atoms of potassium, K contain 19 protons and 20 neutrons in their nuclei. What is the correct symbol for these atoms?

A. 2019 K

B. 1920 K

C. 3919 K

D. 2039 K

Answer is C: the number of protons (the atomic number) is written as a sub script. The sum of the number of protons and neutrons (the
mass number) is written as a superscript.

46

4 Chemistry for Physiology

12. The chemical elements can be divided into metal elements and non-metal ele ments. Which of the statements about metals and
non-metals is correct?

A. metals lose electrons to become charged particles called cations B. most of the elements are non-metals.

C. non-metals are located at the left hand side of the periodic table D. metals have low melting points and are good conductors of heat

Answer is A: metal ions are positively charged (having lost an electron/s), con sequently they are attracted to a cathode (a negatively
charged electrode).

13. 24 of the chemical elements are essential to the human body. Four bulk ele ments, 7 are macrominerals and 13 are trace elements.
Which are the four bulk elements?

A. calcium, carbon, hydrogen & oxygen

B. nitrogen, carbon, hydrogen & oxygen

C. calcium, nitrogen, carbon & oxygen

D. carbon, oxygen, phosphorus & iron

Answer is B: these elements make up the bulk of proteins, carbohydrates and lipids.

14. Most non-molecular compounds form by the chemical combination of:

A. molecules with molecules

B. non-metals with non-metals

C. metals with metals

D. metals with non-metals

Answer is D: ionic compounds are formed when metal atoms react with non metal atoms. The structures the form are not molecular.

15. Molecules are relatively easy to separate from one another. This means that the bonds between them are:

A. ionic
B. covalent

C. relatively weak

D. relatively strong

Answer is C: ease of separation implies relatively weak bonds. Both ionic and covalent bonds are strong.

16. What happens when a sodium atom reacts to form a compound? The atom will

A. gain one electron

B. lose one electron

C. gain two electrons

D. lose two electrons

Answer is B: sodium is a metal so will lose an electron. As it occurs in period IA of the periodic table we know it loses a single
electron.

4.1 Atoms and Molecules

47

17. When nitrogen combines with hydrogen to form a compound, its formula will be:

A. NH3

B. N3H

C. NH4

D. NH

Answer is A: N requires 3 electrons to complete its outer shell (it occurs in column VA of the periodic table), while H requires one.
Hence three H must attach to a single N.

18. Which of the following type of bond between atoms is the weakest?

A. ionic bond

B. polar bond

C. covalent bond

D. hydrogen bond

Answer is D: the hydrogen bond is the weakest. Almost all covalent bonds are polar bonds.

19. Ionic, non-molecular compounds are likely to have which of the following sets of properties?

A. high melting point, often soluble in organic liquids, in pure form do not conduct electricity.

B. low melting point, no strong odour, soluble in water, electrical conductivity in solution.

C. high melting point, electrical conductivity in solution, no strong odour, often soluble in water

D. low melting point, strong odour, soluble in organic liquids, in pure form do not conduct electricity.

Answer is C: high melting points and electrical conductivity are indicative of ionic compounds.

20. Which of the following best describes a molecule?

A. The simplest structure in an ionic compound.

B. One thousandth of a mole.

C. The particles of which covalent compounds are composed.

D. The smallest particle of an element.

Answer is C: molecules are the particles of covalent compounds. 21. Which of the following is true of metal elements?

A. The four most common metal elements in the body have the symbols: C, H, O and N.

B. They form compounds with non-metals.

48

C. When they form compounds, they gain electrons.

4 Chemistry for Physiology

D. In the body, ions of metal atoms have a negative charge.

Answer is B: all other choices are wrong.

22. Which of the following symbols represents a chemical element?

A. O

B. CO

C. CO2

D. H3O+

Answer is A: O symbolises oxygen, element number 16.

23. What is the name given to the particles that make up a covalent compound?

A. ions

B. molecules

C. anions and cations

D. metal atoms

Answer is B: this is a definition of molecules.

24. Compounds may be described by which of the following sentences?

A. Pure substances that contain two or more elements.

B. Materials that are composed of particles called molecules.

C. Materials composed of more than one part, and the parts may be present in any proportion.

D. Substances that appear on the right hand side of the periodic table. Answer is A: choice B refers only to covalent compounds.

25. The symbol for potassium is which of the following?

A. PO4

B. Po

C. P

D. K

Answer is B: K is from Kalium which is the Latin word for potassium. 26. “Covalent” is the term applied to which of the
following bonds?
A. Those between an ion and all the surrounding oppositely charged ions. B. The bond between an electrolyte and the surrounding
water molecules in a solution.

C. Those between non-metal atoms.

D. Those between atoms on the left hand side of the periodic table.

Answer is C: non-metals share electrons when they react with each other (rather than losing or gaining), hence the prefix “co-”.
4.1 Atoms and Molecules

49

27. Given that one mole is 6×1023 particles, how much is a millimole?

A. 6 × 1020 particles

B. 106 mole

C. 10-6 mole

D. 6 × 10-3 particles

Answer is A: a millimole is one thousandth of a mole, so 1 mmol=10−3×6× 1023=6×1020 particles

28. Which of the following is a definition of a molecule? The particle that composes:

A. covalent compounds

B. non-metal elements

C. electrolytes

D. ionic compounds

Answer is A: This is one definition of a molecule.

29. What is the smallest particle of a non-metal element known as?

A. a molecule

B. an atom

C. an ion

D. a neutron

Answer is B: an atom is the smallest particle of any element – not just non-metals!

30. What is the difference between ions and molecules?

A. ions have an electrical charge whereas molecules do not.

B. ions are from metal elements only whereas molecules contain only non metal elements

C. ions arise from compounds between non-metal elements, whereas mole cules arise from metal and non-metal elements

D. an ion may be formed from a single atom but molecules always involve more than one atom

Answer is D: This is the only correct choice. However molecules may also form ions – polyatomic ions.

31. Of the four different types of matter listed below which is not an example of an element?

A. hydrogen

B. oxygen

C. water

D. gold
Answer is C: water is a compound of H and O.

50

4 Chemistry for Physiology

32. A certain pure substance, A, when heated is changed into two quite different pure substances, C and D. Which of the following
statements must be true?

A. A is a compound.

B. C and D are not elements.

C. A, C and D are all compounds.

D. C and D are elements.

Answer is A: only this choice must be true. The others are just possible. 33. Which of the following statements about atoms is
FALSE?

A. They are mostly empty space.

B. Nearly all their mass is concentrated in the nucleus.

C. In a neutral atom protons and electrons are equal in number. D. The nucleus contains equal numbers of protons and neutrons.

Answer is D: for the elements with smaller atoms, usually this is true, but for heavier elements it is not.

34. In which of the following sequences are particles listed in order of increasing size from left to right?

A. electron, atom, proton, molecule

B. molecule, atom, proton, electron

C. atom, proton, electron, molecule

D. electron, proton, atom, molecule

Answer is D: an electron so far is immeasurably small, while a molecule must have at least two atoms and the proton is a sub-atomic
particle.

35. Which of the following is the name of a subatomic particle?

A. anion

B. cation

C. molecule

D. neutron

Answer is D: a neutron is one of the constituents of the atomic nucleus.

36. Two atoms have the same mass number but different atomic numbers. Which of the following statements concerning these atoms
is TRUE?

A. Each has the same number of neutrons in its nucleus.

B. They are isotopes.

C. They are atoms of different elements.

D. Each has the same number of protons in its nucleus.

Answer is C: different atomic numbers means different numbers of protons and hence different elements.
4.1 Atoms and Molecules

51

37. What is the atomic number of the element occupying Group VA and Period 4 of the Periodic Table?

A. 33

B. 34

C. 51

D. 52

Answer is C: This is Arsenic (As) – you may need to consult a periodic table to answer this.

38. Some atoms of iodine, I, contain 53 protons and 78 neutrons in their nuclei. A correct symbol for these atoms would be:

A. 53131I

B. 5378I

C. 78131I

D. 7853I

Answer is A: the convention is: the number of protons is the subscript; the sum of the number of protons and neutrons (131) is the
superscript.

39. Which of the following atoms normally forms ions having a single, positive charge?

A. Mg

B. S

C. Cl

D. K

Answer is D: This is because potassium is a metal and from group IA of the periodic table.

40. Which of the following statements concerning isotopes is FALSE?

A. They contain the same number of protons in their atoms.

B. They contain the same number of electrons in their atoms.

C. They contain the same number of neutrons in their atoms.

D. They have very similar chemical properties.

Answer is C: having a different number of neutrons (while having the same number of protons) is what defines them to be isotopes

41. The element nitrogen exists as molecules, N2. Which of the following represen tations of the bonding in a molecule of nitrogen is
correct?

A. N+ N

B. N–N

C. N=N

D. N≡N

Answer is D: Nitrogen is placed in period VA of the periodic table and so needs to share three electrons. That is, needs to form three
covalent bonds.

52
4 Chemistry for Physiology

42. Which of the following properties is least likely to be possessed by a covalent, molecular substance?

A. strong odour

B. high solubility in water

C. melting point above 400 °C

D. low electrical conductivity

Answer is C: A high melting point is characteristic of ionic substances. Some covalent compounds are soluble in water.

43. The diagrams below display the covalent bonds present in a series of simple molecules. In which case is the number of bonds
surrounding an atom in the diagrams below INCORRECT?

A. Carbon dioxide, O – C – O
CI

B. carbon tetrachloride,
CI CI CI

CI

C. ammonia,
HNH

D. water, H – O – H

Answer is A: carbon must form four bonds (not two). It is from group IV A in the periodic table

4.2 Solutions
Water is a very good solvent and the substances that are dissolved in a sample of water are known as the solutes. The combination of
solvent with the dissolved sol utes is known as the solution. The term “% concentration” is a statement about how much solute is
dissolved in a known volume of solvent. Hence a solution of concen tration ×% has × grams of solute dissolved per 100 ml of
solution. Solution concen tration may also be expressed as: specific gravity; molarity in mmol/L; osmolarity in mosmol/L and
osmotic pressure.

Solids that dissolve in water to produce ions are known as “electrolytes”. However, many books refer to the dissolved ions themselves
as electrolytes. If the concentration of a particular ion in the body’s plasma is too low the prefix “-hypo”

4.2 Solutions

53

is used. For example: hyponatremia. If the concentration of a particular ion in the plasma is too high the prefix “-hyper” is used. For
example: hyperkalemia.

1. Which item from the following list is an electrolyte?

A. Ca++

B. oxygen gas (O2) dissolved in water

C. table salt (solid form of Na+Cl-)

D. glucose (solid form of the sugar)

Answer is C: “An electrolyte is a substance that when dissolved in water, will produce ions in solution.”

2. Given that one mole of Na+Cl− has a mass of 58.5 g, how many grams of Na+Cl− are dissolved in a solution of 0.1 mole per litre?

A. 0.585 g

B. 5.85 g

C. 58.5 g

D. 0.1 g

Answer is B: 0.1 mole=1/10 of 58.5 g=5.85 g

3. How many grams of sodium chloride are there in (0.9%) normal saline?

A. 0.09 g per 100 ml

B. 0.09 g per litre

C. 9 g per 100 ml

D. 9 g per litre

Answer is D: 0.9% means 0.9 g per 100 ml of solution=9 g per 1000 ml (i.e. per litre)

4. How many grams of sodium chloride are there in a one litre bag of 0.9% saline?

A. 0.09 g

B. 0.9 g

C. 9 g

D. 90 g

Answer is C: 0.9% means 0.9 g per 100 ml of solution=9 g per 1000 ml (i.e. per litre)

5. What is the percentage concentration of glucose if 80 gram of glucose is dis solved in one litre of solution?

A. 0.8%

B. 5%

C. 8%

D. 80%

Answer is C: 80 g per 1000 ml=8 g per 100 ml=8%

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4 Chemistry for Physiology

6. Given that the concentration of hydronium ions in a solution with pH of 2 is 0.19%, what would be the concentration of hydronium
ions in a solution with pH of 3?

A. 0.13%

B. 0.29%

C. 0.019%

D. 1.9%

Answer is C: a pH change of one corresponds to a change in hydronium ion concentration by a factor of 10. As the pH has risen, the
acidity has decreased, so there are fewer hydronium ions. That is 1/10 of 0.19%=0.019%
7. What does the term “electrolyte” refer to?

A. an uncharged dissolved particle.

B. the smallest particle of an element.

C. a substance that will conduct electricity when dissolved in water. D. negatively charged sub-atomic particles.

Answer is C: this is the definition of an electrolyte

8. What is meant by referring to a solution concentration of 0.18%?

A. 0.18 g of solute in 100 ml of solution.

B. 1.8 g of solute in 100 ml of solution.

C. 0.18 g of solute in one litre of solution.

D. 0.18 mole of solute in 100 ml of solution.

Answer is A: 0.18 per cent means 0.18 g per 100 ml of solution.

9. Which of the following is NOT an electrolyte (or does not contain electrolytes)?

A. Cl−

B. acetic acid

C. glucose

D. a 0.9% solution of sodium chloride

Answer is C: glucose will dissolve in water, but no ions are produced. 10. If the concentration of a solution is 5%, which of the
following is true?

A. There is 0.5 g of solute per 100 ml of solution

B. There is 5 g of solute per 100 ml of solution

C. There is 5 g of solute per 1000 ml of solution

D. There is 50 g of solute per 100 ml of solution

Answer is B: 5%=5 per cent=5 per hundred=5 g per 100 ml of solution. 11. What does the term “electrolyte” refer to?

A. the minor component of a solution.

B. a substance that will conduct electricity when dissolved in water.

4.2 Solutions

55

C. the smallest particle of an element.

D. negatively charged sub-atomic particles.

Answer is B: this is a definition of electrolyte.

12. The solution concentration 0.9% means that there are

A. 0.9 g of solute in 100 ml of solution.

B. 9.0 g of solute in 100 ml of solution.

C. 0.9 g of solute in one litre of solution.

D. 0.9 mole of solute in 100 ml of solution.

Answer is A: 0.9%=0.9 per cent=0.9 per hundred=0.9 g per 100 ml of solution.

13. Which of the following is NOT an electrolyte (or does not contain electrolytes)?

A. K+

B. nitrate ions

C. haemoglobin

D. a 1% solution of sodium chloride

Answer is C: haemoglobin is an uncharged protein found within red blood cells. 14. Which is the best definition of an electrolyte?

A. an atom that dissociates into ions.

B. a substance that will conduct electricity when it is dissolved in water. C. molecules of solid, liquid or gas that will conduct
electricity in solution. D. a substance that will conduct electricity.

Answer is B: this is a definition of electrolyte. Choice C is restricted to mole cules; and there must be a solution involved, so D is
wrong.

15. What is the condition known as hyperkalemia characterised by? A

A. higher than normal concentration of potassium in the blood. B. lower than normal concentration of potassium in the blood. C.
serum sodium concentration greater than 150 mmol/l.

D. serum sodium concentration greater than 5 mmol/l.

Answer is A: kalemia refers to potassium. “hyper-” refers to more or an excess.

16. A solution of 5% glucose is used for an infusion. Over a 2 hour period, 300 ml of the solution were used. How much glucose in
grams was infused?

A. 5 gm

B. 12.5 gm

C. 15.0 gm

D. 50 gm

Answer is C: 5% means 5 g per 100 ml. So in 300 ml there would be 3×5 g=15 g infused.

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4 Chemistry for Physiology

17. A solution of glucose is used for an infusion. Over a 3 hour period 250 ml of solution is used containing a total of 5 g of glucose.
What is the concentration of the glucose solution used?

A. 2%

B. 20%

C. 0.2%

D. 5%

Answer is A: 5 g per 250 ml=20 g per 1000 ml (multiply by 4)=2 g per 100 ml=2%.

18. A sudden and severe loss of potassium due to diuretic abuse is likely to result in:

A. hypothermia

B. hyponatremia

C. hypokalemia
D. hypoventilation

Answer is C: kalium means potassium, the prefix “hypo-” means a lack or decrease in.

19. Which of the following statements relating to a patient with severe loss of potassium due to diuretic abuse is TRUE?

A. the serum levels of potassium are > 3 mmol/L

B. an ECG is probably not warranted

C. the condition may be treated by administering oral glucose and potassium D. one course of action is to decrease the intake of
potassium and to undergo ion-exchange resin treatment

Answer is C: a loss of potassium may be treated by administering potassium. Hypokalemia refers to a blood concentration of <3 mmol/L,
and such a level could affect the heart so an ECG IS warranted.

20. Which strategy would be most effective in dealing with a severe case of dehydration?

A. Oral administration of a hypertonic solution.

B. Intravenous administration of distilled water.

C. Intravenous administration of isotonic glucose.

D. Intravenous administration of hypotonic sodium chloride.

Answer is C: IV solutions should be isotonic (oral solutions should be hypo tonic). Glucose would be absorbed by cells leaving the
water behind in the blood which would reduce blood osmolarity. Hence water would redistribute itself by osmosis through the body.

4.2 Solutions

57

21. A common IV solution is the combination 0.18% sodium chloride and 4% glucose (also called “4% and a fifth”). How many grams
of each solute will be in a one litre bag?

A. 0.18 g of sodium chloride and 4 g of glucose.

B. 0.9 g of sodium chloride and 5 g of glucose

C. 1.8 g of sodium chloride and 40 g of glucose

D. 18 g of sodium chloride and 40 g of glucose

Answer is C: 0.18% sodium chloride and 4% glucose means 0.18 g of sodium chloride per 100 ml and 4 g of glucose per 100 ml. So in
one litre there would be 1.8 g and 40 g respectively.

22. The “extra-cellular” fluid compartment of the body includes which of the following?

A. interstitial, trans-cellular and connective tissue fluids

B. vascular, connective tissue and interstitial fluids

C. intra-cellular and transcellular fluid

D. vascular and connective tissue fluid

Answer is B: extracellular must include the blood (vascular) and the fluid between cells (interstitial).

23. Fluid and electrolyte balance in the body is maintained by which of the following?

A. the hormone aldosterone

B. keeping accurate account of the patient’s fluid balance chart C. the nephron of the kidney

D. the hypothalamus of the brain

 Answer is C: the nephron is the functional unit of the kidney that does this job. 24. Which general description of the components
of a solution is correct?

A. solvent and solute

B. solvent and liquid

C. solute and solder

D. liquid and solid

Answer is A: the solvent dissolves (e.g. water), the solute (e.g. salt) is dissolved 25. Which term below is NOT suitable to
describe the concentration of a solution?

A. 5 g/litre

B. 5%

C. 2 Molar

D. 0.5 moles

Answer is D: This states an amount of substance only, without reference to the volume of solvent involved.

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4 Chemistry for Physiology

26. Given that the healthy range of sodium ion concentration in the blood is 137– 145 mmol/L, if the measured concentration of a
blood sample was 130 mmol/L, what would the condition be called?

A. hyperkalemia

B. hypokalemia

C. hypernatremia

D. hyponatremia

Answer is D: natrium is sodium. As 130 is less than 137, the prefix “hypo-” is the correct one.

27. Extracellular fluid includes which of the following liquids?

A. blood plasma

B. blood plasma and interstitial fluid

C. blood plasma and interstitial fluid and connective tissue fluid D. blood plasma and interstitial fluid and connective tissue fluid and
liquid inside cells

Answer is C: This choice includes more than choices A & B. D is wrong as liquid inside cells is not extracellular.

28. What can be said about a solution that conducts electricity?

A. the solute is a polar molecule

B. the solvent is a non-polar liquid

C. the solution contains dissolved ions

D. the solution contains dissolved molecules

Answer is C: dissolved ions must be present for electrical conduction to occur.

29. Which of the body’s fluid compartments does the vascular compartment form part of?

A. interstitial fluid
B. extracellular fluid

C. intracellular fluid

D. transcellular fluid

Answer is B: vascular = blood which is almost synonymous with extracellular. 30. To what condition does the term
“hypokalemia” refer?

A. too little phosphorus in the blood

B. too much sodium in the blood

C. too little potassium in the blood

D. too little sodium in the blood

Answer is C: hypo- refers to too little and Kalium is the Latin word for potassium.

4.2 Solutions

59

31. Which of the following is correct for intra-cellular fluid (ICF) and extra-cellular fluid (ECF)?

A. the ECF is part of the ICF

B. the majority of the body’s water is in the ECF

C. the ICF contains more sodium than the ECF

D. the ICF contains more potassium than the ECF

Answer is D: there is more K within cells than outside cells (the reverse is true for sodium). Most body water is inside the cells.

32. A one litre IV bag contains 0.18% sodium chloride and 4% glucose. What mass of solutes would be dissolved in 100 ml of the
solution?

A. 0.18 g of sodium chloride and 4 g of glucose

B. 1.8 g of sodium chloride and 4 g of glucose

C. 1.8 g of sodium chloride and 40 g of glucose

D. 18 g of sodium chloride and 40 g of glucose

Answer is A: 0.18% sodium chloride and 4% glucose means 0.18 g of sodium chloride per 100 ml and 4 g of glucose per 100 ml.

33. In the context of fluid (water) balance, the body is said to have “two compart ments”. What are they?

A. the vascular and the interstitial compartments

B. the intracellular and the interstitial compartments

C. the lymph and the vascular compartments

D. the extracellular and the intracellular compartments

Answer is D: outside the cells and inside the cells includes everything. 34. What is an insufficient concentration of potassium in the
blood known as?

A. hypokalemia

B. hyponatremia

C. hypopotassemia
D. hypocalcemia

Answer is A: the Latin word for potassium is kalium. The prefix “-hypo” refers to too little. Arguably, choice C is not wrong, but this
expression is not used.

35. If a solution is shown to be able to conduct electricity, then what is true?

A. A: the solution is free of impurities

B. B: the solution contains a dissolved electrolyte

C. C: the solution contains dissolved molecules

D. D: the solution is an aqueous solution

Answer is B: a dissolved electrolyte will ensure that ions are in solution and the solution will conduct electricity as these ions are free
to move through the solution.

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4 Chemistry for Physiology

36. How many grams of sodium chloride are there in a one litre bag of 4% glucose and 0.18% sodium chloride solution?

A. 0.18

B. 1.8

C. 18

D. 41.8

Answer is B: 0.18%=0.18 g per 100 ml, so in 1000 ml there would be 10×0.18=1.8 g.

37. In the vascular compartment of the body, what is the solvent?

A. blood

B. plasma

C. serum

D. water

Answer is D: All these things are in the vascular compartment, but water is the solvent.

38. The extracellular fluid compartment consists of which of the following?

A. vascular and transcellular

B. interstitial, vascular and connective tissue fluid

C. intra-cellular and transcellular

D. trans-cellular, intra-cellular and connective tissue fluid

Answer is B: Vascular and interstitial liquids must be included. 39. Electrolyte balance is achieved largely by:

A. the kidneys and aldosterone

B. drinking sufficient water

C. anti-diuretic hormone and isotonic fluids

D. ensuring that daily water intake is the same as daily water output
Answer is A: The kidneys have the ability to reabsorb and secrete ions and water as required. Aldosterone causes the kidney tubules to
reabsorb sodium ions while promoting the secretion of potassium ions.

40. What may hyponatremia be described as?

A. insufficient potassium in the blood

B. insufficient iron in the blood

C. insufficient sodium in the blood

D. excess sodium in the blood

Answer is C: the prefix “hypo-” refers to too little, and natrium is a Latin word that means sodium.

4.3 Diffusion and Osmosis

61

41. Which of the following ways of expressing a solution’s concentration is written as a number without units?

A. % concentration

B. Molarity

C. Osmotic pressure

D. Specific gravity

Answer is D: Specific gravity of a solution is the ratio of the density of the solu tion to the density of water (which is 1.0). Consequently
the density units “can cel out”.

42. A solution of 5% glucose is infused over a period of three hours. If 250 ml of solution was used, how many grams of glucose was
infused?

A. 5 g

B. 12.5 g

C. 15.0 g

D. 50 g

Answer is B: 5% glucose means 5 g per 100 ml of solution. 250 ml was used, therefore 2.5×5=12.5 g

43. A solution is prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose in 250 ml of water. What will be the concentration of this solution expressed
as a percentage?

A. 4

B. 6

C. 25

D. 40

Answer is A: % concentration states how many grams of solute are in 100 ml of solution. 10 g per 250 ml is the same as 10÷2.5 per
100 ml. This is 4%

4.3 Diffusion and Osmosis

Ions and molecules in a solution are continually bumping into each other and mov ing independently in random directions. This continual
motion results in the solute particles and solvent molecules being evenly distributed. Because if there is a greater concentration of one
type of molecule in one place compared to elsewhere, the random motion will result in more molecules moving away from that place
than are moving towards the place. Diffusion is the name given to this random motion of molecules and ions. If water is the molecule
that is moving and it is passing through a semi-permeable membrane from one solution to the solution on the other side, the movement
is called “osmosis”. If it is a solute molecule or ion that is passing through a semi-permeable membrane, the movement is called
“dialysis”. The result of osmosis is that the more concentrated solution becomes more dilute.
4 Chemistry for Physiology

62

Another way to describe the concentration of a solution is to state its “osmotic

pressure” (in pressure units). The osmotic pressure of blood is about 7.3 atmo spheres (740 kPa). Osmotic pressure is described as the
tendency of water to move into a solution via osmosis. The higher the solution’s concentration, the higher is its osmotic pressure.
Osmotic pressure may be measured by determining the amount of pressure that must be applied to a solution to prevent water from
entering the solu tion by osmosis.

1. Consider two aqueous solutions of different concentration separated by a semi permeable membrane. In this situation, osmosis
results in:

A. water molecules moving to the side where the solution concentration is lower.

B. the more concentrated solution becoming even more concentrated. C. the more dilute solution becoming even more dilute.

D. the more concentrated solution becoming more dilute.

Answer is D: The result of osmosis is that the more concentrated solution becomes more dilute.

2. Osmosis may be defined as which of the following?

A. The diffusion of water molecules across a semi-permeable membrane from the solution with higher water concentration into the
solution of lower water concentration.

B. The movement of water molecules across a semi-permeable membrane from the solution of higher concentration into the solution
of lower concentration.

C. The diffusion of solute particles across a semi-permeable membrane from the solution of higher concentration into the solution of
lower concentration.

D. The movement of water molecules across a semi-permeable membrane from the solution of lower concentration into the solution of
higher concentration.

Answer is D: The definition should include: “water”; movement through an SP membrane; direction of water flow from more dilute
solution into the solution of higher concentration.

3. What is the movement of water molecules across a plasma membrane from the side where the solution concentration is more dilute
to the side where the solu tion is more concentrated called?

A. osmosis

B. reverse osmosis

C. diffusion

D. hydration

Answer is A: Osmosis is the diffusion of WATER molecules through a mem brane, from where there is a higher concentration of
water molecules to where

4.3 Diffusion and Osmosis

63

there is a lower concentration of water molecules (i.e. into the more concen trated solution).

4. The movement of water molecules through a plasma membrane from the side where there is a higher concentration water molecules
to the side where there are fewer, is best known as:

A. diffusion
B. osmosis

C. pinocytosis

D. hydrolysis

Answer is B: osmosis is the diffusion of water molecules through a membrane, down their concentration gradient.

5. The diffusion of water molecules across a cell membrane from the side where the solution concentration is more dilute to the side
where it is greater, is known as which of the following?

A. osmosis

B. filtration

C. hydrolysis

D. buffer action

Answer is A: This is a definition of osmosis.

6. If a semi-permeable membrane separates two aqueous solutions with different osmotic pressures, what will be the direction of water
flow between solutions? From:

A. higher osmotic pressure to the solution of lower osmotic pressure. B. lower osmotic pressure to the solution of higher osmotic
pressure. C. higher concentration to the solution of lower concentration. D. higher hydrostatic pressure to the solution of lower
hydrostatic pressure.

Answer is B: lower osmotic pressure means a lower solution concentration (and a higher concentration of water molecules). Water
moves from the dilute solu tion into the more concentrated one.

7. During dialysis, what moves across a semi-permeable membrane (and how)?

A. Water molecules by diffusion from the region of high solute concentration to the region of low solute concentration.

B. Water molecules by filtration from the region of high hydrostatic pressure to the region of low hydrostatic pressure.

C. Solutes by diffusion from the region of high solute concentration to the region of low solute concentration.

D. Solutes by filtration from the region of low hydrostatic pressure to the region of high hydrostatic pressure.
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64

Answer is C: dialysis refers to movement of solutes (not water). Choice D is wrong as filtration refers to movement due to hydrostatic
pressure difference from the solution under higher pressure to low pressure.

8. A suitable definition of osmosis would be movement:

A. of solute particles through a plasma membrane from the side where their concentration is greatest to the side where it is lower.

B. of water molecules through a plasma membrane from the side where their concentration is greatest to the side where it is lower.

C. of a substance from a region where it is in high concentration to where its concentration is lower

D. caused by a hydrostatic pressure difference.

Answer is B: osmosis refers to movement of water molecules (not other mole cules), by diffusion.

9. The difference between dialysis and diffusion is that

A. dialysis involves the movement of water molecules.

B. diffusion involves movement against the concentration gradient. C. dialysis involves passive movement through a cell membrane.
D. diffusion is caused by a hydrostatic pressure difference.

Answer is C: diffusion is passive and occurs in the direction of the concentra tion gradient. Diffusion can occur within a solution or
across a membrane. Dialysis on the other hand, requires a membrane and is a term applied to sol utes, not water molecules.
10. Osmosis involves the movement of:

A. water molecules through a membrane from a region of higher concentration of water molecules to a region of lower water
molecule concentration. B. solute particles from a region of higher solution concentration to a region of lower solution concentration.

C. water molecules from a region of lower concentration of water to a region of higher water molecule concentration.

D. solute particles through a membrane from a region of lower solute concen tration to a region of higher solute concentration.

Answer is A: osmosis involves water molecules (not solutes) moving down their concentration gradient into a solution of lower
concentration of water molecules.

11. What does “osmosis” refer to?

A. the constant random motion of ions and molecules.

B. the movement of ions and molecules from regions of high concentration to regions of low concentration.

C. the movement of water molecules through a semi-permeable membrane.

4.3 Diffusion and Osmosis

65

D. the movement of water molecules through a semi-permeable membrane from the side with higher water concentration to the side
with lower water concentration.

Answer is D: the definition must include water molecules; crossing a SP mem brane; a correct direction of movement.

12. What is the difference between filtration and diffusion?

A. Diffusion can occur through a biological membrane whereas filtration cannot. B. Filtration can occur through a biological
membrane whereas diffusion cannot. C. Filtration is the movement of molecules caused by a pressure difference but diffusion does
not involve a difference in pressure.

D. Diffusion is the movement of molecules caused by a pressure difference but filtration does not involve a difference in pressure.

Answer is C: filtration requires a pressure difference, diffusion does not. Both diffusion and filtration can occur through a membrane.

13. What is the difference between osmosis and dialysis?

A. Dialysis involves the movement of solute molecules whereas osmosis refers to water molecules.

B. Osmosis involves the movement of solute molecules whereas dialysis refers to water molecules.

C. Osmosis involves movement of molecules across a membrane but dialysis does not involve a membrane.

D. Dialysis involves movement of molecules across a membrane but osmosis does not involve a membrane.

Answer is A: osmosis refers to the movement of water molecules (only) through a membrane. Only choice A is consistent with this.

14. Which one of the following processes that describe movement of the particles in a solution does NOT require passing through a
membrane?

A. diffusion

B. filtration

C. dialysis

D. osmosis

Answer is A: While diffusion can occur through a membrane, its presence is not required in order to define diffusion.

15. Which statement about the osmotic pressure of an aqueous solution is correct? Osmotic pressure:

A. is an indication of the force with which pure water moves into that solution.
B. is a measure of the tendency of water to move into the solution.
4 Chemistry for Physiology

66

C. is the drawing power of water and depends on the number of molecules in the solution.

D. of a solution is called its osmolarity in mosmol/kg.

Answer is B: solutions with high “osmotic pressure” are concentrated solutions and so water will diffuse into such solutions from
solutions of lower concentra tion – a process known as osmosis. The other answers are nonsense.

16. Diffusion is the term given to the process where:

A. molecules move along their concentration gradient from high concentration to low concentration.

B. water moves along its concentration gradient from low concentration to high concentration.

C. ATP is used to move ions along their concentration gradient. D. a membrane protein, by changing shape after binding to a
molecule, moves the molecule across the plasma membrane.

Answer is A: This is the only correct definition of diffusion.

17. By what name is the movement of solute particles through a selectively perme able membrane, in the direction of their
concentration gradient known?

A. diffusion

B. dialysis

C. osmosis

D. filtration

Answer is B: while the solute particles are indeed diffusing through the mem brane, the presence of a membrane makes dialysis the
appropriate term to use. Diffusion is also applied to the movement of particles within a solution even when they do not cross a
membrane.

18. Blood has a slightly higher osmotic pressure than the interstitial fluid that sur rounds capillaries. What is the effect of this?

A. Water will tend to move from the interstitial fluid into the capillaries. B. The solution concentration of blood is less than the
solution concentration of interstitial fluid.

C. Water will tend to move from the capillaries into the interstitial fluid. D. Capillaries will expand in diameter.

Answer is A: water will move through a membrane into a solution of higher osmotic pressure (the blood) from a solution of lower
osmotic pressure.

19. Consider a patient undergoing kidney dialysis, whose blood has bicarbonate at a concentration of 14 mmol/L and urea at 23 mmol/L.
The dialysing liquid has bicarbonate at 32 mmol/L and urea at 0 mmol/L. In which direction will these substances flow?

4.3 Diffusion and Osmosis

67

A. bicarbonate will flow from patient’s blood to dialysing liquid, urea will flow from patient’s blood into dialysing liquid.

B. bicarbonate will flow from dialysing liquid to patient’s blood, urea will flow from dialysing liquid into patient’s blood.

C. bicarbonate will flow from dialysing liquid to patient’s blood, urea will flow from patient’s blood into dialysing liquid.

D. bicarbonate will flow from patient’s blood to dialysing liquid, urea will flow from dialysing liquid to patient’s blood.
Answer is C: molecules will flow from areas of high concentration towards areas of low concentration. Hence bicarbonate will flow
from the dialysing liquid at 32 to blood at 14 mmol/L, while urea will flow from blood at 23 mmol/L to the dialysing liquid at 0
mmol/L.

20. Which is the best description for the osmotic pressure of a solution?

A. A: the pressure that needs to be applied to the solution while it is separated from pure water by a membrane, to prevent a net flow
of water through the membrane into the solution.

B. B: the force with which pure water moves through a membrane into that solution as a result of its solute concentration.

C. C: the movement of particles through a membrane, where the movement is caused by a hydrostatic pressure.

D. D: it is the force of attraction for water by undissolved particles in the solution.

Answer is A: the application of a hydrostatic pressure to a solution in order to oppose and prevent the osmotic flow of water into that
liquid is the basis for assigning a value to that solution for its “osmotic pressure”. Osmotic pressure is the value of this externally
applied hydrostatic pressure. Choice C describes filtration. Choices B & D are nonsense.

21. In which of the following situations would the osmotic pressure of blood be the greatest?

A. in a patient whose blood osmolarity is 290 mosmol/L

B. in a patient whose blood osmolarity is 280 mosmol/L and whose urine spe cific gravity is 1.002

C. in a patient with hyperthermia

D. in a patient who is dehydrated

Answer is D: the healthy range for blood osmolarity is 280–300 mosmol/L. a dehydrated person would have a blood osmolarity
approaching or exceeding 300 mosmol/L.

22. Osmosis involves movement of water from where the:

A. water concentration is lower to where it is higher

B. solute concentration is higher to where it is lower

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68

C. solution is more concentrated to where it is less concentrated D. water concentration is higher to where it is lower

Answer is D: in osmosis water molecules flow down their concentration gradi ent (and from weaker solutions to more concentrated
ones).

23. What is “osmotic pressure”?

A. the pressure exerted by a solution due to its concentration

B. a measure of solution concentration expressed in the units of pressure C. the pressure exerted by the blood colloidal plasma proteins

D. the pressure that drives water movement out of the arterial end of capillaries

Answer is B: Osmotic pressure is a way of expressing solution concentration. The word pressure in the term “osmotic pressure”
makes it tempting to errone ously think of the solution exerting some type of pressure due to its solutes.

24. If a red blood cell (rbc) is placed in a solution that has a greater concentration than that inside the rbc, what will happen?

A. the rbc will crenate

B. the rbc will haemolyse

C. there will be a net movement of water out of the rbc into the solution D. there will be no net movement of water out of the rbc

Answer is C: water will flow by osmosis from the rbc into the surrounding solu tion. If the difference in concentration is large enough,
the outflow of water will be large, and the rbc will also shrivel (crenate) as a result of this outflow.
25. One of the following is an example of osmosis. Which one?

A. water moving from the glomerulus of a nephron into the Bowman’s capsule

B. water leaving a blood capillary from close to its arteriole end, to enter the interstitial fluid

C. water entering a red blood cell that is in a 0.8% sodium chloride solution, by passing through its plasma membrane

D. water evaporating from perspiration on the skin

Answer is C: Osmosis refers to the movement of water through a membrane in the direction of its concentration gradient. A 0.8%
solution is hypotonic to the contents of the rbc, so water would enter the cell. In both choice A & C, the water is moving due to a
hydrostatic pressure difference.

26. The Na+/K+ ATPase pump in the plasma membrane moves Na out of the cell and K into the cell against their concentration gradient.
Then Na reenters the cell and K leaks out of the cell, along their concentration gradients through their membrane channels. What
is the movement of Na and K along their concentra

tion gradients called?

4.4 Tonicity, Moles and Osmoles

A. Active transport

B. Diffusion

C. Facilitated diffusion D. Osmosis

69

Answer is B: The movement of these ions down their concentration gradient is diffusion. The concentration gradient is produced by the
active transport of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

27. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. Filtration is movement of water caused by a difference in hydrostatic pres sure, while diffusion results from a difference in
concentration. B. Both diffusion and filtration will tend to continue till there is an equal amount on both sides of the membrane.

C. Any hypertonic solution has a concentration lower than that of blood while a hypotonic solution has a concentration greater than
the blood. D. Water moves into a red blood cell resulting in haemolysis, and out of a cell by a process called plasmolysis.

Answer is C: Hypertonic solutions have a concentration greater than blood. Plasmolysis is the process in which cells lose water in a
hypertonic solution.

4.4 Tonicity, Moles and Osmoles

The “mole” is the standard international unit for amount of substance (or number of particles). Just as dozen is the word for 12 things,
the mole is the word for 6.02×1023 things. The things are atoms or molecules. The concentration of a solution can be expressed as the
number of moles per litre. For example 5% glucose contains 50 g of glucose dissolved in a litre of solution. Fifty grams of glucose is
0.278 moles of glucose, so 5% glucose=50 g/L=0.278 mol/L=278 mmol/L. A glucose solution with this concentration is said to be
“isotonic” with blood. That is, will not cause a net flow of water into or out of red blood cells. A hypotonic solution would cause net
inflow, while a hypertonic solution would cause a net outflow from rbc.

The mass of glucose that contains one mole of glucose molecules (180 g) is determined from its formula (C6H12O6) and the relative
atomic masses of the atoms (12, 1 & 16 respectively). The same can be done for Na +Cl− so that one mole of sodium chloride has a mass
of 58.5 g. However sodium chloride is an ionic sub

stance, so when it dissolves in water the Na+ ions and Cl− ions separate and move independently. This means that one mole of solid
sodium chloride produces 2 moles of particles (ions) when it dissolves – one mole of Na+ ions and one mole of Cl− ions. We use the
term “osmoles” to refer to the number of ions (particles) in solution when an ionic substance dissolves. Hence one mole of the ionic
substance sodium chloride produces 2 osmoles of dissolved ions.

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4 Chemistry for Physiology

1. What information does the molarity of a solution provide?

A. the density of a solution

B. the number of dissolved particles per litre of solution

C. the mass of a mole of the substance

D. the tonicity of the solution

Answer is B: if molarity is 1.2 mmol/L=1.2×10 −3×(6.02×1023) particles per litre

2. What term is applied to an intravenous solution that would cause a net move ment of water out of red blood cells?

A. hypertonic

B. supertonic

C. epitonic

D. hypotonic

Answer is A: “hyper-” refers to greater (tonicity) than inside an rbc. Hence water would move from the less concentrated solution
(within the rbc) to the exterior.

3. What is a definition of an osmole? The amount of substance that:

A. must be dissolved to produce 6×1023 solute particles.

B. must be dissolved to produce an osmotic pressure of 1.0 mmHg. C. must be dissolved to produce an isotonic solution.

D. contains 6×1023 particles.

Answer is A: Ionic substances (e.g. Na+Cl−) separate into ions when dissolved. Hence a mole of NaCl would produce two osmoles of
ions (one mole of Na ions and one mole of Cl ions). Hence half of a mole of NaCl, when dissolved, would result in one osmole of
dissolved particles (ions).

4. Choose the solution below that has the lowest concentration of dissolved particles.

A. 0.9% NaCl

B. isotonic powerade

C. 5% glucose

D. hypotonic saline

Answer is D: choices A, B & C are all isotonic solutions. “hypo” refers to a solution concentration that is less than that of human
blood.

5. What can be correctly said of an isotonic intravenous solution? An isotonic solution:

A. causes water to move out of red blood cells.

B. causes no net movement of water into or out of red blood cells. C. has the same solutes in the same solution concentration as blood
plasma
4.4 Tonicity, Moles and Osmoles

71

D. causes water to move into red blood cells.

Answer is B: isotonic means that the IV solution has the same concentration of particles (albeit the particles themselves may be different)
as in rbc, hence there is no net osmotic flow.
6. What would be the concentration of a solution that causes red blood cells placed in it to swell?

A. hypotonic

B. isotonic

C. hypertonic

D. iso-osmotic

Answer is A: If the rbc swell, that means water is entering the cells, hence the surrounding liquid is at a lower concentration (i.e.
hypotonic) to the liquid inside rbc.

7. The unit milliosmoles per litre (mosmol/L) refers to which of the following?

A. the number of particles in solution, in multiples of 6×10 20 per litre. B. 103 times the number of moles of particles in a litre of
solution. C. the number of molecules per litre of solution.

D. the number of moles per millilitre of solution.

Answer is A: A milliosmole (mosmol) is 10 −3×(6×1023) particles which is 6×1020. Choice B means 1000× the correct answer. Choice
D means 1/1000×the correct answer.

8. A hypertonic solution is one which

A. has an osmotic pressure that is different to that inside red blood cells B. has an osmolarity less than that of red blood cells

C. causes no net movement of water through the membrane of red blood cells D. has an osmolarity greater than that of red blood cells

Answer is D: “Hyper” means greater than the tonicity (or osmolarity) inside an rbc.

9. Given that one mole of Na+Cl− has a mass of 58.5 g, what would be the concen tration of particles when 0.9 g of Na +Cl− is dissolved
in 100 ml of water?

A. 117 mmol/L

B. 150 mmol/L

C. 150 mosmol/L

D. 300 mosmol/L

Ans:=D: the number of moles in 0.9 g=0.9 g/58.5 g/mol=0.0154 mole of Na +Cl−. However NaCl separates into ions when dissolved,
so that there will be 0.0154 mol of Na and 0.0154 mol of Cl, hence 0.0308 osmol of parti cles=30.8 mosmol per 100 ml. In one litre,
the number of moles would be ten times greater, so 300 mosmol/L (is closest).

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4 Chemistry for Physiology

10. The unit millimoles per litre (mmol/L) refers to which of the following?

A. the number of particles in solution, in multiples of 6 × 10 20 per litre. B. 103 times the number of moles of particles in a litre of
solution. C. the number of molecules per litre of solution.

D. the number of moles per millilitre of solution.

Answer is A: A mole=6×1023 particles, a millimole (mmol)=6×1020 particles. When dissolved, whether the particles are ions or
molecules makes no difference.

11. An isotonic solution is one which

A. has an osmotic pressure that is different to red blood cells

B. has an osmolarity less than that of red blood cells

C. causes no net movement of water between the solution and red blood cells D. has an osmolarity greater than that of red blood cells

Answer is C: “iso” means “the same”. When the concentration of the surround ing liquid is the same as that inside a rbc, then no net
water movement occurs.

12. A hypotonic solution may be characterised by which of the following?

A. a solution whose osmolarity is greater than that of blood.

B. one that causes red blood cells to crenate.

C. a solution within the range 280–300 mosmol/L

D. one that causes a net water movement into red blood cells.

Answer is D: “hypo” means less concentrated than the solution inside a rbc. This in turn means that the concentration of water molecules
is greater outside the cell than inside. So there will be a net water flow by osmosis into the rbc.

13. Which of the following statements could be applied to a hypertonic solution?

A. it causes red blood cells to shrink and crenate.

B. it causes red blood cells to swell and perhaps lyse.

C. it is a solution with an osmolarity less than that of blood.

D. it causes movement of water into red blood cells.

Answer is A: rbc placed in a hypertonic solution would lose water to the solu tion, so their volume would decrease (they would
shrink). This would cause their membrane to become wrinkled (to crenate).

14. To what does the term “mole” refer?

A. the smallest particle of a molecular compound.

B. the amount of solute that must be dissolved in water to make an isotonic solution.

C. an amount of substance that contains 6.02×10 23 particles.

D. a group of 2 or more atoms bonded together.

Answer is C: mole is the SI unit for “amount of substance”. Choice C is the correct number.