Part I

WRITING THE ESSAY

WRITING SAMPLE TIME: 25 MINUTES

Directions: Using two sheets of lined theme paper, plan and write an essay on the topic assigned
below. DO NOT WRITE ON ANOTHER TOPIC. AN ESSAY ON ANOTHER TOPIC IS NOT
ACCEPTABLE.

Topic: Speech is great, but silence is greater.

Assignment: Do you agree or disagree with the topic statement? Support your position with one or
two specific examples from personal experience, the experience of others, current events, history, or
literature.

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 WRITING SAMPLE

Name:

Write your essay here.

(Continue, if necessary.)

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 SSAT PRACTICE TEST 1

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 Part II
MULTIPLE CHOICE

VERBAL TIME: 30 MINUTES 60 QUESTIONS

5. DIMINISH
Directions: Each of the following questions (A) grow
consists of one word followed by five words (B) impede
or phrases. You are to select the one word or (C) lessen
phrase whose meaning is closest to the word (D) forecast
in capital letters. (E) disappear

6. TRANSPARENT
1. QUANDARY
(A) opaque
(A) predicament (B) filmy
(B) decision (C) serene
(C) requirement (D) glass
(D) community (E) motivation
(E) information
7. PLIABLE
2. PROTECT
(A) tool
(A) retain (B) flexible
(B) intend (C) useful
(C) require (D) rigid
(D) defend (E) thrill
(E) secure
8. PROPHECY
3. OVERDUE
(A) anticipation
(A) impending (B) prediction
(B) appointment (C) fortune
(C) including (D) crystal
(D) late (E) seer
(E) library
9. DEJECTED
4. VERBOSE
(A) gifted
(A) wordy (B) rewarded
(B) aloud (C) concerned
(C) orate (D) serious
(D) speech (E) sad
(E) complete

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 SSAT PRACTICE TEST 1

10. BENEVOLENT 16. FORCE

(A) charitable (A) military
(B) courageous (B) might
(C) bravery (C) power
(D) contest (D) requirement
(E) seek (E) soldier
11. RECEDE 17. EXTINCT
(A) surrender (A) brief
(B) retreat (B) clear
(C) decline (C) inactive
(D) lose (D) imperfect
(E) requite (E) poor
12. FASTIDIOUS 18. THWART
(A) chaos (A) love
(B) unkempt (B) frustrate
(C) precise (C) defend
(D) classify (D) grow
(E) sanitary (E) advance
13. SURLY 19. STIPEND
(A) strong (A) plant
(B) wily (B) financier
(C) anticipate (C) fluid
(D) rude (D) bank
(E) prodigal (E) payment
14. FRUGAL 20. REPUTABLE
(A) facility (A) star
(B) careful (B) capable
(C) poverty (C) fame
(D) wealth (D) honest
(E) increase (E) significant
15. DEPLETE 21. LUCKY
(A) continue (A) happy
(B) guide (B) gleeful
(C) utilize (C) hilarious
(D) proceed (D) useful
(E) exhaust (E) fortunate

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 VERBAL

22. IRRESPONSIBLE 28. MEDITATE

(A) inconclusive (A) compromise
(B) unsure (B) reject
(C) unreliable (C) agree
(D) incisive (D) ponder
(E) unrealistic (E) repair
23. JEOPARDY 29. PARADOX
(A) entertaining (A) occurrence
(B) endangerment (B) heaven
(C) vocabulary (C) approval
(D) journey (D) contradiction
(E) archival (E) example
24. MOIST 30. SURMISE
(A) swamp (A) guess
(B) damp (B) daybreak
(C) saturate (C) provide
(D) sponge (D) shock
(E) fresh (E) govern
25. SHAMEFUL
Directions: The following questions ask you
(A) evil
to find relationships between words. For
(B) bewildering
each question, select the answer that best
(C) caustic
completes the meaning of the sentence.
(D) willful
(E) humiliating
26. PRECLUDE 31. Astute is to acumen as

(A) prevent (A) indigent is to wealth.

(B) avoid (B) diplomatic is to tact.
(C) promise (C) clumsy is to skill.
(D) listen (D) vacuous is to intelligence.
(E) imagine (E) rainbow is to hue.

27. FOIBLE 32. Judge is to adjudicate as

(A) story (A) lawyer is to propitiate.

(B) flaw (B) bodyguard is to guide.
(C) strength (C) doctor is to sublimate.
(D) tradition (D) champion is to defend.
(E) goodbye (E) suburb is to neighborhood.

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33. Imperceptible is to notice as 39. Clown is to zany as

(A) intangible is to touch. (A) zealot is to patrician.
(B) insoluble is to discern. (B) showoff is to flamboyant.
(C) invisible is to sense. (C) jester is to lugubrious.
(D) enviable is to foresee. (D) spy is to effusive.
(E) assuage is to repair. (E) canvas is to paint.
34. Claustrophobic is to enclosure as 40. Horn is to blow as harp is to
(A) miser is to money. (A) democracy.
(B) narcissist is to sell. (B) play.
(C) misogynist is to women. (C) denounce.
(D) glutton is to food. (D) pluck.
(E) myth is to tragedy. (E) pants.
35. Hammer is to carpenter as 41. Inveigle is to flattery as
(A) awl is to cobbler. (A) cozen is to encouragement.
(B) computer is to printer. (B) browbeat is to intimidation.
(C) saw is to timber. (C) reassure is to censure.
(D) author is to typewriter. (D) cajole is to criticism.
(E) scale is to musician. (E) whine is to mourn.
36. Gullible is to bilk as 42. Flammable is to inflammable as
(A) valiant is to cow. (A) persistent is to important.
(B) confident is to perturb. (B) opportune is to inopportune.
(C) docile is to lead. (C) relevant is to incoherent.
(D) affluent is to impoverish. (D) truculent is to intrusion.
(E) vanquish is to disappear. (E) impartial is to disinterested.
37. Overblown is to exaggerated as 43. Devotee is to fervid as
(A) warrant is to justify. (A) pundit is to apathetic.
(B) anachronism is to timely. (B) sycophant is to caustic.
(C) malapropism is to accurate. (C) connoisseur is to discriminating.
(D) requirement is to optional. (D) pessimist is to sanguine.
(E) indefinite is to tomorrow. (E) optimist is to persuade.
38. Ruthless is to pity as 44. Mule is to stubborn as
(A) merciful is to kindness. (A) pig is to idleness.
(B) ingenious is to character. (B) horse is to iconoclastic.
(C) enamored is to love. (C) fox is to maladroit.
(D) bewildered is to comprehension. (D) elephant is to oblivious.
(E) elderly is to longevity. (E) turkey is to gullible.

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 VERBAL

45. Extortionist is to blackmail as 51. Waggish is to laughs as

(A) kleptomaniac is to steal. (A) risible is to yawns.
(B) criminal is to arrest. (B) bilious is to smiles.
(C) kidnapper is to crime. (C) sad is to tears.
(D) businessman is to profit. (D) ribald is to sneers.
(E) clerk is to stock. (E) morbid is to concern.
46. Virtuoso is to éclat as 52. Diaphanous is to veils as
(A) gallant is to panache. (A) noisome is to clouds.
(B) proselyte is to untruth. (B) gossamer is to cobwebs.
(C) harbinger is to conclusion. (C) bulky is to showers.
(D) klutz is to tact. (D) abortive is to breezes.
(E) casual is to plan. (E) fishing is to net.
47. Bilious is to queasy as 53. Microcosm is to macrocosm as
(A) quizzical is to content. (A) plenty is to lack.
(B) contumelious is to elated. (B) glutton is to craven.
(C) dangerous is to alarm. (C) understand is to orbit.
(D) ambivalent is to sleepy. (D) granite is to touchstone.
(E) adroit is to able. (E) diameter is to edge.
48. Disorganized is to form as 54. Homily is to church as
(A) ineffable is to size. (A) sermon is to air show.
(B) empty is to substance. (B) diatribe is to game show.
(C) epical is to scope. (C) aria is to horse show.
(D) immediacy is to duration. (D) monologue is to talk show.
(E) idolize is to confound. (E) eulogy is to celebrate.
49. Midget is to minuscule as 55. Mnemonic is to memory as
(A) accomplished is to abortive. (A) trousers are to speech.
(B) dictum is to risible. (B) glasses are to vision.
(C) serious is to waggish. (C) earmuffs are to movement.
(D) colossus is to gargantuan. (D) blinders are to hearing.
(E) enigma is to original. (E) denim are to jacket.
50. Prude is to fastidious as 56. Healing is to health as
(A) puritan is to simple. (A) pragmatic is to avidity.
(B) prodigy is to lackluster. (B) charity is to profit.
(C) witness is to truth. (C) biased is to justice.
(D) hedonist is to malcontent. (D) therapeutic is to recovery.
(E) heathen is to adoration. (E) mercury is to speed.

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57. Arbitrate is to dispute as 59. Passion is to devotion as

(A) solve is to mystery. (A) liturgy is to ribald.
(B) regard is to problem. (B) concern is to interest.
(C) exacerbate is to problem. (C) harangue is to restrained.
(D) organize is to labor. (D) feisty is to mousy.
(E) management is to union. (E) rapidity is to movement.

58. Tearjerker is to maudlin as 60. Klutz is to inept as

(A) opera is to prurient. (A) bigot is to intolerant.
(B) tragedy is to risible. (B) dynamo is to supine.
(C) farce is to hilarious. (C) aficionado is to blase.
(D) satire is to heartrending. (D) pundit is to ignorant.
(E) comedy is to wrenching. (E) learned is to possess.

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 QUANTITATIVE (MATH) 1

QUANTITATIVE (MATH) 1 TIME: 30 MINUTES 25 QUESTIONS

4. If a square has a perimeter of 88, what is
Directions: Following each problem in this the length of each side?
section, there are five suggested answers. (A) 4
Work each problem in your head or in the (B) 11
space provided (there will be space for (C) 22
scratchwork in your test booklet). Then look (D) 44
at the five suggested answers and decide (E) 110
which is best.
5. If a Set R contains four positive integers
1 whose average is 9, what is the greatest
1. A gas tank is empty. When full, the tank number Set R could contain?
3
holds 18 gallons. How many gallons are in (A) 4
the tank now? (B) 9
(A) 3 (C) 24
(B) 6 (D) 33
(C) 8 (E) 36
(D) 12 6. Which of the following is NOT a multiple of
(E) 18 4?
2. Which of the following is the least? (A) 20
1 2 (B) 30
(A) 1 (C) 36
4 3
(D) 44
3 1 (E) 96
(B) 2
4 3
Questions 7 and 8 refer to the following defini-
1 1
(C) 4 tion: For all real numbers m, *m 5 10m 2 10.
12 3
3 1 7. *7 5
(D) 3
4 3 (A) 70
1 (B) 60
(E) 32 (C) 17
12
(D) 7
3. If the sum of x and x 1 3 is greater than 20, (E) 0
which is a possible value for x?
8. If *m 5 120, then m 5
(A) 210
(B) 28 (A) 11
(C) 22 (B) 12
(D) 8 (C) 13
(E) 10 (D) 120
(E) 130

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9. At Nifty Thrifty Buy ‘N Sell, an item that 14. If 10 books cost d dollars, how many books
usually sells for $9 is on sale for $6. What can be purchased for 4 dollars?
approximate discount does that represent?
4d
(A) 10% (A)
10
(B) 25% (B) 40d
(C) 33%
d
(D) 50% (C)
40
(E) 66%
40
10. In Jackie’s golf club, 8 of the 12 members (D)
d
are right-handed. What is the ratio of
10d
left-handed members to right-handed (E)
4
members?
(A) 1:2 15. If g is an even integer, h is an odd integer,
(B) 2:1 and j is the product of g and h, which of
(C) 2:3 the following must be true?
(D) 3:4 (A) j is a fraction.
(E) 4:3 (B) j is an odd integer.
(C) j is divisible by 2.
11. The sum of five consecutive positive
(D) j is between g and h.
integers is 35. What is the square of the
(E) j is greater than 0.
greatest of these integers?
(A) 5 16. If a class of 6 students has an average grade
(B) 9 of 78 before a seventh student joins, what
(C) 25 must the seventh student get as a grade in
(D) 81 order to raise the class average to 80?
(E) 100 (A) 80
(B) 84
12. 223233235
(C) 88
(A) 24 (D) 92
(B) 64 (E) 96
(C) 28
(D) 210 17. If 6 is a factor of a certain number, what
(E) 218 must also be factors of that number?
(A) 1, 2, 3, and 6
13. If the area of a square is 100s2, what is the
(B) 2 and 3 only
length of one side of the square?
(C) 6 only
(A) 100s2 (D) 2 and 6 only
(B) 10s2 (E) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 100s
(D) 10s
(E) 10

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 QUANTITATIVE (MATH) 1

18. 21. If the area of a square is equal to its

perimeter, what is the length of one side of
that square?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 8
(E) 10
x5 22. If 6x 2 4 5 38, then x 2 5 5
(A) 8 (A) 2
(B) 30 (B) 3
(C) 50 (C) 5
(D) 65 (D) 7
(E) 70 (E) 9
19. For what priced item does 40% off equal a 23. 3(x2y24z)4x3y 5
$2.00 discount?
(A) 3x11y215z4
(A) $5.00 (B) 81x21yz4
(B) $4.00 (C) 81x11y215z4
(C) $10.00 (D) 3x9yz4
(D) $80.00 (E) 3x3y25z
(E) $40.00
24. What is NOT a prime factor of 360?
1
20. On Monday, Gerri ate of an apple pie. On (A) 2
4
1 (B) 3
Tuesday, she ate of what was left of the (C) 4
2
pie. What fraction of the entire pie did Gerri (D) 5
eat on both days? (E) All of the above are prime factors
of 360.
3
(A)
8 25. What is the area of an equilateral triangle
1 whose altitude is 4?
(B)
2 (A) 16
5 (B) 4=3
(C)
8 (C) 8=3
3 16=3
(D) (D)
4 3
7 (E) 8
(E)
8

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 SSAT PRACTICE TEST 1

READING COMPREHENSION TIME: 30 MINUTES 40 QUESTIONS

30 remains peaceful and nonviolent. Because of
Directions: Read each passage carefully and its balanced sentence structure, appropriate
then answer the questions about it. For each references to the Bible and historical fact,
question, decide on the basis of the passage and its powerful wording, “Letter from
which one of the choices best answers the Birmingham Jail” is considered to be a
question. 35 masterpiece of rhetoric.

1. King went to Birmingham because he

Passage 1
Line In the spring of 1963, Martin Luther King Jr., (A) wanted to lead a march.
a leader of the American civil rights move- (B) believed desegregation was important.
ment, was invited by the Birmingham, (C) could ask for a permit to demonstrate.
Alabama, branch of the Southern Christian (D) was asked to do so by an organization.
5 Leadership Conference, an organization (E) wanted to reply to the clergymen.
fighting for civil rights for African Americans, 2. The march led by King was illegal because
to lead a demonstration supporting their
(A) the city officials did not favor civil rights.
cause. King applied for a permit to hold a
(B) the demonstrators did not have
peaceful march through Birmingham, but
permission to march.
10 the city officials denied his request. Never-
(C) the letter from eight clergymen
theless, he scheduled the march. Because
presented a case against it.
the marchers had no permit, their action
(D) the marchers were arrested by the
was illegal, and the march was broken up by
police.
police. King and many of the marchers were
(E) the community was working to end
15 arrested. While King was in jail, eight
racial problems.
clergymen signed a letter that was published
in the local newspaper. The letter, while it 3. King believed that breaking a law is
asked the community to work to end racial
(A) always wrong.
problems, opposed marches and demonstra-
(B) always the right thing to do.
20 tions as the means of working toward a
(C) one’s duty if one dislikes the law.
solution. After King read the letter, he wrote
(D) a proper way to oppose an unjust law.
a response, replying to each point the
(E) always proper if the opposition is not
clergymen raised. His response, published as
violent.
“Letter from Birmingham Jail,” includes an
25 analysis of when it is proper to act in 4. The clergymen who wrote the letter
violation of a law. He believed that if a law wanted to
is unjust or unfair, people have not only a (A) stop the marches and demonstrations.
right but also a positive moral duty to (B) be sure King remained in jail.
oppose it, so long as their opposition (C) oppose the ending of racial problems.
(D) provide civil rights for African
Americans.
(E) help King get out of jail.

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 READING COMPREHENSION

5. In the last sentence of the passage, 6. If a plant has been given too much fertilizer,
“rhetoric” (line 35) means (A) its leaves may have brown edges.
(A) advertisement. (B) its leaves may be yellow.
(B) excellent writing. (C) there will be tiny webs on the leaves.
(C) an emotional speech. (D) the foliage will be dense.
(D) poetry. (E) the soil will appear dry.
(E) religious teaching.
7. To check a plant’s health, examine

Passage 2 (A) leaf color.

Line When you buy a house plant, if the plant is (B) leaf density.
healthy, it is likely to grow successfully in (C) the bottom of the pot.
your home. How do you decide if a plant is (D) the stem.
sound? First, look at the leaves. If they are (E) All of the above
5 brown at the edges, the plant has been 8. In context, “infest” (line 20) most likely
given too much fertilizer or has been kept in means
temperatures that are too warm for its
(A) infect.
species. If the leaves are pale or yellow, the
(B) eat.
plant has been given too much or too little
(C) grow from.
10 water. If the leaves are very far apart from
(D) live on.
each other on the stem, this may mean the
(E) secrete.
plant has been pushed to grow abnormally
fast, and new leaves will not grow to fill in 9. Too much or too little water will cause
the gaps. You should look for a plant whose (A) dark-colored foliage.
15 foliage is dense. (B) large gaps between the leaves.
After checking the leaves’ general (C) yellow or pale leaves.
appearance, look carefully at the underside (D) roots to grow out of the drainage hole.
of the leaves and the places where the (E) shiny spots on the stem.
leaves join the stem for evidence of insects.
20 Because the insects that infest house plants 10. Based on this passage, a reader can infer
are very tiny, it may be hard to see them. that
But they leave clues that they are living on (A) all growers of plants for sale raise them
the plant. Some secrete a shiny sticky in perfect conditions.
substance called honeydew on the plant. (B) some plants for sale have not been
25 Others leave behind tiny fine white webs. cared for properly.
Finally, check to see if the plant’s roots (C) plants are forced to grow abnormally
are growing out through the drainage hole fast.
in the bottom of the pot. If the roots are (D) it is difficult to care for a plant at
growing through the hole, the plant has home.
30 outgrown its pot, and it may not be the (E) a plant’s health is based on its
healthiest plant, even if you repot it in a environment.
larger container.

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Passage 3 11. Demeter is the goddess of

Line Some myths are stories told by early (A) food plants.
civilizations to explain the origins of natural (B) the underworld.
phenomena. The Greek myth that explains (C) marriage.
the origin of the seasons is about Demeter, (D) humanity.
5 the goddess of the harvest. She had a (E) the weather.
daughter, Persephone, whom she loved very
much. Hades, god of the underworld, fell in 12. Myths are stories that
love with Persephone, and he asked Zeus, (A) are always about gods and goddesses.
the ruler of the gods, to give Persephone to (B) try to explain nature.
10 him as his wife. Zeus did not want to offend (C) tell about mysteries.
either Hades or Persephone, so he said he (D) have a religious purpose.
would not agree to the marriage, but neither (E) explain the origin of the seasons.
would he forbid it. Hades, therefore, decided
13. According to the story of Demeter, winter
to take the girl without permission. As she
occurs because
15 was picking flowers in a meadow, he seized
her and took her to the underworld. When (A) Hades stole Persephone from her
Demeter found out what happened to mother.
Persephone, she became so angry that she (B) Zeus did not give Hades permission to
caused all plants to stop growing. People marry Persephone.
20 were in danger of starving. But Demeter (C) Demeter is sad.
swore that no food would grow until (D) Persephone is unhappy.
Persephone was returned to her. Zeus, still (E) Demeter disliked Hades.
not wanting to offend Hades, set a condition 14. Zeus did not give permission to Hades to
for Persephone’s return. She could go back marry Persephone because he
25 to her mother if she had not eaten anything
while she was in the underworld. Demeter (A) disliked him.
did not know it, but Persephone had eaten (B) did not want to upset him.
several pomegranate seeds in the under- (C) wanted Persephone to be his wife.
world. When Zeus discovered this, he (D) thought this might make Demeter
30 permitted a compromise. Persephone could angry.
spend part of the year with her mother, but (E) was the ruler of all the gods and
because she had eaten the seeds, she must goddesses.
spend part of the year in the underworld. 15. Demeter stopped the growth of crops when
And when Persephone is in the underworld,
(A) Zeus did not forbid the marriage.
35 Demeter is sad, and therefore will not let the
(B) Hades took Persephone to the under-
crops grow. That is why we have winter,
world.
when plants do not grow. When Persephone
(C) she discovered what Hades had done.
returns, Demeter is happy, it is spring, and
(D) Persephone ate some pomegranate
plants begin to grow again.
seeds.
(E) Persephone was returned to her.

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 READING COMPREHENSION

Passage 4 17. As a moving object gets farther from its

Line The Big Bang theory, an explanation of the source, its radiation frequency
origins of our universe, is one of the greatest (A) stays the same.
intellectual achievements of the twentieth (B) grows larger.
century. According to this theory, about ten (C) grows smaller.
5 to twenty million years ago, the matter of (D) expands.
which the universe is made was infinitely (E) collapses.
tightly compressed. Something—called the
Big Bang—turned this matter into a gigantic 18. The matter of which the universe is made
fireball. As the matter was set into motion was originally
10 and flew away from its compressed state, (A) expanding.
bits of it became glued together to create (B) loosely connected.
galaxies and, later, stars and planets. The (C) decreasing.
motion of the matter that flew out of the (D) tightly packed.
fireball continues today, and the universe (E) growing.
15 appears to be expanding. The theory grew
19. According to the passage, which of the
out of observations of the Doppler effect. It
following is true?
explains that the frequency of radiation
given off by a moving body decreases as the (A) Scientists believe the universe will
sources get farther from the observer. In expand infinitely.
20 1965, scientists discovered that the radiation (B) The Doppler effect created the
bathing the earth is at the precise micro- universe.
wave frequency that would be expected if (C) Gravity will cause the universe to
the universe began with a big bang. Some collapse.
scientists think the expansion of the (D) Stars and planets grew out of galaxies.
25 universe will continue to infinity, while (E) Scientists do not agree about the
others theorize that gravity will, at some universe’s future.
point in the far distant future, collapse back 20. The author of this passage thinks the Big
onto itself in a “big crunch,” returning it to a Bang theory
state of compressed matter.
(A) has not been proven.
(B) does not explain the creation of the
16. The best title for this passage is universe.
(A) “The Big Bang.” (C) is a very important contribution to
(B) “The Big Crunch.” knowledge.
(C) “Our Expanding Universe.” (D) explains what happens when a moving
(D) “The Doppler Effect.” body gets farther from its source.
(E) “Scientific Discoveries.” (E) shows the frequency of radiation
bathing the earth.

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Passage 5 21. As used in the passage, the word “factions”

Line Although the First World War had been (line 8) means
fought as the “war to make the world safe (A) fractions.
for democracy,” and the “war to end all (B) international terrorists.
wars,” the world’s problems were not solved (C) nationalists.
5 when fighting was stopped by the cease-fire (D) disagreeing groups.
agreement signed on November 11, 1918. (E) followers of the king.
The world was not yet at peace. In Russia,
there was a civil war among various factions 22. The influenza epidemic of 1918
wishing to replace the monarchy, which had (A) was a result of the war.
10 been lead by the Czar. Greece was fighting (B) increased the misery of the soldiers.
Turkey over territory that had belonged to (C) killed vast numbers of civilians.
the former Turkish Empire. In the Middle (D) surprised public health experts.
East, the Jews were asking for the establish- (E) was localized in a few nations.
ment of a national homeland, and the Arabs
23. The conflict between Greece and Turkey
15 in the area were opposing them. In India, at
and the conflict between Jews and Arabs
that time a colony of the British Empire,
were similar because both
educated Indians thought their contributions
to the war meant their nation was ready for (A) were about control over land.
more self-rule and some independence from (B) involved a new homeland.
20 Great Britain. And throughout the world, (C) arose from the terms of the peace
populations had been reduced by the 1918 treaty.
influenza epidemic, which, most public (D) led to revolutions.
health experts believe, killed more people (E) were settled by the League of Nations.
than were killed in the war’s battles. When 24. Wishing to withdraw from international
25 the Paris Peace Conference began in January politics is called
1919, the defeated nations were not invited.
They would simply be notified of the terms (A) organization.
of the peace treaty and asked to sign it. In (B) monarchy.
the United States, Americans’ disgust about (C) factionalism.
30 the huge human costs of the war lead to (D) isolationism.
isolationism, the desire to avoid international (E) home rule.
political situations and focus only on 25. The fighting of World War I ended
problems within the country. Thus, it is not
(A) after the world was made safe for
surprising that the League of Nations,
democracy.
35 formed while the Peace Conference was in
(B) in January 1919.
session as an international organization to
(C) in November 1918.
create a better world, did not succeed in its
(D) when the League of Nations was
goals of achieving world disarmament and
founded.
preventing nations from invading one
(E) by the terms of the peace treaty.
40 another.

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 READING COMPREHENSION

Passage 6 45 personnel and told them to be sure to escort

Line I was flying from Los Angeles to Tucson, her onto the plane.” My heart sank. Mrs.
Arizona, to celebrate New Year’s weekend Miller probably suffered from confusion that
with some friends. Because of the holiday sometimes affects older people. Someone,
and winter weather delays, the airport was no doubt, would be waiting to meet her in
5 crowded, and many flights were canceled or 50 Tucson. Clearly, that person would be
late. Boarding for my flight began at worried. And what of Mrs. Miller? Her son
1:15 P.M., the time originally scheduled for and grandson had probably left the airport
departure. The airline personnel appeared to by now. Would she remember their tele-
be in a hurry. As passengers boarded, the phone number? And if she did, was it likely
10 pilot announced on the public address 55 they had already arrived home? Who would
system, “O.K., folks, we’re cleared for care for Mrs. Miller in a crowded, busy
departure at 1:35. If you’ll all take your airport where passengers were trying to
seats, we’ll take off at that time.” Cabin locate flights to replace canceled ones, and
attendants guided people to their seats and airline personnel were concerned about
15 helped them stow baggage. “Are we all 60 sticking to a schedule? I thought I might
okay?” a cabin attendant asked. weep.
Across the aisle from where I sat, a
woman said, “Where are my son and 26. As a result of bad weather,
grandson? They’re supposed on be on the (A) passengers were in a hurry.
20 plane with me. They came to the airport (B) Mrs. Miller’s son had not arrived home.
with me.” She was an older woman with (C) flights were late or canceled.
well-cut white hair. Her face, although lined, (D) the flight attendant was rude to Mrs.
was carefully but not overly made up. She Miller.
wore a stylish suit and small earrings. The (E) Mrs. Miller was escorted onto the
25 attendant leaned over and spoke to her, and plane.
then made an announcement. “Passengers
Stuart and John Miller, please let me know 27. The reader can infer the plane took off
where you are seated.” There was no reply. (A) on time.
She repeated her announcement. Again, no (B) half an hour late.
30 one responded. She told Mrs. Miller that her (C) at some unknown time.
son was not on the plane. “But they came (D) in the morning.
with me,” Mrs. Miller said. “They’re sup- (E) in the early afternoon.
posed to be here.”
The attendant went to the cockpit to 28. The description of Mrs. Miller suggests
35 consult the flight officers. Returning to Mrs. that she
Miller, she said, “Ma’am, I’m sorry. We need (A) cannot take care of herself.
to have you deplane. I’m sure the airport (B) is a very wealthy woman.
personnel will be able to help you find your (C) loves her son and grandson.
son.” Then she guided Mrs. Miller to the (D) has a sense of humor.
40 exit. (E) cares about her appearance.
The doors closed; the engines fired; the
plane began to taxi. A passenger seated next
to me said, “Oh, dear! That woman was
wrong. Her son left her with airline

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 SSAT PRACTICE TEST 1

29. The airline people asked Mrs. Miller to leave on an expedition across the Sahara Desert.
the plane because Unfortunately, this remarkable explorer was
(A) she was confused. murdered by inhabitants of the desert during
(B) she didn’t know her son’s telephone 30 these travels. It was reported that they
number. believed that her iron water tanks were
(C) they wanted to help her find her son. filled with gold.
(D) they wanted to take off as soon as
possible. 31. As used in the passage, “charted” (line 13)
(E) other passengers were in a hurry. means

30. Which of the following word(s) describe the (A) mapped.

author of this passage? (B) erased.
(C) invented.
(A) Observant
(D) changed.
(B) Compassionate
(E) carried.
(C) Sensitive
(D) None of the above 32. The passage suggests Tinne’s expeditions
(E) (A), (B), and (C) were important mainly because she
(A) could communicate in many languages.
Passage 7 (B) enjoyed the warmth of the desert and
Line An intelligent and daring young woman who meeting interesting people.
spoke many languages, Alexandrine Tinne (C) collected new scientific information.
seems to have been one of the more unusual (D) died before she could finish her work.
explorers who ever lived. She was the (E) took her mother along with her.
5 daughter of a wealthy Dutch merchant and a
member of the Dutch aristocracy. Her father 33. The Bahr el Ghazal river system is in
died when she was five, leaving her the (A) Europe.
richest heiress in the Netherlands at that (B) South America.
time. (C) Asia.
10 When she was grown up, after traveling (D) Antarctica.
throughout Europe, Tinne explored various (E) Africa.
parts of north central Africa. In 1863 and
34. The passage implies Tinne was murdered
1864, she charted the area around Bahr el
Ghazal, a river system that flows into the (A) because the murderers did not like
15 Nile. During this expedition, the group was Europeans.
struck with illness. One of the scientists died (B) because she was careless about
of fever in April of 1864, and Tinne’s guarding her group.
mother, who was also with the group, died (C) because it was thought she had wealth
in June. Tinne must have been a healthy that could be stolen.
20 young woman to survive. Her expedition (D) so that her scientific knowledge could
provided scientists with new and valuable be stolen.
information about the plants, animals, (E) so that no one would ever explore the
geology, and climate of this part of Africa. area again.
Later, traveling in Algeria and Tunisia, Tinne
25 became fascinated by the desert and the
people who lived there. In 1869, she set out

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 READING COMPREHENSION

35. Which of the following best describes the 37. In the passage, the word “fancies” (line 12)
author’s attitude toward Tinne’s actions? means
(A) Envy (A) elaborate lettering.
(B) Indifference (B) hopes and dreams.
(C) Sadness (C) imagined ideas.
(D) Skepticism (D) writing on tombstones.
(E) Admiration (E) grown-up thoughts.
38. Pip never saw any pictures of his birth
Passage 8 parents because
Line My father’s family name being Pirrip, and my
first being Philip, my infant tongue could (A) he was adopted.
make of both names nothing longer or more (B) he ran away from home.
explicit than Pip. So, I called myself Pip, and (C) they died before cameras were
5 came to be called Pip. invented.
I give Pirrip as my father’s family name, (D) they never wanted him to see any
on the authority of his tombstone and my photographs of them.
sister—Mrs. Joe Gargery, who married the (E) his sister prevented him from seeing
blacksmith. As I never saw my father or my their photographs.
10 mother and never saw any likeness of either 39 Pip’s sister’s name is
of them (for their days were long before the
(A) Mrs. Pirrip.
days of photographs), my first fancies
(B) Mrs. Gargery.
regarding what they were like were unrea-
(C) Mrs. Philip.
sonably derived from their tombstones. The
(D) Mrs. Pip.
15 shape of the letters on my father’s gave me
(E) Mrs. Stout.
an odd idea that he was a square, stout dark
man, with curly black hair. 40. Pip’s sister’s husband works as a
(A) stonecutter.
36. This passage was most probably written (B) gravedigger.
(A) last year. (C) blacksmith.
(B) about five years ago. (D) photographer.
(C) less than 25 years ago. (E) barber.
(D) more than 100 years ago.
(E) about 2,000 years ago.

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 SSAT PRACTICE TEST 1

QUANTITATIVE (MATH) 2 TIME: 30 MINUTES 25 QUESTIONS

3. Tracy has a test average of 90 after five
Directions: Following each problem in this tests. She only knows the scores of four of
section, there are five suggested answers. her tests: they are 80, 87, 94, and 89. What
Work each problem in your head or in the was the score on her other test?
space provided (there will be space for (A) 100
scratchwork in your test booklet). Then look (B) 98
at the five suggested answers and decide (C) 97
which is best. (D) 90
(E) 87
1. At the start of the year, Terry invested 4. What is 4 percent expressed as a decimal?
$6,000 in South Bend Oil Corp. At the end
(A) 40
of the year, his stock was worth $4,500.
(B) 4
What was the percent decline in the value
(C) .4
of his investment?
(D) .04
(A) 25% (E) .25
1
(B) 33 % 5. Express in simplest form the following ratio:
3
15 hours to 2 days.
2
(C) 66 % 1
3 (A) 7
(D) 75% 2
(E) 125% 16
(B)
5
a b
2. What is 2 ? 5
b a (C)
a2b 8
(A) 15
ab (D)
a 2 2 b2 2
(B)
ab 5
~a 2 b!2 (E)
16
(C)
ab
a 2 2 b2 6. .58 3 .14 5
(D) (A) 812
2ab
(E) 1 (B) 8.12
(C) 81.2
(D) .812
(E) .0812

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 QUANTITATIVE (MATH) 2

7. If 3a 2 5 5 7, then a 5 10. (2x2 2 3x 1 5) 1 (3x 2 2) 5

(A) 24 (A) 2x2 1 3
(B) 4 (B) 2x2 1 6x 1 3
2 (C) 2x2 1 6x 1 7
(C) 2
3 (D) 2x 1 3
2 (E) 2x2 2 6x 1 3
(D)
3
11. Using the formula A 5 p 1 prt, find A when
5
(E) 1
3 p 5 500, r 5 .04, and t 5 2 .
2
8. A gumball machine contains five red and (A) 700
three blue gumballs. If one gumball is (B) 600
removed, what is the probability that it will (C) 550
be red? (D) 500
5 (E) 450
(A)
3 12.
3
(B)
5
5
(C)
8
3
(D) Triangles ABE and ACD are similar. Find the
8
length of DE.
8
(E) (A) 9
3
(B) 15
9. How long is chord AB of circle O? (C) 4
(D) 11
(E) 8

13. The expression (3K2)3 is equivalent to

(A) 9K6
(B) 27K6
(C) 27K5
(D) 9K5
(A) =10 (E) 3K5
(B) 10=2
(C) 100
(D) 10
(E) =50

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 SSAT PRACTICE TEST 1

14. Find the value of y in the proportion 17. Use this chart to answer question 17.
20 5
5 .
12 y
3
(A)
8
(B) 3
(C) 15
(D) 8
1
(E) 8 Freddie’s Budget
3 Weekly net income 5 $350
3 4 A. Food
15. If is subtracted from , the result is
x x B. Rent and Utilities
(A) 1 C. Entertainment
7 D. Clothing
(B)
x E. Miscellaneous
1
(C) 2 How much money does Freddie spend on
x
miscellaneous items each week?
1
(D) (A) $43.05
x
1 (B) $19.05
(E) 2 (C) $130.95
x
(D) $18.55
16. The markdown price of a computer game (E) $44.45
was $36.75, which represented 75% of the
original selling price. What was the original 18. What is the x-intercept of the line described
selling price? by the equation y 5 3x 1 7?
(A) $27.56 (A) 7
(B) $42.35 (B) 27
(C) $45.94 3
(D) $49.00 (C) 2
7
(E) $45.35 7
(D) 2
3
(E) 0
19. What is 60 expressed as the product of its
prime factors?
(A) (5)(13)
(B) (5)(12)
(C) (5)(3)(2)(2)
(D) (4)(4)(3)
(E) (15)(6)

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 QUANTITATIVE (MATH) 2

20. If |12a 2 7| 5 3, what is a possible value 23. Eric’s test scores were 98, 95, 84, 100, and
of a? 92. What would he need on his next test to
(A) 3 have an average of 94?
(B) 23 (A) 90
(C) 29 (B) 92
1 (C) 95
(D) 2 (D) 100
3
(E) It is not possible to get that average.
5
(E)
6 24. Where does the line y 5 x 2 3 cross the
y-axis?
21. What is the graph of the inequality 4 ≤ x ≤ 7?
(A) (0,3)
(A)
(B) (0, 23)
(C) (23, 0)
(B)
(D) (23, 3)
(E) (0,0)
(C)
25.
(D)
If points A, B, C, and D are distinct collinear
points, and AC is congruent to BC, and
(E)
B lies between A and D, and the length of
AC is 7, what is the length of CD?
22. 112 2 92 5
(A) 7
(A) 2 (B) 14
(B) 4 (C) 21
(C) 24 (D) 28
(D) 40 (E) It cannot be determined.
(E) 16

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 EXPLANATORY ANSWERS TO THE
SSAT PRACTICE TEST 1
VERBAL
1. The correct answer is (A).
2. The correct answer is (D).
3. The correct answer is (D).
4. The correct answer is (A).
5. The correct answer is (C).
6. The correct answer is (B).
7. The correct answer is (B).
8. The correct answer is (B).
9. The correct answer is (E).
10. The correct answer is (A).
11. The correct answer is (B).
12. The correct answer is (C).
13. The correct answer is (D).
14. The correct answer is (B).
15. The correct answer is (E).
16. The correct answer is (C).
17. The correct answer is (C).
18. The correct answer is (B).
19. The correct answer is (E).
20. The correct answer is (D).
21. The correct answer is (E).
22. The correct answer is (C).
23. The correct answer is (B).
24. The correct answer is (B).
25. The correct answer is (E).
26. The correct answer is (A).
27. The correct answer is (B).
28. The correct answer is (D).
29. The correct answer is (D).
30. The correct answer is (A).
31. The correct answer is (B). The relationship is possession. Someone
who is astute possesses acumen. Therefore, only choice (B) has the same
relationship. Someone who is diplomatic possesses a great deal of tact.
32. The correct answer is (D). The relationship is one of object to its
function: a judge would by definition adjudicate. A champion is a
person who by definition would defend a matter.

426
EXPLANATORY ANSWERS TO THE SSAT PRACTICE TEST 1

33. The correct answer is (A). The relationship is word to antonym: if

something is imperceptible, a person cannot notice it. The only answer
that is an antonym is choice (A): if something is intangible, a person
cannot touch it.
34. The correct answer is (C). The relationship is object to its function.
A claustrophobic by definition hates enclosure. The only answer that is
object to function is choice (C): a misogynist is a person who by
definition dislikes women.
35. The correct answer is (A). A hammer is a tool used by a carpenter;
an awl is a tool used by a cobbler. Choice (D) reverses the order of
tool and user.
36. The correct answer is (C). The relationship is cause to effect. One
who is gullible is easy to bilk. The only cause-to-effect relationship is
choice (C): if you are docile, it would be easy to lead you.
37. The correct answer is (A). The relationship is word to definition. An
overblown situation is exaggerated. Choice (A) has the same relation-
ship: a warrant is by definition justified.
38. The correct answer is (D). Somebody ruthless has no pity, and
somebody bewildered has no comprehension.
39. The correct answer is (B). The relationship is action of object. A
clown acts zany. A showoff is a person whose actions could aptly be
described as flamboyant.
40. The correct answer is (D). A horn is blown and a harp is plucked to
make music.
41. The correct answer is (B). The relationship is cause to effect. You
would inveigle someone by using flattery. Choice (B) has the same
relationship: you would try to browbeat someone by using intimidation.
42. The correct answer is (E). Flammable and inflammable are
synonyms; both mean easily inflamed. Disinterested means impartial.
43. The correct answer is (C). The relationship is action of object. A
devotee is a person who by definition is fervid. Choice (C) has the
same relationship: a connoisseur is a person who is by definition
discriminating.
44. The correct answer is (A). The relationship is action of object. A
mule is an animal that is proverbially stubborn. Choice (A) has the
same relationship: a pig is an animal that is proverbially idle.
45. The correct answer is (A). The relationship is that of actor to action.
An extortionist blackmails; a kleptomaniac steals.
46. The correct answer is (A). The relationship is action to object. A
virtuoso is a person who would by definition perform with éclat (great
brilliance). Choice (A) has the same relationship. A gallant is a person
who would by definition perform with panache (dash).
47. The correct answer is (C). The relationship is cause to effect.
Something that is bilious would by definition make a person feel
queasy. Choice (C) has the same relationship: something that is
dangerous would by definition make a person feel alarmed.

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 SSAT PRACTICE TEST 1

48. The correct answer is (B). The relationship is word to antonym. Some-
thing that is disorganized is lacking in form. Choice (B) has the same
relationship: something that is empty is by definition lacking in substance.
49. The correct answer is (D). The relationship is word to synonym. A
midget, by definition, is minuscule. Choice (D) has the same relation-
ship: a colossus is by definition gargantuan.
50. The correct answer is (A). The relationship is object to its function.
A prude is a person whose tastes could aptly be described as fastidi-
ous. Choice (A) has the same effect: a puritan is a person whose tastes
could aptly be described as simple.
51. The correct answer is (C). The relationship is cause and effect. A
remark that is waggish is designed to produce laughs. Choice (C) has
the same effect: a remark that is sad is designed to produce tears.
52. The correct answer is (B). The relationship is word to synonym.
Clothing that is diaphanous is reminiscent of veils. Choice (B) has the
same relationship. Clothing that is gossamer is reminiscent of cobwebs.
53. The correct answer is (A). The relationship is word to antonym. A
microcosm (small system) is the opposite of a macrocosm (universe). The
same relationship is in choice (A): plenty means the opposite of lack.
54. The correct answer is (D). The relationship is object to its function.
You would hear a homily at a church. The same relationship is in
choice (D): you would be likely to hear a monologue in a talk show.
55. The correct answer is (B). The relationship is object to its function.
A mnemonic is designed to help one’s memory. The same relationship
is in choice (B). Glasses are designed to help one’s vision.
56. The correct answer is (D). The relationship is cause and effect.
Something that is healing is conducive to one’s health. Choice (D) has
the same relationship: something that is therapeutic is conducive to
one’s recovery.
57. The correct answer is (A). This is a verb-to-noun relationship. Arbitrate
is what one does to a dispute. Solve is what must be done to a mystery.
58. The correct answer is (C). The relationship is word to its synonym.
A tearjerker is a literary form that is by definition maudlin. The same
relationship is found in choice (C): a farce is a literary form that is by
definition hilarious.
59. The correct answer is (B). The relationship is word to its synonym:
one who has passion has devotion. The same relationship is in choice
(B): one who has concern has interest.
60. The correct answer is (A). The relationship is object to its function.
A klutz is a type of person who is inept. The same relationship is in
choice (A): a bigot is a type of person who is intolerant.

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 EXPLANATORY ANSWERS TO THE SSAT PRACTICE TEST 1

QUANTITATIVE (MATH) 1
1 2
1. The correct answer is (D). If the tank is empty, it must be
3 3
2
full. the total capacity of 18 gallons is 12.
3
11
2. The correct answer is (E). The value of choice (A) is ; the
12
5 1 3
value of choice (B) is ; the value of choice (C) is or ; the
12 4 12
1 3 1
value of choice (D) is or ; and the value of choice (E) is or
4 12 6
2
. Therefore, choice (E) has the least value.
12
3. The correct answer is (E). If x 1 (x 1 3) . 20, then 2x . 17.
So x . 8.5. The only answer that is appropriate is 10.

4. The correct answer is (C). The perimeter of a square is found

by summing the lengths of each side. Because the lengths are
equal on a square, you can multiply one side by 4 to get the
perimeter. Therefore, 4s 5 88, so s 5 22.

5. The correct answer is (D). To find the greatest value of the

four, assume the remaining three values are the least possible
111111x
positive integer, 1. The average then is 5 9.
4
Solve for x. 3 1 x 5 36, so x 5 33.

6. The correct answer is (B). Multiples of 4 include: 4, 8, 12, 16, 20,

24, 28, 32, 36, 40, 44, etc. Comparing these with the answers
provided, notice that the number 30 is not a multiple of 4.

7. The correct answer is (B). Substitute 7 for m. *7 5 10(7) 2 10

5 70 2 10 5 60.

8. The correct answer is (C). If *m 5 10m 2 10 and *m 5 120,

then 10m 2 10 5 120.
Solve for m: 10m 5 130, m 5 13.

9. The correct answer is (C). The total discounted amount is

$3 or ($9 2 $6). The original amount 3 the discounted percent
5 the total discounted amount.
$9 3 discounted percent 5 $3.
3 1
The discounted percent 5 5 ' 33%.
9 3

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 SSAT PRACTICE TEST 1

10. The correct answer is (A). The number of left-handed mem-

bers is equal to 12 2 8, or 4. The ratio of left-handers to
right-handers is 4:8, which simplifies to 1:2.
11. The correct answer is (D). Let the five consecutive integers
be: x, x 1 1, x 1 2, x 1 3, and x 1 4.
Then x 1 x 1 1 1 x 1 2 1 x 1 3 1 x 1 4 5 35;
5x 1 10 5 35; 5x 5 25; x 5 5
Since the least of the five integers is 5, the greatest is 5 1 4,
or 9. 92 5 81.

12. The correct answer is (C). When multiplying like values raised
to a power, add the exponents.
1 3 1 3
2 2 3 23 3 23 5 22 5 28
13. The correct answer is (D). The area of a square is equal to the
(length of the side)2, or L2.

100s2 5 L2

=100s2 5 =L2
10s 5 L
14. The correct answer is (D). Set up a ratio for this problem and
solve:
Let x represent the number of books purchased with 4 dollars.
10 x
5
d 4

10 3 4 5 d 3 x ~using cross-multiplication!

40
5x
d
15. The correct answer is (C). Since integers can be both positive
and negative, and the product of a positive and negative integer
is always negative, choice (E) must be false. Looking further at
the answers, notice that choices (B) and (C) are opposites of
one another. Therefore, one of those must be true and the other
false. Substitute two numbers for g and h and see which of the
two is true. If g 5 24 and h 5 5, g 3 h 5 24 3 5 5 220.
Since 220 is even, choice (C) is correct.

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS TO THE SSAT PRACTICE TEST 1

16. The correct answer is (D). The sum of the first six grades is
78 3 6 5 468. (To find the average grade of 78, divide the sum
of the six grades by 6.)
The average with seven students is 468 1 x 5 80 3 7.
468 1 x 5 560; x 5 92
17. The correct answer is (A).
All factors of 6 are factors of the number.
The factors of 6 are:
136
233

18. The correct answer is (C). Since this is an isosceles triangle, the
angles opposite the congruent sides are also congruent. The sum
of the angles in a triangle equal 180°. So 65° 1 65° 1 x° 5 180°
and x 5 50°.

19. The correct answer is (A).

Let p equal the price of the item.
Price 3 Discount Rate 5 Discount Amount
So p 3 40% 5 $2.00;
p 3 .40 5 2.00;
2.00
p5 55
.40
1
20. The correct answer is (C). On Monday, of the pie was
4
3
eaten. On Tuesday, there was of the pie left.
4
1 3 3 1 3 5
3 5 and 1 5
2 4 8 4 8 8
21. The correct answer is (C). The perimeter of a square equals
4s. The area of a square equals s2. Setting them equal will
determine the length of one side, s.
s2 5 4s
s2 2 4s 5 0
s~s 2 4! 5 0
s 5 0 or s 5 4
Since it would make no sense for the length to be 0, the correct
answer is 4.

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 SSAT PRACTICE TEST 1

22. The correct answer is (A).

6x 2 4 5 38
6x 5 42
x 5 7 so
72552
23. The correct answer is (A).
3~x2y24z!4x3y 5
3x8y216z4x3y 5
3x11y215z4
24. The correct answer is (C). They are all factors of 360, but 4 is
not prime. (A prime number is a number that has exactly two
factors, namely 1 and itself.)
25. The correct answer is (D). The altitude of an equilateral
triangle bisects the vertex, forming a 30-60-90 triangle with sides
in the ratios shown.

(This also comes from the Pythagorean Theorem, and the fact
that the base of an equilateral triangle has been bisected to form
this 30-60-90 triangle.)
The sides will be in the same ratio for the given triangle:

So, with the ratios 1: =3:2 equaling the ratios b:4:a, we find
4 8
b5 and a 5 .
=3 =3
Area 5 one half base times height, so

A 5 (4) S= D
4
3
5
16
=3
5
16=3
3
.

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 EXPLANATORY ANSWERS TO THE SSAT PRACTICE TEST 1

READING COMPREHENSION
Passage 1
1. The correct answer is (D). The word “invited” in the first sentence
indicates he was asked to come to Birmingham. Choice (A) is incorrect
because the passage does not say what King wanted to do. While
choice (B) may be a true statement, the passage does not state that was
his reason. Choices (C) and (E) refer to events after he had arrived, so
they are incorrect.
2. The correct answer is (B). Choices (A), (C), and (E) are not related
to any laws. Choice (D) is the result of an illegal action, not a reason
that the action was illegal.
3. The correct answer is (D). Choice (A) is incorrect because the
passage states he analyzes when a law can be broken. Choices (B) and
(C) are incorrect because the passage states only unjust laws could be
violated. Choice (E) is incorrect because according to King, if the law
is not unfair, breaking the law is wrong even if the opposition is
nonviolent.
4. The correct answer is (A). Choice (B) is incorrect because the letter
did not discuss King’s situation. Choice (C) is incorrect because it is
contradicted by the passage. Choices (D) and (E) are incorrect because
they name specific actions that are not in the letter.
5. The correct answer is (B). Choice (A) is incorrect because the letter
does not try to sell a product, which is what an advertisement does.
Choice (C) is incorrect because it is a letter, not a speech, and choice
(D) is incorrect because the letter is not a poem. Choice (E) is incor-
rect because there is no mention of religion as part of the letter.

Passage 2
6. The correct answer is (A). Choice (B) applies to leaves that have not
had the proper amount of water. Choice (C) applies to plants infested
with insects. Choice (D) describes a healthy plant, and choice (E) is
about the soil, not the leaves.
7. The correct answer is (E). All of the answers above it are discussed
at some point in the passage.
8. The correct answer is (D). The sentence after the one in which
“infest” appears gives the phrase “live on” to explain what infest means.
9. The correct answer is (C). Choice (A) is not mentioned in the
passage. Choice (B) is a result of forcing the plant to grow too quickly.
Choice (D) is a symptom of a plant that has outgrown its pot. Choice
(E) is a sign of insects on the plant.
10. The correct answer is (B). If all plants were cared for properly, there
would be no need to see if they were healthy before purchasing them.
Choice (A) is incorrect because if all plants were raised perfectly, they
all would be healthy. Choice (C) applies to some plants, not all of
them. The passage does not discuss caring for plants at home or a
plant’s environment, so choices (D) and (E) are incorrect.

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 SSAT PRACTICE TEST 1

Passage 3
11. The correct answer is (A). Since Demeter is the goddess of the
harvest, she oversees crops planted for food. Choices (B), (C), and (D)
are contradicted by the passages because Hades is the god of the
underworld, and the passage does not state who rules over marriage or
humanity. Choice (E) is incorrect, because while the weather affects
the growth of crops, Demeter rules the growth of plants, not what
causes them to grow or not grow.
12. The correct answer is (B). The passage does not say myths always
involved gods and goddesses, so choice (A) is incorrect. The passage
does not indicate whether choices (C) and (D) are true or false
statements. Choice (E) is true of the Demeter myth, but it would not
be true of all myths.
13. The correct answer is (C). Choices (A) and (B) are true statements
about the story, but they are not the reason Demeter causes winter to
occur. Choices (D) and (E) might be inferred from the story, but they
are not the reason given for winter.
14. The correct answer is (D). Choice (A) is incorrect because the
passage does not state Zeus’ feelings about Hades. Choice (B) is
incorrect because if Zeus did not want to upset Hades, he would have
given his permission. Choice (C) is incorrect because it was Hades,
not Zeus, who wanted Persephone as his wife. Choice (E) is a true
statement, but it is not the reason Zeus did not give permission
to Hades.
15. The correct answer is (C). Although choices (A), (B), (D), and (E)
state events that happened in the story, these events are not when,
according to the story, Demeter first stopped the growth of crops.

Passage 4
16. The correct answer is (A). Choice (B) is a theory that only some
scientists believe to be true. Choices (C) and (D) are about part of the
passage’s content, but they do not describe the whole passage. Choice
(E) is too general; the passage deals with a specific scientific discovery.
17. The correct answer is (C). The passage states the radiation frequency
“decreases,” so choices (A), (B), and (D) are incorrect. Choice (E) is
incorrect because “collapse” does not mean the same as “decrease.”
18. The correct answer is (D). The passage states the matter was “tightly
compressed.” Choice (A) is incorrect, because while the matter may be
expanding after the Big Bang, it was not expanding originally. Choice
(B) means the opposite of “tightly compressed,” so it is incorrect.
Choices (C) and (E) refer to what may have happened after the Big
Bang, so they are incorrect.
19. The correct answer is (E). The passage states some scientists think
the universe will continue to expand, while others think it will
collapse. Since both views are given, choices (A) and (C) are incorrect.
Choices (B) and (D) are contradicted by the passage.

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 EXPLANATORY ANSWERS TO THE SSAT PRACTICE TEST 1

20. The correct answer is (C). This is indicated in the first sentence of
the passage. That sentence also contradicts choice (B), and information
in the passage about the 1965 discovery also suggests that the theory
has been proven, so choice (A) is incorrect. Choice (D) is about the
Doppler effect, not the Big Bang, so it is incorrect. Choice (E) is about
evidence for the theory, not what the author thinks about the theory.

Passage 5
21. The correct answer is (D). Choice (A) is incorrect, because fractions
means “parts,” but it does not indicate they do not agree with each
other. Choice (B) is incorrect because the factions are within a nation,
so they cannot be “international.” Choice (C) refers to people who
believe in their nation, so it does not fit the passage. Choice (E) is
contradicted because the factions wished to “replace” the monarchy.
22. The correct answer is (C). Choices (A) and (B) may or may not be
true, but the passage does not state that they are true. Choice (D) is
incorrect because the passage does not say how the experts felt about
their discovery. Choice (E) is contradicted by the phrase “throughout
the world.”
23. The correct answer is (A). Choice (B) is incorrect because the
conflict between Greece and Turkey did not involve a new land.
Choice (C) is incorrect because it refers to events after the occurrence
of these conflicts. Choices (D) and (E) are incorrect because the
passage does not explain what these conflicts led to or how they were
settled.
24. The correct answer is (D). The term is defined in the passage by the
words occurring immediately after it.
25. The correct answer is (C). The passage gives November 1918 as the
time when the “cease fire” was signed. Only after 1918 did the peace
conference of January 1919 begin, choice (B), during which the League
of Nations was founded, choice (D), and the peace treaty was not signed
until the end of the conference, choice (E). Choice (A) is incorrect be-
cause while this was a slogan about the war, its hopes never came into
existence.

Passage 6
26. The correct answer is (C). The passage does not say the passengers
were hurrying, choice (A). Nor does it explain why Mrs. Miller’s son
had not arrived home, choice (B). Choice (D) is incorrect, because the
flight attendant’s words include “I’m sorry,” so she is not being rude.
Choice (E) is incorrect because the weather would not affect passen-
gers inside the airport who were going to board a plane.
27. The correct answer is (E). Choice (A) is incorrect because the author
was boarding the plane at the scheduled take-off time. Choice (B) is in-
correct because the reader is not told exactly when the plane left. While
this would make choice (C) a possibility, there is enough information in
the passage to make it clear the plane took off some short time after 1:15
in the afternoon, so choice (D) would be incorrect.

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 SSAT PRACTICE TEST 1

28. The correct answer is (E). Choice (A) is contradicted by the descrip-
tion; she is well dressed and carefully made up. Choice (B) is incorrect,
because the details of her appearance do not have examples of things
that are very expensive. Choice (C) may be true about Mrs. Miller, but
it is not suggested by what she looks like. Nothing in the passage
reveals her sense of humor or lack of it, so choice (D) is incorrect.
29. The correct answer is (D). While choice (A) may be a correct
statement about Mrs. Miller, and choice (E) might be inferred from the
passage, neither explains the motives of the airline personnel. Choice
(B) may or may not be true. The author asks if Mrs. Miller knows the
number, but does not know if she does or does not. Choice (C) is
incorrect because they take her off the plane so that they will not have
to help her find her son.
30. The correct answer is (E). The author notices the details of Mrs.
Miller’s appearance, which is observant, choice (A). The author feels
sorry for Mrs. Miller, which is compassionate, choice (B), and the
author is moved to great sadness when considering the situation,
which shows sensitive feelings, choice (C).

Passage 7
31. The correct answer is (A). None of the other answers makes sense
in context because an area of land cannot be “erased,” choice (B);
“invented,” choice (C); “changed,” choice (D); or “carried,” choice (E).
32. The correct answer is (C). Choices (A) and (B) may be true, but
these reasons would not be important for anyone but Ms. Tinne.
Choice (E) is also a personal statement. Choice (D) is incorrect because
her death caused her work to end rather than make it important.
33. The correct answer is (E). The passage states in the sentence before
Bahr el Gazal is mentioned that she explored “parts of north central
Africa.” Thus, the other answers are incorrect.
34. The correct answer is (C). Nothing in the passage suggests choices
(A), (B), (D), or (E). Choice (C) may be inferred because the people
who killed her believed she was carrying gold, according to the last
sentence in the passage.
35. The correct answer is (E). Words like “intelligent,” “daring,” and
“remarkable” and the statement that her information was valuable
show the author’s admiration. While the author calls her death
“unfortunate,” the overall tone of the passage is not sad, so choice (C)
is incorrect.

Passage 8
36. The correct answer is (D). Since Pip’s parents were alive “long
before” photography was invented, choices (A), (B), and (C) are not
probable. Choice (E) is incorrect because the reference to photography
shows that the writer lived when the process was known.

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 EXPLANATORY ANSWERS TO THE SSAT PRACTICE TEST 1

37. The correct answer is (C). Choice (A) is incorrect because elaborate
lettering would not indicate something in Pip’s mind. Choice (B) is
incorrect because since his parents are dead, he would have no
“hopes” about them. Choice (D) is incorrect because it is the source of
his fancies. Choice (E) is incorrect because Pip was a child when he
had the fancies.
38. The correct answer is (C). In the passage, Pip says “their days were
long before the days of photographs,” lines 11–12.
39. The correct answer is (B). Since she is married, her name would not
be Pirrip, so choice (A) is incorrect. Choices (C) and (D) refer to the
speaker’s first names, so they are not correct, and no Mrs. Stout
appears in the passage, so choice (E) is incorrect.
40. The correct answer is (C). It is explicitly stated in the passage. While
the passage talks about tombs and tombstones, neither stone-cutting
nor grave digging is mentioned in connection with the husband, so
choices (A) and (B) are incorrect. Choice (D) cannot be correct
because the passage concerns a time before photography was invented.
Choice (E) is incorrect because the passage does not mention a barber.

QUANTITATIVE (MATH) 2
1. The correct answer is (A). The stock declined in value by $1,500,
from an initial value of $6,000. The fractional decline in value is
1500 1
5 , which is 25%.
6000 4
2. The correct answer is (B). Get common denominators to add
a a a2 b b b2
fractions. Multiply by to get . Multiply by to get . Subtract
b a ab a b ab
the fractions by subtracting the numerators.
3. The correct answer is (A). To have an average of 90 after five tests,
the total of all the scores must be 90 3 5 5 450. The known scores
add up to 80 1 87 1 94 1 89 5 350, so she needs 100 points on the
last test.
4. The correct answer is (D). Percent means “per 100.” 4 percent
4
means .
100
15 hours
5. The correct answer is (E). Put time in like units.
48 hours
5
Dividing the common factor of 3 results in .
16
6. The correct answer is (E). When multiplying decimals, be sure the
final decimal point is in the correct place.

.58 2 places
3.14 2 places
232
58
.0812 4 places

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7. The correct answer is (B). To solve equations, use inverse opera-

tions. First add 5 to both sides.
3a 2 5 5 7
1 55 15
3a 5 12
Then divide both sides by 3.
3a 12
5
3 3
a54
8. The correct answer is (C). There are eight outcomes (total gum-
balls), of which five are successes (red).
9. The correct answer is (B). OA 5 OB because the radii in the same
circle are equal. The triangle AOB is a right triangle. By the
Pythagorean Theorem:

a2 1 b2 5 c2
~leg!2 1 ~leg!2 5 ~hypotenuse!2
~10!2 1 ~10!2 5 c2
100 1 100 5 c2
200 5 c2
=2 3 100 5 =c2
10=2 5 c
10. The correct answer is (A). To add algebraic expressions, combine
like terms.
2x2 2 3x 1 5
1 3x 2 2
2x2 1 0 1 3 5 2x2 1 3
11. The correct answer is (C). Substitute values p 5 500, r 5 .04, and
1
t52 .
2
1
A 5 500 1 ~500!~.04!2 5 500 1 50 5 550
2

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS TO THE SSAT PRACTICE TEST 1

12. The correct answer is (A). Corresponding parts of similar triangles

are in proportion:
AB AE
5
AC AD
4 6
5
416 61x

4~6 1 x! 5 6~4 1 6!
24 1 4x 5 60
224 5 224
4x 5 36
x59
13. The correct answer is (B).
~3K2!3 5 ~3K2! ~3K2! ~3K2!
5 ~3!~3!~3!~K2! ~K2!~K2!
5 27K2 1 2 1 2 (multiply numbers)
5 27K6 (add exponents)
14. The correct answer is (B).
20 5
5
12 y
20y 5 12 3 5 ~cross-multiply!
20y 5 60
y53
15. The correct answer is (D).
4 3 1
2 5
x x x
The problem is written with all common denominators. Simply subtract
the numerators.
16. The correct answer is (D).
75% of N 5 36.75
75
75% 5 5 .75 .75 of N means .75 3 N
100
.75 3 N 5 36.75 Divide both sides by .75 to isolate N.
.75 3 N 36.75
5
.75 .75
36.75
N5 5 49
.75

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 SSAT PRACTICE TEST 1

17. The correct answer is (E). First find what percent of Freddie’s
income is spent on miscellaneous items.
50% 1 25% 1 7% 1 5.3% 5 87.3%
100% 2 87.3% 5 12.7%

Then find 12.7% of $350.

Amount 5 Weekly Net Income 3 Miscellaneous Percent
5 350 3 .127 5 $44.45
18. The correct answer is (D). The line described by the equation
crosses the x-axis when y 5 0.
0 5 3x 1 7
27 5 3x
7
2 5x
3
19. The correct answer is (C). To break a number into its prime factors,
break it into factors, and break those factors into factors, until you
cannot go any further. It doesn’t matter what factors you begin with.
You will reach the same prime factors.
60 5 10 3 6 5 5 3 2 3 3 3 2
5, 3, and 2 are prime numbers (they have no factors other than
themselves and 1), and multiplication is commutative (can be per-
formed in any order).
Another way to approach the problem is to rule out the answers that
have composite (non-prime) numbers. This rules out choices (B), (D),
and (E). Test the remaining answers by multiplying them out. Only
choice (C) comes to 60.
20. The correct answer is (E).
12a 2 7 can be 3 or 23.
In the first case:
12a 2 7 5 3
12a 5 10
5
a5
6
In the second case:
12a 2 7 5 23
12a 5 4
1
a5
3
5
The only solution that fits the given answers is .
6

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS TO THE SSAT PRACTICE TEST 1

21. The correct answer is (A). x is less than or equal to 7, and at the
same time, x is greater than or equal to 4. An open circle would
indicate a “less than” or a “greater than” condition at the endpoint,
while filled-in circles indicate a “less than or equal to” or a “greater
than or equal to” condition at the endpoint.
22. The correct answer is (D).
112 5 121
92 5 81
121 2 81 5 40
23. The correct answer is (C). To have an average of 94 after six tests,
Eric’s total score would need to be 94 3 6 5 564. He already has a
total score of 98 1 95 1 84 1 100 1 92, which equals 469, so he
needs 564 2 469 points, which is 95.
24. The correct answer is (B). In the form y 5 mx 1 b, the slope is
given by m and the y-intercept is given by b. The y-intercept is the
value of y when x 5 0.
25. The correct answer is (E).

AC and CB are congruent, making C the midpoint of AB. AC is 7 so

BC is 7 and AB is 14. It is not given that B is the midpoint of AD, just
that it lies between A and D. Therefore, AB and BD are not necessarily
congruent. There is no other relationship that will give the length of
BD or of CD.

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