Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.

CSIR-UGC (NET) Life Sciences

Previous Year Solved Paper (Booklet-A)

Duration : 180 minutes Maximum Marks : 200

Read the following instructions carefully.

The question paper is divided in three parts :

Part ‘A’ : This part contains twenty (20) objective type questions.The candidates shall be required
to answer any 15 questions.Each question shall be of two marks. The total marks
allocated to this section shall be 30 out of 200.

Part ‘B’ : This part contains fifty (50) objective type questions. The candidate shall be required to
answer any 35 questions. Each question shall be of two marks.The total marks allocated
to this section shall be 70 out of 200.

Part ‘C’ : This part contains seventy five (75) objective type questions. A candidate shall be required
to answer any 25 questions. Each question shall be of four marks.The total marks
allocated to this section shall be 100 out of 200.

» There will be negative marking for all three PARTS @ 25% marks for each wrong answer.

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

PART - ‘A’

1. In a group of students, 30% play only cricket, 20% play only football and 10% play only basketball.
20% of the students play both football and cricket, 15% play both basketball and cricket, 10% play
both football and basketball. 15 students play no games, while 5% of the students play all three
games. What is the total number of students ?
(1) 300 (2) 250
(3) 350 (4) 400

2. Five persons A, B, C, D, and E are sitting in a row with C in the middle of the group. If D is at
an extreme end and there are at least two persons between B and E, then which of the following
statements is incorrect ?
(1) E can be on extreme left
(2) E can be on extreme right
(3) A cannot be on extreme left
(4) A is always a neighbour of B or D

3. A sphere G of radius b is fixed mid-air and several spheres identical to the first one are shot at
it with their velocities parallel to each other. If the shot spheres fall within an imaginary cylinder
of radius a (b << a) then the fraction of spheres that will hit G is
(1) 2b/a (2) 4b2/a2
(3) (a – b)/(a + b) (4) 8b3/a3

4. The distance from Nehrunagar to Gandhinagar is 27 km. A and B start walking from Nehrunagar
towards Gandhinagar at speeds of 5 km/hr and 7 km/hr, respectively. B reaches Gandhinagar,
returns immediately, and meets A at Indiranagar. What is the distance between Nehrunagar and
Indiranagar ? (Assume all three cities to be in one straight line)
(1) 12.5 km (2) 22.5 km
(3) 4.5 km (4) 13.5 km

5. A leaf appears green in daylight. If this leaf were observed in red light, what colour would it appear
to have ?
(1) green (2) black-brown
(3) red (4) blue

6. Approximately how much blood flows per day through a normal human heart beating 70 times
per minute, having a relaxed volume of 110 cc and compressed volume of 70 cc ?
(1) 7150 litres (2) 4000 litres
(3) 28000 litres (4) 11100 litres

7. The molar fraction of hydrochloric acid in an extremely dilute aqueous solution is doubled.
The pH of the resulting solution is
(1) approximately doubled (2) approximately halved
(3) increased (4) reduced

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

8.
A

won
B
lost
C

10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 120 130 140 150

Number of seats
The bar chart above shows number of seats won by four political parties A, B, C and D. Which
party won the largest proportion of seats it contested ?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D

9. Find the missing number.

17 15 13 12
8 5

25 24 41 40
7 ?
(1) 4 (2) 9
(3) 3 (4) 6

10. When Ramesh was at the age of 8 years, he hammered a nail into a large tree to mark his height.
If the tree grows 2 cm/year, how much higher would the nail be after 5 years ?
(1) 5 cm higher (2) 0 cm higher
(3) 10 cm higher (4) 8 cm higher

11. Find the next pattern in the following sequence :

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

12. For which of the following numbers is its positive square root closest to the number itself ?
(1) 0.33 (2) 0.99
(3) 0.89 (4) 0.10

13. There are two gas parcels of equal volume, A and B at the same temperature and pressure.
Parcel A is one mole of water vapour, while parcel B is one mole of dry air. Which of the following
is TRUE ?
(1) Parcel A is heavier than Parcel B
(2) Parcel B is heavier than Parcel A
(3) Both parcels are equally heavy
(4) Without temperature and pressure data, their relative masses cannot be determined

14. Which one of the following graphs represents f(x) = sin x cos x ?
1 0.5

0.5

0 0
(1) -0.5 (2)
-1 -0.5
0 /2  3/2 2 0 /2  3/2 2

1 0.5

0.5
0 0
(3) (4)
-0.5
-1 -0.5
0 /2  3/2 2 0 /2  3/2 2

15. The number of three English letter words, having at least one consonant, but not having two
consecutive consonants, is
(1) 2205 (2) 3780
(3) 2730 (4) 3360

16. A buys n copies of a book at 20% discount. B gets the same book at 30% discount. What is the
minimum value of n for which B can buy one extra copy of the book, spending the same amount
as A ?
(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) This problem cannot be solved unless the marked price of the book is known.

17. A bird flies along the three sides of a field in the shape of an equilateral triangle at speeds of 2,
4, 8 km/hr, respectively. The average speed of the bird is
24 14
(1) km / hr (2) km / hr
7 3
22
(3) km / hr (4) 4 km/hr
7
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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

18. The average staff salary of a company is ` 8000/-. A new gaurd and a new manager are recruited
with salaries of ` 5000/- and ` 20000/-, respectively. What is the current staff strength if the new
average salary is ` 4000/- more than that of the guard ?
(1) 7 (2) 9
(3) 10 (4) 11

19. A 100 m long fence is to be made by fixing a wire mesh on steel poles. Each pole has a 1 m
vertical portion and a 1 m portion tilted at 45° to the vertical. What will be the area of wire mesh
required ?
(1) 200 m2 (2) 241.4 m2
2
(3) 400 m (4) 170.7 m2

20. DRQP is a small square of side a in the corner of a big square ABCD of side A.
R
D C
P Q

A B
What is the ratio of the area of the quadrilateral PBRQ to that of the square ABCD, given A/a =
3?
(1) 2/9 (2) 1/6
(3) 1/3 (4) 2/7

PART - ‘B’

21. Choose the correct statement from the following :

(1) Disulfide bonds in a 20-residue peptide can be formed only if the cystines are adjacent
to each other.
(2) The amino acid isoleucine has only one chiral centre.
(3) Both bases and sugar contribute to chirality of nucleic acids.
(4) The pI of aspartic acid is less than that of glutamic acid.

22. Indicate the INCORRECT statement from the following :

(1) Allosteric enzymes function through reversible noncovalent binding of allosteric modulators
or effectors.
(2) Monoclonal antibodies that catalyze hydrolysis of esters or carbonates can be produced.
(3) Enzymes are not inhibited irreversibly by heavy metals such as Hg2+, Ag+.
(4) Acid phosphatases hydrolyze biological phosphate esters at ~ pH 5.0.

23. What is the effect of sudden increase in the levels of ATP and citrate on an erythrocyte undergoing
glycolysis ?
(1) It inhibits glycolysis.
(2) It stimulates glycolysis.
(3) The rate of glycolysis remains unaltered.
(4) The rate of glycolysis increases gradually.

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

24. The  and  values of a -strand composed of all D-amino acids will mainly occupy which
quadrant in the Ramachandran plot ?
(1) upper left (2) upper right
(3) lower left (4) lower right

25. In a signalling event, binding of an extracellular ligand activates G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR)
that eventually activates phospholipase C-. Which one of the following statements truly reflects
the function of phospholipase C- ?
(1) Phospholipase C- converts PI (3, 4, 5)P3 to PI (4, 5)P2
(2) Phospholipase C- converts PI (4)P to PI (4, 5)P2
(3) Phospholipase C- converts PI (4, 5)P2 to diacylglycerol and IP3
(4) Phospholipase C- converts PI (5)P to PI (4, 5)P2

26. Select a cellular body which is NOT a part of the nuclear bodies :
(1) P-bodies (2) Nucleolus
(3) Cajal bodies (4) Interchromatin granule clusters

27. Which one of the following statements about chromatin is NOT true ?
(1) DNA winds approximately 1.65 times around the nucleosomes
(2) H2A-H2B bind to both the entry and exit ends of DNA in nucleosomes
(3) Covalent modification of histones influence chromatin compaction
(4) Non-histone proteins are part of mitotic chromosomes

28. During eukaryotic cell division, metaphase to anaphase transition is regulated by degradation of
(1) Cyclic B1 (2) CDK1
(3) Aurora A kinase (4) Polo-like kinase

29. One of the mechanisms used by bacteria for adaptation to changed environment is altering
transcription of their genes. In this regard, which one of the following responses is NOT found
in bacteria ?
(1) A gene with two different promoters for expression in different conditions
(2) Use of different sigma factors for transcription of genes
(3) Expression of alternate ,  and ' subunits
(4) Expression of anti-sigma factors

30. Which one of the following  proteins acts both as an activator and repressor of transcription ?
(1) cI protein (2) N protein
(3) cII protein (4) Q protein

31. A highly specific inhibitor that targets the phosphorylation activity of TFIIH is added to an in vitro
transcription reaction. Which one of the following steps is most likely to be affected ?
(1) Binding of RNA polymerase to promoter sequence
(2) Promoter clearance
(3) Recruitment of TFIID
(4) Open promoter complex formation

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

32. During eukaryotic protein synthesis, stress conditions result in activation of specific kinases
leading to phosphorylation of a key translation initiation factor that inhibits protein synthesis from
a large number of cellular mRNA. Which one of the following factors is the target of the kinase?
(1) eIF4E (2) eIF4G
(3) eIF2 (4) Gcn4

33. Proteins with cytoplasmic domains having tyrosine kinase activity do NOT act as receptors for
(1) Epidermal growth factor (EGF) (2) Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
(3) Insulin (4) Transferrin

34. Which one of the following is a group of signalling molecules that act as morphogens during
development of an organism and its effects are mediated through the receptor Patched and its
binding partner Smoothened ?
(1) Hedgehog protein (2) Notch protein
(3) Wnt protein (4) -catenin

35. Junctions which tether cytoskeletal filaments inside the cell are known as
(1) anchoring junctions (2) occluding junctions
(3) channel – forming junctions (4) signal – relaying junctions

36. Which one of the following human serum immunoglobulins takes part in classical complement
fixation pathway ?
(1) IgD (2) IgE
(3) IgA (4) IgG

37. Match the following cleavage patterns with the species in which they occur.
Species Cleavage Pattern
A. Flatworm i. Meroblastic discoidal
B. Frog ii. Meroblastic superficial
C. Birds iii. Holoblastic displaced radial
D. Insect iv. Holoblastic spiral
(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv (4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i

38. Which one of the following statements regarding limb development in mice is true ?
(1) The gene encoding Tbx5 is transcribed in the limb fields of the hindlimbs.
(2) The gene encoding Tbx4 is transcribed in the limb fields of the forelimbs.
(3) Genes encoding Islet 1, Tbx4 and Pitx are expressed in the presumptive hindlimb.
(4) Genes encoding Islet 1, Tbx4 and Pitx are expressed in the presumptive forelimb.

39. Based on ABC model during flower development, loss of class A activity results in the formation
of only stamen and carpel. Which of the following floral organ identity genes controls the class
A activity ?
(1) APETALA 1 and APETALA 2 (2) APETALA 3 and PISTILLATA
(3) Only PISTILLATA (4) Only AGAMOUS

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

40. In a given experiment, transplantation of micromeres from the vegetal pole of a 16-cell sea urchin
embryo onto the animal pole of a host 16-cell sea urchin embryo would initiate.
(1) the transplanted micromeres to invaginate into the blastocoel to create a new set of
skeletogenic mesenchyme cells
(2) the transplanted micromeres to ingress into the blastocoel to create a new set of skeletogenic
mesenchymal cells
(3) the transplanted micromeres will mingle with the host micromeres to ingress into the
blastocoel to create skeletogenic mesenchyme cells
(4) the transplanted micromeres will form the secondary archenteron

41. Which one of the following is NOT a phenotype of dark-grown seedlings that are etiolated ?
(1) Short hypocotyls (2) An apical hook
(3) Closed cotyledons (4) Non-photosynthetic proplastids

42. Which one of the following is the correct function of JAZ (JASMONATE ZIM-DOMAIN) protein
family, a key regulator of Jasmonic Acid (JA) signalling response ?
(1) Binds to MYC2 and represses the JA dependent genes
(2) Binds to MYC2 and transcribes JA dependent genes
(3) Acts as receptor of JA signal
(4) Involved in directly inducing JA dependent genes

43. The plant hormone, Gibberellic Acid is generally NOT associated with
(1) stem elongation (2) parthenocarpy
(3) parthenogenesis (4) malt production

44. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for Casparian strip ?
(1) It breaks the continuity of water movement through the apoplast pathway
(2) It is formed in the growing part of the root
(3) It is formed several millimetres or several centimetres behind the root tip
(4) It is a band within the radial cell walls of the endodermis that is impregnated with lignin

45. Which one of the following is NOT involved with the absorption of iron in the intestine ?
(1) Divalent metal transporter (2) Ferroportin
(3) Hephaestin (4) Transferrin

46. In which one of the body fluids is K+ concentration higher than that of Na+ ?
(1) Plasma (2) Perilymph
(3) Endolymph (4) Cerebrospinal fluid

47. Mammillary bodies are present in

(1) thalamus (3) epithalamus
(3) hypothalamus (4) midbrain

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

48. Reflex ovulation does NOT occur in

(1) cats (2) rabbits
(3) mink (4) rats

49. Two mutant plants, both bearing white flowers, were crossed. All F1 plants had red coloured
flowers. When an F1 plant was selfed it produced progeny with either red or white coloured
flowers in 9:7 ratio. Based on this information, which one of the following conclusions is correct?
(1) The mutations in the parents do not complement each other
(2) The mutations in the parents are allelic
(3) The mutations in the parents are non-allelic
(4) The mutations in the parents are linked

50. In a linkage map, two genes A and B, are 70 cM apart. If individuals heterozygous for both the
genes are test crossed number of progeny with parental phenotype will be :
(1) equal to the number of progeny with recombinant phenotype
(2) more than the number of progeny with recombinant phenotype
(3) less than the number of progeny with recombinant phenotype
(4) could be more or less than the number of progency with recombinant phenotype depending
on whether the genes are linked in cis or trans, respectively

51. A researcher exposed Drosophila larvae to 37°C during their growth. One of the adult flies that
emerged had a crossveinless phenotype. Crossveinless is a known mutant in Drosophila. When
this crossveinless fly was crossed to a known crossveinless mutant fly all the progeny had
normal phenotype. The observed phenotype can be best explained as an example of
(1) Conditional mutant (2) Phenocopy
(3) Penetrance (4) Pleiotropy

52. Phages are collected from an infected E. coli donor strain of genotype cys+ leu+ thr+ and used
to transduce a recipient of genotype cys– leu– thr–. The treated recipient population is plated on
a minimal medium supplemented with leucine and threonine. Many colonies grew. Which one of
the following combination of genotypes are appropriate for the colonies that grew ?
(1) cys+ leu+ thr+, cys+ leu– thr+, cys– leu+ thr–
(2) cys– leu+ thr+, cys+ leu– thr–, cys+ leu+ thr–
(3) cys– leu– thr–, cys– leu– thr+, cys– leu+ thr–
(4) cys+ leu– thr–, cys+ leu– thr+, cys+ leu+ thr–

53. Given below are growth equations where dN/dt is defined as

(A) rN/K (B) rN
(C) rN[(K-N)/N] (D) rN[(K-N)/K]
With reference to the above equations, which one of the following statements is correct ?
(1) B represents exponential growth and A represents logistic growth
(2) B represents exponential growth and A represents logistic growth
(3) B represents zero growth and C represents logistic growth
(4) A represents exponential growth and D represents logistic growth

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

54. Among the following statements, which is the correct one that refers to a Holotype ?
(1) Specimens collected from different locations and designated as type specimens by the
author
(2) A single specimen or illustration upon which name is based and designated as nomenclature
type by the author
(3) Specimens collected from different places and designated as type specimen
(4) A single specimen designated to serve as nomenclatural type when all of the materials
on which the name of the taxon was based is missing

55. Which one of the following statements is true about xylem in plants ?
(1) It is characterized by the presence of tracheary elements responsible for the conduction
of water in vascular plants
(2) It is responsible for the transport of water and characterized by sieve elements like
parenchyma cells and sclereids
(3) It is responsible for the transport of assimilates in the vascular plants and characterized
by tracheary elements
(4) It is responsible for the transport of assimilates in both vascular and non-vascular plants

56. Identify the plant species from which artemisinin, an anti-malarial drug, is extracted.
(1) Artemisia maritima (2) Artemisia scoparia
(3) Artemisia annua (4) Cinchona officinalis

57. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about a keystone species ?

(1) Species other than consumers can be a keystone species
(2) Keystone species has influence on a community proportionate to its abundance
(3) Removing a keystone species can reduce species richness of a community
(4) Removing a keystone species can effect successive trophic levels causing a trophic
cascade

58. A species whose life history strategies allow for high intrinsic rates of increase (r-strategist) will
also exhibit the following EXCEPT
(1) high tolerance for both environmental instability and low quality resources
(2) short period of exponential population growth (r)
(3) reproductive strategy that involves random mating, semelparity and little or no parental
investment
(4) survivorship that show density-dependent mortality, typically exhibiting Type 1 or 2
survivorship curves

59. In the context of diversity patterns of species, which one of the following statements is
INCORRECT?
(1) Alpha diversity is diversity within a single community
(2) Beta diversity is a measure of the change in species composition from one community
or habitat to another
(3) Alpha diversity is the regional diversity found among range of communities in a geographical
region
(4) Gamma diversity is the regional diversity found among range of communities/habitats in
a geographical region

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

60. Given below is an ecological pyramid.

TERTIARY CONSUMER
SECONDARY CONSUMER
PRIMARY CONSUMER
PRODUCER

The above pyramid represents :

(1) Pyramid of number of a parasitic food chain and pyramid of biomass of a pond ecosystem
(2) Pyramid of number of a pond ecosystem and pyramid of biomass of a forest ecosystem
(3) Pyramid of energy of a grassland and pyramid of biomass of an open ocean ecosystem
(4) Pyramid of biomass of a grassland and pyramid of number of a tropical forest ecosystem

61. Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE about the Neutral Theory as proposed by
Motoo Kimura ?
(1) Except for advantageous mutations, most alleles are under neutral selection
(2) The rate of evolution for most genes will be equal to the neutral mutation rate
(3) Advantageous mutations are exceedingly rare
(4) At the level of DNA sequences, genetic drift dominates evolution

62. Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE about homologous characters ?
(1) Similar traits may not be homologous
(2) Similar traits may be a result of convergent evolution
(3) A homologous trait that is derived and shared from a common ancestor is called an
autapomorphy
(4) Homologous characters may show structural similarity but functional diversity

63. Which one of the following trees represents a fully resolved phylogram ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

64. The rank/abundance plot given below illustrates three well known species abundance curves (a,
b, c).
100
Relative abundance

1 b

c
0.001
Species rank

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

Based on the shapes of the curves select the correct option.

(1) a-exponential, b-log normal, c-geometric series
(2) a-broken stick, b-geometric series, c-log normal
(3) a-broken stick, b-log normal, c-geometric series
(4) a-exponential, b-geometric series, c-log normal

65. Which one of the following microscopes would you use to visualize a protein fused to an appropriate
reporter in a living cell ?
(1) Fluorescence microscope
(2) Scanning electron microscope
(3) Differential interference contrast microscope
(4) Phase contrast microscope

66. Which one of the following statements regarding use of hybrid nucleases for plant genome
engineering is INCORRECT ?
(1) For gene knock out experiments, the nuclease is expressed without a donor DNA template.
(2) Hybrid nucleases typically comprise two protein subunits that dimerize at their nuclease
domain.
(3) Zinc finger nucleases (ZFNs) can efficiently target all nuclear genes with equal efficiency
(4) Both ZFNs and TALENs are fused with cleavage domains of FokI endonuclease

67. Which one of the following statements regarding proteins is CORRECT ?

(1) n * transition requires less energy than n * transition and can be monitored by
mass spectrometry
(2) n * transition requires more energy than * transition and can be monitored by
UV-V is spectroscopy
(3) n * transition requires less energy than n * transition and can be monitored by
CD spectroscopy
(4) * transition requires less energy than n * transition and can be monitored by
CD spectroscopy

68. Which of the following host systems is best suited to express large amounts of glycosylated
protein for structural studies ?
(1) GST fusion protein in E. coli
(2) His-tagged protein in E. coli
(3) Native protein in baculovirus
(4) Native protein in Pseudomonas fluorescens

69. Which of the following statements about YACs is FALSE ?

(1) YACs can carry DNA fragments of 1 Mb
(2) A single yeast may contain more than one YAC
(3) Rearrangements in YACs are rare because recombination is poor in yeast
(4) YACs have to be transferred to bacteria for subsequent DNA manipulations

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

70. In an intact cell patch-clamp experiment,

(1) two electrodes are inserted into the cytosol but at different depths
(2) one electrode is applied to the plasma membrane in a region containing only lipids and
one into the cytosol
(3) two electrodes are applied to the plasma membrane, one in a region containing only lipids
and the other in a region containing one or few ion channels
(4) one electrode is applied to the plasma membrane containing one or few ion channels and
one electrode inserted into the cytosol

PART - ‘C’

71. Match the coenzymes in column I serving as transient carriers of specific atoms or functional
groups in column II
Column I Column II
(a) Coenzyme A (i) Aldehyde groups
(b) Flavin adenine dinucleotide (ii) Amino groups
(c) Pyridoxal phosphate (iii) Hydrogen atoms
(d) Thiamine pyrophosphate (iv) Acyl groups
Select correct combinations from the options given below :
(1) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i) (2) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
(3) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv) (4) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)

72. Out of the statements mentioned below

(A) L-threonine and L-allo-threonine interact identically with plane polarized light.
(B) van der Waals' interactions are always attractive.
(C) Poly (pro) II-helix is not stabilized by intermolecular hydrogen bonds.
(D) The folding of a protein is associated with an overall positive change in free energy and
negative change in entropy.
(E) Lysine acetylation on histone is associated with loosening of the histone complex from
DNA.
Which of the following combinations is CORRECT ?
(1) A and C (2) B and D
(3) C and E (4) D and E

73. The following statements are made :

(A)  and  anomers of glucose are interconvertible and the ratio of their abundance is 1:2,
respectively.
(B) Single chain lipids (C14) form micelles and double chain lipids form bilayers in water.
(C) Proline is energetically favoured at the C-termini of an -helix than at the N-termini.
(D) Major groove of DNA readily accommodates several common structural motifs in protein
than the minor groove.
(E) Replacement of a cannonical Watson-Crick pairing by Wobble base pairs does not change
the surface properties in t-RNA
Which one of the following combinations is INCORRECT ?
(1) A and D (2) B and E
(3) C and E (4) B and C

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

74. From the following statements

(A) Enzymes enhance reaction rates by a factor of 2 to 10.
(B) The activation energy for a reaction is lowered by enzymes.
(C) The interactions between enzymes and substrates are hydrogen bonding, hydrophobic
and ionic.
(D) Substrate concentration does not affect the rate of enzyme catalyzed reactions.
Pick the combination with all INCORRECT statements.
(1) A, B (2) B, C
(3) A, C (4) A, D

75. Match the chemical agents that interfere in oxidative phosphorylation process with their respective
mode of action.
Column I Column II
(a) Antimycin A (i) Inhibits F0 component of ATP synthase
(b) Oligomycin (ii) Disrupts inner mitochondrial membrane
potential
(c) Valinomycin (iii) Prevent electron transport from Fe/S cluster
to ubiquinone
(d) Rotenone (iv) Blocks electron transfer from cytochrome b
to cytochrome c1
(v) Inhibits adenine nucleotide translocase
Choose the correct combination from below :
(1) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(v), d-(iii) (2) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)
(3) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(v) (4) a-(v), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(ii)

76. A polymer is synthesized from an achiral amino acid. Conformation of the polymer can be
investigated by the following techniques.
A. Fibre diffraction
B. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy
C. Circular dichroism spectroscopy
D. Differential scanning calorimetry
Choose the combination which would indicate that the polymer adopts a helical conformation
(1) A, C (2) B, D
(3) A, B (4) C, D

77. Sphingolipids (S) and cholesterol (C) molecules of the lipid bilayer aggregate into multiple tiny
rafts instead of a single large one. Considering that size of a lipid rafts depends on the affinity
of S and C for one another and other lipids in the membrane, choose the option that best
describes this property.
(1) S and C bind to one another tightly and independent of any other lipid molecules.
(2) S and C bind to one another with same affinity as they bind to other lipid species of the
membrane.
(3) S and C bind to one another with high affinity under the influence of some cytoskeletal
elements.
(4) S and C have slightly higher affinity than other lipid molecules of the membrane and are
in dynamic equilibrium with their free form.

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

78. To understand the microtubule-dependent motor activity of a freshly purified motor protein from
budding yeast, a researcher set up microtubule based gliding assay. In such an assay where
microtubules are fluorescently tagged at its (+) end, the researcher observed that this motor
protein moves the microtubule in the direction of its (+) end as shown below :

The newly identified motor protein is

(1) Dynein (2) Myosin
(3) Kinesin 1 (4) Either Dynein or Kinesin 1

79. Given below are organelles (column A) and properties associated with the organelles (column B).
Column A Column B
(a) Lysosomes (i) Anterograde transport from ER to Golgi
(b) cis – Golgi (ii) Clathrin – coated vesicles
(c) trans – Golgi (iii) Cop I vesicle budding
(d) Cop II vesicles (iv) Mannose-6-phosphate receptor
(e) Endocytic vesicles (v) Protein aggregate for secretion
Choose the option that matches the organelles with the most appropriate property.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(1) (iv) (iii) (v) (i) (ii)
(2) (v) (iv) (i) (v) (ii)
(3) (iii) (v) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iv) (v) (ii) (i) (iii)

80. Cell cycle checkpoints are surveillance mechanisms that ensure order and fidelity of events of
the cell cycle. Given below are some of the checkpoint proteins and their functions.
(a) Mad2 (i) Prevention of Cdc14 activation
(b) Tem1 (ii) Prevention of Cdc20 activation
(c) ATM, ATR (iii) Inhibition of p21CIP
(iv) Inhibition of separase action
Match the checkpoint protein with its function.
(1) a-iv, b-i and ii, c-iii (2) a-ii and iv, b-i, c-iii
(3) a-ii, b-i and iii, c-iv (4) a-ii and iv, b-iii, c-i

81. You have discovered a new transposon, TnX, and would like to identify its mode of replication.
A heteroduplex of the TnX sequence is made with a few mismatches and introduced into bacteria.
The newly transposed genomic loci are sequenced. You find that the sequence of the transposon
matched exactly with one of its parent strands. This is suggests that
(1) TnX transposes by conservative transposition mechanism.
(2) TnX transposes using a site-specific recombination mechanism.
(3) single-strands of the duplex are inserted.
(4) TnX transposes by replicative mechanism.

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

82. To assess the impact of a newly identified drug when added to a culture of subconfluent HeLa
cells, a researcher analyzes the fluorescence activated cell sorting (FACS) profile of untreated
(- Drug) versus treated (+ Drug) cells.

‘–Drug’ ‘+Drug’

No. of cells
No. of cells

2n 4n 2n 4n
Relative amount of DNA Relative amount of DNA

Based on the FACS profile shown above, this drug inhibits

(1) G1 phase of the cell cycle (2) S phase of the cell cycle
(3) G2/M phase of the cell cycle (4) G0 phase of cell cycle

83. Following table lists the two major forms of DNA duplexes, conformation of base attached to the
sugar and the nature of major and minor grooves.
DNA duplex Properties
(a) A form (i) Syn conformation of the base to sugar
(b) B form (ii) Anti conformation of the base to sugar
(iii) Wide major groove
(iv) Narrow major groove
(v) Wide minor groove
(vi) Narrow minor groove
Which of the following combination correctly depicts the types of DNA duplexes and their properties
(numbered within bracket) ?
(1) a - (i) (iii) (vi) ; b - (ii) (iii) (vi)
(2) a - (i) (iii) (vi) ; b - (ii) (iii) (v)
(3) a - (ii) (iv) (v) ; b - (ii) (iii) (vi)
(4) a - (ii) (iv) (v) ; b - (i) (iii) (vi)

84. Imagine the following RNA sequence is translated in the mammalian cytosol and mitochondria.
RNA sequence:
AUG AUA CUG UGA UGA CUU AGG CUC UAA
Following are some putative peptide sequences
Cytosol Mitochondria
(a) Met-Ile-Leu (i) Met-Ile-Leu-Trp-Leu-Arg-Leu
(b) Met-Ile-Leu-Trp-Leu-Arg-Leu (ii) Met-Met-Leu-Trp-Leu
Find out the correct combination of peptides made in the cytosol and mitochondria.
(1) (a) (i) (2) (a) (ii)
(3) (b) (i) (4) (b) (ii)

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

85. In all organisms, it is critical that replication initiation be tightly controlled to ensure that chromosome
number and cell number remain appropriately balanced. Given below are several statements
regarding regulation of replication in E. coli.
(a) Hemimethylation and sequestration of oriC (origin of replication) by a protein called SeqA
prevents initiation of replication.
(b) Availability of DnaA protein is an important requirement for initiation of replication.
(c) The ratio of ADP : ATP is important as high level of ADP is required for initiation of
replication.
(d) Recruitment of Hda protein by sliding clamp inhibits ATP hydrolysis required for initiation
of replication.
Which of the above statements are NOT true ?
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (d) and (a)

86. In E. coli, though DNA polymerase I (Pol I) plays an essential role in the replication process, it
is not the major polymerase. Instead, the enzyme responsible for advancement of replication fork
is Pol III. From the four DNA structures (A, B, C and D) given below, students made several
interpretations about the shorter arm being extended by Pol I and/or Pol III.
(a) PO4-5'—————————3'-PO4 (b) HO-3'—————————5'-PO4
HO-3'———————5'-PO4 HO-5'———————3'-OH
(c) PO4-5'—————————3'-OH (d) PO4-5'———————3'-OH
HO-3————————5'-PO4 HO-3'—————————5'-PO4
Which one of the interpretation written below is correct ?
(1) A will be extended by Pol III but not by Pol I.
(2) Neither B nor C will be extended by either Pol I or Pol III.
(3) C will be extended by both Pol I and Pol III.
(4) D will be extended only by Pol I, but not by Pol III.

87. tRNA genes of a Gram positive bacteria were sequenced. While some of the genes possessed
sequence corresponding to the –CCA end of the tRNA, others did not. Interestingly, even the
genes that lacked the sequence corresponding to the –CCA end of the tRNA were found to code
for a functional tRNA. This is because
(1) the –CCA end in the tRNA is not essential for its function.
(2) the genes that do not possess sequence corresponding to the –CCA ends of the tRNA
are repaired prior to their transcription.
(3) the –CCA end is added to the tRNA during their maturation.
(4) the primary transcripts of the genes lacking sequence corresponding to the –CCA end are
subjected to g-RNA mediated editing prior to their maturation.

88. A construct (shown below) was generated to access the activity of bidirectional promoter (A and
B) which has a common regulatory DNA element (X). The construct was used to transform E.
coli.

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

The activity of the promoter (as shown in the graph below) is recorded in the presence of
increasing levels of an E. coli encoded regulatory protein which binds to DNA element X.

The above experiment is repeated in a mutant E. coli with mutation which abolishes binding of
the regulatory protein to element X. Which one of the following graphs best depicts the activity
of the reporter genes in the mutant strain ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

89. In a type of signal transduction pathway, ligand binding to a receptor triggers activation of a
receptor-associated kinase. This kinase may be an intrinsic part of the receptor protein or tightly
bound to the receptor. Receptors in which the tyrosine kinase in an intrinsic part of it's polypeptide
chain are called the receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK). Which one of the following statements
regarding RTK is INCORRECT ?
(1) All RTKs have three essential components: an extracellular domain containing ligand
binding site, a transmembrane domain and a cytoplasmic segment that includes a domain
with protein tyrosine kinase activity.
(2) Most RTKs are monomeric and ligand binding to the extracellular domain induces formation
of receptor dimers.
(3) All cytokine receptors belong to RTKs and cytokine binding activates tyrosine kinase and
receptor dimerization.
(4) Ligand binding to RTK leads to autophosphorylation of the protein tyrosine kinase in the
cytoplasmic domain. The activated kinase then phosphorylates several tyrosine residues
in the receptor's cytoplasmic domain.

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

90. Two classes of genes - proto-oncogene and tumor suppressor gene usually contribute to the
development of cancer. Following are some of the statements regarding both the genes.
(a) Proto-oncogenes result in the development of cancer by gain-of-function mutation whereas
tumor suppressor gene leads to cancer development by loss-of-function mutation.
(b) Proto-oncogenes result in development of cancer by loss-of-function mutation whereas
tumor suppressor gene leads to cancer development by gain-of-function mutation.
(c) Mutation in both the alleles of a proto-oncogene is required for induction of cancer whereas
mutation in one of the two alleles in tumor suppressor gene is sufficient for promoting
tumorigenesis.
(d) Mutation in one of the two alleles in proto-oncogene is sufficient for induction of cancer
whereas mutation in both the alleles of a tumor suppressor gene is required for promoting
tumorigenesis.
Which combinations of the above statements are true for both the genes ?
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)

91. Two important features which aid the development of a tumor and its metastasis are epithelial-
to-mesenchymal transition and angiogenesis. A student tested four cell lines to determine their
invasiveness and proliferation capability by checking the expression of VEGF-F, TWIST and
Cyclin D1. Which one of the following figures is most likely to exhibit the characteristics of a highly
metastatic cancer cell ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

92. Several types of molecules including the transmembrane glycoproteins can function as matrix
receptors and co-receptors. However, the principal receptors on animal cells for binding most
extracellular matrix proteins are the integrins. Which of the following statements is NOT true for
integrins ?
(1) Integrins are transmembrane linker proteins that link to the cytoskeleton.
(2) An integrin molecule in composed of two non-covalently associated glycoprotein subunits
 and . Both subunits span the cell membrane, with short intracellular C-terminal tails
and large N-terminal extracellular domains.
(3) The extracellular portion of the integrin dimer binds to specific carbohydrate residues in
extracellular matrix proteins or to ligands on the surface of other cells.
(4) The intracellular portion binds to a complex of proteins that form a linkage to the cytoskeleton.

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

93. Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules are encoded by a cluster of genes called MHC
locus. There are several reasons why an MHC molecule on the surface of a cell is important.
Which one of the following reasons in INCORRECT ?
(1) To display self class I to demonstrate that the cell is normal and healthy.
(2) To display foreign-peptide in class I to show that the cell is infected and to engage with
T helper cells
(3) To display a self-peptide in class I and II to test developing T cell for autoreactivity.
(4) To display a self-peptide in class I and II to maintain tolerance to self-proteins.

94. Oncogenic viruses could have either DNA or RNA genomes. Listed below are some oncogenic
viruses (Column A), their genome types (Column B) and the cancers caused by these viruses
(Column C).
A B C
(a) Hepatitis B (i) DNA (x) Burkitt ' s lymphom a
(b) Epstein  Barr Virus (ii) RNA (y) T cell leukaemia
(c) HTLV (z) Hepatocellular carcinoma

Find out the correct combination.

(1) (a) (i) (x), (b) (ii) (y), (c) (ii) (z) (2) (a) (ii) (y), (b) (i) (z), (c) (ii) (x)
(3) (a) (ii) (y), (b) (ii) (z), (c) (i) (y) (4) (a) (i) (z), (b) (i) (x), (c) (ii) (y)

95. Identification of genes that are associated with the development of male and/or female gametophyte
and embryogenesis in plants is facilitated by T-DNA mediated insertional mutagenesis. In an
experiment, a transgenic plant was generated by insertion of T-DNA (containing a Kanamycin-
resistance gene) into a gene "A". Self pollination of the T0 plant generated F1 progeny that
segregated in a 2 : 1 ratio for resistance:sensitivity to Kanamycin. These observations indicate
that
(1) the mutant allele did not segregate from the wild type allele.
(2) mutation in gene "A" induces lethality in the male gametophyte.
(3) mutation in gene "A" induces lethality in the female gametophyte.
(4) mutation in gene "A" induces zygotic lethality.

96. During vulva development in C. elegans, the anchor cell produces Lin-3 protein which interacts
with the Let-33 protein present on the six vulval precursor cells (VPCs) that form an equivalence
group. The central lineage cell (P6.p) adopts the primary fate, the adjacent VPCs (P5.p and P7.p)
adopt the secondary and the rest VPCs adopt the tertiary fate. Few mutants (Column A) and
phenotypes (Column B) are listed in the table given below.
Column A Column B
(a) Loss of function of lin-3 (i) P5.p, P6.p and P7.p adopt primary fate, P4.p
and P8.p adopt secondary fate
(b) Loss of function of lin-3 and (ii) Multivulva
gain of function of let-23
(c) Reduced function of lin-3 (iii) P6.p adopt primary fate and the rest of the
VPCs adopt tertiary fate
(d) Overexpression of lin-3 (iv) All VPCs adopt tertiary fate

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

Match the correct mutant with the observed phenotype.

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

97. C. elegans embryo uses both autonomous and conditional modes of specification. Conditional
specification at the 4-cell stage can be seen in the development of the endoderm cell lineage and
also in the establishment of dorsal-ventral axis. Following are few statements regarding this :
(A) If the P2 cell is removed at the early 4-cell stage, the EMS cell will divide into two MS cells
and no endoderm will be made.
(B) In pop-I deficient embryos, both EMS daughter cells become E cells.
(C) When the position of ABa and ABp was reversed, their fates get reversed and no normal
embryo forms.
(D) In embryos whose mother have mutant glp-1. ABp is transformed into ABa cell.
Which of the above statements are true ?
(1) (A), (B) and (D) (2) (A), (B) and (C)
(3) (B), (C) and (D) (4) (A), (C) and (D)

98. Following are the events that might take place during dorso-ventral axis specification in early
embryonic development of Drosophila :
(a) 'Torpedo' receptor activation
(b) 'Pipe' synthesis
(c) A cascade of protease activity
(d) 'Cactus' dephosphorylation
(e) Entry of 'Dorsal' in the nuclei of syncytial blastoderm stage embryo.
Which combination of the above events will occur in the presumptive dorsal side of the embryo
deficient in material gurken ?
(1) (a) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (b), (c) and (e) only (4) (b), (c), (d) and (e) only

99. What would be the effect on new limb regeneration, if more than 90% of the nerve supply is
severed before amputation ?
(1) The apical ectodermal cap stimulates growth of the blastema by secreting FGF8 but
regeneration does not take place
(2) Limb regeneration will take place and form a limb with no nerve supply.
(3) Outgrowth will occur but the identity of the limb formed will be lost with no clear anterior-
posterior polarity.
(4) Limb regeneration with nerve supply will take place.

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

100. Fertilization in sea urchin involves interaction of sperm Bindin with its receptor EBR1, a 350 kDa
glycoprotein on the egg vitelline membrane. The plot given below shows the status of membrane
potential and levels of EBR1, Na+ and K+ in an unfertilized egg.

Which one of the following graphs best represents the condition within an egg 1-3 seconds after
fertilization ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

101. A specific Mitogen Activated Protein Kinase (MAPK) cascade comprising MEKK1 (a MAP3K),
MKK1 (a MAP2K) and MPK6 (a MAPK) is activated sequentially in that order in Arabidopsis plants
upon perceiving certain abiotic stress stimuli. The activated MPK6 phosphorylates and activates
a transcription factor 'X', thereby making plant tolerant to the abiotic stress. Two different variants
of MKK1 protein, a kinase inactive (KI) and a constitutively active (CA) forms were expressed
independently in mkk1 mutant Arabidopsis plant. Considering above facts, which one of the
following statements is CORRECT ?
(1) 'X' will be activated even in the absence of stimuli in CA plants
(2) 'X' will not be activated in the absence of stimuli in CA plants
(3) 'X' will be activated in the absence of stimuli in KI plants
(4) The KI plants will be tolerant to the abiotic stress.
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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

102. Given below are some statements on secondary metabolites in plants.

(a) Glucosinolates are synthesized by elongation in the length of side chains of their precursor
amino acids.
(b) All terpenes produced in herbs and spices are sticky, oily liquids which reduces the
palatability (edible value) of these plants.
(c) Cyanogenic glycosides are produced and stored in a toxic form in plants and are therefore
more effective in defense against invading pathogens and herbivores.
(d) The defense molecules, alkaloids (or their precursors), are gathered from plants and used
by some insects for their own protection against predators.
Which one of the following represents correct statements ?
(1) (b) and (c) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (c) only (4) (a) and (d) only

103. A researcher developed quadruple mutant that disrupted the function of all phytochrome interacting
factor (PIF) family members. The following hypotheses were proposed regarding the phenotype
of the mutant plants when grown in dark :
(a) Plants would show short hypocotyls
(b) Plants would be etiolated
(c) Light induced genes would be activated
(d) The cotyledons would be open
Which one of the following combinations of the above hypotheses is correct ?
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)

104. The photon intensity captured by green plants is used in the following processes :
(i) Photosynthesis
(ii) Generation of heat
(iii) Production of toxic products such as superoxide, singlet oxygen etc.
(iv) Damage to D1 protein of PSII
Based on the above facts, photoinhibition will happen when the
(1) entire photon intensity is used for photosynthesis
(2) excess photon intensity is completely used for heat generation
(3) excess photon intensity is used for heat generation and formation of toxic products
(4) excess photon intensity leads to the damage of D1 protein

105. With reference to plant biotic interactions, match the terms of Column I with the most appropriate
term of Column II
Column I Column II
(a) Phytoliths of Poaceae (i) Phloem feeders
(b) Salicylic acid signalling pathway (ii) Decrease in stomatal aperture
(c) MAMP (iii) R genes/NBs-LRR receptor
(d) Effector-triggered immunity (iv) Mechanical barrier to herbivory
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

106. Transgenic tobacco plants over-expressing isopentenyl transference (IPT) under the control of
promoter region of Senescence-Associated Receptor kinase (PSARK) were exposed to drought for
15 days followed by rewatering for 7 days. The following hypotheses were proposed regarding
changes in the transgenic plants at the end of 7 days of re-watering :
(a) The plants would be wilted and fail to survive.
(b) The plants would be healthy and survive.
(c) The plants would show higher production of cytokinin compared to wild type plants.
(d) The plants would show higher production of absicic acid compared to wild type plants.
Which one of the following combinations of the above hypothesis is correct ?
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (b) and (d)

107. The following statements describe the possible functions of the outer hair cells (OHC) of organ
of Corti :
(a) The outer hair cells (OHC) are depolarized or hyperpolarized depending on the direction
of movement of stereocilia.
(b) The OHC are lengthened in depolarization and shortened in hyperpolarization
(c) The OHC decrease the amplitude and clarity of sound by shortening and lengthening.
(d) The effect nerve fibers of olivocochlear bundle modulate the sensitivity of the OHC
(e) The effect of stimulation of olivocochlear bundle on the OHC is excitatory.
Which one of the options given below represents the correct statements ?
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (d) and (e)

108. The pacemaker cells of sinoatrial node (SA node) are inhibited by the stimulation of vagus nerve.
The probable mechanisms of this inhibition are stated as follows :
(a) The acetylcholine-regulated K+ channels are activated
(b) The outwards K+ causes hyperpolarization of pacemaker cells
(c) The inward "funny current" of pacemaker potential is increased
(d) The increased intracellular cAMP, induced by activation of M2 muscarinic receptors, slows
the opening of Ca+ channels
Choose the answer with correct statements.
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (b) (4) (c) and (d)

109. In the glomerular capillary (GC), fluid moves into Bowman's capsule through its almost entire
length. But in the muscle capillary (MC), fluid moves into interstitial space at its arteriolar end. The
difference between these two capillaries is explained in the following proposed statements :
(a) Afferent and efferent arterioles are present on the two ends of GC, but in MC, arteriole and
venule are present on two ends.
(b) The hydrostatic pressure in GC is higher than that in MC.
(c) The efferent arteriole in GC has a relatively low resistance, but venules in MC has a high
resistance.
(d) The difference of hydrostatic pressure between two ends of GC is relatively more but it
is negligible in MC.
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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

(e) The difference of oncotic pressure between two ends of MC is negligible but it is relatively
more in GC.
(f) The net filtration pressure falls to zero at the efferent end of GC but it is 9 mm Hg inward
at the venular end of MC.
Which of the above statements are INCORRECT ?
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (e) and (f) (4) (b) and (f)

110. When a skeletal muscle was passively stretched, it contracted reflexly. However, when the
muscle was over stretched in this way it showed sudden cessation of contraction followed by
relaxation. The following statements provided the possible explanation of these observations :
(a) The passive stretching of muscle caused stretching of muscle spindle
(b) The over stretching of muscle stimulated Golgi tendon organ
(c) Group 1b sensory nerve fibers were stimulated by stretching of muscle spindle
(d) Group 1b sensory nerve fibers stimulated -motor neurons that supplied the muscle from
which these fibers arose.
(e) Group 1a sensory nerve fibers were connected to Golgi tendon organ.
(f) The stimulation of group 1a sensory fibers led to the production of IPSP on the -motor
neurons that supplied the muscle from which these fibers arose.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct ?
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (e) and (f) (4) (c) and (f)

111. Relative rates of red blood cells production in bone marrow of different bones of different ages
are shown below :
Identify the correct figure.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

112. The below figure depicts the regulation of hypothalamo-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. Changes in
cortisol level in Addison's disease can lead to

(1) suppressed immune system and increased blood glucose level

(2) gain of body weight and lightening of skin
(3) loss of body weight, reduced blood glucose level and hyperpigmentation
(4) increased blood glucose and activated immune system

113. The following table shows mapping data from three interrupted mating experiments using three
different Hfr strains and an F– strain :
Appearance of genes in F- cells
Hfr 1 Genes e+ f+ c+ d+ b+
Time 6 24 34 49 54
+ + + +
Hfr 2 Genes b d c f g+
Time 1 6 21 31 63
Hfr 3 Genes d+ c+ f+ e+ g+
Time 4 19 29 47 61
(Time is represented in minutes)
The following answers are derived :
The order of genes is
(a) e g b d c f
(b) f g b d c e
The distance between
(c) f and g is 32 min and between f and b is 30 min
(d) c and e is 28 min and between b and c is 20 min
The correct combination of answers is
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (b) (4) (b) and (d)

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

114. The inheritance of a given disorder is recorded in three small families shown below :

Based on the above limited information, which one of the following inheritance pattern best
explains the observations ?
(1) X-linked recessive (2) X-linked dominant
(3) Autosomal recessive (4) Autosomal dominant

115. A new mutant called early ripening (EL) is identified in a plant. The wild type phenotype is late
ripening (LR). Further DNA marker(s) is/are observed to be polymorphic between EL and LR
plants. A cross was made between pure lines of LR and ER. The F1 progeny was test crossed
and its progeny was analyzed. The parental, F1 and progeny of test cross were also analyzed
for the DNA marker. The table below summarizes the phenotype of the progeny and the pattern
of DNA marker observed in each case :

Generation Parent F1 Progeny of test cross

Phenotype ER LR LR only LR ER
No. of progeny 52 43
Patterm of
— — — —
DNA marker
on gel
— — — — — —
electrophoresis
No. of progeny for
25 27 23 25
each pattern
Based on the above information, the following statements were made :
(a) LR is dominant to ER
(b) The DNA marker used is a dominant marker
(c) The DNA marker is linked to the phenotype
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) only

116. In Burkitt's Lymphoma a reciprocal translocation between chromosome 8 and 14 is observed. If

an individual is heterozygous for this translocation, the consequence in meiosis will be as follows:
(a) Four chromosomes, i.e., normal chromosome 8 and 14, and translocated chromosome
8 and 14, pair together
(b) The two normal chromosomes 8 and 14, and two translocated chromosomes pair
separately
(c) All gametes produced from this meiosis are non-viable as they have deletions and
duplications

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

(d) In one of the cross configuration called "alternate segregation" all gametes having normal
or translocated chromosomes, survive
(e) The gametes having normal chromosomes only survive while and gametes having
translocated chromosomes are non-viable, hence the translocations are used as crossover
suppressors
Which of the following combinations best describes the meiotic consequences for the translocation
described above ?
(1) (b) and (e) (2) (b), (c) and (e)
(3) (a), (c) and (e) (4) (a) and (d)

117. In Drosophila, Bar eye (B) is a dominant mutation while miniature wing (m) and yellow body
colour (y) are recessive mutations. Heterozygous females for these mutations were crossed to
normal eyed miniature winged and yellow body coloured males. Assume the following progeny
was obtained :

Phenotypes Number
B m  y  30
Bmy 
25
Bm y  
165
B my
 
120
Bmy 20
B my

185
Bm y 
110
B m y
 
45
Based on the results obtained, the order of genes will be :
(a) B m y
(b) m B y
The genetic distance between B and y will be :
(c) 40 cM
(d) 17.1cM
The correct combination of answer is
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (b) and (d)

118. Two inbred lines of beans were intercrossed. In F1 the variance in bean length was measured
as 2.0. The F1 was selfed to obtain F2 and the variance in bean length in F2 was 7.0. The broad
heritability of bean length in the F2 population will be :
(1) 0.75 (2) 9.0
(3) 5.0 (4) 0.71

119. Euphorbiaceae generally represents milky sap bearing plants but there are also some non-milky
sap bearing plants that belong to this family. Identify the correct combination of the following given
plants which belong to family Euphorbiaceae.
(1) Terminalia bellirica, Euphorbia hirta, Nerium indicum
(2) Mallotus philippense, Ficus religiosa, Ricinus communis
(3) Mallotus philippense, Acalypha indica, Emblica officinalis
(4) Acalypha indica, Ricinus communis, Mangifera indica

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

120. Given below are statements on key characteristics of two fungal lineages.
(a) Microsporidia do not have true mitochondria
(b) Most chytrids produce flagellated gametes
(c) Microsporidia are usually free-living
(d) Chytrids reproduce sexually without a dikaryon stage
Choose the combination with correct statements
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (a) and (b) only

121. Match the two columns that represent plant organs (I) and parts within these organs (II).
Column I Column II
(a) Carpel (i) Petals, corolla
(b) Perianth (ii) Vegetative cell, generative cell
(c) Microsporocyte (iii) Stigma, style, ovary
(d) Megasporocyte (iv) Antipodal cells, polar nuclei, synergid cells
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

122. Given below are larval stages and phylum to which they belong. Select the INCORRECT
combination.
(1) Parenchyma and Amphiblastula - Phylum Porifera
(2) Bipinnaria and Auricularia - Phylum Echinodermata
(3) Tornasia and Axolotl - Phylum Hemichordata
(4) Planula and Ephyra - Phylum Cnidara

123. During the course of evolution, the jawbones got modified into three ear ossicles in mammals.
Which one of the following is a correct match of all three ear ossicles and their jawbones ?
(1) stapes – articular; incus – quadrate; malleus – hyomandibular.
(2) stapes – quadrate; incus – articular; malleus – hyomandibular.
(3) stapes – articular; incus – hyomandibular; malleus – quadrate
(4) stapes – hyomandibular; incus – quadrate; malleus – articular

124. Three species M, N and O when grown independently in a laboratory showed typical logistic
growth curves. However, when grown in pairs, the following growth curves were observed.

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

What interpretation regarding the interspecific relationship between M, N and O can be deduced
from the above observations ?
(1) N predates over O and therefore can also predate on M.
(2) N is competed out by M and O.
(3) N and O possibly have a prey-predator relationship.
(4) M and O exhibit prey-predator relationship.

125. Temporal isolation in breeding seasons between closely related species leads to reproductive
isolation. Given below are breeding seasons of different species of frogs.

Which of the above plots represents temporal isolation in breeding seasons among closely
related sympatric species ?
(1) Plot A (2) Plots A and B
(3) Plots B and C (4) Plots and C

126. Given below are the population pyramids of three different population A, B and C depicting the
relationship between birth and death rates in each.

Based on the population pyramids given above, which one of the following is INCORRECT ?
(1) Population B has slower growth rate than population A.
(2) Population C has birth rate higher than its death rate
(3) Population A represents a rapidly growing population
(4) Population B has the highest death rate among the three populations

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

127. Given below are names of some of the National Parks of India and their key protected animals.
Name of the National Park Key Protected Animal
(a) Dibru-Saikhowa National Park, (i) Indian Rhinoceros
Assam
(b) Jaldapara National Park, (ii) Hangul
West Bengal
(c) Mukurthi National Park, (iii) Feral Horse
Tamil Nadu
(d) Dachigam National Park, (iv) Asiatic Lion
Jammu and Kashmir
(e) Gir Forest National Park, (v) Nilgiri Tahr
Gujarat
Based on the table given above, which of the following options represents the correct match ?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (v)
(2) (i) (ii) (v) (iii) (iv)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(4) (iii) (i) (v) (ii) (iv)

128. Given below are two patterns of ecological succession. Four species are represented by A, B,
C and D. An arrow indicates "is replaced by".

In the context of ecological succession, which of the following statements is INCORRECT with
respect to the figures given above.
(1) Model – X represents facilitation model and
Model – Y represents tolerance model.
(2) Model – X represents tolerance model and
Model – Y represents inhibition model.
(3) As per Model – Y, C can out-compete B but can also invade a habitat in their absence
(4) As per the Model – X, A makes the environments more suitable for B to invade.

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

129. Given below we the species accumulation curves and rarefaction curves measured in an ecological
community.

Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT about the two curves ?
(1) Species accumulation curve moves from left to right and rarefaction curve moves from
right to left.
(2) Species accumulation curve represents the total species richness of the assemblage.
(3) Rarefaction curve represents the mean of repeated resampling of all pooled samples.
(4) Rarefaction curve is the realized accumulation value of the total species in a community.

130. A gene 'X' in Drosophila contributes to inviability of hybrids. The phylogeny below shows the
evolutionary history of gene 'X' and on each branch the numbers indicate the non-synonymous/
synonymous substitutions.

Based on the above information, select the correct statement from the choices below :
(1) High proportion of non-synonymous changes at A indicates evolution by natural selection.
(2) High proportion of synonymous changes at A indicates absence of natural selection.
(3) Equal proportion of non-synonymous and synonymous changes at B indicates deleterious
selection.
(4) Low proportion of non-synonymous changes at C indicates positive selection.

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

131. When the electrical response of the two receptors A1 and A2 in a noctuid moth that was exposed
to a variety of sounds was measured, it produced the following patterns :

Given this, which one of the following statements is INCORRECT :

(1) The A1 receptor is sensitive to sound of low to high intensity.
(2) A2 receptor begins to produce action potentials only when a sound is loud.
(3) Both the receptors have similar response to high intensity sound.
(4) The A1 receptor fires much more frequently to steady, uninterrupted sounds than to high
frequency pulses of sound.

132. A barn owl sits on its perch 10m above ground. It hears a mouse underneath on the ground at
an angle  as shown in the figure below.

The error range with which it can locate the mouse on the ground is given by
(1) tan = X/H (2) cos = X/H
(3) sin = X/H (4) cos = X/C

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

133. A 20-week old infant was exposed to the following stimuli and the responses were measured.
Stimuli Mean No. of responses elicited

100

   15

25

10

Based on the response patterns shown above to the given stimuli, select the correct theory that
best describe the observed responses.
(1) Heterogenous summation (2) Gestalt principle
(3) Supernormal stimuli (4) Sign stimulus

134. When James R Brown and W Ford Doolittle (1997) reconstructed the tree of life using a variety
of different genes, they found that different genes gave fundamentally different phylogenies as
shown below. Note that the genes are unique to the specific trees.

From the given options select the process that best explains the observed discrepancies between
the trees.
(1) polyploidization (2) horizontal gene transfer
(3) allopatric speciation (4) localized extinctions

135. Orchids of the genus Cryptostylis are known to maintain reproductive isolation because their
flowers look and smell like females of the wasps of genus Lissopimpla. When the male wasp
visits and attempts to mate with the flower, the shape of anther and stigma allows correct
placement and transfer of pollen to the wasp, which then transfers the pollen to species specific
flower that it next attempts to mate with. This prezygotic barrier that prevents inter-species cross-
pollination in Cryptostylic is best explained by :
(1) behavioural isolation through mimicry
(2) mechanical isolation through mimicry
(3) temporal isolation
(4) habitat isolation

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

136. Some of the following transgenic approaches could be used for functional characterization of
endogenous genes in plants :
(a) Transformation using a binary vector containing a strong enhancer element and lacking
the right border of T-DNA
(b) Transformation using a binary vector containing a promoter-less reporter gene sequence
and a selection maker gene cassette within the T-DNA.
(c) Transformation using a binary vector containing only a strong enhancer element and a
selection marker gene cassette within the T-DNA.
(d) Transformation using a binary vector lacking a reporter gene as well as both the left and
right borders of T-DNA.
Which one of the following combinations can be used ?
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (c) and (d) only (4) (a) and (d) only

137. Match the following Vir proteins with their correct function during Agrobacterium mediated transfer
of T-DNA to plant cells.
Vir Protein Function
(a) Vir G (i) Nucleus targeting of T-DNA
(b) Vir D2 (ii) Component of membrane structure (transfer
apparatus) for T-DNA transfer
(c) Vir B1 (iii) Proteasome mediated destruction of proteins
coating T-DNA complex
(d) Vir F (iv) Induction of Vir genes
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

138. Match the technique with its appropriate application/use from the list of options given below
Technique Application
(a) ChIP (i) Analysis of methylation sites
(b) Bisulphite sequencing (ii) Identification of 5' and/or 3' ends of transcripts
(d) ELISA (iii) Identification of binding sites of transcription
factors
(d) RLM-RACE (iv) Quantification of transgene expression
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

139. A researcher attempted to clone a 630bp coding sequence of a gene downstream to a bacterial
promoter (500bp in length) for over expression and purification of the encoded protein. The gene
sequence was isolated as a SmaI fragment (Recognition sequence: CCCGGG; arrow indicates
the site of restriction) and cloned at a SmaI site located downstream to the promoter. The gene
sequence contained a single site for EcoRI located 30bp downstream to the start codon. A
schematic representation of the plasmid along with locations(s) of some restriction enzyme sites
of the vector is given below.

The researcher screened the obtained colonies by a double digestion using HindIII and EcoRI.
Which one of the following restriction digestion patterns would represent the restriction profile of
the desired clone that could be used for overexpression ?
(1) ~530bp + ~600bp + vector backbone
(2) ~1100bp + ~30bp + vector backbone
(3) ~500bp + vector backbone
(4) ~1130bp + vector backbone

140. To achieve a best resolution using a fluorescence microscope, what combination of wavelength
of emitted light (), refractive index and the angle (2) by which light enters into the microscope
would be the best choice for the user :
(1)  = 405; refractive index = 1.33; 2 = 90°
(2)  = 420; refractive index = 1.51; 2 = 180°
(3)  = 520; refractive index = 1.51; 2 = 90°
(4)  = 405; refractive index = 1.51; 2 = 180°

141. Given below are spatial and temporal techniques (column I) used to detect brain activity (column II)
Column I Column II
(a) Functional magnetic (i) Uses short-lived radioactive material to map
resonance imaging functional processes in brain
(b) Position emission tomography (ii) Measure the fluctuation of dipole voltage in
neurons of brain
(c) Computed tomography (iii) Detects changes in blood oxygenation and
flow due to neural activity
(d) Electroence-phalogram (iv) Images of brain obtained by differential
absorption of X-rays
Select the correct set of combination
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

142. Following observations are made regarding a peptide sequence.

 The peptide is inert to Ellman's reagent.
However, on reacting with -mercaptoethanol, the peptide gives a positive Ellman's test.
 The peptide sequence gives a broad minimum around 211 nm in the CD spectrum.
 With increasing concentration of the peptide, the melting temperature of the peptide
increases.
 On treating the peptide with D2O, half the total number of amides get exchanged.
Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(1) It is an -helical peptide that undergoes aggregation
(2) It is an -helical disulfide bridged peptide that undergoes aggregation
(3) It is an -hairpin peptide, which is stabilized by a disulfide bridge
(4) The peptide is composed of an -helix and -sheet connected by a disulfide bridge

143. If a metabolically active cell is challenged with 55Fe radioisotope label, which of the following
proteins CANNOT be detected by autoradiography ?
(1) Aconitase and lipoic acid synthase
(2) Cytochrome C and DNA primase
(3) Calmodulin and Calcineurin
(4) Myoglobin and Homoaconitase

144. Diagnosis of influenza virus infections can be done using some of the following techniques :
(a) Western blot and Southern blot
(b) Northern blot and western blot
(c) ELISA and RT-PCR
(d) PCR and electron microscopy
Choose the combination of techniques that correctly lists the detection methods.
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a) and (d) only

145. From the following statements :

(a) Coloured images can be obtained by transmission electron microscopy by fluorescent
labelling of the specimen
(b) Scanning electron microscopy requires sectioning of the sample
(c) Confocal microscopy uses optical methods to obtain images from a specific focal plane
and excludes light from other planes
(d) Differential-interference microscopy relies on interference between polarized light due to
differences in the refractive index of the object and surrounding medium
(e) Visualization in epifluorescence microscopy requires staining by heavy metal atoms
Choose the combination with two correct and one incorrect statements.
(1) (b), (c), (e) (2) (a), (b), (e)
(3) (a), (c), (d) (4) (b), (d), (e)

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 Life Sciences (PSP-2017 Dec.)

ANSWER KEY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
1 4 2 2 2 2 4 2 2 2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
3 2 2 2 2 1 1 2 1 1
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
4 3 1 4 3 1 2 1 3 1
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
2 3 4 1 1 4 1 3 1 1
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
1 1 3 2 4 3 3 4 3 1
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
2 4 2 2 1 3 2 4 3 1
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
1 3 1 3 1 3 3 3 3 4
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
1 3 3 4 2 3 4 1 1 2
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
4 3 3 2 3 2 3 4 3 3
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
4 3 2 4 4 1 1 3 1 3
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
1 4 3 4 4 3 3 3 2 1
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
1 3 1 3 1 4 2 4 3 2
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
4 3 4 3 3 2 4 2 4 1
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
4 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 4
141 142 143 144 145
2 3 3 3 3

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