Questions on Paper: PC-5 / Topic :

CCS(CCA)
1 A Government servant was placed under 6 A Presenting Officer is the same as
suspension on 2.12.2010. The first review of the (A) Disciplinary Authority
Review Committee should be completed by
(B) Appellate Authority
(A) 28.2.2011
(C) Revising Authority
(B) 1.3.2011
(D) None of these
(C) 30.5.2011
(D) None of these 7 For the only proven misconduct of defalcation of
cash, pay of a cashier was reduced by two stages
2 A- Censure and B-Suspension are both penalties for 5 years, and later on he was dismissed
under CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965. because the quantum of money was large.
(A) Only A is penalty (A) The action is in order, as quantum of money was large.
(B) Only B is penalty (B) The action is in order but quantum of money does not
(C) Both A & B are penalties matter.

(D) None of these are penalties (C) The action is not in order, as it is unconstitutional.
(D) The action is not in order but the reasoning is not right.
3 Procedure for imposing major penalty is detailed
under Rule ______ of CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965. 8 Defendant can hire a legal practitioner as
(A) Rule 16 Defending Assistant…

(B) Rule 15 (A) In all cases

(C) Rule 14 (B) Only when permitted by the Disciplinary Authority

(D) None of these (C) Only when the Presenting Officer is a legal practitioner.
(D) Both B & C
4 An order of suspension cannot be appealed
against. 9 A Govt. servant under suspension, has appealed.
(A) True Pending completion of disciplinary proceedings,
he has been promoted.
(B) False
(A) Action is in order, as suspension is not penalty under
Rule 11.
(B) Action is not in order, as Govt. servant is not
discharging official duties
5 Reviewing Authority under CCS (CCA) Rules,
(C) Action is not in order, as appeal is under consideration.
1965 is
(D) Action is not in order, as only 'Sealed Cover'
(A) CAG in the case of IA&AD
procedure must be followed.
(B) Secretary of the Ministry concerned
(C) same as Disciplinary Authority
(D) President of India

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10 In a proven case of illegal gratification, a low 14 The procedure for imposing Minor and Major
paid Govt. servant is dismissed from service penalties is the same in all cases.
after following procedure under Rule 14. (A) The statement is true. Only the penalty varies, the
(A) Action is in order, as per proviso under Rule 11. procedure remains the same.
(B) Action is not in order, as the Disciplinary Authority has (B) The statement is true, because Principles of Natural
not applied its mind. Justice should be adhered to at all times.
(C) Action is too harsh. (C) The statement is not true, Disciplinary Authority has
(D) The case should have been referred to a Court of Law. the discretion to dispense with formal inquiry in major or
minor penalty case.

11 Dies non is (D) The statement is not true, full fledged inquiry can be
dispensed with in certain cases in minor penalty
(A) Major Penalty
proceedings.
(B) Minor Penalty
(C) Not a penalty 15 A full fledged inquiry is mandatory, irrespective
(D) A period which counts for pension of whether the charged official has accepted the
charges against him or not.
12 A person under suspension, pending enquiry in a (A) The statement is true.
major penalty proceeding not involving moral (B) The statement is true, because Principles of Natural
turpitude, tendered his resignation. His Justice should be adhered to at all times.
resignation was accepted.
(C) The statement is not true, Disciplinary Authority has
(A) The action is not in order. Suspension should have the discretion to dispense with formal inquiry.
been first revoked.
(D) The statement is not true, no purpose will be served
(B) The action is in not in order. The proceeding should by conducting inquiry when charges have been accepted.
have been first completed.
(C) The action is in order. 16 After following due procedure under rule 14/15
(D) The action is not in order. The Disciplinary of CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965, major penalty was
proceedings should have been first dropped. imposed by the Presenting Officer under powers
delegated to him by the Disciplinary Authority.
13 A Disciplinary Authority reduced the (A) The action is not in order, as Disciplinary Authority
subsistence allowance of a suspended official cannot delegate his powers to a subordinate authority.
from Rs. 6000 p.m. to Rs. 2500 p.m., citing poor (B) The action is in order, as misconduct was proved. Who
cooperation of the suspended official. signed the order does not matter.
(A) The action is in order, as Disciplinary Authority has (C) The action is in order, as due procedure was followed.
power to reduce the subsistence allowance.
(D) The action is in order, but for reasons not specified
(B) The action is not in order, as the subsistence allowance here.
cannot be brought below Rs. 3000 p.m. in this case.
(C) The action is not in order, as the Disciplinary Authority 17 An appointing authority reverted an official from
has no right to reduce the subsistence allowance to the a higher post for administrative reasons. The
disadvantage of a suspended official. reverted official appealed to higher authority.
(D) The action can be taken only by Appellate Authority. (A) No appeal lies, as reversion is not penalty.
(B) Reversion is incorrect, as proceedings under CCA
Rules have not been followed.
(C) The right of appeal vests in the official reverted, though
reversion for administrative reasons is not penalty.
(D) Reversion for administrative reasons is not maintainable.

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18 A Preliminary Inquiry is mandatory in all major 23 1/12th of the members of the Vidhan Parishad
penalty cases. are to be elected
(A) True (A) from a graduate constituency
(B) False (B) . amongst the graduate university of the State
(C) from the graduates of any university in any State of
India, who have been residing in the State and who have
been graduate of at least three years standing

19 No action is to be taken if an official is detained (D) none of the above.

in police custody for a period exceeding 48 hours.
(A) True 24 The ordinances issued by the Governor are
subject to the approval by
(B) False
(A) President
(B) Chief Minister
(C) State Legislature
20 A defence assistant cannot handle more than 3 (D) none of above.
cases at a time.
(A) True 25 Which one of the following authorities is
competent to seek the advisory opinion of the
(B) False Supreme Court of India?
(A) The Parliament of India
(B) The Governor of State
(C) The Prime Minister of India
21 An Order of President of India cannot be
appealed against. (D) The President of India.

(A) True
26 The Vidhan Sabha has a term of
(B) False
(A) five years
(B) four years
(C) five years unless dissolved earlier

22 If the Governor wishes to relinquish the office (D) three years unless dissolved earlier.
before the expiry of his term, he may address his
resignation to 27 The Legislature of the State consists of
(A) Chief Minister of the State (A) Governor, Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad
(B) Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly (B) Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad
(C) President (C) Governor and Vidhan Sabha
(D) Prime Minister. (D) none of the above.

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28 The Vidhan Parishad 32 The tenure of Gram Panchayat and Nagar-palika
(A) has term of six years shall be for

(B) is a permanent body not subjected to dissolution, 1/3rd (A) three years
of its members retire every second year (B) four years
(C) is a body representing certain interests in the share (C) five years, unless dissolved earlier
whose members have a term of six years (D) co-extensive with the term of legislative assembly
(D) is a permanent body.
33 Reservation for women in Panchayat and
29 Which of the following statements is incorrect : Nagarpalika is
(A) No person can be returned to Vidhan Sabha unless he (A) 30 per cent
is of 25 years of age (B) 50 percent
(B) No person can be retained to Vidhan Parishad unless (C) 40 per cent
he is of 35years of age
(D) None of the above.
(C) No person can be returned to Vidhan Sabha unless his
name is registered in the constituency from which he seeks
34 The panchayats are authorized
election
(A) to levy taxes, duties, levy and appropriate the same
(D) None of the above.
(B) the panchayats have no power to levy taxes
30 The President Rule in a State is imposed for the (C) the panchayats are entitled to only grants from the
period of Government
(A) 3 months (D) to levy, collect and appropriate such taxes, duties tolls
and fees as they are authorized by the Governments.
(B) 6 months
(C) till the next election is held
35 It is obligatory for all States to have
(D) it depends upon the President's wish.
(A) three-tier system

31 The Constitution of India is federal in character (B) two-tier system

because (C) some States are exempted from establishing three-tier
system
(A) the head of the State (President) is elected by the
electoral college consisting of the elected members of both (D) it is optional for the States.
the Houses of Parliament and elected members of
Legislative Assemblies of the States 36 A Union Territory is administered by
(B) The Governors of the States are appointed by the (A) President of India directly
President and they hold office during the pleasure of the
(B) by the Governor of the territory
President
(C) by the Chief Minister and his Council of Ministers
(C) there is distribution of power between Union and the
State (D) by the President of India through an administrator
appointed by him called Lieutenant Governor.
(D) the amendment of the Constitution can be made only
by following the procedure laid down in the Constitution.
37 National Capital Territory of Delhi has been
constituted by
(A) 71st Amendment
(B) 69th Amendment
(C) Ordinance promulgated by the President
(D) Ordinance promulgated by the Lieutenant Governor.

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38 Chairman and other members of the Union and 43 Which Union Territory has altered its name
State Public Service Commissions are appointed recently?
by (A) Bangalore
(A) the President (B) Uttaranchal
(B) the President and Governor of respective States (C) Delhi
(C) the Prime Minister and Chief Ministers of respective (D) Pondicherry.
States
(D) Both A & C 44 From which of the countries, Constitution of
India has adopted fundamental duties
39 Who nominates the Chairman of Public (A) USA
Accounts Committee of Indian Parliament
(B) Canada
(A) Prime Minister
(C) Erstwhile USSR
(B) President
(D) UK.
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha. 45 The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas
of Preamble from the
40 Seats in Lok Sabha are not reserved for (A) Italian Constitution
(A) Scheduled Castes (B) Canadian Constitution
(B) Scheduled Tribes (C) French Constitution
(C) Scheduled Tribes in autonomous districts of Assam (D) Constitution of USA.
(D) Anglo-Indian.
46 In which case, it was held by the Supreme Court
41 The'Central Government gives grants-in-aid to that `Preamble is the basic feature of the
the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India Constitution'?
on the basis of recommendation of the (A) In re Golaknath case
(A) Planning Commission (B) In re Maneka Gandhi
(B) Finance Commission (C) In re Swarn Singh
(C) Public Accounts Committee (D) In re Keshwananda Bharti.
(D) Estimates Committee.
47 Sovereignty under Constitution belongs to
42 The total number of languages in the 8th (A) the President
Schedule of Constitution increased to 22 by the:
(B) the Parliament
(A) Constitution 92nd Amendment of December, 2003
(C) the People
(B) Constitution 91st Amendment of December, 2003
(D) the Executant, Judiciary and Legislature.
(C) Constitution 90th Amendment of December, 2003
(D) Constitution 89th Amendment of December, 2003 48 The President of India is elected
(A) by way of people representation
(B) by an electoral college consisting of the elected
members of both the Houses of Parliament and by the
representatives of Central and State Legislature
(C) directed by the people
(D) the Prime Minister appoints him.

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49 The term of President expires 55 In the election of the President, each Member of
(A) five years from the date of entering to the office the electoral college has

(B) four years from the date of his entering to the office (A) one vote

(C) five years from the date of declaring the results (B) as many votes as there are candidate

(D) till the life time. (C) one vote with value attached to it
(D) one vote with value attached to it and he can give as
50 The Supreme Commander of Armed Forces is many preferences as there are candidates.

(A) the President of India

56 All matters relating to, or connected with the
(B) Prime Minister of India election of the President including an election
(C) Council of Ministers petition are enquired into and decided by
(D) Chief of Army Staff. (A) a tribunal constituted for the purpose of Election of
President
51 The President can be removed by the way of (B) any High Court where the petition is moved
impeachment which can be made only
(C) a committee specially constituted for the purpose by
(A) by the Supreme Court the Rajya Sabha
(B) by the Rajya Sabha (D) the Supreme Court of India.
(C) by the Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(D) cannot be impeached. 57 The term of the office of Vice President is
(A) five years from the date on which he enters upon his
52 The President of India is office
(A) Commander-in-Chief of Defence Forces (B) five years from the date on which he takes oath of the
office
(B) Supreme Commander of Armed Forces
(C) five years from the date of his election is announced
(C) Head of the Government
(D) five years later from the date on which he enters upon
(D) Supreme Commander of Defence Forces of the Union
his office.
and Executive Head of the Union.

58 In regard to the qualifications for the election of

53 The Constitution of India vests vast powers in
Vice President, which of the following
the President. These powers and functions make
statements is incorrect
him
(A) he should be citizen of India
(A) almost a dictator
(B) he should have attained the age of 35 years
(B) a benevolent ruler
(C) he should not hold the office of profit
(C) real head of the Government
(D) he should be qualified to be a Member of Lok Sabha.
(D) a nominal constitutional head.

59 The ex-officio Chairman of the Council of State

54 The President of India is elected
is
(A) directly
(A) the President of India
(B) indirectly
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) indirectly by secret ballot
(C) Vice-President
(D) indirectly by secret ballot and by proportional
(D) non of the above
representation system by means of single transferable vote.

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60 The power to dissolve the Lok Sabha is vested 65 The President of India is elected by an electoral
with college consisting of
(A) President of India on the advise of Prime Minister (A) elected members of the Council of State and House of
(B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha People

(C) Council of Ministers (B) elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and
the State Assemblies
(D) Lt. Governors of the Union territories
(C) members of the Council of States, State Legislative
Councils and Members of Union Territorial Assemblies.
61 Give correct response to
(D) members of municipalities, local bodies and Panchayat,
(A) The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to
graduate of three years standing, teachers of higher
the President of India
educational institutions and members of State Assemblies.
(B) The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to
the Parliament 66 Assertion : The President of India has the power
(C) The Council of Ministers are individually responsible to to grant pardon, reprieve, respite or remission
the Parliament of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute
(D) The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible sentence. Reason ® : The President exercises
to the Prime Minister not only executive functions but also judicial and
legislative functions.
62 Who among the following holds his/her office at (A) both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of
the pleasure of the President A
(A) Chairman of UPSC (B) both A are R are true but R is not correct explanation
of A
(B) Attorney General of India
(C) A is true but R is false
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) A is false but R is true
(D) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

67 Which one of the following statements is not

63 In the event of the occurrence of vacancies in
correct
the offices of both, the President and Vice
President of India, who among the following (A) There shall be a Council ofMinisters headed by the
shall discharge the functions of the President till Prime Minister to aid and advice the President who shall act
new President is elected in accordance with such advice
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha (B) The President may require the Council of Ministers
torreconsider such advice
(B) Leader of the majority party
(C) The President shall act in accordance with the advice
(C) Chief Justice of India
tendered after such reconsideration
(D) Senior-most Governor
(D) The President shall act at his own discretion.

64 Assertion : The Constitution vests executive

68 The power to grant pardons, reprieves or
powers of the Union in the President of
remissions of punishment under Article 72 is
India.Reason (R) : President of India is the
exercised by the President of India
Constitutional head of the State.
(A) on the advice of the Prime Minister
(A) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
of A (B) on his own as Head of the Union
(B) both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation (C) on the advice of Council of Ministers
of A (D) in consultation with the Prime Minister who tenders
(C) A is true but R is false his opinion on the advice of his cabinet
(D) A is false but R is true

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69 The Constitution guarantees the following 73 When the Chief Justice of India is appointed by
privileges to the President of India the President he is required to consult :
(A) No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the (A) the Council of Ministers and all judges of the Supreme
President in any court during his term of office Court
(B) No process for the arrest or impeachment of the (B) the Prime Minister, the law Minister and the Attorney-
President shall be issued from any court during his term of General of India
office (C) such of the Ministers of the Cabinet and the Prime
(C) The President shall not be answerable to any court for Minister, as he deems necessary
the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of (D) such of the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High
his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by Courts as he deems necessary
him in exercise of those powers and duties
(D) All of the above 74 Which Article of the Constitution provides for
the appointment of Comptroller and Auditor-
70 Any charge for impeachment of the President General (Comptroller and Auditor General of
may be preferred India, 10 Bahadur Shah Zafar Marg) ?
(A) only in the House of People (A) Article 78
(B) only in Council of State (B) Article 148
(C) only in joint session of the Parliament (C) Article 178
(D) by either House of Parliament (D) Article 238

71 The Vice President is elected 75 The term of Lok Sabha is

(A) on the basis of adult franchise by the People of India (A) five years unless it is dissolved
(B) by an electoral college consisting ofall the members of (B) four years from the date of its first session
Rajya Sabha by secret ballot (C) five years from the date of oath taken by the members
(C) by an electoral college of all the members of both the (D) it is permaneqt body of cyclic filing of MPs
Houses of Parliament
(D) by electoral college consisting of all the members 76 Members of Lok Sabha are elected by the way of
ofboth the Houses of Parliament in accordance with
(A) people's representation
proportional representation by means of single transferable
vote and by secret ballot (B) by the State Legislature
(C) nominations
72 If the Governor wishes to relinquish the office (D) by electoral college
before the expiry of his term, he may address his
resignation to
77 Total strength of Lok Sabha members is
(A) Chief Minister of the State
(A) 542
(B) Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly
(B) 525 from the State and 20 from Union Territories
(C) President
(C) 525 from the States and 20 from Union Territories
(D) Prime Minister and 2 nominated by President from Union Territory
(D) 555

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78 The Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members. 83 A Financial Bill deals with all those matters
They are nominated by the President from which are dealt with by a Money Bill but it
among the persons having special knowledge or includes other matters also. Give correct
practical experience in response
(A) literature, science, art and social sciences (A) A Financial Bill cannot be rejected by the Upper House
(B) literature, science, art and law (B) The President cannot withhold his assent to a Financial
(C) literature, science, art, law and social work Bill

(D) literature, science, art, philosophy, law and social work (C) The Financial Bill can be presented in either House
(D) A Financial Bill must be passed by both the Houses and
79 The Indian Parliament consists of in case of differences between two Houses, the same
would be resolved by joint sitting of both the Houses.
(A) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha 84 Money Bills can be
(C) House of People and Council of States
(A) invalid by Rajya Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha
(B) invalid by both the Houses
(C) Rajya Sabha can reject the money bills
80 An ordinary Bill can originate in either House. It
becomes law (D) none of the above

(A) when it is passed by both the Houses and gets the

assent of the President 85 Who have a right to speak or otherwise take
part in the proceedings of either House in any
(B) as soon as it is passed by both the Houses joint sitting of the Parliament without voting
(C) as soon as it is passed by the House in which it right
originated
(A) Attorney General of India
(D) none of the above
(B) Auditor and Comptroller General of India
(C) Chief Justice of India
81 State which of the following statement in
incorrect (D) Chief Election Commissioner

(A) A money bill deals with imposition, remission,

alternation or Regulation of tax 86 Give correct response to :

(B) A money bill deals with regulation of borrowing money (A) It is the duty of the Prime Minister to Communicate all
or giving of any guarantee by the Government decisions of the Council of Ministers to the President,
whenever he requires
(C) A money bill deals with the money of the consolidated
fund (B) The Prime Minister need not communicate all decisions
to the President
(D) A money bill is one which provides for the imposition
of fines or fees. The Lok Sabha's decision is final (C) It is not obligatory on the part of Prime Minister to
communicate the decision to the President
82 Whenever there are differences between the (D) The President cannot compel the Prime Minister to
two Houses, a joint sitting can be called by the give the information he has
President on which of the following matters
(A) Money bill 87 The Attorney General of India holds office
during the pleasure of
(B) A Bill seeking Constitutional amendment
(A) President
(C) A Bill seeking to impose tax
(B) Prime Minister
(D) A Bill which deals with social legislation
(C) Parliament
(D) Chief Justice

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88 In case of differences between two Houses of 93 It is inappropriate for petitioners in Public
Parliament on an ordinary Bill, the issue is Interest Litigation to
resolved by (A) write to any single judge of the Supreme Court
(A) President in consultation with the cabinet (B) act pro bono publico
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha (C) withdraw proceedings as of right, and fu ther to claim
(C) Convening a joint sitting of the two Houses that they shall not be continued
(D) the Supreme Court (D) ask for the direction of new legislation

89 Which of the following is a continuing body 94 A retired judge of High Court cannot
(A) Lok Sabha (A) practise in the Supreme Court
(B) Legislative Assembly (B) practise in any High Court in India
(C) Legislative Council (C) practise in the High Court from where he has retired
(D) none of the above (D) None of the above

90 `Budget' is known as : 95 The President has been authorised by Article

(A) Annual financial statement 143 to refer to the Supreme Court a question of
law or fact, which in his opinion is of such nature
(B) Annual Budget and of such public importance that it is
(C) Financial statement of the year expedient to obtain its opinion about it, such
(D) It has no other same opinion of the Supreme Court is binding on
(A) all the courts within the territory of India
91 Any sum required to satisfy any judgement, (B) the Supreme Court itself in similar future cases
decree or award of any court or arbitral tribunal
(C) the President
shall be charged on :
(D) none
(A) Prime Minister's Relief Fund
(B) Consolidated Fund of India 96 The term of members of UPSC is ordinarily of
(C) Fund of Ministry of Law & Justice
(A) five years
(D) Fund of Ministry of Home Affairs
(B) ten years
(C) six years
92 The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed
(D) none of the above
(A) by the President
(B) by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice 97 The main functions of the UPSC are
of India
(A) to conduct the examinations for appointment to the
(C) by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice
services of the Union and State as the case may be
of India and out of the judges of the Supreme Court and
High Court as he may deem necessary for the purpose (B) to hold interviews for the public posts

(D) by the President in consultation with Prime Minister (C) Both A & B
(D) None of these

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98 A Money Bill need to be passed by : 103 Which one of the following statements is correct
(A) Lok Sabha only (A) the Preamble enumerates the purpose and objectives
(B) Rajya Sabha only that the legislation intended to achieve

(C) Either of the two House (B) Preamble reflects the intention of the members of the
Constituent Assembly
(D) Both the houses
(C) the Preamble codifies the regular measures to the
citizens
99 Which of the following statement is incorrect
(D) envisages only liberty in all spheres.
(A) Preamble is a key to the understanding of the mind of
founding fathers
104 The Chairman of the Constituent Assembly was
(B) Preamble embodies the ideals, hopes, faith and
aspirations of the people (A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(C) Preamble embodies the intentions of the founding (B) Jai Prakash Narayan
fathers and objectives of the Constitution (C) C. Rajgopalachari
(D) Preamble of the Constitution has no importance. It is (D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
no more than an introduction to the Constitution.
105 The Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the
100 Which one of the following statements is correct Constitution was
(A) Preamble of the Constitution is the part of the (A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Constitution and can be amended under Article 368 (B) K.M. Munshi
(B) Preamble of the Constitution is not a part of the (C) Sir. A. Krishna Iyer
Constitution and cannot be amended
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
(C) Preamble is the Part of the Constitution and can be
amended only if no change in the basic structure is made
106 The Preamble of the Constitution envisages that
(D) Preamble can be amended by Parliament simply by an
(A) it shall stand part of the Constitution
objective resolution.
(B) it could be abrogated or wiped out from the
101 The Preamble of our Constitution is solemnly Constitution
resolved to secure to its people (C) it does not acknowledge, recognize or proclaim
anything about the Constitution
(A) Justice, social, economic and political; liberty of
thought, expression, belief, faith and worship and equality (D) it has a separate entity in the Constitution.
of status and opportunity
(B) Fundamental Rights and Duties 107 The Preamble to the Constitution of India
secures "Justice, Liberty, Equality and
(C) Civil, Political and Economic fundamental rights
Fraternity" to
(D) Parliamentary form of Government
(A) all persons

102 The Preamble to our Constitution proclaims (B) those who reside within the territory of India
that `WE, the People of India have established (C) all citizens
(A) a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic (D) those citizens who reside within the territory of India.
(B) a Sovereign, Democratic Republic
(C) a Sovereign, Secular, Democratic, Socialist, Republic.
(D) a Secular, Socialist, Democratic, Sovereign, Republic

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108 The Governor holds office 112 The constitutional authority vested with the
(A) for a period of five years power of declaring castes or tribes as Scheduled
Castes or Scheduled Tribes is the
(B) for a period of four years
(A) Parliament
(C) till the pleasure of the President
(B) Home Minister
(D) during the pleasure of President, and if not recalled
earlier, for the period of five years, but continues in the (C) President of India
office thereafter till his successor takes over. (D) Chairman of SC/ST Commission.

109 The Executive Head of the State is the 113 As per provision to Section 10(1), the Governor
Governor but he is a formal executive. The real of a state may, by order, relieve C&AG from
executive consists of compiling the accounts of the state
(A) Council of Ministers (A) With the previous approval of the President
(B) Chief Ministers and Council of Ministers (B) After consulting with C&AG
(C) c) Governor and Chief Minister (C) Both (a) & (b) is necessary
(D) Chief Minister, Council of State and Chief Secretary of (D) On his own without (a) & (b)
the State.
114 C&AG‟s DPC Act is a comprehensive legislation
110 Only that person is qualified to be the Governor framed under article:
of the State who is citizen of India and (A) 148(3) and 149 of the Constitution of India.
(A) who has completed the age of 35 years (B) 147(1) and 149 of the Constitution of India.
(B) who is eligible to be elected to Vidhan Parishad (C) 145(1) and 151 of the Constitution of India.
(C) who has completed the-age of 30 years and who does (D) None of the above.
not hold any office of profit
(D) who is not member of any House of Parliament or 115 Which chapter and article of the Constitution of
State Legislature. India deals with C&AG of India
(A) Chapter VI; Article 377 and 148
111 The Governor recommends to the President of
India that breakdown of constitutional (B) Chapter V; Article 378 and 147
machinery in the State is imminent. The (C) Chapter IV; Article 376 and 148
President makes a proclamation under Article (D) Chapter V; Article 377 and 148
356. The action of the President
(A) cannot be reviewed as the President is the sole judge 116 “The C&AG is not eligible for further office
of his emergency powers either under the Govt. of India/ state Govt. after
(B) cannot be reviewed as the Constitution bars the he has ceased to hold office”. This statement is
courts from reviewing political actions (A) Right
(C) can be reviewed as it goes against fundamental rights (B) Wrong
(D) can be reviewed as it is mala fide. (C) Depends upon the choice of C&AG
(D) Depends upon the Parliament

RTC, New Delhi - 09-Jun-11 Page 12 of 23

117 Which constitutional article deals with the 123 Where audit is taken up under Section 15
duties & powers of C&AG? (specific purpose) by the C&AG, whether
(A) Article 148 (A) Issuance of previous notice to the body/authority prior
(B) Article 149 to audit is necessary

(C) Article 150 (B) Full powers for taking up audit

(D) Article 151 (C) Permission of President/ Governor is necessary

(D) Fulfillment of (a) & (c) is necessary
118 Under Article 151 of the Constitution, the
C&AG submit its reports relating to the 124 As per Section 10(1), President may, by order,
accounts of the Union Govt. to relieve C&AG from the responsibility of
(A) PM of India compiling the account of the Union

(B) Governor of the state (A) After consultation with the C&AG

(C) Both houses of parliament (B) After consultation with the Parliament

(D) President who cause them to be laid before each house (C) President, being the appointing authority, no need to
of parliament consult C&AG
(D) After consultation with the Prime Minister
119 The C&AG shall hold office for a term of
(A) 6 years or 65 years whichever is earlier 125 C&AG DPC Section 11 deals with

(B) 5 years or 65 years whichever is earlier (A) Compilation of accounts

(C) 6 years or 62 years whichever is earlier (B) Keeping of accounts

(D) 6 years or 60 years whichever is earlier (C) Preparation & submission of accounts to the President/
Governor

120 Salary of the C&AG is equivalent to (D) None

(A) Chief Justice of India

126 Section 10 of the DPC Act deals with
(B) Judge of the High Court
(A) Compilation of accounts
(C) Chief Justice of High Court
(B) Giving information and rendering assistance to Union /
(D) Judge of the Supreme Court
State
(C) Keeping of accounts
121 The power to grant or refuse leave and to
revoke or curtail leave shall vest with (D) Compilation & keeping of accounts of Union / State

(A) Parliament
127 Section 12 of C&AG Act deals with
(B) Chief Justice of India
(A) Providing information & rendering assistance to the
(C) President
Union/ State
(D) Attorney General of India
(B) Preparation & submission of accounts
(C) Compilation & keeping of accounts
122 The C&AG‟s DPC Act came into existence on
(D) None of the above
(A) 14th December 1971
(B) 15th November 1971
(C) 15th December 1971
(D) 15th January 1971

RTC, New Delhi - 09-Jun-11 Page 13 of 23

128 Which section of C&AG gives mandate to audit 133 Which Section of DPC Act 1971 deals with the
all expenditure of the Govt. Powers to make Rules
(A) Section 11 (A) Section 24
(B) Section 13 (B) Section 22
(C) Section 14 (C) Section 23
(D) Section 12 (D) Section 25

129 Section 13 of DPC Act deals with audit of 134 Section 17 of the C&AG‟s DPC Act deals with
(A) All receipts which are payable into the CFI (A) Audit of Government Companies
(B) All expenditure which are payable from the CFI (B) Audit of receipts of Union or States
(C) All receipts & expenditure which has been paid to and (C) Audit of Accounts of stores or stock
disbursed from the CFI (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above
135 Under Section 18(2) C&AG‟s DPC Act
130 Under section 14 of C&AG DPC Act, (A) C&AG can inspect any office of accounts under the
substantially financed means control of the Union or of a State including treasuries
(A) Where grant received is less than Rs. 25 lakh (B) C&AG can require that any accounts, books, papers
(B) Grant received is Rs. 25 lakh or more and other documents shall be sent to such place as hem
(C) Grant should be 75% of the total expenditure of that may appoint for inspection.
body/authority (C) The auditee shall afford all facilities for inspection and
(D) Fulfillment of (b) & (c) condition is necessary comply with request for information.
(D) All the above.
131 Once an audit is taken up under Section 14 of a
body or authority C&AG can audit receipt & 136 As per Section 19(1) and (2) C&AG‟s DPC Act,
expenditure of that body or authority for a Comptroller and Auditor General of India, 10
further period of Bahadur Shah Zafar Marg can take up
(A) 1 year (A) Audit of accounts of all Government Companies.
(B) 2 years (B) Audit of accounts of all Corporations established by/or
(C) 3 years under law made by Parliament

(D) 2 years subject to fulfillment of conditions (C) Audit of accounts of a Corporation established by law
made by the legislative of the State/UT
132 The other condition of service under section 9 of (D) Audit of Both (A) and (B)
the C&AG stipulates that the emoluments of
C&AG during any period of duty out of India and 137 Under which section of DPC Act, C&AG shall
his travelling allowance while travelling on duty lay Reports in relations to the accounts of
out of India shall be those which are applicable to Government Companies and Corporations.
(A) A member of the IAS holding the rank of Secretary (A) Section 19(1)
(B) A judge of the Supreme Court (B) Section 19(2)
(C) Minister in the Union Govt. (C) Section 19A(1)
(D) Lok Sabha MP (D) Section 19(3)

RTC, New Delhi - 09-Jun-11 Page 14 of 23

138 Under section 22(1), Power to make rules rests 143 To become eligible for availing LTC, an
with employee must complete
(A) Central Government (A) One year of continuous service on the date of journey
(B) C&AG (B) Two years of continuous service on the date of journey
(C) Central Government but after consultation with C&AG (C) The facility can be availed immediately after joining
(D) Attorney General of India service
(D) 120 days of continuous service on the date of journey
139 Under Section 21 C&AG can delegate powers
during leave or otherwise to its subordinates. 144 When a government servant is under
(A) All powers suspension, LTC is admissible only to

(B) Powers other than submission of Report as required by (A) The Government Servant
the Constitution (B) Only his two elder children
(C) Powers other than audit of expenditure from the (C) His family members
Public Accounts and Contingency Fund (D) LTC is not admissible at all
(D) C&AG cannot delegate powers.
145 Family for the purpose of LTC means
140 C&AG can propose to undertake the audit of (A) Wife and 2 children/step children
the accounts of which has not been entrusted to
him by law under: (B) Wife and 2 unmarried wholly dependent children/step
children whether or not residing with GS
(A) Section 19(1)
(C) Wife and 2 wholly dependent children/step children
(B) Section 18(2) who are residing with the Government Servant
(C) Section 20(1) (D) None of the above.
(D) Section 20(2)
146 The restriction of more than two surviving and
141 Power to dispense with the detailed audit is laid dependent children in the definition of family for
down in the purpose of LTC is in respect of
(A) Section 23 (A) Children existing as on 20.10.98
(B) Section 25 (B) Children existing as on 20.10.97
(C) Section 24 (C) Children existing as on 20.10.99
(D) Section 26 (D) Children existing as on 20.10.96

142 Under Section 20(1), President/Governor may 147 Under the definition of family for LTC, the term
request the C&AG to undertake audit of the „dependent on government Servant‟ is applicable
accounts of such body or authority, provided in respect of:
that: (A) All eligible family members under family definition
(A) No such request shall be made except after (B) All eligible family members except spouse
consultation with the C&AG
(C) All eligible family members spouse excluding
(B) President of India can issue such a request without mother/father
consulting C&AG
(D) All eligible family members spouse excluding
(C) Only Governor is required to consult C&AG before brother/sister
requesting
(D) PM can directly ask C&AG to conduct Audit.

RTC, New Delhi - 09-Jun-11 Page 15 of 23

148 At present it is mandatory for availing LTC that 152 An employee and his family may avail LTC
(A) The family members should reside with the (A) In different group at the same time during block of two
Government Servant years.
(B) Only Parents or step mother/father should reside with (B) It is necessary for all the members to travel at one time.
Government Servant (C) In different groups at different time during block year.
(C) Married, widowed, divorced or separated daughter (D) None of the above.
should reside with and wholly dependent on Government
Servant
153 A claim for LTC should be submitted if no LTC
(D) The condition of ‘residing with government servant’ is advance is taken
not mandatory.
(A) Within 30 days of the completion of the return journey

149 For availing LTC in respect of unmarried minor (B) Within two months of the completion of the return
brothers or unmarried/divorced journey
/abandoned/separated sisters, it is necessary that (C) Within three months of the completion of the return
they are journey
(A) Residing with the government servant (D) Within six months of the completion of the return
journey
(B) Residing with and are wholly dependent on government
servant
154 A claim for LTC concession should be submitted
(C) Residing with government servant provided that their
if advance is taken.
father is not alive.
(A) Within 15 days of the completion of the return journey
(D) Residing with government servant provided that their
father is not alive or is himself dependent of GS. (B) Within 30 days of the completion of the return journey
(C) Within 45 days of the completion of the return journey
150 Government Servant can change his home town (D) Within 60 days of the completion of the return journey
address
(A) As many times as he likes to 155 In the case of advance taken for LTC, Ministry/
(B) In exceptional circumstance once during the entire Department may with the concurrence of
service Financial Advisor, admit LTC claim

(C) Twice during entire service (A) Upto six months of the completion of return journey

(D) Once declared during the entire service is final (B) Upto three months of the completion of return journey
(C) Upto two months of the completion of return journey
151 If both husband and wife are Government (D) Upto three months of the completion of return
Employees: journey provided the entire advance is refunded within 45
(A) Both have option to declare separate home towns days from completion of return journey
independently
(B) Only senior (working at higher post) can declare home 156 If the advance is not fully adjusted in the claim
town which will have a binding on the other submitted within stipulated time, the unutilized
amount will be recovered with interest:
(C) Only one can declare home town which will have the
binding on the other (A) @ 9% from the date of drawing the advance

(D) Only male employee can declare home town which will (B) @ 12% from the date of drawing the advance
have the binding on the female spouse (C) @ 2% above the GPF interest rate from the date of
drawing the advance
(D) Rs.1000 per month of delay in refund of advance.

RTC, New Delhi - 09-Jun-11 Page 16 of 23

157 Advance can be separately drawn for self and 163 Charges for reservation are not reimbursable for
different group of family members, if they are all classes of travel in LTC
travelling separately (A) True
(A) True (B) False
(B) False

164 Telegram charges for reservation are not

158 Advance up to 80% of the fare can be drawn. reimbursable for all classes of travel in LTC
(A) True (A) True
(B) False (B) False

159 Some members of the family may avail Home 165 Additional reimbursement is allowed for fare of
Town LTC and some others can avail All India an escort accompanying handicapped
TC in the same two year block Government Servant
(A) True (A) True
(B) False (B) False

160 LTC can be availed without availing regular 166 Incidental expenditure incurred on local
leave i.e. on Saturday/Sunday or other holiday. journeys during LTC is admissible
(A) True (A) True
(B) False (B) False

161 The advance shall be refunded in full if the 167 Journey by private taxi/care is admissible under
tickets are not produced LTC
(A) Within 20 days of grant of advance. (A) True
(B) Within 15 days of grant of advance. (B) False
(C) Within one month of grant of advance.
(D) None of the above.

162 For availing LTC return journey must be

completed within
(A) Three months of outward journey
(B) Six months of outward journey
(C) One year of outward journey
(D) One month of outward journey

RTC, New Delhi - 09-Jun-11 Page 17 of 23

168 Charges incurred for booking of rail ticket 173 Which of the following is reimbursable under
through internet/ e-ticketing are LTC?
(A) Reimbursable (A) Service tax, Education Cess and other levies charged
(B) Not reimbursable (B) Only service tax and Education Cess
(C) Reimbursable if booking is done through the website of (C) Only other levies/tax levied by Govt.
Railways (D) None of these
(D) None of the above.
174 Defined Contribution Pension Scheme
169 Newly recruited employees after 1-9-08 can introduced by Government of India was
(A) Travel on three occasions to their home town and All- applicable to all employees joining Government
India on the fourth occasion in a block service

(B) Travel on two occasions to their home town and All- (A) on or after 1st January 2003.
India on the fourth occasion in a block (B) After 1st January 2003.
(C) Along with their family members as mentioned in (C) on or after 1st January 2004.
option (a) (D) After 1st January 2004.
(D) Without their family members as mentioned in option
(a) 175 Amount of subscription by subscriber
(A) 10% of Basic pay
170 W.e.f. 27-7-2009, it has been decided that air
travel in all cases (B) 10% of DA
(C) 100%of Basic pay +DA
(A) Should be by Air India only
(D) 10% of Basic pay + DA
(B) By any airline
(C) By any airline but cheapest air ticket
176 Records of NPS subsribers is maintained by
(D) None of these
(A) PFRDA

171 W.e.f. 17-10-2010, air ticket, for availing LTC, to (B) NSDL-CRA
be booked (C) LIC
(A) Direct from Air India / Indian Airline booking counter (D) RBI
only
(B) Either direct from Air India / Indian Airline booking 177 How many digits Permanent Pension Account
counter only or by utilizing the services of authorized travel number (PPAN) have
agents viz. Balmer Lawrie & Company & M/S Ashok Travels (A) 10
(C) By any Airline agent but ticket must be of Air India / (B) 14
Indian Airline
(C) 12
(D) None of these
(D) 16

172 W.e.f. 17-10-2010 journey by air, under LTC, can

178 How many digits Permanent Retirement
be performed
Account Number (PRAN) have
(A) By Air India in Economy class and with LTC-80 ticket
(A) 14
(B) By Air India in any class of entitlement
(B) 12
(C) By Air India in Economy class of airfare
(C) 16
(D) In any airline but fare will be restricted to LTC-80 fare
(D) 10

RTC, New Delhi - 09-Jun-11 Page 18 of 23

179 S1 form 185 Form N3
(A) Application for Allotment of PPAN (A) DDO registration form
(B) Application for Allotment of PRAN (B) PAO registration form
(C) Both (C) Both
(D) None of above (D) None of above

180 Tier I of subcription 186 Form N2

(A) optional (A) PAO registration form
(B) compulsory (B) DDO registration form
(C) none of above (C) None of above
(D) both (D) Both

181 Tier II of subcription 187 Withdrawal alllowed fom Tier I fund

(A) optional (A) partialy allowed
(B) compulsory (B) fully allowed
(C) none of above (C) Allowed before 60 years of age
(D) both (D) Allowed after 60 years of age

182 The function of Principal Accounts Office is to 188 In which case, 60% of pension wealth will be
(A) Monitor performance of PAO and DDO in discharging given and the rest 40% of pension wealth will be
their responsibilities in CRA system. used to provide an annuity which will provide for
life to the employee.
(B) Monitor the resolution of grievances raised against PAO
(A) death
(C) both
(B) resignation
(D) None of above
(C) superannuation

183 The function of Pay Accounts Office is to

(A) Upload Subscriber Contribution File (SCF) to NPSCAN
system 189 In which case, 20% of pension wealth will be
given and the rest 80% of pension wealth will be
(B) PAO will deposit the contribution amount in the used to provide an annuity which will provide for
Trustee Bank life to the employee
(C) PAO will raise grievance on behalf of DDO and the
(A) resignation
subscriber
(B) Exit before 60 years of age
(D) All of the above
(C) death

184 The function of Drawing and Disbursing officer (D) None of above

(A) Obtain the duly filled Application for allotment of

PRAN from the subscribers, Consolidate Application for 190 Defined Contribution Pension Scheme
allotment of PRAN and forward it to PAO introduced by Government of India

(B) Providing information to PAO about Subscriber’s (A) Not applicable for state government employees
pension contribution (B) Not applicable for Armed forces
(C) Distribution of PRAN kit, I-Pin, T-Pin to Subscribers (C) both
(D) All of the above (D) None of above

RTC, New Delhi - 09-Jun-11 Page 19 of 23

191 Pension Funds under the NPS is regulated by 196 Which year pension rule has been framed /
(A) Reserve bank of India constituted to benefit the Govt. employees?

(B) LIC of India (A) 1962

(C) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (B) 1963

(PFRDA) (C) 1964
(D) None of above (D) 1972

192 National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL) / 197 What is superannuation?

Central Record Keeping Agency (CRA) is (A) Retirement at the age of 60
controlled by
(B) Retirement at the age of 62
(A) Govt. of India
(C) Retirement at the age of 65
(B) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
(D) Retirement at the age of 58
(PFRDA)
(C) both
198 Minimum requirement of service for pension
(D) None of above is--------.
(A) 20 years
193 who will Forward the Switch requests, New
Scheme Preference requests, Change in (B) 10 years
subscriber details request, Withdrawal Requests (C) 15 years
received from Subscribers to NSDL-CRA (D) 16 years
(A) PAO
(B) DDO 199 What is qualifying service? How it is calculated?
¬
(C) both
(A) Service less EOL without MC and dies-non
(D) Pr.A O
(B) Service less EOL
194 Subscriber is identified by NSDL-CRA (C) Full Service of employee
(A) PRAN (D) Service less EOL with MC and dies-non
(B) PPAN
200 How to calculate DCRG?
(C) Both
(A) (Basic+GP+DA) * 66
(D) None of above
(B) (Basic+GP+DA) * 66/2
195 What is pension? (C) (Basic+DA) * 66/2
(A) Subsitance allowance given to suspended employee (D) (Basic+GP) * 66/2
(B) Recurring benefit given to retiring employee
201 How to calculate CVP?
(C) Amount given to serving employee
(A) 40% * Pension
(D) Amount given to Ex-servicemen
(B) 40% * Pension * 12 * Commutation factor
(C) 40% * Pension * Commutation factor
(D) 50% * Pension * 12 * Commutation factor

RTC, New Delhi - 09-Jun-11 Page 20 of 23

202 What is the amount of Pension a person gets on 208 If the employee joins in 01.04.06, are he/ she
retirement? eligible for old pension scheme?
(A) 50% of basic (A) Yes
(B) 50% of Last basic pay + DA (B) No
(C) 50% of Last basic pay + DR
(D) Last pay * 75%

203 In which case CVP is not given. 209 What is minimum requirement of service for full
(A) Case of Mental disorder pension?

(B) Case of Death (A) 25 years

(C) Case of Suspension (B) 24 years

(D) None of these (C) 20 years

(D) 15 years
204 Who is eligible for family pension - (1) widow (2)
unmarried daughter? 210 Who is authorized to finalise the pension?
(A) 1 (A) Concerned department
(B) 2 (B) Treasury Office
(C) 1 and 2 both (C) Min of Finance
(D) None of these (D) PAO

205 Pension is allowed to any deputationist where he 211 What is CPAO?

was on deputation and retired thereover. (A) Central Pension Approval Office
(A) True (B) Combined Pension Approval Office
(B) False (C) Central Pension Accounting Office
(D) Central Payment Accounting Office

212 From where the pension will disburse finally?

206 How to calculate RG? (A) Bank/Treasury
(A) (Basic+GP+DA) * 66/4 (B) Treasury/Concerned Department
(B) (Basic+GP+DA) * 66/2 (C) Post Office
(C) (Basic+GP+DA) * 66 (D) Bank/Concerned Department
(D) 50% of Basic
213 How many types of pension are there?
207 NPS is applicable for whom & from when? (A) Super annuation, Invalid, Provisional, Compulsory and
(A) 01/07/2000 onward VRS
(B) 01/07/2003 onward (B) Super annuation, Invalid, Provisional and VRS
(C) 01/07/2004 onward (C) Invalid, Provisional, Compulsory and VRS
(D) 01/01/2006 onward (D) Super annuation

RTC, New Delhi - 09-Jun-11 Page 21 of 23

214 Who can get two pensions at a time? 220 Pension restored after fulfilling the period of
(A) PSU Workers (A) 5 years
(B) Railway workers (B) 7 years
(C) Defence Ministry staff (C) 10 years
(D) Ex-servicemen (D) 15 years

215 What pension is given to a person during 221 At what age the additional pension starts?
suspension period? (A) 60 years onwards
(A) Provisional Pension (B) 80 years onwards
(B) Suspend Pension (C) 90 years onwards
(C) Reduced Pension (D) 100 years onwards
(D) Family Pension
222 40% additional pension is applicable to whom?
216 To whom 1/3 restoration of pension is applicable? (A) Pensioner, who has attained the age of 80 years
(A) Person who is absorbed in Defence (B) Pensioner, who has attained the age of 85 years
(B) Person who is absorbed in PSU (C) Pensioner, who has attained the age of 90 years
(C) Person who is absorbed in Railway (D) Pensioner, who has attained the age of 100 years
(D) Person who is absorbed in Defence Ministry
223 What is PPO?
217 DA is application to (A) Pesion Payment Office
(A) Retired employee (B) Probationary Pension Officer
(B) Serving employee (C) Pension Payment Order
(C) PSU employee (D) Payment Paying Office
(D) Employee who has taken VRS
224 Maximum period of Enhanced Family Pension is
218 What is the restoration of pension? (A) 5 years
(A) Family Pension (B) 10 years
(B) Full Pension (C) 8 years
(C) Provisional Pension (D) 7 years
(D) None of these
225 What is the maximum period of Enhanced
219 When the full pension amount paid to a Family Pension when the employee dies during
pensioner. service
(A) On attaining the age of 65 years (A) 10 years
(B) On attaining the age of 80 years (B) 12 years
(C) On attaining the age of 90 years (C) 15 years
(D) On attaining the age of 100 years (D) 20 years

RTC, New Delhi - 09-Jun-11 Page 22 of 23

226 When the pension is restored after suspension?
(A) After 2 years of suspension
(B) After 6 months of suspension
(C) After super annuation
(D) After revocation of suspension

227 What is DR and to whom it is given?

(A) Defence Ration given to defence staff
(B) Dearness Relief given to serving Central Govt. staff
(C) Dearness Relief given to retired Central Govt. staff
(D) Due Receipt

228 Who has the right to withold/withdraw pension

(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Head of Department
(D) Finance Minister

229 What is the minimum amount of pension a

person should get on retirement
(A) 1800
(B) 3250
(C) 3500
(D) 4000

RTC, New Delhi - 09-Jun-11 Page 23 of 23