CCNA 200-301 EXAM TEST
Q1: Which two VLAN IDs indicate a default VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 1005
D. 1006
E. 4096
Q2: Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic
is coming?
A. start of frame delimiter
B. Type field
C. preamble
D. Data field
Q3: Which command must you enter to guarantee that an HSRP router with
higher priority becomes the HSRP primary router after it is reloaded?
A. standby 10 preempt
B. standby 10 version 1
C. standby 10 priority 150
D. standby 10 version 2
Q4: Which configuration command can u apply to a HSRP router so that its
local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?
A. no additional config is required
B. standby 1 track ethernet
C. standby 1 preempt
D. standby 1 priority 250
Q5: You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address
for Internet connectivity.
The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider
dynamically. Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to
accomplish this?
A. ip default-gateway
B. ip route
C. ip default-network
D. ip address dhcp
E. ip address dynamic
Q6: Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a
bridge?
A. The designated port
B. The backup port
C. The alternate port
D. The root port
Q7: Which two command sequences must you configure on a switch to
establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose
two.)
A. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
channel-group 10 mode on
B. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
channel-group 10 mode active
C. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
channel-group 10 mode auto
D. interface port-channel 10
switchport
switchport mode trunk
E. interface port-channel 10
no switchport
ip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0
Q8: Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?
A. The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can
configure a VLAN
B. The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended
VLAN
C. Dynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064
D. A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running
configuration only
Q9: Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given configuration to a router,
the DHCP clients behind the device connot communicate with hosts outside of
their subnet. Which action is most likely to correct the problem?
A. Configure the dns server on the same subnet as the clients
B. Activate the dhcp pool
C. Correct the subnet mask
D. configure the default gateway
Q10: Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use to configure a static
route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative
distance?
A. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1
B. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5
C. router1(config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2
D. router1(config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2
Q11: Which effect does the aaa new-model configuration command have?
A. It enables AAA services on the device
B. It configures the device to connect to a RADIUS server for AAA
C. It associates a RADIUS server to an group.
D. It configures a local user on the device.
Q12: Refer to the exhibit. How will switch SW2 handle traffic from VLAN 10 on SW1?
A. It sends the traffic to VLAN 10.
B. It sends the traffic to VLAN 100.
C. It drops the traffic.
D. It sends the traffic to VLAN 1.
Q13: Which two commands can you use to configure an actively negotiate
EtherChannel? (Choose two)
A. channel-group 10 mode on
B. channel-group 10 mode auto
C. channel-group 10 mode passive
D. channel-group 10 mode desirable
E. channel-group 10 mode active
Q14: What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame?
A. 00:00:0c:07:ac:01
B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff
C. 43:2e:08:00:00:0c
D. 00:00:0c:43:2e:08
E. 00:00:0c:ff:ff:ff
Q15: Which two statements about VTP are true? (Choose two.)
A. All switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name
B. All switches must be configured to perform trunk negotiation.
C. All switches must be configured with a unique VTP domain name
D. The VTP server must have the highest revision number in the domain
E. All switches must use the same VTP version.
Q16: Which two pieces of information about a Cisco device can Cisco
Discovery Protocol communicate? (Choose two.)
A. the native VLAN
B. the trunking protocol
C. the VTP domain
D. the spanning-tree priority
E. the spanning tree protocol
Q17: Refer to the exhibit. Which VLAN ID is associated with the default VLAN
in the given environment?
A. VLAN 1
B. VLAN 5
C. VLAN 10
D. VLAN 20
Q18: Which command is used to enable LLDP globally on a Cisco IOS ISR?
A. lldp run
B. lldp enable
C. lldp transmit
D. cdp run
E. cdp enable
Q19: In a CDP environment, what happens when the CDP interface on an
adjacent device is configured without an IP address?
A. CDP becomes inoperable on that neighbor
B. CDP uses the IP address of another interface for that neighbor
C. CDP operates normally,but it cannot provide IP address information for that
neighbor
D. CDP operates normally,but it cannot provide any information for that
Neighbor
Q20: Which command should you enter to configure an LLDP delay time of 5
seconds?
A. lldp timer 5000
B. lldp holdtime 5
C. lldp reinit 5000
D. lldp reinit 5
Q21: Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default
configuration?
A. Router loopback address
B. Router IP address
C. Router priority
D. Router tracking number
Q22: Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?
A. It is a Cisco-proprietary protocol.
B. It runs on the network layer.
C. It can discover information from routers, firewalls, and switches.
D. It runs on the physical layer and the data link layer.
Q23: Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the
preferred forwarding interface?
A. The interface number
B. The port priority
C. The VLAN priority
D. The hello time
Q24: When configuring an EtherChannel bundle, which mode enables LACP
only if a LACP device is detected?
A. Passive
B. Desirable
C. On
D. Auto
E. Active
Q25: Which command should you enter to verify the priority of a router in an
HSRP group?
A. show hsrp
B. show sessions
C. show interfaces
D. show standby
Q26: For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical
addresses? (choose two)
A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit
first
E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
Q27: Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is
an IP address conflict?
A. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.
B. The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved.
C. Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool.
D. Only the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool.
E. The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.
Q28: Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small
network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts
configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this
design?
A. This design will function as intended.
B. Spanning-tree will need to be used.
C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
D. The connection between switches should be a trunk.
E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.
Q29: A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network.
Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology
of the network can be mapped?
A. Device(Config)#lldp run
B. Device(Config)#cdp run
C. Device(Config-if)#cdp enable
D. Device(Config)#flow-sampler-map topology
Q30: What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose
two)
A. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions
B. The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains
C. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when
devices fail.
D. The core layer maintains wired connections for each host
E. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies
Q31: R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which
route is installed?
A. route with the lowest cost
B. route with the next hop that has the highest IP
C. route with the shortest prefix length
D. route with the lowest administrative distance
Q32: What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?
A. Each device is separated by the same number of hops
B. It provides variable latency
C. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports.
D. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.
Q33: Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is running three different routing
protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the
packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?
A. longest prefix
B. metric
C. cost
D. administrative distance
Q34: Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to
192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Q35: Refer to the exhibit, Which two commands were used to create port
channel 10? (Choose two )
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Q36: What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?
A. RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be
used for multiple types of authentication
B. TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the
entire payload
C. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges
them
D. RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but
TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands
Q37: How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user
services and access control?
A. Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user
services
B. Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services
C. Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access
control
D. Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control
Q38: Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures four switches for local
authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four
switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network
infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?
A. SW1
B. SW2
C. SW3
D. SW4
Q39: Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions should be made about this
configuration? (Choose two )
A. The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1
B. This is a root bridge
C. The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+
D. The spanning-tree mode is PVST+
E. The root port is FastEthernet 2/1
Q40: Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to
be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to
remain tagged. Which command accomplishes this task?
A. switchport access vlan 67
B. switchport trunk allowed vlan 67
C. switchport private-vlan association host 67
D. switchport trunk native vlan 67
Q41: What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper
cabling? (Choose two)
A. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber
B. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections
C. The glass core component is encased in a cladding
D. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections
E. The data can pass through the cladding
Q42: How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery
of packets?
A. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of
data, UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide
reliable delivery.
B. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is
no corruption of data UDP provides message acknowledgement and
retransmits data if lost.
C. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too
many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous
stream without checking for sequencing
D. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable
message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake
Q43: A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router
choose to forward the packet?
A. ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1
B. ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1
C. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1
D. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1
Q44: What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)?
(Choose two)
A. The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a
pool of IP addresses
B. The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses
C. The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to
renew them
D. The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically.
E. The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign.
Q45: Refer to the exhibit. Which action is expected from SW1 when the
untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?
A. The frame is processed in VLAN 5.
B. The frame is processed in VLAN 11
C. The frame is processed in VLAN 1
D. The frame is dropped
Q46: What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating static
route? (Choose two)
A. to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path
goes down
B. to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet
C. to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails
D. to support load balancing via static routing
E. to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router
Q47: What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type
between TCP and UDP?
A. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol UDP is not reliable
and is a connectionless protocol
B. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable
and is a connectionless protocol
C. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a
connection-oriented protocol
D. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a
connection-oriented protocol
Q48: Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route does R1 use to reach host
10.10.13.10/32?
A. default route
B. network route
C. host route
D. floating static route
Q49: Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router1 use for traffic to Host A?
A. 10.10.10.0/28
B. 10.10.13.0/25
C. 10.10.13.144/28
D. 10.10.13.208/29
Q50: Drag and Drop
Q51: Drag and Drop
Q52: How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection
between two endpoints?
A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message
delivery.
B. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgement packets.
C. UDP provides reliable message transfer, and TCP is a connectionless
protocol.
D. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses
SYN, SYN ACK, and ACK bits.
Q53: What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an
unknown destination MAC address is received?
A. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC
address to its MAC address table.
B. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC
address learning.
C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the
given VLAN.
E. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.
Q54: An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes. Which usable
IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?
A. interface e0/0
description to HQ-A370:98968
ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252
B. interface e0/0
description to HQ-A370:98968
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248
C. interface e0/0
description to HQ-A370:98968
ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248
D. interface e0/0
description to HQ-A370:98968
ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252
Q55: Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access
the Internet?
A. 172.9.0.0/16
B. 172.28.0.0/16
C. 192.0.0.0/8
D. 209.165.201.0/24
Q56: Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error
message that is received?
A. It belongs to a private IP address range.
B. The router does not support /28 mask.
C. It is a network IP address.
D. It is a broadcast IP address.
Q57: Which two conditions must be met before SSH can operate normally on a
Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two.)
A. IP routing must be enabled on the switch.
B. A console password must be configured on the switch.
C. Telnet must be disabled on the switch.
D. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image.
E. The “ip domain-name” command must be configured on the switch.
Q58: Refer to the exhibit. Which password must an engineer use to enter the
enable mode?
A. adminadmin123
B. cisco123
C. default
D. testing1234
Q59: Refer to the exhibit. Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?
A. The trunk does not form, and the ports go into an err-disabled status.
B. The trunk forms, but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single
broadcast domain.
C. The trunk forms, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.
D. The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse
the link.
Q60: What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an
Ethernet interface? (Choose two.)
A. when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used
B. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex
C. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again
D. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted
E. when the cable length limits are exceeded
