ASNT Study Guide-Basic 3rd Ed 2016 Scan
ASNT Study Guide-Basic 3rd Ed 2016 Scan
ASNT
LEVELIII
STUDYGUIDE
BASIC
The American Society for Nondestructive Testing, Inc. (ASNT) is not responsible for the authenticity or accuracy of information
herein. Published opinions and statements do not necessarily reflect the opinion of ASNT. Products or services that are advertised
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copying, recording or otherwise, without the expressed prior written permission of The American Society for Nondestructive
Testing, Inc.
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Inc. ACCP, ASNT.Level III Study Guide, Materials Evaluation, Nondestructive Testing Handbook, Research in Nondeslruclive
Evaluation and RNOEare registered trademarks of The American Society for Nondestructive Testing, Inc.
Errata, if available for this printing, may be obtained from ASNT'sweb site, www.asnt.org.
ISBN-13:978-1-57117-388-1(print)
ISBN-13:978-1-57117-389-8(ebook)
Published by:
The American Society for Nondestructive Testing, Inc.
1711Arlingate Lane
Columbus, OH 43228-0518
www.asnt.org
ASNTMissionStatement:
ASNTexists to create a safer world by advancing scientific, engineering, and technical knowledge in the field of nondestructive testing.
ii
ACKNOWLEDGMENTS
The American Society for Nondestructive Testing, Inc. is grateful for the volunteer contributions, technical expertise, knowl-
edge, and dedication of the following individuals who have helped make this work possible.
I
William C. Plumstead, Sr. - PQT Services
Michael J. Ruddy - NOV Tuboscope
Daniel Ryan - Siemens Power Generation
Hussein Sadek - Technologies Consulting International, Inc. (TCI, Inc.)
iii
FOREWORD
iv
Success in answering the questions will help the user to CP-J89.Likewise, the topical outlines of the NDT methods
determine if more concentrated study in particular areas is presented in Section II have been drawn from the 2016 edi-
needed. If the user can answer the questions confidently tion of CP-JOS.To facilitate the study of these documents,
and correctly, additional study may be optional. Technical in Sections I and II, word-for-word excerpts are highlighted
references are listed in Section II for individual methods if in blue.
users require further study. Questions in all three sections have been modified, as
needed, to reflect the ASNT exam practice of offering four
Changes in This Edition unique answers per question. In Section III, questions have
The third edition of the ASNT Level Ill Study Guide: been reorganized to reflect the chapter sequence in the sec-
Basic builds on the first edition written by Matthew J. Golis ond edition of Materials and Processes for NDT Technology,
and the contributions of volunteers to the second edition. published by ASNT in 2016.
Section I has been updated to reflect the latest, 2016,
editions of two key ASNT documents: SNT-TC-JA and
v
CONTENTS
Acknowledgments iii
Foreword .iv
Purpose iv
Introduction 3
References 3
vii
General Comments on Section 11 25
Section 12: Recertification 26
Inquiries for Section 12 26
General Comments on Section 12 26
Section 13: Termination 26
Inquiries for Section 13 27
Section 14: Reinstatement 27
Inquiries for Section 14 27
General Comments on Section 14 27
Review Questions 28
Answers 35
viii
Topical Outline 50
References 50
Acoustic Emission Testing Review Questions 50
Electromagnetic Testing (ET) 51
Topical Outline 51
References 51
Electromagnetic Testing Review Questions 51
Leak Testing (LT) 53
Topical Outline 53
References 54
Leak Testing Review Questions 54
Liquid Penetrant Testing (PT) 55
Topical Outline 55
References 55
Liquid Penetrant Testing Review Questions 55
Magnetic Particle Testing (MT) 58
Topical Outline 58
References 58
Magnetic Particle Testing Review Questions 58
Neutron Radiographic Testing (NR) 60
Topical Outline 60
References 60
Neutron Radiographic Testing Review Questions 60
Radiographic Testing 63
Topical Outline 63
References 63
Radiographic Testing Review Questions 63
Thermal/Infrared Testing (IR) 66
Topical Outline J •••••••••••••••••••••••.••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• 66
References 67
Thermal/Infrared Testing Review Questions 67
Ultrasonic Testing (UT) 69
Topical Outline 69
References 69
Ultrasonic Testing Review Questions 69
Visual Testing (VT) 72
Topical Outline .72
References .73
Visual Testing Review Questions .73
Magnetic Flux Leakage Testing (MFL) 75
Topical Outline 75
References 75
Magnetic Flux Leakage Testing Review Questions 75
Answers to Review Questions 77
ix
Section III: Materials, Fabrication, and Product Technology .79
Appendixes 107
Appendix A: Code of Ethics for Level III NDT Personnel Certified by ASNT 109
x
SECTION I
ADMINISTRATION OF A
PERSONNEL QUALIFICATION
AND CERTIFICATION PROGRAM
INTRODUCTION
Qualification and certification of NDT personnel, based on some standardized approach that is recognized and
agreed to by buyers and sellers ofNDT-related inspections, is widely practiced throughout industry. Recommended
Practice No. SNT- TC-IA: Personnel Qualification and Certification in Nondestructive Testing was the first document
widely used for this purpose. Another document initially issued by ASNT in 1991, reissued in 1995,2001,2006,2011, and
2016, is ANSIIASNT CP-189: Standard for Qualification and Certification of Nondestructive Testing Personnel. This docu-
ment differs from SNT- TC-IA in that it is an ANSI Standard and contains clearly defined minimum requirements that
must be satisfied in their entirety. The Basic Examination of the ASNT NDT Level III certification program addresses the
most recent editions of both of these documents.
SNT- TC-IA (2016) and CP-189 (2016) will be analyzed paragraph by paragraph in the following chapters. Selected
inquiries and responses taken from published interpretations offered by the SNT- TC-IA Interpretation Panel are includ-
ed to assist individuals in understanding some of SNT-TC-IA's philosophical intentions. The responses should be consid-
ered as clarifications of the intent of the recommended practice. The inquiries and responses are verbatim based on the
way they were written in the year indicated in the inquiry number. They do not address subsequent changes made to later
I editions of SNT- TC-IA. CP-189 interpretations are available on the ASNT website at www.asnt.org.
The general structure and some of the details of the ASNT NDT Level III certification program and how it supports
the manner in which SNT-TC-IA and CP-189 are implemented throughout industry are also covered in Chapter 3.
I
,
I
References
ANSI/ ASNT CP-189: ASNT Standard for Qualification and Certification of Nondestructive Testing Personnel. Columbus, OH: The American
Society for Nondestructive Testing, Inc. 2016.*
CP-ASNT-IB: ASNT NDT Level III Program (Program Information Document). Columbus, OH: The American Society for Nondestructive
Testing, Inc. Revision date: 17 July 2010. Available at: https:llasnt.org/MajorSiteSections/Certification/ASNT_NDT_Level_IILaspx
Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-IA: Personnel Qualification and Certification in Nondestructive Testing. Columbus, OH: The American
Society for Nondestructive Testing, Inc. 2016.*
"Available from ASNT.
3
CHAPTER 1
Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-l A (2016)
History of SNT-TC-1A average of requirements for formal education, time for on-the-
Recommended Practice No. SNT- TC-IA: Personnel job training, and documentation.
Qualification and Certification in Nondestructive Testing The resulting SNT-TC-1A is a recommended practice for the
was first published in 1966 as a main document comprising qualification and certification of nondestructive test personnel.
just four pages along with a series of supplements for each It provides a format which industry can follow in writing an
recognized method at the time: radiographic, magnetic par- individualized procedure for the qualification and certification of
ticle, ultrasonic, liquid penetrant, and eddy current (now personnel which meets the needs and requirements unique to
electromagnetic). Each supplemental document included each segment of industry.
recommended education, experience, and training require-
ments, as well as a recommended course outline, references, Contents and Intended Uses of
and general examination questions. The reasons for which SNT-TC-1A
SNT-TC-IA was created and the manner in which it The following information has been excerpted from the
evolved were described in an article published in Materials same article cited above. The text of this article has been
Evaluation, October 1968, Vol. 26, No. 10, pp. 12A-14A,by modified to include changes made in subsequent editions of
Harold Hovland and Carl B. Shaw, titled, "How to Qualify SNT-TC-IA.
and Certify NDT Personnel." The following excerpts outline
how this important recommended practice came into exis- It is intended that SNT-TC-1A serve as a guide for each
tence: employer user in preparing their specific personnel qualification
and certification document (procedure or written practice).
With the increasing complexity and number of SNT- TC-lA sets forth a scope and definitions, it lists the test
nondestructive test methods in use and with greater reliance methods, and it explains the various levels of qualifications. The
upon nondestructive testing, industry has not been able to primary document also details the manner in which personnel
recruit and train personnel in large enough numbers and in a are examined and certified. The question arises, "how do I
timely fashion to fill the need. Many customers found that they document certification in my particular procedure?" The point
were not receiving the nondestructive test examinations they to remember here is that the procedure as written by any user
felt they had paid to receive. of this document must satisfy the requirements of their
Large segments of the economy, such as the government company and must be acceptable to the company's customers.
and prime contractors, found it expedient to put the Within this context, certification may take anyone of several
responsibility for the training and qualification, and verification forms. It may consist merely of the records of the training
of the qualifications of nondestructive test personnel upon the programs, the examinations, and the grades of the
manufacturer. This resulted in the generation of a number of examinations. It may require a certificate that states explicitly
documents dealing with the question of the training, that a particular person is qualified to a given level for a specific
qualification, and certification of nondestructive test personnel. method. It may take the form of a card upon which an employer
Although these documents all pertain to the same subject and certifies the level of training and qualification of its personnel.
have the same objective, in their details they were often The employer has the same responsibility for the
conflicting, thereby causing undue cost to American industry. qualification and certification of its NOT personnel as it has for
Beginning about 1959, a few corporations, government the product. For example, even though an employer may
agencies, and other technical societies inquired of ASNT as to purchase a complete product and sell this product under the
whether the training and qualification of nondestructive test company's own name, the employer still bears full responsibility
personnel was properly the domain of the Society. to the customer for the quality of that product and for the
In 1961, the Society, through its Technical Council, assigned product being what the company purports it to be. The
a Task Group to study the feasibility of preparing a document employer may elect to purchase components and assemble
that would deal with the training requirements and the them and sell the result as a complete product; then again, the
documentation thereof for the qualification of nondestructive employer may manufacture all components ofthe product. In
test personnel ...the Task Group endeavored to prepare a any of these cases,the employer bears a certain responsibility.
recommended practice which could contain the consensus of The employer is responsible [for ensuring] that what is being
expert opinion regarding the training of personnel and an sold is indeed what it is claimed to be, that it will meet certain
5
Basic I SECTION I
6
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-/A (2016)
1.4 It is recognized that these guidelines may not be of materials, components, and assemblies for
appropriate for certain employers' circumstances materials' discontinuities, properties, and
and/or applications. In developing a written practice machine problems without further impairing
as required in Section 5, the employer should review or destroying the part's serviceability.
the detailed recommendations presented herein and Throughout this document the term NDT
modify them, as necessary, to meet particular needs. applies equally to the NDT methods used for
Such modification may alter but shall not eliminate material inspection, flaw detection, or
basic provisions of the program such as training, predictive maintenance (PdM) applications.
experience, testing, and recertification. Supporting 2.1.12 Outside Agency: a company or individual
technical rationale for modification of detailed who provides NDT Level III services and whose
recommendations should be provided in an Annex to qualifications to provide these services have
the written practice. been reviewed and approved by the employer
engaging the company or individual.
2.0 Definitions 2.1.13 Qualification: demonstrated skill,
2.1 Terms included in this document are defined as demonstrated knowledge, documented
follows: training, and documented experience required
2.1.1 Certification: written testimony of for personnel to properly perform the duties
qualification. of a specific job.
2.1.2 Certifying Authority: the person or persons 2.1.14 Recommended Practice: a set of guidelines
properly designated in the written practice to to assist the employer in developing uniform
sign certifications on behalf of the employer. procedures for the qualification and
2.1.3 Certifying Agency: the employer of the certification of NDT personnel to satisfy the
personnel being certified. employer's specific requirements.
2.1.4 Closed Book Examination: an examination 2.1.15 Technique: a category within an NDT method;
administered without access to reference for example, ultrasonic thickness testing.
material except for materials supplied with or 2.1.16 Training: an organized program developed to
in the examination. (See 8.1.3.) impart the knowledge and skills necessary for
2.1.5 Comparable: being at an equivalent or similar qualification.
level of NDT responsibility and difficulty as 2.1.17 Written Practice: a written procedure
determined by the employer's NDT Level II!. developed by the employer that details the
2.1.6 Documented: the condition of being in requirements for qualification and certification
written form. of their employees.
2.1.7 Employer: the corporate, private, or public
entity, which employs personnel for wages, 3.0 Nondestructive Testing Methods
salary, fees, or other considerations. 3.1 Qualification and certification of NDT personnel in
2.1.8 Experience: work activities accomplished in a accordance with this Recommended Practice is
specific NDT method under the direction of applicable to each of the following methods:
qualified supervision including the
performance of the NDT method and related Acoustic Emission Testing
activities but not including time spent in Electromagnetic Testing
organized training programs. Ground Penetrating Radar
2.1.9 Grading Unit: a Qualification Specimen can Guided Wave Testing
be divided into sections called grading units, Laser Testing Methods
which do not have to be equal length or be Leak Testing
equally spaced. Grading units are unflawed or Liquid Penetrant Testing
flawed and the percentage of flawed/unflawed Magnetic Flux Leakage
grading units required should be approved by Magnetic Particle Testing
the NDT Level II!. Microwave Technology
2.1.10 Limited Certification: nondestructive test Neutron Radiography Testing
methods may be further subdivided into Radiographic Testing
limited disciplines or techniques to meet Thermal/Infrared Testing
specific employer's needs; these are NDT Level Ultrasonic Testing
II certifications, but to a limited scope. Vibration Analysis
2.1.11 Nondestructive Testing: a process that Visual Testing
involves the inspection, testing, or evaluation
7
Basic I SECTION I
Inquiry 80-8
Paragraph 1.4 very clearly states the intent that the
detailed recommendations of SNT- TC-IA should be
reviewed and modified by the user to satisfy unique needs.
This allowance was originally incorporated in recognition of
the fact that each manufacturer or each service organization
has a different clientele. Customer or clientele requirements
ultimately determine what is acceptable between buyer and
seller, even to the details of qualifying NDT personnel.
8
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A (2016)
9
Basic I SECTION I
Review Questions for Sections 1, 2, and 3 techniques, and procedures to be used. The
Based on the foregoing discussion, answer the questions NOTLevel III should be responsible for the NOT
on pp. 28-29 relating to SNT-TC-IA and the administration operations for which qualified and assigned
of a qualification and certification program in NDT. and should be capable of interpreting and
evaluating results in terms of existing codes,
standards, and specifications. The NOTLevel III
Section 4: Levels of Qualification should have sufficient practical background in
Section 4 (pp. 2-3) of SNT-TC-IA (2016) is reprinted applicable materials, fabrication, and product
below in full: technology to establish techniques and to
assist in establishing acceptance criteria when
4.0 Levels of Qualification none are otherwise available. The NOTLevel III
4.1 There are three basic levels of qualification. The should have general familiarity with other
employer may subdivide these levels for situations appropriate NOTmethods, as demonstrated by
where additional levels are deemed necessary for an ASNTLevel III Basicexamination or other
specific skills and responsibilities. means. The NOTLevel III, in the methods in
4.2 While in the process of being initially trained, which certified, should have sufficient technical
qualified, and certified, an individual should be knowledge and skillsto be capable of training
considered a trainee. A trainee should work with a and examining NOTLevell and II personnel for
certified individual. The trainee should not certification in those methods.
independently conduct, interpret, evaluate, or report
the results of any NOTtest. Inquiries for Section 4
4.3 The recommended technical knowledge and skillsets
for the three basic levels of qualification are as Inquiry 76-3
follows:
4.3.1 NOT Levell. An NOTLevell individual should Inquiry:
have sufficient technical knowledge and skills Is it the intent of SNT-TC-IA that the Level I NDT per-
to be qualified to properly perform specific sons described in Paragraph 4.3(a) of the 1975 edition of
calibrations, specific NOT,and specific this document be the same as the Level I individual
evaluations for acceptance or rejection described in the SNT-TC-IA (1968 edition) Paragraph
4.1 (a) with both having the same capabilities?
determinations according to written
instructions and to record results. The NOT Response:
Levell should receive the necessary instruction Yes. The changes in wording between the 1975 and the
or supervision from a certified NOTLevel II or III 1968 versions of SNT-TC-IA, insofar as the duties and
individual. capabilities of Level I personnel are concerned, were intend-
4.3.2 NOT Level II. An NOTLevelII individualshould ed only to clarify the intent of the document. None of these
changes in wording were intended as substantive changes.
have sufficient technical knowledge and skills
to be qualified to set up and calibrate equipment
NOTE: As versions of SNT-TC-IA change, the older is
and to interpret and evaluate results with respect replaced by the newer version with corrections to be
to applicable codes, standards, and addressed at recertification time. See Inquiries 78-2, 80-14,
specifications.The NOTLevel II should be and 85-2.
thoroughly familiarwith the scope and
limitations of the methods for which qualified Inquiry 76-5
and should exercise assigned responsibilityfor
on-the-job training and guidance of trainees and Inquiry:
NOTLevell personnel. The NOTLevel II should In accordance with SNT-TC-IA (1975 edition), maya
be able to organize and report the results of NOT Level I NDT person who has been trained, qualified, and
tests. certified in accordance with SNT-TC-IA (1975 edition) be
4.3.3 NOT Level III. An NOTLevel III individual the sole person to perform, evaluate, and sign for final
acceptance ofNDT examinations in accordance with writ-
should have sufficient technical knowledge and
ten procedures and acceptance standards with occasional
skillsto be capable of developing, qualifying,
surveillance and guidance from a Level II or III?
and approving procedures, establishing and
approving techniques, interpreting codes,
standards, specifications, and procedures; and
designating the particular NOTmethods,
10
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-lA (2016)
11
Basic I SECTION I
5.4 The employer's written practice should identify the the employer for specific limited applications
test techniques within each test method applicable to as defined in the employer's written practice.
its scope of operations. Limited certifications should apply to
5.5 The employer's written practice shall be reviewed and individuals who do not meet the full training
approved by the employer's NDTLevel II!. and experience ofTable 6.3.1 A. Limited
5.6 The employer's written practice shall be maintained certifications issued in any method should be
on file. approved by the NDTLevel III and
documented in the certification records.
General Comments on Section 5 6.3.2 NDTLevel III
Implicit in the use of SNT-TC-IA is the requirement 6.3.2.1 Have a baccalaureate degree (or
that the employer shall develop a written practice. higher) in engineering or science,
SNT-TC-IA provides the guidelines; the written practice plus one additional year of
sets forth the details. When departures from SNT-TC-IA experience beyond the NDTLevel II
guidelines are made, the written practice should record the requirements in NDTin an
departure. It is good practice to record all departures, even
assignment at least comparable to
when they represent situations in excess and/or with greater
that of an NDTLevel II in the
strength than the recommendations of SNT-TC-IA.
applicable NDTmethod(s), or:
Review Questions for Section 5 6.3.2.2 Have completed with passing
Based on the foregoing discussion, answer the questions grades at least two years of
on p. 31. engineering or science study at a
university, college, or technical
Section 6: Education, Training, and school, plus two additional years of
Experience Requirements for Initial experience beyond the NDTLevel II
Qualification requirements in NDTin an
assignment at least comparable to
Section 6 (p. 3) of SNT-TC-IA (2016) is reprinted below
in full: that of NDTLevel II in the applicable
NDTmethod(sl, or:
6.0 Education, Training, and Experience Requirements for 6.3.2.3 Have four years of experience
Initial Qualification beyond the NDTLevel II
6.1 Candidates for certification in NDTshould have requirements in NDTin an
sufficient education, training, and experience to assignment at least comparable to
ensure qualification in those NDTmethods in which that of an NDTLevel II in the
they are being considered for certification. applicable NDTmethod(s).
Documentation of prior certification may be used by The above NDTLevel III requirements may be
an employer as evidence of qualification for partially replaced by experience as a certified
comparable levels of certification. NDTLevel II or by assignments at least
6.2 Documented training and/or experience gained in comparable to NDTLevel II as defined in the
positions and activities comparable to those of employer's written practice.
Levels I, II, and/or III prior to establishment of the
employer's written practice may be considered in Inquiries for Section 6
satisfying the criteria of Section 6.3.
6.3 To be considered for certification, a candidate should Inquiry 77-4
satisfy one of the following criteria for the applicable
NDTlevel: Inquiry:
6.3.1 NDTLevels I and II May the experience requirements expressed as "certified
Table 6.3.1 A lists the recommended training NDT Level II" in Paragraph 6.3.1(b), (c) and (d) of the 1975
and experience hours to be considered by the edition of SNT-TC-IA be considered to include experience
employer in establishing written practices for gained in "an assignment comparable to that of an NDT
Level II" [as stated in paragraph 6.3.2(a)] in determining
initial qualification of NDTLevell and Level II
the prerequisite requirements of a candidate for certifica-
individuals.
tion as a Level III? If so, may this acceptance of experience
Table 6.3.1 B lists initial training and in "an assignment comparable to" be extended to include
experience hours which may be considered by similar subparagraphs under Paragraph 6.2.5 of the earlier
editions of SNT-TC-IA?
12
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-IA (2016)
Table 6..
3 1 A" Recommended Initial Training and Experience Levels
Experience
Training
Examination Method NOTLevel Technique Hours Minimum Hours in Total Hours in NOT
Method
I 40 210 400
Acoustic Emission
II 40 630 1200
I 40 210 400
AC Field Measurement
II 40 630 1200
I 40 210 400
Electromagnetic Eddy Current
II 40 630 1200
I 40 210 400
Remote Field
II 40 630 1200
Ground Penetrating I 8 60 120
Radar 20 420 800
40 240 460
Guided Wave
40 240 460
8 70 130
Profilometry
24 140 260
Laser Methods 210 400
Holography/ 40
Shearography 40 630 1200
2 3 15
Bubble Testing
I 4 35 80
24 105 200
Pressure Change
16 280 530
Leak Testing
12 105 200
Halogen Diode
8 280 530
40 280 530
Mass Spectrometer
24 420 800
4 70 130
Penetrant Testing
8 140 270
Magnetic Flux 16 70 130
leakage I 12 210 400
I 12 70 130
Magnetic Particle
II 8 210 400
I 40 210 400
Microwave Technology
II 40 630 1200
I 28 420 800
Neutron Radiography
II 40 1680 2400
I 40 210 400
Radiographic
II 40 630 1200
I 40 210 400
Computed Radiography
II 40 630 1200
Radiographic Testing I 40 210 400
Computed Tomography
II 40 630 1200
I 40 210 400
Digital Radiography
II 40 630 1200
I 32 210 400
I Building Diagnostics 34 1260 1800
Thermal/Infrared
Electrical and Mechanical 34 1260 1800
Materials Testing 34 1260 1800
40 210 400
40 630 1200
Ultrasonic Testing
Time of Flight Diffraction 40 160 N/A
Phased Array 80 160 N/A
24 420 800
Vibration Analysis
72 1680 2400
8 70 130
Visual Testing
16 140 270
13
Basic I SECTION I
Notes:
1.0 A person may be qualified directly to NDT Level II with no time as a certified NDT Levell, providing the recommended training
and experience consists of the sum of the hours recommended for NDT Levell and Level II.
2.0 For NDT Level III certification, the experience should consist of the sum of the hours for NDT Levell and Level II, plus the
additional time in 6.3.2 as applicable. The formal training should consist of the NDT Levell and Level II training, plus any
additional formal training as defined in the employer's written practice.
3.0 Listed training hours may be adjusted as described in the employer's written practice depending on the candidate's actual
education level, e.g. grammar school, college graduate in engineering, etc.
4.0 Training should be outlined in the employer's written practice. Magnetic Particle training hours may be counted toward
Magnetic Flux Leakage training hours as defined in employer's written practice.
5.0 If an individual is currently certified in an ETtechnique and a full course format was used to meet the initial qualifications in
that technique, the minimum training hours to qualify in another ETtechnique at the same NDT Level may be reduced up to
40 percent if so defined in the employer's written practice. If an individual is certified in an ETtechnique, the minimum
experience to qualify for another ETtechnique at the same level or to the next level may be reduced by up to 50 percent if so
defined in the employer's written practice.
6.0 While fulfilling total NDT experience requirement, experience may be gained in more than one (1) method; however, the
minimum hours must be met for each method.
7.0 If an individual is currently certified in a Radiographic Testing technique and a full course format was used to meet the initial
qualifications in that technique, the minimum additional training hours to qualify in another technique at the same level
should be 24 hours (of which at least 16 hours should be equipment familiarization). The training outline should be as defined
in the employer's written practice. If an individual is certified in a technique, the minimum additional experience required to
qualify for another technique at the same level may be reduced by up to 50 percent, as defined in the employer's written
practice.
8.0 Independent of the training recommended for Levell and Level II certification, a trainee is required to receive radiation safety
training as required by the regulatory jurisdiction.
9.0 If an individual is currently certified in one Thermal/Infrared technique and a full course format was used to meet the initial
qualifications in that technique, the minimum additional training hours to qualify in another technique at the same level
should be 20 hours (of which at least 16 hours should be specific technique familiarization). The training outline should be as
defined in the employer's written practice. If an individual is certified in a technique, the minimum additional experience
required to qualify for another technique at the same level may be reduced by up to 50 percent, as defined in the employer's
written practice.
10.0 Time of Flight Diffraction and Phased Array require Ultrasonic Testing Level II certification as a prerequisite.
Table 6.3.1 B: Recommended Initial Training and Experience Levels for NOTLevel II Limited Certifications
Technician's Starting Formal Minimum Work Experience
Examination Method Limited Certification in Method (Hours)
Point Training
Film Interpretation Non-Radiographer 40 2201
Radiographic
Film Interpretation RT Levell 24 2201
Digital Thickness Measurement
Trainee 8 40
(numeric output only)
Ultrasonic
A-scan Thickness Measurement Trainee 24 175
14
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-JA (2016)
Response: Inquiry:
It is intended that the employer's written practice Please clarify ASNT's intent regarding the phrase,
should include details of maintaining records. It is intended "assignment comparable to that of an NDT LevelII" as it
that records should reflect the facts of each individual's [is] related to SNT-TC-IA, 1984 edition, Paragraph 6.3.2.l. I
work time with regard to the amount of time spent on each interpret this statement to mean: even though an individual
method and the periods of time during which the work was has a four-year degree in science or engineering, he or she
performed. should also have the "documented" NDT training and expe-
rience commensurate with that of a Level II. This docu-
Inquiries 79-14 and 79-15 mented training should follow the guidelines established in
Table 6.3.1 of SNT-TC-IA (1984 edition). It also requires
Inquiry: (in my opinion) this individual practice as a LevelII for at
Is it intended per SNT-TC-IA (1975edition) that the time least one year before being eligible for Level III certification.
spent in a laboratory exerciseduring a long-term NDT course
be considered the only qualifyingwork time experience? Response:
May the laboratory time be given any credit at all as Please reference Inquiry 83-8.
"work time experience" to satisfy all the requirements in
Table 6.2.1A?
General Comments on Section 6
Response: Paragraph 6.3.1, like the rest of SNT-TC-IA, is only a
It is not intended that laboratory experience in an edu- guide. The employer's written practice should detail all such
cational program be directly applied to the work time expe- requirements, which may differ from the recommendations
rience. Laboratory experience is not necessarily applicable of Paragraph 6.3.1.
to the employer's product or to the specific codes, stan- Table note 5.0 provides for reductions in training
dards, or specifications in use. However, in recognition of hours and experience based on additional ET certifications.
the benefits accruing from laboratory experience, the Similarly,in Table 6.3.1A of the 2011 edition of SNT-TC-IA,
employer may include such consideration for adjustment to this same approach was used to divide Radiographic Testing
the work experience in his or her written practice. Should into four techniques. Table note 7.0 provides for reductions
the employer decide to do so, he or she should thoroughly in training hours and experience based on additional RT cer-
evaluate the curriculum to determine its applicability. tifications. Additional reductions are allowed for the
Thermal/Infrared method based on its three techniques in
table note 9.0.
15
Basic I SECTION I
Inquiry 77-4 points to consideration given in products to be tested. All training programs should
SNT-TC-IA to the initial establishment of a formal qualifi- be approved by the NOT Level III responsible for the
cation and certification program. Paragraph 6.2 recognizes applicable method.
that prior to establishing a program and a written practice, 7.2 The training program should include sufficient
the employer may have provided training as well as other
examinations to ensure understanding of the
essentials of qualifying NDT personnel without formal pro-
necessary information.
cedures. Hence, documentation of such activities could pro-
vide evidence of the equivalence of prior activities with 7.3 Recommended training course outlines and
those recommended in SNT-TC-IA. Paragraphs 6.3.2.1, references for NOT Levels I, II, and III personnel, which
6.3.2.2, and 6.3.2.3 use the phrase "in an assignment at least may be used as technical source material, are
comparable to that of an NDT Level II." In other words, the contained in ANSI/ASNTCP-J05:ASNTStandard
experience can be "comparable to that of an NDT Level II" Topicol Outlines for Qualification of
if documentation can be produced that substantiates the Nondestructive TestingPersonnet.
comparability. 7.4 The employer who purchases outside training services
In the 2011 edition of SNT-TC-IA, Table 6.3.1 B from is responsible for ensuring that such services meet the
the 2006 edition was removed, thus eliminating the so- requirements of the employer's written practice.
called "25% rule." This rule stated, "Initial experience may
be gained simultaneously in two or more methods if the
candidate spends a minimum of 25 percent of his [or her] Inquiries for Section 7
work time on each method for which certification is
sought." Table 6.3.1 A requires that experience be accumu- Inquiry 07-1
lated by hours rather than months and both minimum and
total experience hours must be satisfied. See note 6.0. Inquiry:
NOTE: Table 6.3.1 B in the 2006 edition was titled Per the 2001 edition of SNT-TC-IA, Paragraphs 7.1, 7.2,
"Alternate Initial Training and Experience Levels"and was and 9.4.4, and Tables 6.3.1A and 6.3.1B:
deleted in the 2011 edition. Table 6.3.1 C, "Initial Training
and Experience Levelsfor LevelII Limited Certifications," 1. Can computer or Web-based NDT training with associat-
in the 2006 edition replaced Table 6.3.1 B in the 2011 edi- ed electronic quizzes be used to satisfy the training
tion. This change was retained in the 2016 edition; however, requirements described in Paragraphs 7.1 and 7.2?
the title of Table 6.3.1 B was amended to "Recommended 2. If so, how should an employer document that training
Initial Training and Experience Levelsfor LevelII Limited
hours meet the recommended hours listed in Tables
Certifications."
6.3.1Aand 6.3.lB so they can comply with the "satisfactory
Review Questions for Section 6 completion" requirements required by Paragraph 9.4.4?
Based on the foregoing discussion, answer the questions
on pp. 31-32. Response:
1. See Inquiry 84-4, response 1 [in Interpreting
SNT-TC-IA]. Inquiry 84-4 addresses home-study (corre-
Section 7: Training Programs spondence) courses, but the response is appropriate for
Section 7 (p. 6) of SNT-TC-IA (2016) is reprinted below both computer and Web-based training.
in full: 2. SeeInquiry 84-4, response 2 [in InterpretingSNT-TC-IA].
16
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-lA (2016)
In the 2011 edition of SNT-TC-IA, paragraph 7.1 was understanding of the information rather than
modified to clarify the use of alternative means for training merely locating the appropriate answer.
such as computer and/or Web-based training. Guidance
8.1.4 For NOT Levell and II personnel, a composite
was also included to ensure that such training provides the
grade should be determined by simple
user with contact hours, correlation to the applicable train-
ing outline, and appropriate examinations. This change has averaging of the results of the general, specific,
been maintained in the 2016 edition. and practical examinations described below.
For NDT Level III personnel, the composite
Review Questions for Section 7 grade should be determined by simple
Based on the foregoing discussion, answer the questions averaging of the results of the basic, method,
on p. 32. and specific examinations described below.
8.1.5 Examinations administered by the employer
for qualification should result in a passing
Section 8: Examinations composite grade of at least 80 percent, with
Section 8 (pp. 6-10) of SNT-TC-IA (2016) is reprinted no individual examination having a passing
below in full: grade less than ?O percent.
8.1.6 When an examination is administered and
8.0 Examinations graded for the employer by an outside agency
8.1 Administration and Grading and the outside agency issues grades of pass
8.1.1 All qualification examination questions should or fail only, on a certified report, then the
be approved by the NOT Level III responsible employer may accept the pass grade as 80
for the applicable method. percent for that particular examination.
8.1.2 An NOT Level III should be responsible for the 8.1.? The employer who purchases outside services
administration and grading of examinations is responsible for ensuring that the examination
specified in Section 8.3 through 8.8 for NDT services meet the requirements of the
Levell, II, or other Level III personnel. The employer's written practice.
administration and grading of examinations 8.1.8 In no case shall an examination be
may be delegated to a qualified representative administered by one's self or by a subordinate.
of the NDT Level III and so recorded. A 8.2 Vision Examinations
qualified representative of the employer may 8.2.1 Near-Vision Acuity: The examination should
perform the actual administration and grading ensure natural or corrected near-distance
of NDT Level III examinations specified in 8.7. acuity in at least one eye such that the
8.1.2.1 To be designated as a qualified applicant is capable of reading a minimum of
representative of the NOT Level III Jaeger Number 2 or equivalent type and size
for the administration and grading letter at the distance designated on the chart
of NDT Levell and Level II personnel but not less than 12 in. (30.5 cm) on a standard
qualification examinations, the Jaeger test chart. The ability to perceive an
designee should have documented, Ortho-Rater minimum of 8 or similar test
appropriate instruction by the pattern is also acceptable. This should be
responsible NDT Level III in the administered annually.
proper administration and grading of 8.2.2 Color Contrast Differentiation: The examination
qualification examinations prior to should demonstrate the capability of
conducting and grading independent distinguishing and differentiating contrast
qualification examinations for NDT among colors or shades of gray used in the
personnel. Additionally, the practical method as determined by the employer. This
exam should be administered by a should be conducted upon initial certification
person certified in the applicable NDT and at five-year intervals thereafter.
method as NDT Level II or III. 8.2.3 Vision examinations expire on the last day of
8.1.3 All NDT Levell, II, and III written examinations the month of expiration.
should be closed-book except that necessary 8.3 General (Written - for NDT Levels I and II)
data, such as graphs, tables, specifications, 8.3.1 The general examinations should address the
procedures, codes, etc., may be provided with basic principles of the applicable method.
or in the examination. Questions utilizing such 8.3.2 In preparing the examinations, the NDT
reference materials should require an Level III should select or devise appropriate
questions covering the applicable method to
17
Basic I SECTION I
the degree required by the employer's written 8.5.3 The description of the specimen, the NDT
practice. procedure, including checkpoints, and the
8.3.3 See Appendix A [not included in this book] for results of the examination should be
example questions. documented.
8.3.4 The minimum number of questions that 8.5.4 NDT Levell Practical Examination. Proficiency
should be given is shown in Table 8.3.4. should be demonstrated in performing the
8.3.5 A valid ACCP Level II or ASNT NDT Level II applicable NDT technique on one or more
certificate may be accepted as fulfilling the specimens or machine problems approved by
general examination criteria for each the NDT Level III and in evaluating the results
applicable method if the NDT Level III has to the degree of responsibility as described in
determined that the ASNT examinations meet the employer's written practice. At least ten
the requirements of the employer's written (10) different checkpoints requiring an
practice. understanding of test variables and the
8.4 Specific (Written - for NDT Levels I and II) employer's procedural requirements should
8.4.1 The specific examination should address the be included in this practical examination. The
equipment, operating procedures, and NDT candidate should detect all discontinuities and
techniques that the individual may encounter conditions specified by the NDT Level III.
during specific assignments to the degree
required by the employer's written practice. Note: While it is normal to score the practical
8.4.2 The specific examination should also cover the on a percentile basis, practical examinations
specifications or codes and acceptance criteria should contain checkpoints that failure to
used in the employer's NDT procedures. successfully complete will result in failure of
8.4.3 The minimum number of questions that the examination.
should be given is shown in Table 8.3.4.
8.4.4 A valid ACCP Level II or ASNT NDT Level II 8.5.5 NDT Level II Practical Examination. Proficiency
certificate may be accepted as fulfilling the should be demonstrated in selecting and
specific examination criteria for each performing the applicable NDT technique
applicable method if the NDT Level III has within the method and interpreting and
determined that the ASNT examinations meet evaluating the results on one or more
the requirements of the employer's written specimens or machine problems approved by
practice. the NDT Level III. At least ten (10) different
8.5 Practical (for NDT Levell and II) checkpoints requiring an understanding of
8.5.1 The candidate should demonstrate familiarity NDT variables and the employer's procedural
with and ability to operate the necessary NDT requirements should be included in this
equipment, record, and analyze the resultant practical examination. The candidate should
information to the degree required. detect all discontinuities and conditions
8.5.2 At least one flawed specimen or component specified by the NDT Level III. An example of a
should be tested and the results of the NDT practical examination checklist is attached as
test analyzed by the candidate. Appendix B [not included in this book] to this
8.5.2.1 Phased Array and Time of Flight Recommended Practice. The example checklist
Diffraction Practical Examination. has been provided as guidance on
Flawed samples used for practical development of practical examinations for any
examinations should be method or level.
representative of the components
and/or configurations that the Note: While it is normal to score the practical
candidates would be testing under on a percentile basis, practical examinations
this endorsement and approved by should contain checkpoints that failure to
the NDT Level III. successfully complete will result in failure of
8.5.2.2 For Film Interpretation Limited the examination.
Certification, the practical
examination should consist of 8.5.6 A valid ACCP Level II certificate may be
review and grading of at least 20 accepted as fulfilling the practical examination
images. criteria for each applicable method if the NDT
18
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A (2016)
Level III has determined that the ASNT of questions that should be given is
examinations meet the requirements of the as follows:
employer's written practice. 8.7.1.1.1 Fifteen (15) questions
8.6 Sample questions for general examinations are relating to understanding
presented in the separate question booklets that can the SNT-TC-1A
be obtained from ASNT International Service Center. document.
These questions are intended as examples only and 8.7.1.1.2 Twenty (20) questions
should not be used verbatim for qualification relating to applicable
examinations. The following ASNT Questions & materials, fabrication, and
Answers Books are available from ASNT International product technology.
Service Center: 8.7.1.1.3 Twenty (20) questions that
are similar to published
Level II questions for other
Test Method Question
Booklet appropriate NOT methods.
8.7.1.2 PdM Basic Examination (need not be
Acoustic Emission Testing G
retaken to add another test method
Electromagnetic Testing E
as long as the candidate holds a
1. Alternating Current Field Measurement EA
current Level III certificate or
2. Eddy Current EE
3. Remote Field Testing ER certification). The minimum number
Ground Penetrating Radar GP* of questions that should be given is
Guided Wave Testing GW* as follows:
Laser Testing 8.7.1.2.1 Fifteen (15) questions
1. Profilometry LP* relating to understanding
2. Holography/Shearography LH* the SNT-TC-1A
Leak Testing document.
1. Bubble Test HB 8.7.1.2.2
Twenty (20) questions
2. Pressure Change Measurement HP
relating to applicable
3. Halogen Diode Leak Test HH
machinery technology.
4. Mass Spectrometer Test HM
8.7.1.2.3 Thirty (30) questions that
Liquid Penetrant Testing D
Magnetic Flux Leakage Testing MF* are similar to published
Magnetic Particle Testing B NOT Level II questions for
Microwave Technology MW* other appropriate PdM
Neutron Radiography Testing F methods.
Radiographic Testing 8.7.2 Method Examination (for each method).
1. Radiographic Testing A 8.7.2.1 Thirty (30) questions relating to
2. Computed Radiography Testing AA* fundamentals and principles that are
3. Computed Tomography Testing AB* similar to published ASNT NOT Level
4. Digital Radiography Testing AC*
III questions for each method, and
Thermal/Infrared Testing J*
8.7.2.2 Fifteen (15) questions relating to
Ultrasonic Testing C
application and establishment of
Vibration Analysis K*
Visual Testing I
techniques and procedures that are
*In course of preparation. similar to the published ASNT NOT
Level III questions for each method,
and
8.7.2.3 Twenty (20) questions relating to
capability for interpreting codes,
8.7 NOT/PdM Level III Examinations standards, and specifications
8.7.1 Basic Examinations relating to the method.
8.7.1.1 NOT Basic Examination (need not be 8.7.3 Specific Examination (for each method).
retaken to add another test method 8.7.3.1 Twenty (20) questions relating to
as long as the candidate holds a specifications, equipment,
current Level III certificate or techniques, and procedures
certification). The minimum number applicable to the employer's
product(s) and methods employed
19
Basic I SECTION I
20
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A (2016)
21
Basic I SECTION I
Response: Response:
Please refer to Paragraphs S.5.1(c)and 9.6.1(£).Either of No. See Inquiry OS-2.
the proposed grading methods is permissible depending on
the needs of the employer. Other approaches may also be Inquiry 10-4
taken. The approach which meets the needs of the employer
should be described in the written practice and followed for Inquiry:
the practical examination. The last technique proposing a Mayan employer appoint directly an "EN 473 Level III"
questionnaire for which written answers would be prepared as employer's NDT Level III after defined in employer's
would fall more appropriately under the Specific examina- written practice to sign the certificates according to
tion category.
SNT-TC-IA in order to verify qualification of candidate
Inquiry 05-1
for certification?
Response:
Inquiry: The employer may use the examination results that he
Paragraph S.1.3states, "Examinations administered for or she has determined meet the requirement of the written
qualification should result in a passing grade of at least practice. As stated in SNT-TC-IA, Paragraph S.1.5,the
SOpercent," but if the employer's written practice states that employer is responsible for ensuring the examination serv-
each examination must achieve 70 percent or more, and ices meet the requirements of the employer's written prac-
does not require an SOpercent composite, is this acceptable? tice. Certification can only be issued when it has been deter-
mined that all the requirements of the employer's written
Response: practice have been met.
No. See Inquiry 99-3.
General Comments on Section 8
Note to the Inquirer: In the 2011 edition of SNT-TC-IA, provisions were
The SNT-TC-IA Interpretation Panel reviewed this included to designate qualified individuals to administer
question and agreed with the original response. and grade examinations. Such designations must be
documented.
Inquiry 08-2 Also in the 2011 edition, employers were provided the
option of using an ASNT NDT Level II certificate to satisfy
the General Examination requirement. This is an additional
Inquiry:
option to the ACCP Level II certificate used to satisfy this
Per the 2001 edition of SNT-TC-IA, a Level II examiner same requirement that was added in the 1996 edition of
is certified in PT, MT, and VT and has been approved as SNT-TC-IA in a 1995 addenda.
capable of distinguishing and differentiating contrast These changes have been retained in the 2016 edition.
among colors according to Ishihara standard plates, as
determined by the written practice. Does this person also Review Questions for Section 8
require approval by a shades of gray acuity examination to
Based on the foregoing discussion, answer the questions
be qualified in RT to meet the requirements of Paragraph
on pp. 32-34.
S.2.2?
Response:
Yes. See Inquiry 01-11. Paragraph S.2.2 allows the Section 9: Certification
employer to determine the method of testing for color dif- Section 9 (p. 10) of SNT-TC-IA (2016) is reprinted
ferentiation or gray shade differentiation. Whether to test below in full:
for color differentiation or gray shade differentiation is
determined by which is appropriate for the method the 9.0 Certification
individual is being certified in.
9.1 Certification of NDT personnel to all levels of
Inquiry 08-3 qualification is the responsibility of the employer.
9.2 Certification of NDT personnel should be based on
Inquiry: demonstration of satisfactory qualification in
Per the 2001 edition of SNT-TC-IA, an MT examiner accordance with Sections 6, 7, and 8, as described in
has been approved in the capability of distinguishing and the employer's written practice.
differentiating contrast among colors according to Ishihara 9.3 At the option of the employer, an outside agency may
standard plates. Does this person need to be tested in be engaged to provide NDT Level III services. In such
shades of gray acuity, if the MT procedure uses gray mag- instances, the responsibility of certification of the
netic particles, to meet the requirements of Paragraph S.2.2?
employees shall be retained by the employer.
22
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-lA (2016)
23
Basic I SECTION I
Response: Inquiry:
1. There is no intent to restrict the number of outside Is it acceptable for a candidate for Level III certification
agencies from which an employer could use Level III under SNT-TC-IA (1988 edition) to be qualified on the
services. basis of demonstrated ability, achievement, experience, and
2. Yes, both the above and this situation may be used education in lieu of qualification by examination as stated
under circumstances as described in the employer's writ- in Paragraph 9.6(g)?
ten practice. Response:
3. It is not intended that unsupervised examinations be No. Paragraph 8.8 specifically requires that a Level III
administered. candidate be qualified by examination. Paragraph 9.6(g)
addresses the content of the qualification records file to be
Inquiry 89-4 maintained by the employer of certified personnel.
Response: Response:
It is intended by the 1988edition of SNT-TC-IA that all No. Certification of all levels of NDT personnel is the
Level Ills initially certified after issuance of the 1988 edition responsibility of the employer. It is the intent of ASNT to
of SNT- TC-IA be qualified by examination. certify Level Ills by examination. However, the employer
Also see Inquiry 90-2 and Inquiry 92-2. can specify the requirements for a certification route with-
out examination in the employer's written practice. Please
see Inquiry 80-9, Inquiry 89-4, Inquiry 90-2, Inquiry 90-4,
Inquiry 90-2
and Inquiry 92-2.
Inquiry: NOTE: This is a reconsideration of Inquiry 90-4.
1. Is it the intent of ASNT that all LevelIII personnel certi-
fied to the 1988 edition be examined?
24
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-IA (2016)
25
Basic I SECTION I
26
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-lA (2016)
13.2.2 The employeewas workingin the capacityto 14.1.1 The employerhas maintainedthe personnel
whichcertifiedwithinsix (6) months of certificationrecords required in Section 9.4.
termination. 14.1.2 The employee's certificationdid not expire
13.2.3 The employee is being recertifiedwithinsix (6) during termination.
months of termination. 14.1.3 The employee is being reinstated within six (6)
13.2.4 Priorto being examined for certification, months of termination.
employeesnot meeting the above
requirementsshould receiveadditional Inquiries for Section 14
trainingas deemed appropriateby the LevelII!.
Inquiry 78-10
Inquiries for Section 13 NOTE: This inquiry relates to paragraph 14.0beginning
with the 2001 edition.
Inquiry 78-4
NOTE: This inquiry relates to Paragraph 13.2beginning Inquiry:
with the 2001 edition. 1. When an employee returns to work for a former
employer where he or she was certified, may this
Inquiry: employee's certification(s) be reinstated without exami-
1. Regarding paragraph 10.2of SNT-TC-IA, does "based nation if the provisions of Paragraphs 10.2(b) and
on examination" refer to examinations administered 10.2(c) are met?
during prior employment or does it refer to new exami- 2. If an employee has been continuously working for
nations to be administered by the new employer? another employer certified in the same capacities, may
2. An individual can provide evidence of prior certification his or her certification(s) be reinstated for the remainder
per paragraph 10.2(a),but does not meet either of the original three-year period of certification in accor-
Paragraphs 10.2(b) or 10.2(c), which recommend that dance with Paragraph 9.7?
the individual was working in the capacity to which he
or she had been certified and is being recertified within Response:
six months of his or her termination. What should be 1. The provisions of Paragraph 10.2 apply only to a new
the basis of qualification for such an individual? employer. For this part of the inquiry, the provisions of
Paragraph 9.7.3 would prevail.
Response: 2. For this part of the inquiry, the receiving employer
1. It is intended that the examination referred to in would be considered a new employer and the provisions
Paragraph 10.2be administered by the new employer. of Paragraph 10.2would apply. If, however, the employ-
2. It is intended that an individual who has neither worked ee in question was previously employed by the receiving
in the capacity to which previously certified in the past employer, Paragraph 9.7.3 would prevail.
six months nor is being recertified within six months
should have additional training and experience prior to General Comments on Section 14
recertification. The employer's written practice should This section was not in editions of SNT-TC-IA before
detail such provisions. 2001. This section was added to establish the guidelines for
reinstatement of an individual's certification that has been
Review Questions for Section 13 terminated. This specificallyrelates to a former employee,
Based on the foregoing discussion, answer the questions not a new employee (see 13.2).This would cover those situ-
on p. 35. ations where a certified employee had his or her certifica-
tion terminated or suspended due to a temporary layoff, or
a temporary non-NDT job assignment.
Section 14: Reinstatement
Section 14 (p. 11) of SNT-TC-IA (2016) is reprinted NOTE: There are no review questions for Section 14.
below in full:
14.0 Reinstatement
14.1 AnNDTLevell,LevelII, or LevelIII whose certification
has been terminated may be reinstated to the former
NDTlevel,without a new examination,providedallof
the followingconditionsare met:
27
Basic I SECTIONI
Review Questions
28
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-lA (2016)
a. Certification is written testimony of qualification. a. the skill, training, and experience required for
b. Qualification is the skill, training, and experience personnel to properly perform the duties of a
required for personnel to properly perform the specific job.
duties of a specific job. b. written testimony of qualification.
c. The employer is the corporate or private entity c. intended to be conferred by an organization
that employs personnel for wages or salary. independent from the employer.
d. A certifying agency is any organization used by d. intended to be conferred by an organization
an employer in training NDT personnel. hired by the employer.
8. Who should be responsible to assess whether or not 13. Use of SNT-TC-IA is mandatory when:
an individual should be qualified and certified who
does not perform NDT, but monitors and evaluates a. the material being tested is for a U.S. Air Force
NDT? contract.
b. the material being tested is for a U.S. Navy
a. ASNT. contract.
b. The individual's employer. c. it has been specified by the customer.
c. A government regulatory agency. d. the material being tested is for a U.S. Army
d. The customer's auditor. contract that requires certification of NDT
personnel.
9. To which of the following NDT methods is
SNT-TC-IA currently not applicable?
Section 4
a. Visual testing.
b. Thermal/infrared testing. 14. The basic levels of qualification recommended by
c. Acoustic emission testing. SNT-TC-IA are:
d. Holographic testing.
a. Trainee, Level I, Level II, and Level III.
10. ASNT intended that the recommendations of b. Trainee, Apprentice, Level I, Level II, and Level
SNT-TC-IA be applied: III.
c. Level I, Level II, and Level III.
a. with flexibility and reason. d. Level I, Level II, Level III, and Instructor.
b. precisely as written.
c. as minimum requirements. 15. Should personnel that operate ultrasonic digital
d. as maximum requirements. thickness measurement equipment be qualified and
certified?
11. Of the following, which is most appropriate to
determine the needs to qualify and certify personnel a. Yes, because SNT-TC-IA requires that all
whose only NDT function is to operate digital personnel performing NDT be qualified and
thickness equipment? certified.
b. No, because SNT-TC-IA does not cover that
a. ASNT. specific operation.
b. ASME. c. Only if required by industry codes, standards,
c. The employer. and specifications.
d. The customer. d. Whether any NDT personnel should be qualified
and certified depends solely upon the needs of
the employer and the requirements of the
employer's customers or clientele.
29
Basic I SEGION I
16. According to the recommendations of SNT-TC-IA, 19. Maya Level I independently perform, evaluate, and
which of the following is true concerning a Trainee's sign for results of nondestructive tests with
activities? supervision and guidance from a Level II or III?
a. The Trainee may not conduct nondestructive a. Yes, the intent in SNT-TC-IA is that the Level I
tests independently and may not report test may perform the above functions provided that
results. they are in accordance with written instruction of
b. The Trainee may not conduct nondestructive a Level II or III.
tests independently, but may interpret test results b. No, the Level I may perform the above functions
if acting under written instructions. in accordance with written procedures, but must
c. The Trainee should work along with a certified be under constant supervision and guidance of a
individual and may be considered a Level I, Level II or Level III.
provided that the certified individual co-signs any c. No, the Level I may not sign for test results.
test reports. d. No, the Level I is not allowed to take any
d. Once the Trainee has worked along with a independent action.
certified individual, the Trainee may then
independently perform any activities as directed 20. Which of the following statements is true concerning
by the certified individual. the definitions of Trainee, Level I, II and III in
SNT-TC-IA?
17. According to SNT- TC-IA, which of the following is
not true for a Level III? a. The qualifications for Level III equal and exceed
those of Level II.
a. Should be capable of assisting in establishment of b. SNT-TC-IA was intended for use by employers to
acceptance criteria. determine the proficiency of individuals at each
b. Must train and examine the LevelI and II level.
personnel in his or her organization. c. Except for a provision for a Trainee, LevelsI, II,
c. Should be familiar with other commonly used and III may not be further subdivided. Level IIIs
NDT methods. may not perform Level II functions unless they
d. Should be capable of establishing techniques and pass Level II examinations.
selecting of test methods. d. A Trainee may perform all of the functions of a
Level I if following written instructions.
18. According to written instructions, an NDT Level I
may be qualified to perform: 21. . Which of the following is not within the scope of
activities of a LevelII individual, as recommended in
a. specific calibrations. SNT-TC-IA?
b. specific nondestructive tests.
c. specific evaluations. a. Calibrate equipment.
d. all of the above, and record test results. b. Prepare written reports.
c. Establish techniques.
d. Provide training.
30
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-lA (2016)
24. In accordance with SNT- TC-IA, who is responsible a. Overtime cannot be considered in meeting the
for establishing a written practice for the control and minimum experience.
administration of NDT personnel training, b. Overtime can only be considered if the candidate
examination, and certification? is being qualified in more than one method
simultaneously.
a. The NDT Level III. c. Overtime can be credited based on total hours.
b. The employer. d. SNT-TC-IA does not currently provide a
c. ASNT. recommendation regarding overtime.
d. An appropriate regulatory authority.
28. High school education is recommended as a
25. The responsibility of each level of certification for minimum requirement for:
determining the acceptability of materials or
components: a. Level III only.
b. Level II and Level III only.
a. need not be described in the employer's written c. none of the levels.
practice since those responsibilities are defined d. all three levels.
specifically in SNT- TC-IA.
b. should be described in the employer's written 29. In Leak Testing, recommended work time experience
practice only if they are different from and training:
SNT- TC-IA recommendations.
c. should be described in the employer's written a. differs for each of four major techniques.
practice under all circumstances. b. does not consider different techniques.
d. should be described in the employer's written c. is listed for LevelsII and III only.
practice if dictated by customer requirements. d. is significantly greater than for ultrasonic testing.
31
Basic I SECTION I
32. For a person being qualified directly to Level II with 37. Recommended training reference material:
no time at Level I, the recommended experience
consists of: a. is available only through ASNT.
b. is available from a variety of sources.
a. the time recommended for Level II. c. can only include those references listed in
b. the time recommended for Level III. CP-lOS.
c. the sum of the times recommended for Level I d. must be made available to each Trainee.
and Level II.
d. not less than 6 months for any method. 38. The recommended training course outline includes:
33. In some cases, the training times recommended for a. technical principles of the method.
Level I are greater than for LevelII. Why? b. review of API 1104 requirements.
c. review of ASTM guidelines.
a. In preparing for qualification at Level I, the d. review of interpretation requirements in
candidate should always receive more training ASME B31.3.
than for Level II, regardless of the NDT method.
b. Some numbers in the table are erroneous.
c. Candidates for LevelII generally have more Section 8
formal education than those for Level I.
d. Some methods require more initial training at 39. In accordance with SNT-TC-IA, the NDT Level III
Level I because of differences in complexity and should be responsible for:
manipulative skills.
a. ensuring LevelII personnel examine Level I
34. The recommended number of training hours in a personnel.
particular method are: b. interpretation of all test results obtained by Level
II personnel.
a. listed as a function of the candidate's education. c. all questions to be used on examinations for Level
b. the same regardless of the candidate's education. I and LevelII.
c. listed as a function of the candidate's experience. d. writing all company standard operating
d. reduced if the candidate is being qualified in procedures.
more than one method Simultaneously.
32
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-IA (2016)
40. Which of the following may conduct and grade 46. The Practical Examination is recommended to
examinations [or LevelI and Level II personnel? include operational familiarity with test equipment
and analysis of test results for:
a. An NDT LevelII.
b. A qualified representative of the NDT Level III. a. LevelsI, II, and III.
e. ASNT personnel because they offer examinations b. LevelsI and II.
on a regular basis. e. LevelsII and III.
d. The company president. d. Trainees, Level I, and Level II.
41. How often should the near-vision acuity examination 47. Which of the following statements is true with regard
be administered? to the administration of written examinations?
33
Basic I SECTION I
50. In certification of LevelIII personnel according to 54. What purpose is best served by maintaining
the recommendations of SNT-TC-IA, the employer: certification records and the written practice?
5l. For Level I and II examinations, the recommended 55. The employer is responsible for certification of:
minimum composite score is:
a. Level I and LevelII NDT personnel.
a. 60 percent. b. Level III personnel only.
b. 90 percent. c. outside services.
c. 70 percent. d. all levels of NDT personnel.
d. 80 percent.
56. The employer can consider an individual to be
52. For Level III Basic Examinations, it is recommended qualified to LevelIII, but only if he or she:
that Level II questions also be included. These
questions should be: a. takes a comprehensive written examination.
b. has in excess of 5 years' experience comparable to
a. Level II type questions based on other applicable a Level II.
NDT methods. c. meets the requirements of the employer's written
b. based on Level II tasks for the particular Method practice.
Examination. d. has taken the ASNT NDT Level III Basic and at
c. selected at random from questions previously least one of the Method examinations.
used on Level II examinations.
d. given only if the candidate is being examined in
more than one method. Section 12
53. If an outside agency is engaged to provide Level III a. Recertification can be accomplished only by
services, the: reexamination at least once every three years.
b. Recertification can be based upon evidence of
a. written practice of the outside agency pertains, continuing satisfactory performance.
and it is not necessary for the employer that uses c. Once certified to a particular level, certification
the outside services to have a written practice. can only be terminated if the certified individual
b. responsibility of certification must be retained by terminates employment with the certifying
the employer utilizing outside services. employer.
c. employer utilizing outside services must d. Reexamination of a certified individual can be
nonetheless have a LevelIII in direct accomplished only after three years at a particular
employment. level.
d. outside agency may certify the personnel of the
employer utilizing outside services.
34
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-lA (2016)
Answers
ld 2a 3b 4d Sb 6c 7d 8b 9d lOa llc l2b 13c
l4c lSd l6a l7b l8d 19a 20a 2lc 22d 23d 24b 2Sc 26a
27d 28c 29a 30a 3lb 32c 33d 34b 3Sc 36d 37b 38a 39c
40b 4lc 42c 43a 44d 4Sa 46b 47d 48c 49b SOc Sld 52a
S3b 54c 55d 56c 57b S8a S9a
35
CHAPTER 2
ANSI/ASNT CP-189 (2016)
37
Basic I SECTION I
38
CHAPTER 2 ANSI/ASNT CP-189 (2016)
39
Basic I SECTIONI
40
CHAPTER 2 ANSI/ASNT CP-/89 (2016)
Review Questions
l. In accordance with CP-J89 (2016), an NDT Level III: 4. As required in CP-J89, Level I Practical examinations
are intended to be:
a. shall be responsible for grading all Level I and
Level II certification examinations. a. given by the employer's Level III.
b. must prepare all training materials for NDT Level b. passed only if all predefined discontinuities are
I and Level II personnel. detected and evaluated.
c. must approve all questions to be used on c. given using one or more test samples for each
examinations for LevelI and Level II. technique.
d. must administer all LevelI and II written d. given using one or more test samples for each
examinations. method.
2. Which of the following is true regarding NDT Level 5. The Practical Examination shall address the technical
III Practical Examinations? and practical competency of the examinee when
following prepared NDT procedures for:
a. This examination requirement may be waived if
the candidate holds a currently valid ASNT a. Level I, Level II, and NDT Instructor.
Level III certificate. b. corporate Level Ills.
b. The exam administrator must hold a valid ASNT c. all levels of qualification including the trainer or
Level III certification in the applicable test instructor.
method. d. LevelsI and II.
c. The use of a written checklist may be used at the
discretion of the administrator.
d. Exam administration may be delegated to any
authorized representative by the employer.
Answers
lc 2b 3a 4c Sd
41
CHAPTER 3
The ASNT NDT Level III Certification Program
In their Fall 1974 meeting, the ASNT Board of Directors 4. Liquid Penetrant Testing (PT)*
authorized implementation of a voluntary program for cer- 5. Magnetic Flux Leakage (MFL)*
tification of NDT Level III personnel. The Board decided 6. Magnetic Particle Testing (MT)*
that use of the term "certification" as applied in the ASNT 7. Neutron Radiography Testing (NR)
NDT Level III program was appropriate, indicating that
8. Radiographic Testing (RT)
personnel holding ASNT NDT Level III certificates had met
certain education, training, experience, and examination 9. Thermal/Infrared Testing OR)
requirements. It is important to note that the word "certifi- 10.Ultrasonic Testing (UT)
cation" as used in the Level III program indicates a record 11. Visual Testing (VT)*
of achievement and/or qualification. As used in
Recommended PracticeNo. SNT- TC-IA: Personnel
Qualification and Certification in Nondestructive Testing, "These examinations comprise 90 questions; the others have
"certification" indicates that employers have authorized l35 questions. For examination purposes, MFL is designat-
NDT Level III personnel to perform work on their behalf. ed ML.
The first ASNT NDT Level III examinations were given in
early 1977.
The following is a description of the ASNT Level III What Is an ASNT NOTLevel III?
Certification Programs. Additional information is available ASNT NDT Level III personnel are individuals who
on the ASNT website at www.asnt.org under the demonstrated that they are sufficiently knowledgeable to
Certification menu option. The program information docu- pass the Basic and Method qualification examin~t~~ns
ment, CP-ASNT-IB, which describes the ASNT NDT Level developed and administered by ASNT. To gam initial
III Program in detail, is reprinted from the ASNT website as ASNT NDT Level III certification, eligible candidates must
Appendix B in this publication. pass the Basic Examination and at least one Method
Examination. Once certified, additional certifications can be
added by passing the applicable Method Examination as ..
ASNT NOT Level III long as the candidate holds one valid ASNT Level III certifi-
The ASNT NDT Level III program initially offered cer-
cation. If all certifications expire, the Basic and Method
tification in five NDT methods and currently offers certifi-
exams must be passed to regain that certification.
cation examinations in 11 methods. Over 8000 personnel
The Basic Examination is a l35-question test that covers
in over 75 countries currently hold more than 23 000 cer-
the administration of certification programs developed in
tifications in nondestructive test methods, making the
accordance with SNT- TC-IA and ANSJ/ASNT CP-189:
ASNT NDT Level III program the largest NDT certifica-
ASNT Standardfor Qualification and Certification of
tion program in the world. ASNT is an independent,
Nondestructive TestingPersonnel;general knowledge of
third-party certification body accredited by the American
other NDT test methods; and knowledge of materials, fabri-
National Standards Institute (ANSI) in accordance with
cation, and production technology. Method examinations
ISO 17024, Conformity Assessment-General Requirements
may be 90 or 135 questions in size and address in-depth
for Bodies Operating Certification of Persons. All ASNT
knowledge of the theory and practices of the applicable
certification examinations are developed and maintained
nondestructive testing method.
using psychometric principles that comply with the
ISO 17024 requirements.
The ASNT Method Examinations are given in multiple-
choice format in the following NDT test methods. Where
ASNT Predictive Maintenance Level III
ASNT began offering the Predictive Maintenance (PdM)
reference information is needed, it is included in the body
Level III certification program in 2000 and now offers PdM
of the examination.
Level III certification in the IR method. Together, the ASNT
NDT Level III program and the ASNT PdM Level III pro-
1. Acoustic Emission Testing (AE)
gram are known as the ASNT Level III Certification
2. Electromagnetic Testing (ET) Program.
3. Leak Testing (LT)
43
Basic I SECTION I
ASNT PdM certification was developed as a result of Upon successful completion of the necessary qualifica-
industry requests for a third-party certification that focused tion examinations, ASNT will issue the candidate an ASNT
on PdM knowledge and test methods instead of the tradi- NDT Level III certlficate and wallet card that is valid for
tional NDT methods used for NDT Level III certification. five years.
In response to this request, ASNT developed a 90-question
PdM Basic Examination that covers the same certification
requirements as the NDT Basic Examination. However, NDT/PdM or PdM/N DT Conversion
instead of addressing knowledge of materials, fabrication, 1. Personnel with a currently valid NDT certificate in the
and production technology and other traditional NDT test
IR test method may attain PdM certification in IR by
methods, it covers the basics of common PdM test methods
successfully completing the PdM Basic Examination.
and knowledge of machinery technology. PdM certification
is currently offered in Thermal/Infrared Testing only, and 2. Personnel with a currently valid PdM certificate in the
successful completion of the PdM Basic and IR Method IR test method may attain NDT certification in IR by
examinations result in the issuance of an ASNT PdM Level successfully completing the NDT Basic Examination.
III certificate. 3. This applies to the IR method only.
The above Level III requirements 1. incorporate acceptance of ASNT NDT Level III certifica-
may be partially replaced by tion into the employer's written practice; or
experience as a certified NOT Level II 2. incorporate acceptance of LevelIII qualification exami-
or by assignments at least nations administered by an outside agency that meet the
comparable to NOT Level II as requirements of the employer's written practice; or
defined in the employer's written 3. incorporate the employer's examinations as defined in
practice. the employer's written practice.
44
CHAPTER 3 The ASNT NDT Level III Certification Program
45
Basic I SECTION I
Review Questions
l. ASNT NDT Level III certification is a requirement 5. To recertify by application, an ASNT NDT Level III
of: must:
a. an ASNT NDT LevelIII is authorized to 6. To be eligible to sit for the ASNT NDT Level III
supervise but not perform NDT tasks on behalf of exams, a candidate with two years of passing grades
the employer. in engineering or science study at a university or
b. the employer can accept a currently valid ASNT technical school must have:
NDT Level III certificate as proof of qualification.
c. an individual is certified in both NDT and PdM. a. one additional year of experience beyond the
d. that the certificate holder has satisfied the Basic Level II requirements in NDT in an assignment
and Method exam requirements as set forth in comparable to that of an NDT Level II in the
SNT-TC-JA. applicable NDT method(s).
b. two additional years of experience beyond the
3. ASNT NDT Level III certification: Level II requirements in NDT in an assignment
at least comparable to that of NDT Level II in the
a. immediately qualifies a certificate holder to act as applicable NDT method(s).
the employer's Level III. c. four years of experience beyond the Level II
b. permits the individual to function as an requirements in NDT in an assignment at least
independent Level III without further comparable to that of an NDT Level II in the
documentation. applicable NDT method(s).
c. makes an individual potentially eligible to d. one additional year of experience beyond the
become an employer's Level III. Level II requirements in NDT in an assignment
d. only applies when recognized by a requirements comparable to that of an NDT Level II and an
document. additional 20 hours of classroom training in the
applicable test method(s).
4. The ASNT NDT LevelIII Basic Examination covers
all of the following except:
Answers
lb 2d 3c 4d Sa 6b
46
CHAPTER 4
General Applications of Various NDT Methods
49
Basic I SECTION II
3. The total energy loss of a propagating wave is called: 10. Background noise can be reduced by:
50
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Methods
51
Basic I SECTION II
8. In electromagnetic testing, the specimen is coupled l3. Which of the followingdiscontinuities is easiestto
to the test coil by: detect with an electromagnetic test? (Assume that the
area of the discontinuity is equal in all four choices
a. core coupling. listed.)
b. magnetic saturation.
c. the coil's electromagnetic fields. a. A subsurface crack which lies parallel to the
d. magnetic domains. direction of the eddy current.
b. A discontinuity located in the center of a 51 mm
9. The penetration of eddy currents in a conductive (2 in.) diameter bar.
material is decreased when the: c. A radial crack that extends to the outer surface of
a 51 mm (2 in.) diameter bar.
a. test frequency or conductivity of the specimen is d. A subsurface radial crack located at a depth of
decreased. 13 mm (0.5 in.) in a 51 mm (2 in.) diameter bar.
b. test frequency is decreased or conductivity of the
specimen is increased. 14. A term used to define the timing relationships
c. test frequency, conductivity of the specimen, or involved in alternating current signals is:
permeability of the specimen is increased.
d. permeability of the specimen is decreased. a. magnitude.
b. phase.
10. At a fixed test frequency, in which of the following c. impedance.
materials will the eddy current penetration be d. time-gain correction.
greatest?
15. The impedance of a test coil can be represented by
a. Aluminum (35% lACS conductivity). the vector sum of:
b. Brass (15% lACS conductivity).
c. Copper (95% lACS conductivity). a. inductive reactance and resistance.
d. Lead (7% lACS conductivity). b. capacitive reactance and resistance.
c. inductive reactance and capacitive reactance.
11. A term used to describe the effect observed due to a d. inductive reactance, capacitive reactance, and
change in the coupling between a test specimen and a resistance.
flat probe coil when the distance of separation
between them is varied is: 16. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of using
a surface probe coil for the electromagnetic
a. fill factor. inspection of small-diameter tubing?
b. edge effect.
c. end effect. a. Liftoffvariations effect.
d. liftoff. b. Inability to detect small discontinuities.
c. Inherent mechanical problems.
12. When testing with eddy currents, discontinuities will d. Slow inherent speed.
be most easily detected when the eddy currents are:
17. The term "fill factor" applies to:
a. coplanar with the major dimension of the
discontinuity. a. a surface coil.
b. perpendicular to the major plane of the b. coaxial cable.
discontinuity. c. an encircling coil.
c. parallel to the major dimension of the d. the ability to null an eddy current instrument.
discontinuity.
d. 90 degrees out of phase with the current in the 18. Which of the following materials would be more
coil. likely used as a mounting material for a probe coil?
a. Aluminum.
b. Plastic.
c. Copper.
d. Nonferromagnetic steel.
52
I
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Methods
19. Which of the following is not a commonly used eddy 24. Some of the products commonly tested using
current testing read-out mechanism? encircling coils are:
20. Reference standards used for electromagnetic testing: 25. It is often possible to sort various alloys of a
nonmagnetic metal by means of an electromagnetic
a. must contain artificial discontinuities such as test when:
notches and drilled holes.
b. must contain natural discontinuities such as a. there is a unique range of permeability values for
cracks and inclusions. each alloy.
c. must be free of measurable discontinuities, but b. there is a unique range of conductivity values for
may contain artificial or natural discontinuities, each alloy.
or may be free of discontinuities, depending on c. the direction of induced eddy currents varies for
the test system and the type of test being each alloy.
conducted. d. the magnetic domains for each alloy are different.
d. must be constructed from the same material of
the object being inspected. 26. When conducting electromagnetic testing on tubing
with a system that includes a frequency
21. Which of the following conditions is not important discriminating circuit, which of the following
when selecting specimens to be used as reference variables would be classified as a high-frequency
standards? variable?
53
Basic I SECTION II
a. Leak testing.
b. X-ray spectroscopy.
c. Optical holography.
d. Acoustic holography.
54
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Methods
a. the release of gas from materials in a vacuum. 2. Liquid penetrant testing is a nondestructive method
b. being directly proportional to the temperature of that can be used for:
the gas.
c. the viscosity of the pressurizing gas. a. locating and evaluating all types of discontinuities
d. the drop in test pressure due to leakage from the in a test specimen.
vacuum manifold. b. locating and determining the length, width, and
depth of discontinuities in a test specimen.
c. determining the tensile strength of a test
Liquid Penetrant Testing (PT) specimen.
d. locating discontinuities open to the surface.
Topical Outline
3. Which of the following is not a characteristic that
2.4 Liquid Penetrant Testing applies to liquid penetrant testing?
2.4.1 Fundamentals
2.4.1.1 Interaction of penetrants and discontinuity a. This method can accurately measure the depth of
openings a crack or discontinuity.
2.4.1.2 Fluorescence and contrast b. This method can be used for on-site testing of
2.4.2 Liquid penetrant testing large parts.
2.4.2.1 Penetrant processes c. This method can be used to find shallow surface
2.4.2.2 Test equipment and systems factors discontinuities.
2.4.2.3 Test result interpretation; discontinuity d. This method can be made more or less sensitive
indications by using different penetrant materials.
2.4.2.4 Applications
2.4.2.4.1 Castings
2.4.2.4.2 Welds
2.4.2.4.3 Wrought metals
2.4.2.4.4 Machined parts
2.4.2.4.5 Leaks
2.4.2.4.6 Field inspections
55
Basic I SECTIONII
4. The property of a dye used in penetrant materials to 9. When performing a liquid penetrant test using
emit light in the range of wavelengths different from solvent-removable visible dye penetrant, there are
the wavelength of light that excites the emission is several ways to remove excess penetrant from the
called: surface of the part. Which of the methods listed
below is generally regarded as most suitable for
a. emissivity. giving accurate test results?
b. irradiation.
c. spectrum blocking. a. Squirting solvent over the surface with no more
d. fluorescence. than 69 kPa (10 psi) pressure.
b. Wiping with a solvent-soaked cloth, then wiping
5. When using a fluorescent, post-emulsifier penetrant, with a dry cloth.
the length of time the emulsifier is allowed to remain c. Wiping with a solvent-dampened cloth, then
on the part is critical for detecting shallow wiping with dry cloths.
discontinuities. The optimum length of time should d. Wiping with dry wipes, then wiping with a
be: solvent-dampened cloth, and finally wiping with
a dry cloth.
a. 10 seconds.
b. 5 seconds. 10. A problem with retesting a specimen that has been
c. 2-3 minutes. previously tested using liquid penetrant is that the:
d. determined by experimentation.
a. penetrant residue left in discontinuities may not
6. A red penetrant indication against white background readily dissolve, and the retest may be misleading.
is most likely to be seen when: b. penetrant may form beads on the surface.
c. penetrant will lose a great deal of its color
a. dry developers are used. brilliance.
b. visible dye penetrants are used. d. added penetrant will intensify the penetrant
c. fluorescent post-emulsified penetrants are used. residue, making indications larger than normal.
d. ultraviolet light is used with visible dye
penetrants. 11. A commonly used method of checking the overall
performance of a penetrant material system is to:
7. The most widely accepted method for removing
excessivewater-washable penetrant from the surface a. determine the viscosity of the penetrant.
of a test specimen is by: b. measure the wetability of the penetrant.
c. compare two sections of artificially cracked
a. using a wet rag. specimens.
b. using a water spray rinse. d. check the penetrant contaminant levels.
c. washing the part directly under water running
from a tap. 12. The function of emulsifier in the post-emulsified
d. immersing the part in water. penetrant process is to:
8. Which of the following penetrant systems is a. more rapidly drive the penetrant into deep, tight
generally considered the least sensitive? cracks.
b. react with the surface penetrant to make the
a. Water-washable; visible dye. penetrant water-washable.
b. Solvent-removable; visible dye. c. add fluorescent dye or pigment to the penetrant.
c. Water-washable; fluorescent dye. d. emulsify surface oils and greases to facilitate their
d. Post-emulsified; visible dye. removal.
56
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDTMethods
13. Which of the following statements does not apply to 19. The penetrant indication of a forging lap will
developers used during penetrant testing? normally be a:
14. The penetrant indication for a cold shut on the a. acid in the penetrant may cause severe corrosion.
surface of a casting will normally be: b. the oily residue from the test will severely inhibit
the application of paint on aluminum alloys.
a. a dotted line. c. a chemical reaction between the penetrant and
b. a large bulbous indication. aluminum could cause a fire.
c. a smooth continuous line. d. the alkalines in wet developers and most
d. undetectable since cold shuts are closed over on emulsifiers could cause surface pitting,
the surface. particularly in moist atmospheres.
15. A crack-type discontinuity will generally appear as: 21. Which of the following statements is true when using
penetrants for leak detection?
a. a rounded indication.
b. a continuous line, either straight or jagged. a. Surfaces do not have to be clean.
c. a broad, fuzzy indication. b. Only one side has to be accessible.
d. random round or elongated holes. c. Penetrant can be diluted in water for hydro
testing.
16. In a penetrant test, scattered round indications on d. Only visible penetrants can be used.
the surface of a part could be indicative of:
22. Which of the following is a discontinuity that might
a. fatigue cracks. be found in rolled bar stock?
b. porosity.
c. weld laps. a. Blow holes.
d. hot tears. b. Shrinkage laps.
c. Cracks or seams.
17. Which of the following are typical nonrelevant d. Insufficient penetration.
indications found in penetrant testing?
23. Anodized surfaces are usually considered poor
a. Indications due to part geometry or part design candidates for high-sensitivity liquid penetrant
configurations. examination because the anodizing process produces
b. Nonmagnetic indications. a conversion layer that:
c. Nonlinear indications.
d. Indications on low-stressed areas of the part. a. is extremely smooth and slick.
b. has a multitude of extremely small pores.
18. Which of the statements below best states the results c. may have alkaline residue that "quenches" the
of sandblasting for cleaning surfacesto be penetrant penetrant.
tested? d. cannot be cleaned by ordinary processes.
58
SECTION II
OVERVIEW OF NOT METHODS
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDTMethods
5. Subjecting a part to a magnetic field that is 11. The amount of amperage used for magnetic particle
constantly reversing in polarity and gradually inspection using prods is based on the distance
diminishing in strength accomplishes which of the between the prods and the:
following?
a. thickness of the part.
a. Demagnetizes the part. b. length of the prods.
b. Magnetizes the part. e. diameter of the prods.
e. Increases the residual magnetism. d. total length of the part.
d. Locates deep-lying discontinuities.
12. Demagnetization of a part is usually not necessary if
6. Circular magnetization is useful in the detection of: the part is:
59
Basic I SECTION II
17. When using direct current, an indication is detected. Neutron Radiographic Testing (NR)
What is the next logical step to determine if the
indication results from a surface or subsurface Topical Outline
condition?
2.6 Neutron Radiographic Testing
a. Reinspect using the surge method. 2.6.1 Fundamentals
b. Demagnetize and apply powder. 2.6.1.1 Sources
c. Reinspect at higher amperage. 2.6.1.1.1 Isotopic
d. Reinspect using alternating current. 2.6.1.1.2 Neutron
2.6.1.2 Detectors
18. A requirement to use magnetic particle testing on a 2.6.1.2.1 Imaging
part should also include: 2.6.1.2.2 Nonimaging
2.6.1.3 Nature of penetrating radiation and
a. a fabrication and service manual. interactions with matter
b. a statement on the drawing that requires a 2.6.1.4 Essentials of safety
magnetic particle test. 2.6.2 Neutron radiographic testing
c. the procedure to be used and acceptance criteria. 2.6.2.1 Basic imaging considerations
d. the method of test and service conditions. 2.6.2.2 Test result interpretation; discontinuity
indications
19. The statement that amperages testing can be applied 2.6.2.3 Systems factors (source/test object/detector .'
to plated and painted parts: interactions)
2.6.2.4 Applications
a. may be true if amperages are increased to 2.6.2.4.1 Explosives and pyrotechnic devices
compensate for the coating thickness. 2.6.2.4.2 Assembled components
b. is true regardless of the thickness of the coating. 2.6.2.4.3 Bonded components
c. is true only for circular magnetism. 2.6.2.4.4 Corrosion detection
d. is not true under any circumstances. 2.6.2.4.5 Nonmetallic materials
a. the weld should be wire brushed to remove slag 2. Neutrons for fast-neutron radiography are not
and scale. obtainable from:
b. standard test weldments should be used for
comparison. a. accelerators.
c. the weld bead should be coated with lacquer. b. radioactive sources.
d. the weld bead should be ground to remove c. reactors.
surface irregularities. d. X-ray machines.
60
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NOT Methods
3. A radioactive source used for neutron radiography is: 10. The most suitable films for producing neutron
radiographs are:
a. Cf-252.
b. Pu-239. a. industrial X-ray films.
c. Co-60. b. red-sensitive films.
d. Cs-137. c. instant-type films.
d. emulsions that contain no silver halides.
4. The energy of the neutron is expressed in which of
the following units of measurement? 11. Materials that are exposed to thermal neutron beams:
a. be placed behind the film. 15. The main reason for using neutron radiography in
b. be placed in front of the film. place of X-radiography is:
c. be very thin.
d. become radioactive. a. a lower cost.
b. higher resolution.
9. Which of the following neutron radiography c. the ability to image objects and materials not
converter foils cannot be used for transfer or indirect possible with X-rays.
radiography? d. it is a simpler radiographic procedure when
required than X-radiography.
a. Dysprosium.
b. Indium.
c. Gadolinium.
d. Gold.
61
Basic I SECTION II
16. A photographic record produced by the passage of 21. The primary advantage of using a Cf-252 source for
neutrons through a specimen onto a film is called: neutron radiography is its:
18. The penetrating ability of a thermal neutron beam is 23. The radiographic image of discontinuities in the
governed by: imaging screens can be separated from actual
discontinuities in a part being radiographed by:
a. attenuating characteristics of the material being
penetrated. a. comparing a neutron radiograph of the parts to a
b. exposure time. blank neutron radiograph of the same imaging
c. source- to- film distance. screen with no parts in place.
d. thickness of the converter screen. b. producing a photographic copy of the original
neutron radiograph using X-ray duplicating film.
19. The transfer exposure method is used because: c. increasing the exposure time of the radiograph.
d. decreasing the temperature of the developer
a. it is not influenced by gamma radiation in the solution.
primary beam.
b. it produces greater radiographic sensitivity than 24. For inspection of radioactive objects or those that
direct exposure using gadolinium. emit gamma radiation when bombarded with
c. it is faster than the direct exposure method. neutrons, a preferable detection technique is the:
d. the screens used in this method emit only
internal conversion electrons of about 70 keY. a. direct exposure technique.
b. transfer technique.
20. Higher resolution can be achieved in direct neutron c. isotopic reproduction technique.
radiography by: d. electrostatic-belt generator technique.
a. placing a lead intensifying screen between a 25. Neutron radiography is an excellent tool for
gadolinium screen and the film. determining:
b. increasing the LID ratio of the collimation
system. a. the coating thickness of aluminum oxide on
c. increasing the exposure time. anodized aluminum.
d. increasing the distance between the object and b. the size of voids in thick steel castings.
the film cassette. c. the integrity of thin plastic material within a steel
housing.
d. tungsten inclusions in GT AW welds.
62
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDTMethods
2. Two X-ray machines operating at the same nominal 8. The fact that gases, when bombarded by radiation,
kilovoltage and milliamperage settings: ionize and become electrical conductors makes them
useful in:
a. will produce the same intensities and energies of
radiation. a. X-ray transformers.
b. will produce the same intensities but may b. fluoroscopes.
produce different energies of radiation. e. masks.
c. will produce the same energies but may produce d. radiation detection equipment.
different intensities of radiation.
d. may give not only different intensities but also 9. The reason exposure time must be increased by a
different energies of radiation. factor of four when the source-to-film distance is
doubled is that the:
3. Short wavelength electromagnetic radiation
produced during the disintegration of nuclei of a. intensity of radiation decreases at an exponential
radioactive substances is called: rate when the source-to-film distance is
increased.
a. X-radiation. b. energy of radiation is inversely proportional to
b. gamma radiation. the square root of the distance from the source to
c. scatter radiation. the film.
d. beta radiation. e. intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to
the square of the distance from the source to the
4. Almost all gamma radiography is performed with: film.
d. scattered radiation effect is greater as the
a. natural isotopes. source-to-film distance increases.
b. artificially produced isotopes.
c. Radium. 10. The most important factor in X-ray absorption of a
d. Co-60. specimen is:
5. The energy of gamma rays is expressed by which of a. the thickness of the specimen.
the following units of measurement? b. the density of the specimen.
c. Young's modulus of the material.
a. Curie (gigabecquerel). d. the atomic number of the material.
b. Roentgen (coulomb per kilogram).
c. Half-life. 11. The maximum permissible dose per calendar year is
d. Kiloelectronvolts (keV) or megaelectronvolts 5 rem (0.05 Sv) for:
(MeV).
a. extremities.
6. Of the following, the source providing the most b. skin.
penetrating radiation is: c. whole body (total effective dose equivalent).
d. a fetus from occupational exposure of a declared
a. Co-60. pregnant woman.
b. 220 kVp X-ray tube.
e. 15 MeV betatron. 12. Exposure to small doses of X-rays or gamma rays:
d. electrons from 1r-192.
a. has a cumulative effect that must be considered
7. The difference between the densities of two areas of a when monitoring for maximum permissible dose.
radiograph is called: b. is beneficial because it serves to build an
immunity in humans to radiation poisoning.
a. radiographic contrast. e. will have no effect on human beings.
b. subject contrast. d. will have only a short-term effect on human
c. film contrast. tissues.
d. definition.
64
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDTMethods
13. Which of the following technique variables is most 19. At voltages above 400 kV, tb use oflead to provide
commonly used Lo adjust subject contrast? protection may present serious structural problems.
If this should be the case, which of the following
a. Source-to-film distance. materials would most likely be used as a substitute?
b. Milliamperage.
c. Kilovoltage. a. Concrete.
d. Focal spot size. b. Aluminum.
c. Steel.
14. A basic difference between a radiograph and a d. Boron.
fluoroscopic image is that:
20. A distinctive characteristic of megavolt radiography
a. the fluoroscopic image is more sensitive. is that it:
b. the fluoroscopic image is positive whereas the
radiographic image is negative. a. results in comparatively high subject contrast.
c. the fluoroscopic image is brighter. b. results in comparatively high radiographic
d. there is no basic difference between the two. contrast.
c. is applicable to comparatively thick or highly
15. Thin sheets of lead foil in intimate contact with absorbing specimens.
X-ray film during exposure increase film density d. is utilized for stainless steels only.
because they:
21. Given the radiographic equivalency factors of 1.4 for
a. fluoresce and emit visible light, which helps Inconel' and 1.0 for 304 stainless steel, what is the
expose the film. approximate equivalent thickness of Inconel" to
b. absorb the scattered radiation. produce the same exposure as a 3.S mm (0.15 in.)
c. prevent backscattered radiation from fogging the thickness of 304 stainless steel?
film.
d. emit electrons when exposed to X- and gamma a. 3 mm (0.11 in.).
radiation, which helps to darken the film. b. 9 mm (0.35 in.).
c. IS mm (0.7 in.).
16. When viewing a radiograph, an image of the back of d. 36 mm (1.4 in.).
the cassette superimposed on the image of the
specimen is noted. This is most likely due to: 22. The fact that each solid crystalline substance
produces its own characteristic X-ray pattern is the
a. undercut. basis for:
b. overexposure.
c. X-ray intensity being too high. a. xeroradiography.
d. backscatter radiation. b. X-ray diffraction testing.
c. fluoroscopic testing.
17. An image quality indicator OQI) is used to measure d. polymorphic testing.
the:
23. When inspecting a light metal casting by
a. size of discontinuities in a part. fluoroscopy, which of the following discontinuities
b. density of the film. would most likely be detected?
c. quality of the radiographic technique.
d. amount of radiation that penetrates the test a. Copper shrinkage.
object. b. Microshrinkage.
c. Shrinkage.
IS. In film radiography, IQls are usually placed: d. Fine cracks.
65
Basic I SECTION II
24. For testing a 25 mm (l in.) steel plate 305 mm 27. Miniature electronic components are to be
(12 in.) square for laminar discontinuities, which of radiographically inspected to reveal broken copper
the following would be most effective? wire leads of 0.2 mm (0.008 in.) diameter. Which of
the following image quality indicators (IQIs) would
a. 3.7 TBq (l00 Ci) ofIr-l92. be most effective to use in establishing a reliable
b. 925 GBq (25 Ci) of Co-60. technique?
c. 250 kVp X-ray machine.
d. An ultrasonic device. a. A series of steel plaque-type IQIs ranging in
thickness from 0.1 mm (0.005 in.) to 0.4 mm
25. A critical weld was made with a double vee-groove. (0.015 in.), containing IT, 2T, and 4Tholes.
Among those listed, which radiographic technique b. A plastic block with the radiographic thickness
would provide coverage with the greatest probability equivalent of the test objects, containing
for detecting the most serious discontinuities? precision-drilled holes ranging from 0.1 mm
(0.005 in.) to 0.4 mm (0.015 in.) diameter.
a. A single exposure centered on the weld and c. A plastic block with the radiographic thickness
perpendicular to the principal surface of the equivalent of the test objects, containing copper
plate. wires ranging from 0.1 mm (0.005 in.) to 0.4 mm
b. Two exposures aligned with the vee-groove, focus (0.015 in.) diameter.
±30° off perpendicular. d. A series of copper shims ranging in thickness
c. Two exposures, perpendicular to the plate, offset from 0.1 mm (0.005 in.) to 0.4 mm (0.015 in.),
by the width of the weld bead. containing 1/2T and 1Tholes.
d. A single exposure as in (a), above, but with two
films aligned ±30° off perpendicular.
Thermal/Infrared Testing (IR)
26. A fuse assembly is radiographed so that
measurements can be made on the film to determine Topical Outline
a minimum internal clearance dimension. What
should be factored into the dimension taken from the 2.8 Thermal/Infrared Testing
film? 2.8.1 Fundamentals
2.8.1.1 Principles and theory of thermal/infrared
a. Projection magnification. testing
b. Film latitude. 2.8.1.2 Temperature measurement principles
c. Slope of the characteristic curve. 2.8.1.3 Proper selection of thermal/infrared technique
d. Image quality indicator (IQI) alignment. 2.8.2 Equipment/materials
2.8.2.1 Temperature measurement equipment
2.8.2.2 Heat flux indicators
2.8.2.3 Noncontact devices
2.8.2.4 Contact temperature indicators
2.8.2.5 Noncontact pyrometers
2.8.2.6 Line scanners
2.8.2.7 Thermal imaging
2.8.2.8 Heat flux indicators
2.8.3 Applications
2.8.3.1 Exothermic or endothermic investigations
2.8.3.2 Friction investigations
2.8.3.3 Fluid flow investigations
2.8.3.4 Thermal resistance investigations
2.8.3.5 Thermal capacitance investigations
2.8.4 Interpretation and evaluation
66
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDTMethods
67
Basic I SECTION II
12. The minimum resolvable temperature difference is a 17. A line scanner is best used for applications:
subjective measurement that depends on:
a. requiring online real-time process monitoring
a. the infrared imaging system's spatial resolution and control of a linear thermal process.
only. b. where the material is stationary.
b. the infrared imaging system's measurement e. where the process speed is no greater than 3 mis.
resolution only. d. where the maximum temperature of the material
e. the infrared imaging system's thermal sensitivity is 300°C (572 OF).
and spatial resolution.
d. the infrared imaging system's minimum spot size. 18. Most infrared focal plane array imagers:
13. The spatial resolution of an instrument is related to a. use more costly optics than scanning radiometers.
the: b. offer better spatial resolution than scanning
radiometers.
a. thermal resolution. c. offer better thermal resolution than scanning
b. spectral bandwidth. radiometers.
c. system responsivity. d. offer less diagnostics features than scanning
d. instantaneous field of view and the working radiometers.
distance.
19. When measuring the temperature of a nongray
14. The noise equivalent temperature difference (NETD) target:
of a thermal infrared imager tends to:
a. the viewing angle is not critical.
a. improve as the target temperature increases. b. always assume a uniform emissivity.
b. degrade as the target temperature increases. c. varying surface temperature differences can be
c. remain constant regardless of the target ignored.
temperature. d. errors may occur when using a variety of
d. improve with increasing working distance. instruments.
15. The 3-5 11mspectral region is well suited for the 20. Thermal diffusivity is:
inspection of materials that exhibit:
a. high for metals and low for porous materials.
a. distinct spectral characteristics limiting b. the same for all metals.
inspection to 3-5 11m. e. low for metals and high for porous materials.
b. measuring targets at extremely long working d. the same for all porous materials.
distances.
c. measuring targets warmer than 200°C (392 OF). 21. The term used to describe a material's surface
d. operating at elevated ambient temperatures. temperature response to a given energy input is
called:
16. When measuring the temperature of glass while
using a mid-wave (3-5 11m)infrared imaging system, a. diffuse reflectivity.
which of the following steps is necessary? b. thermal conductance.
c. thermal effusivity.
a. Use a 3.2 11mlow-pass filter. d. spectral transmittance.
b. Use a 5 11mhigh-pass filter.
c. No filter is necessary if using the same emissivity
setting used with long-wave imaging systems.
d. Use a 3.9 11mbandpass filter.
68
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Methods
69
Basic I SECTION II
6. When inspecting coarse-grained materials, which of 11. In a basic pulse-echo ultrasonic instrument, the
the following frequencies will generate a sound wave component that produces the voltage that activates
that will be most easily scattered by the grain the search unit is called:
structure?
a. an amplifier.
a. 1.0 MHz. b. a receiver.
b. 2.25 MHz. c. a pulser.
c. 5 MHz. d. a synchronizer.
d. 10 MHz.
12. The primary purpose of reference blocks is to:
7. In general, shear waves are more sensitive to small
discontinuities than longitudinal waves for a given a. aid the operator in obtaining maximum back
frequency and in a given material because: reflections.
b. obtain the greatest sensitivity possible from an
a. the wavelength of shear waves is shorter than the instrument.
wavelength of longitudinal waves. c. obtain a common reproducible reference
b. shear waves are not as easily dispersed in the standard.
material. d. establish the size and orientation of a
c. the direction of particle vibration for shear waves discontinuity.
is more sensitive to discontinuities.
d. the wavelength of shear waves is longer than the 13. The general use of distance-amplitude correction is
wavelength of longitudinal waves. to compensate for:
8. The ability of transducers to detect echoes from small a. attenuation, distance, and beam spread.
discontinuities is a definition of: b. amplitude of noise Signals.
c. velocity changes.
a. resolution. d. vertical nonlinearity in the ultrasonic instrument.
b. sensitivity.
c. definition. 14. In area-amplitude ultrasonic standard test blocks, the
d. gain. flat-bottom holes in the blocks are:
9. Which of the following will create a resonance a. all the same diameter.
condition in a specimen? b. different in diameter, increasing in 0.4 mm
(0.02 in.) increments from the No.1 block to
a. Continuous longitudinal waves. the No.8 block.
b. Pulsed longitudinal waves. c. largest in the No.1 block and smallest in the No.
c. Pulsed shear waves. S block.
d. Continuous shear waves. d. drilled to different depths from the front surface
of the test block.
10. The display on most basic pulse-echo ultrasonic
instruments consists of: 15. Which of the following factors has the least influence
on the amount of energy reflected from a
a. automatic read-out equipment. discontinuity?
b. an A-scan presentation.
c. a B-scan presentation. a. Size of the discontinuity.
d. a C-scan presentation. b. Orientation of discontinuity.
c. Discontinuity type.
d. Test frequency.
70
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NOTMethods
16. The presence of a discontinuity will not produce a 20. The most commonly used method of producing
specific discontinuity indication on the display shear waves in a test part when inspecting by the
screen when which of the following techniques is immersion method is by:
used?
a. transmitting longitudinal waves into a part in a
a. Straight-beam testing. direction perpendicular to its front surface.
b. Surface-wavetesting. b. using two crystals vibrating at different
c. Through-transmission testing. frequencies.
d. Angle-beam testing. c. using a low-frequency transducer.
d. angulating the search tube to the proper angle
17. Lack of parallelism between the entry surface and the with respect to the entry surface of the test part.
back surface:
21. In immersion testing, proof that the search unit is
a. may result in a screen pattern that does not normal (perpendicular) to a flat entry surface is
contain back reflection indications. indicated by:
b. makes it difficult to locate discontinuities that lie
parallel to the entry surface. a. maximum reflection amplitude from the entry
c. usually indicates a porous condition existing in surface.
the metal. b. elimination of water multiples.
d. will decrease the penetrating power of the test. c. maximum reflection amplitude from the back
surface.
18. Significant errors in ultrasonic thickness d. maximum amplitude of the initial pulse.
measurement can occur if:
22. In immersion testing, the water distance between the
a. test velocity is varied. search unit and the test piece:
b. the velocity of propagation deviates substantially
from an assumed constant value for a given a. should be as small as possible.
material. b. will have no effect on the test.
c. water is used as a couplant between the c. should be the same as the water distance used
transducer and the part being measured. during calibration.
d. longitudinal waves are used. d. should be as great as possible.
19. In contact testing, shear waves can be induced in the 23. Generally, the best ultrasonic testing technique for
test material by: detecting discontinuities oriented along the fusion
zone in a welded plate is:
a. placing an X-cut quartz crystal directly on the
surface of the material and coupling through a a. an angle-beam contact method employing surface
film of oil. waves.
b. using two transducers on opposite sides of the b. an immersion test using surface waves.
test specimen. c. a resonance technique.
c. using an angle-beam transducer with the d. an angle-beam method using shear waves.
transducer mounted on a plastic wedge so that
sound enters the part at an angle. 24. Thin sheet may be inspected for laminar
d placing a spherical acoustic lens on the face of the discontinuities with the ultrasonic wave directed
transducer. normal (perpendicular) to the surface by observing:
71
Basic I SECTION II
25. Ultrasonic inspection of castings is occasionally 30. Ultrasonic testing techniques are useful in testing
impractical because of: laminate and sandwich construction test objects for:
72
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Methods
73
Basic I SECTION II
9. How many bundles are there in a fiber optic 15. What is pillowing on aircraft lap joints, typically on
borescope and what are they called? aircraft skins, usually attributed to?
a. Forging bursts at the center of the billet. 17. Which of the following is an example of an
b. Laminations at end preparations of plate for organization that publishes standards for test
welding. techniques?
c. Edge breaks in temper-rolled sheets of steel.
d. Segregation between pours. a. ASNT.
b. API.
12. What type of cracking occurs at the last termination c. OSHA.
point of a weld by shielded metal arc welding? d. ASTM.
a. Crater crack. 18. How can the heat-affected zone (HAZ) of carbon
b. Hot tearing. steel welds be made visible?
c. Cold cracking.
d. Hot cracking. a. Etchants to enhance the visibility of the
microstructure.
13. Which type of nuclear reactor vessel may have all its b. High-frequency ultrasonic microscopic means.
internal components removed from the vessel to c. Color-contrast penetrating liquids.
allow visual inspection? d. Arrays of temperature-sensitive markings.
a. Boiling water reactor (BWR). 19. Pixels used in digital photographs or images is a term
b. Pressurized water reactor (PWR). that comes from what combination of words?
c. Light water reactor (LWR).
d. Heavy water reactor (HWR). a. Photography, inserts, and electric laser.
b. Pie, excel, and light.
14. What might be required after visual inspection of c. Positional "x" elements.
steel fasteners in wrought aluminum plate in a lap d. Picture elements.
joint of an aircraft with evidence of exfoliation?
74
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Methods
75
Basic I SECTION II
8. In the examination of above-ground storage tanks 10. A break in the magnetic uniformity of a part that is
where the flux sensor is on the top surface: called a magnetic discontinuity is related to a sudden
change in:
a. only top surface discontinuities are detected.
b. only bottom surface discontinuities are detected. a. resistivity.
c. both top and bottom surface discontinuities can b. inductance.
be detected and can generally be distinguished c. permeability.
from each other. d. capacitance.
d. both top and bottom surface discontinuities can
be detected but generally cannot be distinguished 11. A hysteresis curve describes the relation between:
from each other.
a. magnetizing force and flux density.
9. Materials that are weakly repelled magnetically are b. magnetizing force and applied current.
called: c. strength of magnetism and alignment of domains
within material.
a. diamagnetic. d. magnetic flux density and the current generated.
b. nonmagnetic.
c. paramagnetic. 12. When inspecting wire rope, a magnetic flux loop is
d. ferromagnetic. used to monitor:
76
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Methods
Electromagnetic Testing
lc 2a 3b 4c Sa 6c 7d Sc 9c 10d lld 12b 13c 14b
lSa 16b 17c lSb 19a 20d 21d 22b 23a 24a 2Sb 26d 27a
Leak Testing
ld 2a 3d 4c Sb 6c 7a Sc 9b lOa
Radiographic Testing
la 2d 3b 4b Sd 6c 7a Sd 9c 10d llc 12a 13c 14b
lSd 16d 17c lSb 19a 20c 21a 22b 23c 24d 2Sb 26a 27c
Thermal/Infrared Testing
lb 2a 3c 4b Sd 6a 7c Sd 9b lOa llb 12c 13d 14a
lSc 16d 17a lSb 19d 20a 21c
Ultrasonic Testing
ld 2a 3d 4c Sb 6d 7a Sb 9a lOb llc 12c 13a 14b
lSd 16c 17a lSb 19c 20d 21a 22c 23d 24b 2Sb 26c 27d 2Sa
29d 30b 31c 32a
Visual Testing
lb 2d 3a 4c Sc 6b 7c Sb 9b 10d llc 12a 13b 14d
lSc 16a 17d lSa 19d
77
SECTION III
MATERIALS, FABRICATION,
AND PRODUCT TECHNOLOGY
"
CHAPTER 5
Materials and Processes for NDT Technology
81
Basic I SECTION III
82
CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NOT Technology
Review Questions
Chapter 1: "Manufacturing and Materials" 5. Design engineers are responsible for establishing the
function, appearance, quality, and cost of a product.
1. Most solid metals and plastics that have reasonable Regarding the role of NDT in product design, which
strength at room temperature are called: of the following is true?
83
Basic I SEGION III
3. Which of the following materials cannot typically be 9. Attacks on metals by direct chemical action and/or
used in the as-cast state? electrolysis are called:
a. Aluminum. a. corrosion.
b. Pure iron. b. rust.
c. Zinc. c. austenitic transformations.
d. Magnesium. d. galvanization.
[2.5.4J [2.7.3]
4. Processes called austenitizing, annealing, and 10. Which of the following does not help prevent
normalizing are: corrosion?
6. The term precipitation hardening is often used 12. When used as an in-process treatment,
interchangeably with the term: recrystallization can:
a. Processing properties.
b. Mechanical properties.
c. Physical properties.
d. Electrochemical properties.
[2.7.2)
84
CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NOT Technology
2. Which of the following statements is true regarding 5. Tensile tests are conducted on specimens from a
the electrical conductivity of aluminum alloys? newly developed alloy in order to determine the
ultimate tensile strength of the material. Such tests
a. Most aluminum alloys are in the range of 70% to are referred to as:
96% lACS.
b. Clad aluminum takes on the conductivity of the a. indirect tests.
base metal. b. physical properties tests.
c. Each basic wrought aluminum alloy has a c. destructive tests.
conductivity distinct from any other. d. acoustic emission tests.
d. The conductivity of an aluminum alloy is lower [3.3.2)
than that of pure aluminum.
[3.2.3) 6. In Figure 2, which of the following ranges indicates
the effect of work hardening (to its maximum)
3. Which of the following may lead to permanent caused by plastic flow of the material during a tensile
deformation? load?
Figure 1
900
800 /c
.-.. 700
~ 600
e500 7. In Figure 2, the points represented by E and F would
I/) E
l{l 400 be closer together if the material being tested were:
~ 300
~~B
200 a. less ductile.
100 b. loaded in tension.
0 c. loaded in lapshear.
0 0.02 0.04 0.06 0.08 0.1 0.12
d. more ductile.
Strain (mm)
[3.3.3)
a. yield strength.
b. tensile strength.
c. compressive strength.
d. resistance to stress.
[3.3.3)
85
\
Basic I SEGIONIII
86
CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NOT Technology
5. Typically, the highest quality of steel is produced in: 10. Which of the following is true relative to the
comparison of the properties of aluminum-based
a. an electric furnace. alloys and iron-based alloys?
b. an open-hearth furnace.
c. a bessemer furnace. a. Iron has a lower melting point than aluminum.
d. a basic oxygen furnace. b. Iron can exist in several different crystalline
[4.1.3] structures, and its properties can be controlled by
heat treatment.
6. By which of the following processes is most of the c. Iron can be alloyed to increase its strength,
world's steel produced? whereas aluminum is strongest in its pure state.
d. Iron is preferred in load-carrying designs, but it
a. Bessemer converter. should not be used for any deformation type of
b. Electric furnace. manufacturing process.
c. Open hearth. [4.1.8]
d. Basic oxygen furnace.
[4.1.3] 11. Corrosion-resistant steels having relatively high
percentages of nickel and chromium are called:
7. What percentage of carbon is found in steel?
a. wrought iron.
a. Between 3% and 4%. b. low-alloy steels.
b. Between 2% and 3%. c. stainless steels.
c. Less than 0.2%. d. nonferrous steels.
d. Less than 2%. [4.1.8)
[4.1.6)
12. Austenitic stainless steels are paramagnetic; this
8. A steel with 40 points of carbon contains: means that:
87
Basic I SECTIONIII
14. Which of the following nonferruus metals is the most 19. Which of the following metal alloys has a density
important structural material? approximately two-thirds that of aluminum?
15. Many metals exhibit an increase in strength caused 20. A high-strength, low-density, corrosion-resistant
by plastic flow beyond the elastic limit. This effect is metal alloy of significance in the aircraft, marine, and
called: chemical processing industries is:
a. twinning. a. tungsten.
b. plastic deformation. b. zinc.
c. work hardening. c. titanium.
d. age hardening. d. magnesium.
[4.2.2] [4.8]
16. The heat treatment of aluminum for the purpose of Chapter 5: "Polymers, Ceramics, and
hardening and strengthening: Composites"
a. is not possible with aluminum alloys because they 1. Which of the following statements is true concerning
contain no carbon and cannot undergo allotropic plastics following their initial polymerization?
changes.
b. can produce tensile strengths equivalent to some a. Thermoplastics harden when reheated.
carbon steels. b. Thermosetting plastics do not soften, but char
c. requires the use of special furnaces and is rarely and deteriorate when reheated.
done as a practical application. c. All plastics are synthetic and contain no natural
d. requires that iron and carbon be alloyed for the materials.
best results. d. Plastics have a complex molecular structure,
[4.2.4] making it expensive to bind with other materials.
[5.1.1.2]
17. Brass and bronze are alloys of zinc, tin, and a large
percentage of: 2. Based on the strength-to-weight ratio:
88
CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NOT Technology
3. Which of the following statements is true regarding 6. Which of the following statements is true concerning
plastics processing? composite materials?
a. Unlike metals, plastics must be processed without a. Composite materials are engineered from one or
the addition of heat. more reinforcing agents and a matrix to increase
b. All plastic molding processes use liquid-state strength and reduce weight.
materials introduced into the mold cavity. b. When composite materials are cured, the
c. Injection molding can be done only with constituents lose their original identity and form
thermosetting materials. chemical compounds with one another.
d. Both thermoplastics and thermosetting plastics c. A unique feature of composite materials is that
may be processed by molding, casting, and their tensile strength frequently exceeds the
extrusion. strength of the strongest constituent.
[5.1.3) d. Composites are usually formed into complex
three-dimensional shapes with each dimension
4. Reinforced plastic molding involves use of: approximately equal to the other two.
[5.3)
a. thermosetting plastics and fibrous reinforcement
materials. 7. Which of the following materials is typically
b. thermosetting plastics and metallic powder considered when the application requires high
reinforcement. compressive strength?
c. thermoplastics and wood fiber reinforcement
materials. a. Glass fibers.
d. thermoplastics and metallic powder b. Aramid fibers.
reinforcement. c. Carbon fibers.
[5.1.3.51 d. Ceramic fibers.
[5.3.3.2]
5. The major difference between materials classified as
composites and those classified as mixtures is that: 8. Which of the following statements is true concerning
honeycomb?
a. composites contain metallic constituents and
mixtures are nonmetallic. a. The function of a honeycomb core is to lighten,
b. mixtures start as liquids blended together and stiffen, and strengthen by utilizing the sandwich
composites start as solids. principle.
.1 c. mixtures are elastomeric, whereas composites are b. In honeycomb, the walls of the cellular core
characterized as having at least one plastic material are aligned parallel with the plane of the
component. face sheets.
d. mixtures are a type of composite with random c. Honeycomb containing nonmetallic elements can
orientation and shape of the constituents. be bonded by adhesives, brazing, or diffusion
[5.2.1) welding.
d. Honeycomb combining metallic and nonmetallic
elements cannot be used in cryogenic service due
to the permeability of the nonmetallic elements.
[5.3.5)
89
Basic I SECTIONIII
10. Which of the following tests uses a pendulum to 4. Which of the following may cause a discontinuity
break a specimen that is notched and supported on even though its intended purpose is to prevent
both ends, with the result of measuring energy shrinkage cavities by absorbing heat from the molten
absorption? metal in the center of the casting?
1. The design of the casting is important because the a. only after the transformation from liquid to solid.
quality of the finished product can be adversely b. only during the transformation from liquid to
affected by all of the following except: solid.
c. before, during, and after the transformation from
a. lack of molten metal to compensate for liquid to solid.
contraction. d. only when the metal is in the liquid state.
b. location of the gate with reference to either [6.1.2.2]
progressive solidification or directional
solidification. 6. Large voids or porosity in a casting result from:
e. the location of hot spots in areas of the casting
that are isolated by thin sections. a. turbulent flow of the molten metal during
d. temperature of the mold immediately prior to pouring.
casting. b. alloy element segregation.
[6.1.1.1] e. molten metal boiling because of superheat.
d. gas evolution before and during solidification.
2. The part of the casting where the gate or riser [6.1.2.2]
attaches:
7. During the solidification of a casting, the shrinkage
a. is the area used to establish reference standards that occurs:
for cast materials.
b. provides the best quality material because of a. may cause cavities that are enlarged by the
rapid cooling in this area. evolution of gases.
c. may provide a concentration point for b. may cause porosity and shrinkage cavities
discontin uities. primarily in the outer surfaces where the metal
d. is designed to create nonuniform section cools first.
thicknesses. c. requires that the pattern used be slightly smaller
[6.1.1.3] than the desired dimension of the finished
casting.
3. Risers, feeders, or feed heads in castings serve to d. may be eliminated by investment casting.
provide sources of molten metal to compensate for: [6.1.2.2]
90
CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for. Nor Technology
9. Green sand casting molds include: 14. Another term for precision casting and the lost-wax
process is:
a. sand, clay, and water.
b. sand, wax, and solvent. a. investment casting.
c. sand, refractory metals, and water. b. die casting.
d. sand, carbon, and green clay. c. metal mold casting.
[6.2.2.2) d. shell mold casting.
[6.2.4)
10. Which of the following NDT methods can be
commonly used to inspect castings for core shift and 15. Permanent molds are most frequently made of:
unfused chaplets and to determine that all core
materials have been removed? a. ceramics.
b. fused sand and plastic.
a. Ultrasonic testing. c. metal.
b. Magnetic particle testing. d. plaster.
c. Radiographic testing. [6.2.6)
d. Electromagnetic testing.
[6.2.2.6) 16. A casting process used to produce hollow products
like large pipes and hollow shafts is:
11. Mold material in the form of inserts that exclude
metal flow and thus form internal surfaces or a. investment casting.
passages in a casting are called: b. blow casting.
c. core casting.
a. chills. d. centrifugal casting.
b. chaplets. [6.2.7]
c. cores.
d. patterns. 17. Which of the following metals has low strength and
[6.2.2.6) high corrosion resistance, and is used largely in
die-casting operations?
12. Small metal supports used to support and position
cores become part of a casting by fusing with the a. Zinc.
molten metal. Such devices are called: b. Aluminum.
c. Magnesium.
a. core hangers. d. Manganese.
b. chills. [6.2.8)
c. risers.
d. chaplets. 18. Which of the following is true regarding
[6.2.2.6) solidification of molten metal in a casting mold?
13. Casting molds made by covering a heated metal a. The metal cools at a constant rate, thus providing
pattern with sand that is mixed with particles of fine equiaxed grains throughout.
thermosetting plastic are called: b. Cooling takes place in phases having different
rates that produce different types of grain
a. green sand molds. structure in different sections of the casting.
b. shell molds. c. Solidification occurs at a constant rate, beginning
c. die casting molds. at the interior of the casting and progressing
d. permanent molds. outward.
[6.2.2.10) d. Thick sections tend to cool more rapidly than
thin sections because thin sections consist mostly
of fine equiaxed grains.
[6.3.2)
91
Basic I SEGIONIII
19. The term used to describe a discontinuity in a casting 5. Which of the following product forms is generally
that occurs when molten metal interfaces with selected for high strength and controlled property
already solidified metal with failure to fuse at the directionality?
interface is:
a. Castings.
a. hot tear. b. Forgings.
b. cold shut. c. Extrusions.
c. lack of fusion. d. Hot-rolled flat stock.
d. segregation. [7.2.1]
[6.4.3]
6. NDT is often used on products intended for
Chapter 7: "Metal Forming" secondary operations to:
l. Deformation of metals provides a number of a. ensure that further operations are not performed
advantages. Which of the following is not an on material that contains discontinuities that
advantage? could cause rejection of the manufactured part.
b. determine that discontinuities do not exist in the
a. Deformation processes increase the probability of material that could damage the rolling mills and
discontinuity formation. other equipment.
b. High duplication accuracy results from most c. determine the ductility of the material after the
deformation processes. rolling operation is complete.
c. In general, the properties of wrought metals are d. accurately determine the compressive strength of
improved over their cast counterparts. the material after it passes through the rolling
d. Thin sections can be more economically and mill.
more successfullyproduced than by casting. [7.2.1.1]
[7.2]
7. An NDT method best suited to locating
2. Which of the following would have the least discontinuities caused by inclusions rolled into steel
ductility? plate is:
a. high susceptibility to corrosion. a. the shapes that the ingot is rolled into prior to a
b. lower strength than their cast counterparts. variety of secondary operations.
c. directional properties. b. the three consecutive stages that the metal goes
d. poor weldability. through during the production of products such
[7.2.1] as angle iron and channel iron.
c. types of discontinuities that occur during the hot
4. The millworking process used most to form metals rolling of steel.
into three-dimensional shapes is: d. the three different shapes produced during
typical cold-rolling operations.
a. casting. [7.2.2.1]
b. cold rolling.
c. welding.
d. forging.
[7.2.1]
92
CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NOT Technology
9. Before cold-finishing operations can be done on 13. Which of the following statements is true concerning
hot-rolled materials, cleaning is often done by deformation processes?
immersing the hot-rolled material in acid baths in a
process called: a. Hot working usually follows cold working.
b. Hot working must be followed by heat treatment.
a. degreasing. c. Cold working usually follows hot working.
b. descaling. d. Cold working renders brittle material more ductile.
c. pickling. [7.2.2.2)
d. anodizing.
[7.2.2.1] 14. Machinability and fatigue resistance are improved in
most metals that have been:
10. During the steelmaking process, a large number of
discontinuities such as slag, porosity, and shrinkage a. hot worked.
cavities exist in the top of the ingot. These b. cold worked.
discontinuities are: c. heat treated.
d. cast.
a. mostly eliminated in subsequent hot working due [7.2.2.2)
to the pressure that "welds" the void shut.
b. located with NDT at later stages of production. 15. The millworking process performed principally on
c. almost nonexistent with modern steelmaking flat products and bars that improves hardness,
processes. strength, surface finish, and dimensional accuracy is:
d. removed by cropping up to one-third off the top
of the ingot. a. cold rolling.
[7.2.2.1) b. hot rolling.
c. forging.
11. Discontinuities with their origin in the original ingot d. sintering.
can be reduced in severity by the closing and welding [7.2.2.2)
of voids and the breaking up and elongation of
inclusions by which of the following processes? 16. Most seamless tubing made without welds is
processed by:
a. Cold working.
b. Hot rolling. a. casting.
c. Heat treatment. b. piercing.
d. Welding. c. cold rolling.
[7.2.2.1) d. brazing.
[7.2.2.2)
12. Cold rolling sheet steel usually begins with a material
that: 17. With flat products such as cold-rolled strip and
sheet, ultrasonic and radiation gages may be used to
a. has been completely inspected with an automated provide an accurate measurement of:
radiographic system.
b. has been previously hot rolled to dimensions a. strain rate.
close to the size of the finished product. b. surface roughness.
c. has less ductility and greater hardness than c. thermal properties.
typical hot-rolled steel. d. thickness.
d. will have a lower yield and tensile strength after [7.2.2.2)
cold working.
[7.2.2.2) 18. Most steel pipe is produced by forming and:
a. drawing.
b. welding.
c. extrusion.
d. pressing.
[7.2.2.3)
93
Basic I SEmON III
19. A process that requires the use of large, powerful 24. Most new developments in sheet-metal forming
equipment that forms ductile material into a wide typically use nonconventional energy sources. What
variety oflong-length, uniform, cross-sectional is a common feature of these processes?
shapes best describes:
a. The use of lasers for controlled heat input.
a. forging. b. The use of cryogenics to super-cool the metal
b. powder metallurgy. prior to forming.
c. extrusion. c. The use of energy sources that release large
d. die casting. amounts of energy in a very short time.
[7.2.3] d. The use oflarge autoclaves that contain both the
tooling and the metal being formed.
20. Among other factors, the advantageous effects of [7.3.4)
recrystallization depend upon the:
25. Which of the following is not an application for
a. rate of heating. powdered metal products?
b. temperature at which deformation takes place.
c. presence of carbon in excess of 25% for steels. a. Chemical catalysts.
d. presence of silicon in excess of 0.1 % for steels. b. Filtering elements.
[7.2.4] c. Bearings.
d. Electric motor housings,
21. In drawing and deep drawing, the final shape often [7.4]
can be completed in a series of draws, each
successivelydeeper. What process performed 26. Powder metallurgy provides two unique advantages
between draws might effectivelyreduce the number in metals processing. One is the capability to produce
of draws required? shapes and objects of refractory metals that are
extremely difficultor impractical to melt; the other is
a. Recrystallization. to:
b. Pickling.
c. Etching. a. economically produce metals with extremely low
d. Hardening heat treatment. melting temperatures.
[7.2.4] b. produce metal shapes with controlled porosity.
c. produce metals that can be easily machined by
22. Spinning can be used to form: electrochemical processes.
d. produce metals that are corrosion resistant.
a. spherical deep-drawn shapes. [7.4.1]
b. cemented carbide cutting tools.
c. rectangular sheet metal tanks. 27. A major purpose of pressing the metal powders
d. solid spheres. during powder metallurgy processing is to:
[7.2.4)
a. squeeze out excess moisture.
23. Which of the following terms does not describe b. further refine the grains.
operations that bend, stretch, and shape sheet metal c. compact the powders into mechanical and atomic
into three-dimensional shapes with significant plastic closeness.
flow and deformation? d. decrease the contact area.
[7.4.2)
a. Bending.
b. Forming. 28. Powdered metallurgy products cannot:
c. Drawing.
d. Shearing. a. be hot worked after sintering.
[7.3.2] b. be heat treated after sintering.
c. be machined after sintering.
d. attain 100% of theoretical density.
[7.4.2]
94
CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NOT Technology
29. In the powder metallurgy process, sintering is: 5. Pressure welding can be accomplished with pressure
alone, but what else is usually added?
a. in most cases a fully solid-state process.
b. never a fully solid-state process. a. Heat.
c. principally done at room temperature. b. Filler material.
d. always done at elevated temperature and high c. Oxides.
pressure. d. Adhesives.
[7.4.31 [8.1.2.2)
Chapter 8: "Joining and Fastening" 6. In pressure bonding, heat has the effect of:
95
Basic I SECTIONIII
a. A.
b. B. A 8
e. C.
d. D.
[8.2.1.1]
c D
96
CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NOTTechnology
16. In welding, the most obvious discontinuities are 20. The burn-off rate and amount of spattering during
those associated with structural anomalies in the the arc welding process can often be controlled by:
weld itself. Conditions not considered welding
process discontinuities are: a. proper post-heating of the entire weldment.
b. frequent changing of the tungsten electrode.
a. improper weld dimensions and profiles. c. maintaining the longest arc length possible to
b. base metal irregularities that have been enlarged reduce the heat in the weld zone.
by welding stresses and distortion. d. selecting the proper electrode polarity.
e. corrosion of the structural members. [8.2.5.1)
d. structurally sound welds, but those with
inadequate properties caused by errors in filler 21. Due to high temperatures and rapid rate of cooling,
metal selection. the filler material used in fusion welds:
[8.2.2)
a. is coated with an oxide to help reduce weld
17. Thermal conductivity of a metal is an important discontinuities.
factor to consider in making quality weldments b. contains alloys that will help compensate for
because: properties lost during the welding process.
c. is alloyed with nickel, copper, and carbon to
a. some metals, such as aluminum, have a low eliminate cracking.
conductivity, which results in weld d. should be as close as possible to the same alloy
discontinuities due to localized heat buildup. content as the base material.
b. some metals, such as stainless steel, have a high [8.2.6)
conductivity, which results in lack of fusion
discontinuities as the heat is quickly removed 22. When molten metal is transferred from the electrode
from the weld zone. to the weld zone, it can be shielded from the
e. in some metals, such as aluminum, very high atmosphere by all of the following except:
temperature gradients are produced, causing
stresses during cooling. a. the burning of coatings on the welding electrode.
d. some metals, such as stainless steel, have low b. maintaining the arc beneath flux powders.
conductivity, which results in weld c. the flow of a shielding gas around the arc.
discontinuities caused by localized overheating. d. switching to a 2% ceriated tungsten electrode
[8.2.2) when performing the GTAW process.
[8.2.6)
18. In arc welding, the electric arc is usually sustained
between an electrode and the: 23. Which of the following welding processes uses a
nonconsumable electrode with the arc maintained in
a. welding machine. an atmosphere of inert gas?
b. workpiece.
c. coating on the electrode. a. Gas tungsten arc welding.
d. shielding gas. b. Submerged arc welding.
[8.2.5) c. Gas metal arc welding.
d. Electroslag welding.
19. Which of the following gases are most frequently [8.2.6)
used as shielding to provide an inert atmosphere in
the vicinity of the weld? 24. Shielding in the submerged arc welding process is
provided by:
a. Argon, helium, and carbon dioxide.
b. Neon, tritium, and helium. a. gases.
c. Sulphur dioxide, argon, and oxygen. b. a flux-coated welding rod.
d. Argon, nitrogen, and hydrogen. e. granular flux that completely surrounds the are.
[8.2.5; 8.2.5.4) d. chopped glass fibers.
[8.2.6)
97
25. A welding process that is most frequently carried out 29. If the vee-groove weld shown in Figure 9 was made
in a vacuum chamber is: in multiple passes and not clamped or restrained,
typical warping would take place in which direction?
a. plasma arc welding.
b. electron-beam welding. a. Edges A and B would be raised due to the
c. electroslag welding. contraction of the weld metal.
d. friction welding. b. Edges A and B would be lowered due to the
[8.2.7) expansion of the weld metal in the weld zone.
c. In a multipass weld, there would be little if any
26. The welding process capable of very high intensity warpage.
and rate of heat transfer is: d. Expansion and contraction would be equal in a
vee-groove weld as shown.
a. braze welding. [8.3.2]
b. diffusion welding.
c. soldering.
d. plasma arc welding.
Figure 9
[8.2.9]
28. Which welding process is depicted in Figure 8? 30. Cracks in the weld metal are primarily of which three
types?
a. Electron-beam welding.
b. Plasma arc welding. a. Shallow, deep, and intermittent.
c. Resistance spot welding. b. Longitudinal, transverse, and crater.
d. Friction welding. c. Laminar, through, and oblique.
[8.2.15) d. Longitudinal, laminar, and intermittent.
[8.3.3]
] Weld nugget
b. Excessiveoverlap on intermediate passes in a
multipass weldment.
c. Insufficient cleaning of successivepasses in a
multipass weldment.
d. Contaminants in the welding flux.
Transformer
[8.3.3]
98
32. Undercut on a weld pass is usually caused by: 36. When steel has been quench hardened and then
reheated to some point below the lower
a. poor operator technique. transformation temperature for the purpose of
b. a rate of travel that is too slow, which causes the reducing brittleness, this is called:
base metal to become too hot.
c. the use of an electrode that is too large for the a. austenitization.
current capacity of the welding machine. b. thermal slip deformation.
d. welding in the vertical position. c. allotropic change.
[8.3.3) d. tempering.
[8.3.4.2)
33. Crater cracks may take the form of a Singlecrack or
star-shaped cracks and will usually be found: Chapter 9: "Material Removal Processes"
a. oxyacetylene cutting.
b. friction cutting.
c. ultrasonic cutting.
d. plasma arc cutting.
[9.2.2.1)
99
4. The process used for shaping metals by chemical 7. The process illustrated in Figure 11 is called:
dissolution only, with selective removal
accomplished by masking areas where metal is not to a. ultrasonic machining.
be removed, is called: b. electrical discharge machining.
c. electrochemical machining.
a. electrical discharge machining. d. abrasive drilling.
b. chemical milling. [9.4.5]
c. electrochemical machining.
d. electro forming.
[9.4.2]
Figure 11
5. The acronym EDM refers to:
a. chemical milling.
b. electrochemical machining.
c. ultrasonic machining.
d. electrolytic grinding.
[9.4.4] .
a. nonmetal cutters.
Tool
b. noncorrosive coolant.
c. numerical control.
DC
power d. negative clearance.
supply
[9.5]
100
Chapter 10: "Surface Treatments and Coatings" 6. A process that is the reverse of electrochemical
machining and that involves the deposition of metals
1. Which of the following statements is not true on other metals or nonmetals is called:
concerning surface finishing?
a. chemical milling.
a. Cleaning operations are considered to be b. electrical discharge machining.
surface-finishing processes. c. electroplating.
b. Surface finishing is often performed for corrosion d. magneto forming.
protection. [10.4.2]
c. Surface finishing is always followed by further
processes. 7. Metals commonly applied to other metals by
d. Surface finishing is sometimes performed to electroplating are:
improve surface and near-surface mechanical
properties. a. nickel, chromium, and cadmium.
[10.1] b. tin, zinc, and tungsten.
c. silver, gold, and carbon.
2. Carburizing and flame hardening are examples of: d. copper, aluminum, and magnesium.
[10.4.2]
a. annealing processes.
b. case-hardening processes. 8. All of the following statements concerning
c. processes that produce ductile surfaces. electrostatic spraying are true except:
d. electrochemical processes.
[10.2] a. the material being sprayed is directly attracted to
all of the surfaces to be covered.
3. Which of the following nondestructive tests would b. there is less waste due to oversprayed material.
provide the best results in measuring the case depth c. there is more uniform coverage of the surfaces.
on a case-hardened part? d. the parts being sprayed require a high current to
attract the spray media.
a. Ultrasonic immersion testing using a very [10.4.4]
low-frequency probe.
b. Radiographic testing. 9. Some materials, such as aluminum, are corrosion
c. Electromagnetic testing. resistant:
d. Magnetic particle testing.
[10.2.1) a. by virtue of the immediate oxidation of newly
exposed surfaces.
4. The best and most economical cleaners used for b. only if anodized.
removal of oils and greases are: c. because the material itself will not readily
combine with oxygen.
a. pickling baths. d. against all types of corrosive atmospheres.
b. deionized water sprays. [10.4.5)
c. wire brushes and cloth buffers.
d. petroleum solvents. 10. A process that converts the base metal surface to an
[10.3.2] oxidized barrier layer of very small porous cells is
called:
5. Coatings are often applied to protect a material; their
thicknesses can frequently be determined a. galvanizing.
nondestructively by: b. anodizing.
c. plating.
a. acoustic emission testing. d. metallizing.
b. electromagnetic testing. [10.4.5]
c. surface-wave ultrasonic techniques.
d. optical holography.
[10.4.2)
101
11. The anodized surface on aluminum: 3. Which of the following is not a function of NDT?
12. A corrosion protection material commonly applied a. the need to ensure that unexpected
to steel by hot dipping and galvanizing is: discontinuities of some critical size are not
present when the component enters service.
a. porcelain. b. that all discontinuities are detected by NDT or
b. paint. proof testing before the component enters
c. zinc. service.
d. chromic acid. c. in the use of large factors of safety.
[10.4.6.2] d. in the use of a value of strength that the material
used in the design is presumed to possess.
[11.2)
Chapter 11: "Introduction to Nondestructive 5. If properly used, NDT can assist in determining
Testing" whether a test specimen is functioning as designed
by:
l. Which of the following statements best differentiates
a defect from a discontinuity? a. accurately measuring the tensile strength of
design materials.
a. Discontinuities can propagate and become b. predicting the time it will take a given size
defects. discontinuity to grow to a critical size.
b. All discontinuities are defects. c. determining the corrosion rate.
c. All defects will lead to failure if undetected; d. providing an accurate evaluation of the number
discontinuities are harmless. and type of discontinuities that exist in a
d. Discontinuities are external natural boundaries material.
only; defects are internal flaws originating from (11.2)
errors in processing.
[11.1) 6. Even at the early stages of product planning, NDT
should be considered because:
2. Nondestructive testing (NDT) is often differentiated
from other measurement or inspection techniques in a. codes and specifications are too restrictive.
that: b. the design of the part should permit easy access
to critical areas for later inspection.
a. NDT is a measurement of dimensions, geometry, c. the NDT method may strengthen the product.
and appearance. d. the NDT processes are generally more
b. NDT uses electronic instruments to identify, time-intensive than other processes.
evaluate, and locate discontinuities. [11.2)
c. NDT involves indirect tests related to some other
quality or characteristic of the material.
d. NDT is an inspection tool used to confirm the
findings of the many other quality assurance
techniques.
[11.1)
102
7. A fatigue failure can often be prevented by using Chapter 12: "Nondestructive Testing Methods"
NDTto:
1. In visual testing, which of the following
a. verify the cyclic loading on a component. measurement tools uses the principle of light wave
b. detect surface discontinuities that could be stress interference to check surface flatness?
risers.
c. measure the endurance limit of a part undergoing a. Optical comparator.
cyclic stresses. b. Vernier caliper.
d. determine percent elongation of a material before c. Sine bar.
it is placed in service. d. Optical flat.
[11.2] [12.1.2.1)
8. A technique for the inspection of manufactured 2. Devices that show magnified, reflected, or profile
products that utilizes the selection of a certain images of the workpiece on a frosted glass screen are
percentage of parts for inspection is called: called optical:
9. Implied in sampling inspection is: 3. An NDT method that has the ability to measure
changes in electrical conductivity caused by the
a. that the chosen plan will produce precise effects of heat treatment is:
numbers of acceptable parts.
b. the need for a sample size of 100 units or a. magnetic particle testing.
multiples thereof. b. acoustic emission testing.
c. a willingness to sometimes accept defective c. electromagnetic testing.
products. d. immersion ultrasonic testing.
d. the need to collect data in the form of variables [12.8.1]
instead of attributes.
[11.2) Chapter 13: "NOT Applications"
10. A vernier line measurement in a vision test permits 1. Process control based on the means and ranges of
verification of: measurements taken on periodic samples requires
the measurements to be taken of:
a. letter recognition.
b. trichromatic vision. a. attributes.
c. code interpretation. b. variables or parameters.
d. hyperacuity. c. either attributes or variables.
[11.3.2] d. neither attributes nor variables.
[13.1)
11. Factors of safety are often in the range of 2 to 4.
These factors: 2. Monitoring temperature for industrial process
control is an example of:
a. are provided for engineering mistakes.
b. are added as a corrosion allowance. a. parameter-based measurement.
c. could be reduced with the assurance of NDT b. geometric dimensioning and tolerancing.
techniques that the material was free of c. the direct comparison technique.
discontinuities. d. lateral measurement.
d. provide allowances for poor welding techniques. [13.1)
[11.3.3]
103
3. Metal corrosion that is accelerated when the metal is 2. On the probability of detection (PoD) curve shown
under load is called: in Figure 12:
i I I i
104
Answers to Review Questions
Chapter 6: "Casting"
ld 2c 3d 4b Sc 6d 7a 8b 9a lOc llc 12d 13b
14a lSc 16d 17a 18b 19b
105
Chapter 10: "Surface Treatments and Coatings"
106
APPENDIXES
Appendix A
Code of Ethics for Level III NDT Personnel
Certified by ASNT
The "Code of Ethics for LevelIII NDT Personnel 2.2 The Level III shall make claims regarding certification
Certified by ASNT" is part of the ASNT Level III only with respect to the scope for which certification
Certification Application for the Basic Examination and all has been granted; and
Method examinations, including the PdM Basic and IR 2.3 The Level III shall not use their certification in a
Method examinations. By signing the application, the appli- misleading manner or in such a manner as to bring
cant agrees to abide by the Code of Ethics for as long as he ASNT into disrepute, nor to make any statement
or she is certified. A link to the ASNT Level III Certification regarding the certification which ASNT may consider
Application may be downloaded from the ASNT website at misleading or unauthorized.
asnt.org under the Certification drop-down menu. The text
of the Code of Ethics is reprinted below in full: 3. Responsibility to the Public
The Level III shall:
1. Preamble 3.1 Protect the safety, health, and welfare of the public in
1.1 In order to safeguard the life, health, property, and the performance of professional duties. Should the
welfare of the public, to maintain integrity and high case arise where the Level III faces a situation where
standards of skills and practices in the profession of the safety, health, and welfare of the public are not
nondestructive testing, the following rules of protected, he/she shall:
professional conduct shall be binding upon every 3.1.1 Apprise the proper authority if it is evident
person issued a certificate by ASNT as a Level III. that the safety, health, and welfare of the
1.1.1 The Level III who holds a certificate is charged public are not being protected; and
with having knowledge of the existence of the 3.1.2 Refuse to accept responsibility for the design,
reasonable rules and regulations hereinafter report, or statement involved; and
provided for his/her conduct as ASNT Level III, 3.1.3 If necessary, sever relationship with the
and also shall be familiar with their provisions employer or client; and
and understand them. Such knowledge shall 3.1.4 Undertake to perform assignments only when
encompass the understanding that the qualified by training and experience in the
practice of nondestructive testing under this specific technical fields involved. In the event
certification is a privilege, as opposed to a a question arises as to the competence of a
right, and the Level III shall be forthright and Level III to perform an assignment in a field of
candid in statements or written responses to specific discipline which cannot be otherwise
the Ethics Committee of the Certification resolved to the Ethics Committee's
Management Board. satisfaction, the Ethics Committee, either upon
1.1.2 The "Level III" as referred to herein is that request of the Level III, or by its own volition,
individual who has been issued a certificate by may require him/her to submit to an
the American Society for Nondestructive appropriate inquiry by or on behalf of the
Testing, lnc., pursuant to its heretofore Ethics Committee; and
published requirements, rules, and procedures 3.1.5 Be completely objective in any professional
for such certification. This Code of Ethics is report, statement, or testimony, avoiding .any
binding upon all individuals so certified. omission which would, or reasonably could,
lead to fallacious inference, finding, or
2. Integrity misrepresentation; and
2.1 The Level III is obligated to act with complete 3.1.6 Express an opinion as a technical witness
integrity in professional matters for each client or before any court, commission, or other
employer as a faithful agent or trustee; shall be tribunal, only when such opinion is founded
honest and impartial; and shall serve the public, upon adequate knowledge of the facts in
clients, and employer with devotion; issue, upon a background of technical
109
\
competence in the subject matter, and upon 6. Solicitation of Employment
an honest conviction of the accuracy or 6.1 The Level III shall not pay, solicit, nor offer, directly or
propriety of the testimony. indirectly, any bribe or commission for professional
em ployment with the exception of payment of the
4. Public Statements usual commission for securing salaried positions
4.1 The Level III will issue no statements, criticisms, or through licensed employment agencies.
arguments on nondestructive testing matters 6.2 The Level III shall seek professional employment on
connected with public policy which are inspired or the basis of qualification and competence for proper
paid for by an interested party, or parties, unless accomplishment of work.
he/she has prefaced the remark(s) by explicitly 6.3 The Level III shall not falsify or permit
identifying himself/herself, by disclosing the identities misrepresentation of his/her, or his/her associates',
of the party, on whose behalf he/she is speaking, and academic or professional qualification. He/she shall
by revealing the existence of any pecuniary interest not misrepresent or exaggerate the degree of
he/she may have in these matters. responsibility in or for the subject matter of prior
4.2 The Level III will publicly express no opinion on a assignments.
nondestructive testing matter unless it is founded 6.4 Brochures or other presentations incident to the
upon adequate knowledge of the facts in issue, upon solicitation of employment shall not misrepresent
a background of technical competence in the subject pertinent facts concerning employers, employees,
matter, and upon honest conviction of the accuracy associates, joint ventures, or past accomplishments
and propriety of the testimony. with the intent and purpose of enhancing
qualifications and work.
5. Conflict of Interest
5.1 The Level III shall conscientiously avoid conflict of 7. Improper Conduct
interest with the employer or client, but when 7.1 The Level III shall not sign documents for work for
unavoidable, shall forthwith disclose the which he/she does not have personal professional
circumstances to the employer or client. knowledge and direct technical supervisory control
5.2 The Level III shall promptly inform the client or and responsibility.
employer of any business associations, interests, or 7.2 The Level III shall not knowingly associate with, or
circumstances which could influence his/her permit the use of, his/her name or firm name in a
judgment or the quality of services to the client or business venture by any person or firm which he/she
employer. knows, or has reason to believe is engaging in
5.3 The Level III shall not accept compensation, financial business or professional practices of a fraudulent or
or otherwise, from more than one party for services dishonest nature.
on the same project, or for services pertaining to the
same project, unless the circumstances are fully 8. Unauthorized Practice
disclosed to, and agreed to, by all interested parties 8.1 Any violation of this code shall be deemed to be an
or their duly authorized agents. unauthorized practice and upon proper complaint,
5.4 The Level III shall not solicit or accept financial or investigation, due process hearing, and ruling of the
other valuable consideration from material or Ethics Committee of the ASNT Certification
equipment suppliers for specifying their products. Management Council in accordance with procedures
5.5 The Level III shall not solicit or accept gratuities, heretofore established and published, sanctions may
directly or indirectly, from contractors, their agents, or be applied to the individual(s) in violation.
other parties dealing with the client or employer in 8.2 If the applied sanction is suspension or revocation of
connection with work for which he/she is responsible. certification, the certificate holder agrees to
5.6 As an elected, retained, or employed public official, discontinue all claims of ASNT certification and must
the Level III (in the capacity as a public official) shall return all certificates and wallet cards issued by ASNT.
not review or approve work that was performed by
himself/herself, or under his/her direction, on behalf 9. Rulings of Other Jurisdictions
of another employer or client. Conviction of a felony while ASNT certification is valid or
the revocation or suspension of a Professional Engineer's
License by another jurisdiction or similar rulings by other
professional associations may be grounds for a charge of
violation of this Code.
110
Appendix B
CP-ASNT-J B: ASNT NOT Level III Program
CP-ASNT-IB is a document that outlines and describes PdM personnel qualification and certification, and the
the ASNT NDT Level III Program. It is reprinted in full basic principles of PdM methods.
from the ASNT website below. 2.7 Examination, Method: A Level III written examination
on the principles, theory, techniques, and applications
1. Scope within an NDT/PdM method.
1.1 It is recognized that the effectiveness of 2.8 Examination, Specific: An examination on
nondestructive testing (NDT) and predictive specifications, equipment, techniques, and
maintenance (PdM) applications depends upon the procedures applicable to the employer's product(s)
capabilities of the personnel who are responsible for, and methods.
and perform, NDT or PdM. The AsNT Level III program 2.9 Experience: Work activities accomplished in the
provides third-party certification for NDT or PdM applicable NDT/PdM method under the direction of
personnel whose specific jobs require appropriate qualified supervision, including the performance of
knowledge of the technical principles underlying the the method and related activities but not including
tests they perform, witness, monitor, or evaluate. time spent in organized training programs.
1.2 This document establishes the system for AsNT Level 2.10 Qualification: Demonstration or possession of
III certification in nondestructive testing and education, skills, training, knowledge, and experience
predictive maintenance in accordance with required for personnel to properly perform NDT to a
Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-7A. Certification level as specified in this document
under this system results in the issuance of an AsNT 2.11 Recertification: The process of extending one's
certificate attesting to the fact that the certificate certification after the initial period of validity, and
holder has met the published guidelines for the Basic maintaining certification for a specified period
and Method examinations as detailed in thereafter.
Recommended Practice SNT-TC-7A. 2.12 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-7A: The NDT
Personnel Qualification and Certification in
2. Definitions Nondestructive Testing document providing the
2.1 ASNTcertification: The process whereby AsNT certifies guidelines for the establishment of qualification and
that an individual has met the basic and method certification programs for NDT.
examination guidelines of Recommended Practice No. 2.13 Training: An organized program developed to impart
SNT-TC-7A. the knowledge and skills necessary for qualification.
2.2' ASNTNOT Levell/I: An individual who, having passed
AsNT administered Basic and Method(s) 3. Certification Outcome
Examinations, holds a current, valid AsNT Level III 3.1 An AsNT Level III certificate holder shall have the skills
certificate in at least one method. and knowledge to establish techniques, to interpret
2.3 Certification: Written testimony of qualification. codes, standards, and specifications, and to prepare
2.4 Employer:The corporate, private, or public entity that or approve procedures and instructions.
employs personnel for wages or salary,and is responsible 3.2 An AsNT NDT Level III shall also have general
for authorizing personnel to perform NDT or PdM. familiarity with other nondestructive testing methods,
2.5 Examination, NOT Basic:A Level III written shall be capable of conducting or directing the
examination of knowledge of materials science and training and examination of testing personnel in the
processes technology, NDT personnel qualification methods for which the ASNT Level III is qualified, and
and certification, and the basic principles of NDT shall have knowledge of materials, fabrication, and
methods. product technology in order to establish techniques
2.6 Examination, PdM Basic: A Level III written and to assist in establishing acceptance criteria when
examination of knowledge of machinery technology, none are otherwise available.
111
3.3 An ASNT PdM Level III shall also have general 5.2.3 Method Examination: This written
familiarity with other predictive maintenance examination consists of a minimum of 90
methods, shall be capable of conducting or directing questions that assessthe candidate's
the training and examination of testing personnel in knowledge and application of fundamentals,
the methods for which the ASNT Level III is qualified, principles, and techniques for that method in
and shall have knowledge of applicable machinery which certification is sought. The Method
technology in order to establish techniques and to Examination may include a portion that
assist in establishing acceptance criteria when none examines the candidate's ability to
are otherwise available. comprehend a specification and apply its
requirements.
4. Eligibility for Examination 5.3 NDT/PdM or PdM/NDT Conversion
4.1 ASNT has no restrictions relative to the gender, creed, 5.3.1 Personnel with currently valid NDT certificates
race, or nationality of applicants. in Methods for which PdM certification is
4.2 Candidates shall have a combination of education available may attain PdM Certification in those
and experience in accordance with the guidelines in Methods by successfully completing the PdM
Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-l A. Basic examination.
4.3 When applying for examination(s), the candidate shall 5.3.2 Personnel with currently valid PdM certificates
document the validity of the personal information may attain NDT Certification in those Methods
requested, including education and experience by successfully completing the NDT Basic
needed to establish eligibility. examination.
4.4 The Candidate shall agree to abide by the code of 5.4 Employer Responsibility
ethics for ASNT Level III personnel. 5.4.1 Additional, specific examinations may be
required by employers, customers, or other
5. Qualification Examinations bodies. Examinations for specialized NDT/PdM
5.1 Eligibility. All ASNT Level III Candidates must techniques or unique product forms are the
successfully complete both: responsibility of the employer and are outside
5.1.1 a Basic Examination, regardless of the the scope of this document.
method(s) for which the candidate seeks 5.5 Examination Grading
certification; and The grading of qualification examinations shall be
5.1.2 a Method Examination, which is given at the done by ASNT Technical Services staff in accordance
candidate's request, in one or more of 11 with nationally accepted psychometric principles.
different NDT methods, or two PdM methods.
5.2 Examination Descriptions 6. Examination Results
5.2.1 NDT Basic Examination: This written 6.1 Candidates that successfully pass all required
examination consists of 135 questions that examinations for ASNT certification, shall be issued
assessthe candidate's knowledge of: certification documents as described in 7. Certification.
5.2.1.1 other NDT methods as required for 6.2 Candidates that do not pass all required examinations
ASNT Level II personnel; for ASNT certification will be sent written notification
5.2.1.2 materials, fabrication, and product of their results and may reapply to retake the failed
technology; and examinations.
5.2.1.3 qualification and certification 6.3 For employers wishing to use ASNT as a third-party
according to the ASNT, SNT-TC-lA, examination source for the purpose of adding
and ANSI/ASNTCP-189,latest edition. Methods for in-house Level III personnel, examination
5.2.2 PdM Basic Examination: This written results will be sent by letter only. No certificate will be
examination consists of 90 questions that issued.
assessthe candidate's knowledge of: 6.4 Notification of results will be sent to each candidate
5.2.2.1 other PdM methods as required for within thirty (30) business days from the date of the
ASNT Level II personnel; examination.
5.2.2.2 applicable machinery technology;
and
5.2.2.3 qualification and certification
according to the ASNT, SNT-TC-1A,
and ANSI/ASNTCP-189,latest edition.
112
7. Certification again as long as certification is continuously
7.1 Based on successful completion ofthe necessary maintained; or
qualification examinations, ASNT will issue the 9.2.2 By application through points, demonstrating
candidate an ASNT certificate and wallet card. a combination of active employment and
7.2 ASNT certification attests to an individual having continuing participation/education in
satisfied the requirements for the Basic and Method NDT/PdM.
examinations as detailed in Recommended Practice No. 9.3 Personnel that attempt renewal by examination and
SNT-TC-7A. This does not constitute license or fail an examination may not renew by points in that
authorization to perform NDT or PdM, as the test method until the examination has been passed.
employer has the sole responsibility for authorizing
employees to perform NDT/PdM. The employer, 10. Applicant Rights
through a Level III, or other designated person as 10.1 Appeals, Complaints, and Disputes: An appeals
denoted in the employer's written practice, should process exists for the resolution of appeals,
review the individual's qualification records for complaints, and disputes received from candidates,
satisfactory completeness prior to authorizing the certified persons, their employers, and other parties
individual to perform NDT or PdM. These records shall regarding the certification process, qualification
be retained as specified in Recommended Practice No. criteria, or the performance of certified persons.
SNT-TC-7A. 10.2 Confidentiality: Information gained in the course of
7.3 ASNT NDT and PdM Level III certificates and wallet the certification process shall not be disclosed to any
cards remain the property of ASNT and shall be third party except as required by law.
surrendered to ASNT on demand.
11. Program Changes
8. Validity Changes to the ASNT Level III program are posted on the
8.1 Initial certification shall be valid for a period of five (5) ASNT Internet website, at www.asnt.org under the
years, with the certification period to start on the date "Certification" link, and notification of changes will be
that a candidate successfully passes both the Basic published in the ASNT monthly periodical, Materials
and Method examinations. Evaluation magazine.
8.1.1 When the Basic examination is passed, that
result shall remain valid for a period of 5 years 12. Accommodation for Disabilities
from the examination date. If the Method ASNT will make appropriate accommodations for persons
examination is not passed within that period, with documented disabilities. Candidates should contact
the Basic examination must be retaken. the ASNT Technical Services Department prior to
8.1.2 When the Method examination is passed, that examination dates to arrange special accommodations.
result shall remain valid for a period of 2 years
from the examination date. If the Basic
examination is not passed within that period,
the Method examination must be retaken.
8.2 Certification shall be revoked if ASNT determines that
an ASNT certificate holder has violated the ASNT
Level III code of ethics.
9. Recertification
9.1 Recertification is required at five (5) year intervals in
order to extend certification beyond the initial or
previous period of validity.
9.2 Certified individuals may recertify in one of the
following two ways:
9.2.1 By examination, prior to expiration of
certification in the applicable method. The
Basic examination does not have to be taken
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Appendix C
Measurement Units for Nondestructive Testing
In 1960, the General Conference on Weights and In the International System of Units, the distinction
Measures established the International System of Units (SI). between upper and lower case letters is meaningful and
SI units are designed so that a single set of measurement should be observed. For example, the meanings of the prefix
units can be used by all branches of science, engineering, m (milli) and the prefix M (mega) differ by nine orders of
and the general public. magnitude.
SI units are the modern version of the metric system For more information, the reader is referred to the
and end the division between metric units used by scientists information available through national standards organiza-
and metric units used by engineers and the public. For tions and specialized information compiled by technical
example, scientists have given up their units based on cen- organizations.
timeter and gram, and engineers have abandoned the kilo-
gram-force in favor of the newton. Electrical engineers have Table 2. SI derived units with special nornes."
retained the ampere, volt, and ohm but changed all units
related to magnetism. Relation to
Quantity Units Symbol Other SI
Table 1 lists the seven base SI units. Table 2 lists derived Unitsb
units with special names. In SI units, the unit of time is the
second (s); the hour (h) is also recognized for common use. Capacitance farad F C·V-1
Traditional or imperial units should not be used in science Catalytic activity katal kat s-1·mol
and engineering. Table 3 gives some conversions to SI units. Conductance siemens S A.V 1
In science and engineering, very large or very small Energy joule J N·m
numbers with units are expressed by using multipliers, 1.5-1
Frequency (periodic) hertz Hz
prefixes of 103 or 10-3 intervals (Table 4). The multiplier
Force newton N kgm-s ?
becomes a part of the SI symbol. For example, a millimeter
(mm) is 0.001 meter (rn). The volume unit cubic centimeter Inductance henry H Wb·A-1
(ern') is (0.01 m)", Unit submultiples such as the centi, deci, Illuminance lux Ix Im·m-2
and hecto are less common in scientific and technical uses Luminous flux lumen 1m cd·sr
of SI units because of their variance from the convenient Electric charge coulomb C A·s
103 or 10-3 intervals that make equations easy to Electric potential" volt V W.A 1
manipulate. V·A-1
Electric resistance ohm W
Magnetic flux weber Wb V·s
Magnetic flux density tesla T Wb-rn ?
115
Angle
Distance
Luminance
116
a. Avoid these prefixes (except in drn" and cm3) for science
and engineering.
117