July 2016

Examiners’ Report
NEBOSH International
Diploma in
Occupational Health
and Safety (Unit B)
Examiners’ Report

NEBOSH INTERNATIONAL DIPLOMA IN

OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH AND SAFETY

UNIT IB:
INTERNATIONAL CONTROL OF
HAZARDOUS AGENTS IN THE WORKPLACE

JULY 2016

CONTENTS

Introduction 2

General comments 3

Comments on individual questions 4

Examination technique 12

Command words 15

 2016 NEBOSH, Dominus Way, Meridian Business Park, Leicester LE19 1QW
tel: 0116 263 4700 fax: 0116 282 4000 email: [email protected] website: www.nebosh.org.uk

The National Examination Board in Occupational Safety and Health is a registered charity, number 1010444
 Introduction

NEBOSH (The National Examination Board in Occupational Safety and Health) was formed in 1979 as
an independent examining board and awarding body with charitable status. We offer a
comprehensive range of globally-recognised, vocationally-related qualifications designed to meet the
health, safety, environmental and risk management needs of all places of work in both the private and
public sectors.

Courses leading to NEBOSH qualifications attract around 50,000 candidates annually and are offered
by over 600 course providers, with examinations taken in over 120 countries around the world. Our
qualifications are recognised by the relevant professional membership bodies including the Institution
of Occupational Safety and Health (IOSH) and the International Institute of Risk and Safety
Management (IIRSM).

NEBOSH is an awarding body that applies best practice setting, assessment and marking and applies
to Scottish Qualifications Authority (SQA) regulatory requirements.

This report provides guidance for candidates and course providers for use in preparation for future
examinations. It is intended to be constructive and informative and to promote better understanding of
the syllabus content and the application of assessment criteria.

© NEBOSH 2016

Any enquiries about this report publication should be addressed to:

NEBOSH
Dominus Way
Meridian Business Park
Leicester
LE19 1QW

tel: 0116 263 4700

fax: 0116 282 4000
email: [email protected]

2
 General comments

Many candidates are well prepared for this unit assessment and provide comprehensive and relevant
answers in response to the demands of the question paper. This includes the ability to demonstrate
understanding of knowledge by applying it to workplace situations.

There are other candidates, however, who appear to be unprepared for the unit assessment and who
show both a lack of knowledge of the syllabus content and a lack of understanding of how key
concepts should be applied to workplace situations, which is an essential requirement at Diploma
level.

This report has been prepared to provide feedback on the standard date examination sitting in July
2016.

Feedback is presented in these key areas: responses to questions, examination technique and
command words and is designed to assist candidates and course providers prepare for future
assessments in this unit.

Candidates and course providers will also benefit from use of the ‘Guide to the NEBOSH International
Diploma in Occupational Health and Safety’ which is available via the NEBOSH website. In particular,
the guide sets out in detail the syllabus content for Unit IB and tutor reference documents for each
Element.

Additional guidance on command words is provided in ‘Guidance on command words used in learning
outcomes and question papers’ which is also available via the NEBOSH website.

Candidates and course providers should also make reference to the Unit IB ‘Example question paper
and Examiners’ feedback on expected answers’ which provides example questions and details
Examiners’ expectations and typical areas of underperformance.

3
Unit IB
International control of hazardous agents in the workplace

Question 1 An organisation is considering the substitution of a solvent that it

currently uses for one that is thought to be more effective.

Outline factors that should be considered before a decision is taken to

make the change. (10)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcome 2.1: Outline the
factors to consider when assessing risks from chemicals which are hazardous to
health.

The question was mainly about reviewing a hazardous substance risk assessment
when changing one chemical for another. The question is fairly open - nothing was
said about whether the proposed chemical could have been more or less hazardous,
or whether it would have resulted in a change to the process conditions. Most
candidates therefore found this question quite straightforward. Candidates were able
to recognise that information about the chemical itself would need to be considered
and that this would be contained within the safety data sheet. This would provide data
such as health effects of the substitute, physical properties (volatility, flammability),
exposure limits and routes of entry. Candidates were also usually able to identify
issues such as the amounts in use, frequency and duration of exposure.

Subsequently most candidates performed quite well. If there was a downfall, it was
that candidates provided only a very narrow range of issues and some did little more
than list these rather than outline. Other issues that were sometimes not considered
were the different control measures that might be required, including PPE/RPE and
the practical issues related to their maintenance (including different cost). There
might also be very different storage, emergency and disposal arrangements needed.

Question 2 Workers are exposed to high levels of heat and steam from a
manufacturing process.

(a) Identify TWO parameters that could be measured when making

an assessment of the thermal environment AND, in EACH case,
give the name of an instrument that can be used to measure this
parameter. (2)

(b) Outline ways of reducing thermal stress among workers during

the manufacturing process. (8)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcome 10.1: Explain the
need for, and factors involved in, the provision and maintenance of thermal comfort in
the work environment.

Some candidates were not precise enough in answering part (a) of this question. For
the parameters, there were sometimes vague references to ‘temperature’ instead of,
for example ‘ambient temperature’ or ‘air temperature’. For instruments, there were
references to ‘thermometer’ instead of ‘black globe thermometer’ or ‘alcohol
thermometer’ or ‘kata thermometer’. The parameter and the instrument also needed
to be connected. Separate listing without a clear connection between parameter and
instrument did not gain marks.

Part (b) was generally well answered. Candidates outlined a good range of ways of
reducing thermal stress including reducing heat output at source, ventilation, work
breaks, provision of drinks for workers, as well as health surveillance and
acclimatisation.

4
Question 3 Identify functions that may be carried out by an occupational health
service in a large manufacturing organisation. (10)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcome 11.3: Outline the
management of occupational health (including the practical and legal aspects).

Candidates usually gained good marks on this question, easily identifying employment
screening, rehabilitation treatment, counselling, absence monitoring, health education,
immunisation, and training amongst many others that you would expect in a large
manufacturing organisation. Some candidates misread the question and instead
listed members of the occupational health team rather than functions that the service
would perform. Once again this highlights the need to read and re-read the question
carefully.

Question 4 An organisation has decided to close its offices and to allow its 30
workers to work from home. The organisation will provide workers with
their own laptop (portable computer) for use at home and on their daily
visits to customers.

Outline factors that should be considered in order to minimise ergonomic

risks in the selection and use of these laptops. (10)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcomes 9.1: Outline

types, causes and relevant workplace examples of injuries and ill-health conditions
associated with repetitive physical activities, manual handling and poor posture; and
9.2: Explain the assessment and control of risks from repetitive activities, manual
handling and poor posture.

Some candidates misinterpreted this question and assumed a general question about
display screen equipment risk assessments. While a general display screen
equipment risk assessment approach would get some of the way there, ignoring the
specific scenario tended to overly focus on detailed issues to do with the chair, desk,
lighting, glare and comfort and ignore some of the constraints of working from home
and use while visiting customers.

For use on the move, the laptop needed to have things such as an optimum screen
size, low weight (but balanced against screen size and battery life) and lightweight
case. When used at home, ideally you should consider separate mouse, keyboard
and screen and other equipment. It is also a good idea to involve users in selection of
equipment. Most candidates were able to outline factors associated with the
equipment itself but often missed issues associated with risk assessments and
training. As well as equipment issues to consider, existing risk assessments (DSE
and manual handling) for these users would need revising and they would need to be
trained on particular aspects like risk assessing their own workstations at home (or
dynamically when on the move) and how to minimise the ergonomic risks while they
are using them.

5
Question 5 A local exhaust ventilation (LEV) system is used to reduce exposure of
workers to dust in a workplace. The employer needs to assess the
ongoing effectiveness of the LEV system.

(a) Identify THREE simple qualitative methods that can be used to

assess the effectiveness of the LEV system AND, for EACH
method, explain how the effectiveness can be visually assessed. (6)

(b) Identify TWO quantitative methods that can be used to measure

transport velocity in an LEV system AND explain how EACH
method measures the transport velocity. (4)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcome 3.1: Explain the
purpose and operation of local exhaust ventilation and dilution ventilation including
assessing and maintaining effectiveness.

This question was generally answered quite well. For part (a) candidates needed to
connect the method with the explanation to gain full marks. Candidates were able to
identify methods such as Tyndall lamps (which make fine particles easily visible),
smoke tubes (which show the air flow) and simple observation of components that can
show build-up of dust deposits.

For part (b) quantitative methods included use of thermal anemometers, pitot-static
tubes and swinging vane anemometers. In each case, each method needed to be
explained.

Some candidates had difficulty distinguishing between qualitative and quantitative

methods and so confused techniques that were required for parts (a) and (b) - some
candidates providing the same examples for both parts. In part (b) some candidates
also missed that the question was about the measurement of transport velocity and so
suggested methods that would be unsuitable.

Question 6 A contractor has been hired to examine the quality of a weld repair to a
metal pipe on a chemical plant. It has been decided that on-site
radiography, using either gamma or X-ray sources, is the only practical
option in this case.

Outline suitable measures to control the risk of exposure to radiation

from the examination work. (10)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcome 7.3: Explain the
effects of exposure to ionising radiation, its measurement and control.

This question was not well answered, illustrating again the confusion that many
candidates appear to have about radiation (ionising vs non-ionising) and the problem
of applying knowledge to the specific scenario.

Some candidates adopted an approach that was too generic - time, distance,
shielding. This works only if you remember to also apply it to the scenario. As a
result, some candidates suggested impractical solutions such as placing the metal
pipe in a glove box. Having said that, most candidates were able to outline measures
such as using competent advice (Radiation Protection Officers), competent contracts,
proper planning of the job, safe systems of work, localised shielding and restricting
access to the job site during the examination. Also relevant were maintaining the
equipment in a good state of repair, monitoring (dose monitoring of the radiographers,
area monitoring, activity monitoring of equipment) and making sure the monitoring
equipment itself was calibrated and well-maintained.

6
Question 7 Construction workers use a range of equipment and vehicles that may
expose them to high levels of vibration.

(a) Outline issues that a vibration risk assessment should consider. (8)

(b) Outline practical measures to prevent or control exposure to

vibration for these workers. (12)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcomes 6.8: Explain the
principles of controlling vibration and vibration exposure; and 6.7: Explain the
measurement and assessment of vibration exposure.

This was a very popular question and explored the combined issues of hand-arm
vibration (HAV) and whole body vibration (WBV) on construction sites. It was well
answered in many cases. However, some candidates continue to provide more of a
list than an outline, and do not connect the practical measure with what it is trying to
achieve. For example, stating that “old equipment should be replaced” as an option is
of little value unless the point is made about replacing them with ones of lower
vibration output.

Vibration risk assessments will need to consider a range of issues including

identification of the sources and tasks producing the vibration, together with their
actual (measured) or expected (estimated) emission levels, any exposure limits that
might be relevant, duration of exposure (trigger time), whether the vibration is WBV or
HAV and the environmental conditions (exposure to cold, particularly for HAV).

General control measures could have included alternative work methods, making sure
the vehicle or tool were powerful enough (to shorten the task), selecting/replacing
equipment for lower vibration characteristics, limiting exposure duration and referral of
those experiencing symptoms of HAVS or WBV effects to occupational health
specialists for evaluation.

For HAV, specific measures might also include modifying the workstation design to
minimise load on wrists and providing warm clothing (including gloves) to protect from
cold/wet environments and aid good circulation. Vehicle-specific measures would
include adjusting the vehicle speed to the ground conditions (to avoid sharp jolts) and
making sure the vehicle seat was properly adjusted to avoid ‘bottoming out’ of the
suspension.

There is a persistent belief amongst candidates of the universal value of ‘anti-

vibration’ gloves. While these exist (and indeed there is an international standard for
them), current evidence suggests they have very limited application, being effective
only in very specific cases (though this may change as technology advances). These
gloves cannot currently be recommended as a general solution as they have
considerable limitations (and may indeed make things worse if you fail to appreciate
the limitations).

7
Question 8 In a chemical process, workers use a mixture composed of several liquid
substances. One of the components, designated DTJH, is classified as a
sensitiser under the GHS system. Table 1 below shows the average
personal exposure levels to DTJH for one worker measured over an 8-
hour day and Table 2 shows the exposure limits for DTJH.

Table 1
Duration of Exposure to DTJH
Task carried out by worker
task (ppm)
Measuring out and adding mixture to 15 minutes 140
process vessel
Adding other components to the mix 1 hour 50
Supervision of mixing 2 hours 70
Transfer of product to containers 2 hours 80
Assume that exposure is zero at all other times.

Table 2
Exposure limits for DTJH
Long-term exposure limit (8-hour Short-term exposure limit (15-minute
TWA limit reference period)ort reference period)
50 100

(a) Outline the process of hazard classification under the GHS

system. (2)

(b) Outline what is meant by ‘sensitiser’ under the GHS system. (4)

(c) Using the information in Table 1, calculate the 8-hour time-

weighted average (TWA) exposure of the worker to DTJH. (6)
Your answer should include detailed working to show that you
understand how the exposure is determined.

(d) Using relevant information from Tables 1 and 2, explain what

actions might be required by the employer to control exposure. (8)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcomes 1.4: Explain the
health effects of chemicals used in the workplace; and 4.1: Explain occupational
exposure limits for airborne harmful substances, the basis upon which they are
established, and their application to the workplace.

This question was not a popular choice. Most candidates who attempted it faired
reasonably well in part (c) (the calculation), but did not appear to have an
understanding of the GHS classification system or what a sensitiser was. Part (d)
often provided a narrow range of answers, particularly deficient being the
interpretation of the calculated result when compared to the exposure limits.

Hazard classification under the GHS system involves a two-step process. Firstly,
relevant hazard data is identified and reviewed. This data is either already available
or from further tests that are commissioned. In both cases it is necessary to use data
from standard test methods. This data is then compared to GHS classification criteria
for the various hazard categories.

A sensitiser causes an allergic response - which can be either skin or respiratory.

Sensitisation occurs in two phases, the initial contact with the sensitiser may produce
only mild effects but subsequent exposure of even small amounts may produce an
extreme reaction.

8
 Part (c) required a straightforward calculation, but it was important to show working to
gain full marks. Each time period from the table is converted to the same units - hours
in this case (so 15 minutes becomes 0.25 hours and so on). The time period and its
associated exposure level are multiplied together, all of these products are then
added and finally divided by 8 (hours). The result is calculated as 48.125 ppm (values
rounded down to 48ppm were accepted).

Part (d) required candidates to explain the actions that might be needed. Candidates
needed to firstly note the significance of the calculated result compared to the
exposure limits. The calculated value is below the LTEL but very close to it. It is quite
likely that on other days or for other workers, the value may be exceeded, so more
detailed measurements should be carried out. The STEL is exceeded and some
action is needed during the measuring stage. Candidates were also expected to note
that since this involves a sensitiser (where even small amounts could cause an
allergic reaction), you should try to reduce exposure to as low as possible (regardless
of the LTEL/STEL). Candidates were then expected to outline a range of control
options, such as substitution, process change, LEV.

Question 9 Hospital nurses are at risk from work-related violence when they are
required to visit patients in their own homes.

(a) Outline a strategy that the hospital management should have in

place in order to manage work-related violence. (10)

(b) Describe a range of practical measures that the nurses can put
in place to help reduce the risk of violence when making visits to
patients. (10)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcome 8.4: Explain the
identification and control of work-related violence/aggression with reference to
relevant standards.

Some candidates answered this question as if it were about patients visiting a hospital
rather than nurses conducting home visits, while some continue to confuse strategy
and practical measures in answering part (a).

Part (a) required answers that included having a policy in place with clear statements
of attitude to work-related violence and with support for legal action for victims of such
violence. The strategy should make sure responsibilities are outlined, identifying
specific individuals and roles. There should be specific support mechanisms
(including counseling). It is important to identify who is at risk of violence and to make
sure risk assessments are carried out where indicated. There will need to be systems
for reporting, recording and investigating incidents and training on how to deal with
potentially violent situations.

Part (b) was usually well answered, candidates providing answers that included
informing colleagues of times of visits, checking out patient history before the visit
(specifically looking for history of violence), carrying mobile phones to contact the
office, avoiding confrontation and so on.

9
Question 10 A worker at a large organisation has recently been diagnosed with the
bacterial infection Legionnaire’s disease.

(a) Outline the signs and symptoms of Legionnaire’s disease. (4)

(b) Outline factors that may have contributed to the worker being
exposed to the bacterium and contracting the disease. (8)

(c) Outline practical measures that the organisation should put in

place to help reduce the risk of future outbreaks. (8)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcome 5.2: Explain the
assessment and control of risk from exposure to biological agents at work.

Many candidates were able to provide reasonable answers, but often only a narrow
range was provided, restricting the marks. Some candidates confused this disease
with leptospirosis and so gained few marks. Some candidates did recognise
legionnaires’ disease but also seemed to think it was contagious, spreading from
person to person (which it does not) and so recommended extreme controls such as
self-contained breathing apparatus.

Legionnaires’ disease produces flu-like symptoms as well as confusion, respiratory

failure and eventually death in some cases.

The bacterium grows best in warm (25°C - 45°C) stagnant water that contains
nutrients (organic material, sludge). If people inhale airborne water droplets
containing viable legionella bacteria, they can contract the disease. Marks were
available for identifying typical sources such as spa baths (jacuzzis) and cooling
towers. Certain groups of people are at particular risk.

Practical measures include detailed risk assessment to identify potential sources and
people at risk, water system tested, inspected, cleaned, treated and maintained at
temperatures below 20°C or above 65°C.

Question 11 (a) Outline how the use of drugs or alcohol can adversely affect a
worker’s fitness to work. (4)

(b) Outline circumstances when drug and alcohol testing should be

used at work. (4)

(c) Outline how drug or alcohol problems at work can be managed

effectively. (8)

(d) Identify disciplines or agencies that may assist in assessing or

managing the use of drugs or alcohol at work. (4)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcome 11.3: Outline the
management of occupational health (including the practical and legal aspects).

Few candidates were able to get more than 1 or 2 marks for part (a) as they focused
narrowly, rather than looking at the wider range of effects. Typical effects include
absenteeism, lateness, poor work performance, poor judgment and violence.

Quite a few candidates appeared to confuse parts (b) and (c), and gave very similar
answers to both parts. Those candidates who did provide good answers to part (b)
tended to focus on high risk activities. These are very relevant but there are a
broader range of issues to consider, such as return to work after rehabilitation,
following a specific incident/accident and where there is a need to monitor a specific
problem (or clear evidence of drinking or drug taking).

10
Part (c) was answered quite well. Candidates were able to outline how it should be
incorporated into a policy and contract of employment (the worker being made aware
of this explicitly), assuring workers of strict confidentiality, encouragement to seek
help from specialists, temporary redeployment (if safety critical) and disciplinary action
as a last resort.

For part (d), most candidates could identify the doctors and nurses. However, few
could identify much beyond that, such as a person’s own GP, local alcohol advisory
services, trade union representatives and accredited laboratories.

11
Examination technique
The following examination techniques are consistently identified as the main areas in need of
improvement for candidates:

Candidates misread/misinterpreted the question

Careful and thorough preparation for the examination is vital for candidates. Accredited course
providers should assist candidates in setting out and applying sound revision and examination practice
and preparation techniques to ensure that they are well prepared for the examination. This includes
ensuring that candidates carefully read the question to determine exactly what is being asked and
answer accordingly.

Examiners noted that there was evidence of candidates not understanding the question that was
asked and therefore providing an answer that was not relevant to the question.

The range of English language skills demonstrated in the examination by candidates varies
enormously. Examiners often find themselves faced with scripts where candidates do not appear to
have understood the question and struggle to write a coherent answer in English. Candidates for this
examination should satisfy the required IELTS Level 7 language requirements. Course providers are
reminded that it is incumbent on them to provide appropriate advice and guidance to candidates to
help ensure that they stand a reasonable chance of success in the study of the NEBOSH Diploma.

There were numerous examples of quite long, detailed answers that suggest practical experience but
do not focus on the question being asked. This may be a result of candidates either not reading the
question properly, or because of possible language issues where candidates do not understand what
the question is asking.

The examination is assessing candidates on their understanding if ‘managing’ health and safety and a
number of candidates did not seem to grasp this resulting in long, detailed answers on such issues as
‘what to look for in an audit’ rather than how to prepare for and manage an audit.

Examiners ask questions based on the syllabus. Points, no matter how valid, but unrelated to the
question being asked, will not attract any marks. Candidates should note that where there is
emphasis in a question (eg by the use of italics) it is to guide candidates towards a particular point.
Reading and re-reading the question encompasses taking due note of this emphasis.

Candidates’ handwriting was illegible

The examination situation is a stressful time for candidates and while the examination is not a test of
the English language or handwriting scripts must be legible for Examiners to mark them fairly. As the
examination progresses, candidates can become both mentally and physically tired. In an
increasingly electronic age, professional people do not have the same need to write text in longhand.
However, to pass this examination it is an essential and necessary part of the preparation to rehearse
writing questions in full and in the time allocated.

When practicing examination technique, candidates should hand-write their answers and get feedback
from their course providers on legibility (as well as how they performed).

Course providers need to identify those candidates whose handwriting is illegible and provide them
with appropriate advice. Examiners cannot award marks for answers that they are unable to read.

Candidates unnecessarily wrote the question down

There are 15 minutes to answer a 10-mark question in Section A and 30 minutes available to answer
a 20-mark question in Section B of the question paper. This time will be required for reading, re-
reading and understanding the question, developing an answer plan on the answer booklet and finally
committing the answer to the answer booklet. The efficient use of time is essential in order to answer
the 9 questions within the 3 hours available. The majority of Examiners reported that candidates felt it
necessary to write the question out in full, before providing the associated answer, and this limits the
time available. Course providers should remind candidates that it is not necessary to include a
question with their answer.

12
Good examination technique is followed where the candidate frames the answer in the context of the
question, rather than rewriting the whole of the question. As with the other examination technique
points above, good examination technique is developed through practice and good preparation.

Candidates repeated the same point but in different ways

In some cases candidates tended to make the same point more than once, eg training. Once a valid
point has been made and the mark awarded Examiners will not be able to award the mark again.
Unless otherwise stated, most questions require candidates to respond with a wide range of issues to
gain high marks. Consequently candidates should take care when using terms that contain numerous
points that should be made separately.

Accredited course providers should brief candidates on examination technique by way of

understanding what points are mark worthy in an answer and those that are not.

Candidates did not respond effectively to the command word

A key indicator in an examination question will be the command word, which is always given in bold
typeface. The command word will indicate the depth of answer that is expected by the candidate.

Generally, there has been an improvement in response to command words, but a number of
candidates continue to produce answers that are little more than a list even when the command word
requires a more detailed level of response, such as ‘outline’ or ‘explain’. This is specifically addressed
in the following section dealing with command words, most commonly failure to provide sufficient
content to constitute an ‘outline’ was noted. Failure to respond to the relevant command word in
context was also a frequent problem hence information inappropriate to the question was often given.

Course exercises should guide candidates to assessing the relevant points in any given scenario such
that they are able to apply the relevant syllabus elements within the command word remit.

Candidates provided rote-learned responses that did not fit the question

Examiners report a high incidence of candidates writing down answers they have memorised from
previous Examiners’ Reports. These answers often relate to a similar, but different question, to which
the memorised answer is not wholly applicable. For example, it may require a different aspect of the
topic or relate to a different scenario.

Candidates are expected to apply their knowledge and understanding to the actual question given, not
the question they think they see. This is why it is extremely important that candidates understand and
are able to apply their knowledge, and not just memorise. Course providers should help candidates
apply their knowledge to a range of different scenarios to aid understanding of the topic.

Candidates did not allocate enough time to the question

Some candidates were unable to give answers of sufficient depth to warrant good marks and
sometimes spent more time on questions carrying fewer marks than was warranted by the command
word.

Candidates need to take note of the fact that answers in Section A are worth 10 marks and those in
Section B are worth 20 marks. The Examiners’ expectation is that more detailed answers are required
in Section B. Some candidates spend a disproportionate amount of time in writing long answers to
Section A questions at the expense of time spent on the more in-depth answers demanded in Section
B. Proper preparation and ‘mock’ examinations can help to correct this.

Accredited course providers should ensure that candidates are given adequate opportunity to develop
examination skills to ensure that answers are provided to the depth and breadth required.

13
Structured Answers

It is important for candidates to structure their answers as this helps cover all the requirements of the
question without losing focus. It is good examination technique to look for the principles or the
concepts that underpin the topic and to use those as a basis for delivering a structured answer.

Candidates answered by posing a question

Candidates need to resist the temptation to present their answers as merely a series of questions.
‘Outline’ requires candidates ‘To indicate the principal features or different parts of’ and this is not
done through posing questions to the Examiners.

14
Command words

Please note that the examples used here are for the purpose of explanation only.

The following command words are listed in the order identified as being the most challenging for
candidates:

Outline

Outline: To indicate the principal features or different parts of.

Most candidates are familiar with the requirements of ‘outline’. However, a number of candidates
expect that by listing or giving bullet points that will be sufficient. At this level of qualification
candidates are expected to be able to construct sentences around their answers.

An ‘outline’ question requires candidates to give the main issue and then provide the key features in
the context of the question. Where a question that requires candidates to ‘outline the issues to be
addressed in the development of an audit system’ the response should provide adequate context to
the issues in order to gain the marks. An answer that merely includes issues such as ‘scope, training,
commitment, etc’ will not gain good marks since while the issues are relevant there is no context to the
issues in relation to the question asked.

Candidates should provide context to the point being made to demonstrate understanding of the
subject.

As required by a Diploma level qualification candidates should be able to demonstrate a detailed

understanding of the subject matter and therefore be able to summarise and contextualise technical
points in the field of health and safety. Those candidates who did provide good outlines to questions
demonstrated understanding of the topic without going into too much detail.

If asked to ‘outline the purpose of local exhaust ventilation’ in a given scenario, an answer such as
‘contaminant removal, exposure limits’ would be insufficient as this represents a listed answer.
However, removal of contaminant at source (as far as possible) and ensuring exposure limits are not
exceeded would higher gain marks.

If asked to ‘outline how health risks from exposure to lead should be managed…’ in a given scenario,
an answer such as medical tests, PPE, RPE would be insufficient as this represents a listed answer.
However, surveillance tests for lead in blood/urine, the use of PPE such as overalls, the use of RPE
such as respirator with appropriate particulate/fume filters would gain marks.

Explain

Explain: To provide an understanding. To make an idea or relationship clear.

Many candidates are still not properly prepared for this command word. A list of points (no matter how
relevant) will not satisfy Examiners when the command word is ‘explain’. So for example, where
candidates were asked to explain the circumstances where heat and smoke detectors would be
inappropriate, Examiners were looking for candidates to explain that heat detectors would be
inappropriate in environments where temperatures fluctuate suddenly during normal work activities.
Just saying ‘workshops’, for example, is not enough to provide an answer to an ‘explain’ question.

Commonly, candidates do not provide adequate detail in relation to this command word, eg ‘explain
limitations of relying on accident numbers only as a measure of health and safety performance’. An
appropriate response would provide the reader with reasons why relying solely on accident numbers
would not provide a comprehensive view of the organisational performance in health and safety, eg
accident numbers do not indicate incidence of ill-health and accident data may go up following
initiatives following underreporting, etc.

15
Candidates are generally unable to provide clear answers where this command word is used but that
may be due to lack of knowledge rather than not understanding what is required, since an explanation
requires the candidate to provide reasoning for their answer. For example, when a question specifies
‘explain’ the candidate is required to provide an understanding or make clear an idea or relationship.
For example ‘explain how malaria is transmitted to humans’. If a candidate responded with mosquito
bites humans this would be insufficient to merit full marks as this does not provide a deep enough
understanding or relationship from the specified command word or the context in which the question is
asked. However, a candidate would get full marks if they elaborated on this stating that the disease
originates with the plasmodium parasite that is then transmitted to humans via a bite from a feeding
female mosquito that carries it; the parasite then transferring to the human blood stream, travelling to
the liver.

Describe

‘Describe. To give a detailed written account of the distinctive features of a topic. The account should
be factual without any attempt to explain.’

Candidates are required to provide a word picture in response to this command word and therefore
the candidate needs to have a good understanding of the topic of the question in the examination in
order to gain good marks. Typically, a limited response to this command word will be an inadequate
amount of detail in the answer.

For example, when asked to describe the contents of a safety policy candidates should provide the
Examiner with relevant information about the contents of the policy, eg ‘the policy should contain
details of the organisational commitment to health and safety’. This would be supported with specific
targets and commitment resource to ensuring compliance as a minimum but developing the health
and wellbeing of the employees, etc’. An answer that goes no further than listing the topics of to be
covered in the policy would not attract good marks in the examination.

In the examination, lists and single word answers will rarely satisfy the requirement of the Examiners
in terms of answering the question at this level. It is noticeable that the well prepared candidate has
less trouble deciphering command words and tends to gain good marks whereas those candidates
who use single word answers will tend not to have the knowledge to write anything further in the
context that is required.

Give

Give: Only a short answer is required, not an explanation or a description.

‘Give’ is normally used in conjunction with a further requirement, such as ‘give the meaning of’ or ‘give
an example in EACH case’.

In some circumstances candidates may spend too much time giving unrequired detail in response to
this command word. It is often used in conjunction with the meaning of a phrase or statement and
candidates can overelaborate the required answer. Time management is important in the examination
and candidates should ensure that they respond with appropriate brevity where the command word
and available marks suggest that is all that is required.

When asked to ‘give the meaning of motivation’, it would appropriate to say that ‘motivation is the
driving force that leads an individual to behave in a certain way’. It would not be appropriate to
discuss in detail different motivational theories.

On the whole most candidates respond well to this command word, often by offering a definition.
There is evidence where candidates go into too much detail that left those candidates writing large
amounts of text for very few marks.

16
Identify

Identify: To give a reference to an item, which could be its name or title.

As with ‘give’ above it is not uncommon for candidates to overelaborate their answers in response to
this command word. It is adequate for a candidate to provide the key point to the Examiner without
further developing the point with supporting theory or examples unless they are specifically asked for.t

When providing a response to ‘identify’ the mental selection and naming of an answer that relates to
the question should be sufficient. In most cases, one or two words would be sufficient to be awarded
corresponding marks. Any further detail would not be required and impacts negatively on the time
limit for completing the examination. For example, if the question was ‘identify possible effects on the
body when someone is exposed to lead’ suitable responses would include developmental effects in
unborn babies, anaemia, nausea/vomiting in order to be awarded a mark.

For additional guidance, please see NEBOSH’s ‘Guidance on command words used in learning
outcomes and question papers’ document, which is available on our website:
www.nebosh.org.uk/students/default.asp?cref=1345&ct=2.

17
The National Examination
Board in Occupational
Safety and Health

Dominus Way
Meridian Business Park
Leicester LE19 1QW

telephone +44 (0)116 2634700

fax +44 (0)116 2824000
email [email protected]
www.nebosh.org.uk