SURIGAO EDUCATION CENTER

Km. 2, 8400 Surigao City, Philippines

College of Allied Medical Sciences

Bachelor of Science in Nursing
NUPC 19- Com App 1
Midterm Exam 1
Name: _______________________________ Date: ___________ Score: __________
I. Multiple Choice: Read carefully the statement. Write the letter of your best
answer. Below after the last number of your exam. Follow instructions
1. The least effective decision-making process used in critical thinking is:
a. Analyzing data c. formulating conclusions
b. Establishing assumptions d. synthesizing information
2. The term metacognition refers to the critical- thinking of:
a. Consultation c. self-reasoning
b. Data analysis d. validation
3. Morality is defined as:
a. Deontological theory c. moral-justification theory
b. Formalist theory d. utilitarian theory
4. Consider the ethical situation in which the nurse moves a confused, disruptive
patient to a private room at the end of the hall so that other patients can rst, even
though the confused patient becomes more agitated.
The nurse’s judgement is consistent with reasoning based on:
a. “consequentialism,” by which good consequences for the greatest number are
maximized.
b. “duty of obligation,” by which an action, regardless of its results, is justified if
the decision making was based on moral principles.
c. “prima facie” duty, by which an action is justified if it does not conflict with a
stronger duty.
d. The “categorical imperative,” by which the results of an action are deemed
less important than the means to the end.
5. A terminally ill patient asks the nurse whether she is dying. The nurse’s response
is influenced by the moral obligation to:
a. Communicate the patient’s wishes to the family
b. Consult with the physician
c. Provide correct information to the patient
d. Consider all of the above measures before disclosing specific information.
6. Health education is:
a. A primary nursing responsibility c. an independent nursing function
b. An essential component of nursing care d. consistent with all of the above
7. Nursing responsibilities associated with patient teaching include:
a. Determining individual needs for teaching c. presenting information at the
level of the learner
b. Motivating each person to learn d. all of the above
8. A nurse assesses that a patient is emotionally ready to learn when the patient:
a. Has accepted the therapeutic regiment c. recognizes the need to
learn
b. Is motivated d. demonstrates all of the above
9. Nursing actions that can be used to motivate a patient to learn include all of the
following except:
a. Feedback in the form constructive encouragement when a person has been
unsuccessful in the learning process.
b. Negative criticism when the patient is unsuccessful, so that inappropriate
behavior patterns will not be learned.
c. The creation of a positive atmosphere in which the patient is encouraged to
express anxiety.
d. The establishment of realistic learning goals based on individual needs.
10. Normal aging effects changes in cognition. Therefore, when teaching an elderly
patient how to administer insulin, the nurse should:
a. Repeat the information frequently for reinforcement.
b. Present all the information at one time so that the patient is not confused by
pieces of information.
c. speed up the demonstration because the patient will tire easily.
d. Do all of the above.
11. The nurse reviews a medication administration calendar with an elderly patient.
Being aware of sensory changes associated with aging, the nurse should:
a. Print directions in large, bold type, preferably using black ink.
b. Highlight or shade important dates and times with contrasting colors.
c. Use several different colors to emphasize special dates.
d. Do all of the above.
12. An inappropriate interviewer response to the patient statement, “I will not take
pain medication when I am in pain
a. ”Is there another way you have learned to lessen pain when you
experience it?
b. “Let a nurse know when you are in pain so you can be helped to
decrease stimuli that may exaggerate your pain experience.”
c. “Refusing medication can only hurt you by increasing your awareness
of the pain experience,”
d. “You have the right to make that decision. How can nurses help you
scope with your pain?”
13. All of the following are questions that will provide information about a person’s
lifestyle, except;
a. “Do you have food preferences?”
b. “have you always lived in this geographic are?”
c. “How many hours of sleep do dyou require each
day?”
d. “What type of exercise do you prefer?”
14. When obtaining a health history from an elderly patient, the nurse must
remember to:
a. Asks questions slowly, directly
and in a voice loud enough to
be heard by those who are
hearing-impaired.
b. Clarify the frequency,
severity, and history of signs
and symptoms of the present
illness.
c. Conduct the interview in a
calm, unrushed manner using
eye-to eye contact.
d. Do all of the above
15. On initial impression, the nurse assesses the patient’s posture, stature, and body
movement. This assessment is part of the physical examination process known
as:
a. Auscultation c. palpation
b. Inspection d. percussion
16. An examiner needs to determine the upper border of a patient’s liver. With the
patient in a recumbent position, the examiner would percuss for a :
a. Dull sound c. resonant sound
b. Flat sound d. tympanic
17. During a physical examination, the nurse noted hyperresonance over inflated
lung tissue in a patient emphysema. The process used for this assessment was:
a. Auscultation c. palpation
b. Inspection d. percussion
18. Choose a statement that indicates that a patient is knowledgeable about his or
her impending surgery. The patient:
a. Participates willingly in the preoperative preparation.
b. Discusses stress factors that are making him or her depressed.
c. Express concern about postoperative pain.
d. Verbalizes his or her fears to family.
19. Hidden fears may be indicated when a patient:
a. Avoids communication c. talks incessantly.
b. Repeatedly asks questions
that have previously been answered d. does all of the above
20. Choose the appropriate response to the statement “I’m so nervous about my
surgery”.
a. “relax. Your recovery period will be shorter if you’re less nervous.”
b. “stop worrying.it only makes you more nervous.”
c. “You needn’t worry. Your doctor has done this surgery many times before.”
d. “You seem nervous about your surgery.”
 21. The purpose of preoperative skin preparation is to:
a. Reduce the number of microorganisms.
b. Remove all resident bacteria.
c. Render the skin sterile.
d. Accomplish all of the above.
22. The least desirable method of hair removal is use of;
a. Electric clippers c. a razor with an extruded blade.
b. A depilatory cream in non-sensitive patients d. scissors for long hair (more
than 3 mm)
23. Purposes of preanesthetic medication include all of the following except:
a. Facilitation of anesthesia induction c. potentiation of effects of anesthesia
b. Lowering of the dose of the anesthetic agent used d. reduction of
preoperative pain.
Situation: Anne age 34, is in excellent health and is scheduled for open reduction of a
fractured femur. The general anesthetic drugs to be used include enflurane and nitrous
oxide.
24. The nurse knows that the advantages of enflurane (Ethrane) include all of the
following except:
a. Fast recovery. C. potent analgesia.
b. Low incident of respiratory depression. D. rapid induction.
25. The major disadvantage of nitrous oxide is its ability to cause:
a. Hypertension c. liver damage.
b. Hypoxia. D. nausea and vomiting.
26. The major postoperative nursing assessment after administration of Ethrane is
observation for:
a. Anuria. c. respiratory depression.
b. Laryngospasm. d. tachycardia.
Situation: Brian is scheduled to have a wisdom tooth extracted. The anesthetic agent of
choice is thiopental sodium (Pentothal).
27. The nurse anticipates that the route of administration will be:
a. By inhalation c. intramuscular
b. By mask. d. intravenous
28. The nurse is aware that after anesthetic administration, Brian will be unconscious
in:
a. 30 seconds c. 2 minutes.
b. 60 seconds. d. 3 minutes.
29. The chief danger with thiopental sodium is it:
a. B-adrenergic blocking action c. nephrotoxicity.
b. Depressant action on the respiratory system. d. rapid onset and
prolonged duration.
30. An example of a surgical procedure classified as urgent is:
a. An appendectomy c. a repair of multiple stab
wounds.
b. An exploratory lap. d. a face lift.
31. A mammoplasty would be classified as surgery that is:
a. Elective c. required
b. Optional d. reconstructive
32. An informed consent is required for:
a. Closed reduction of a fracture c. irrigation of external ear canal
b. Insertion of an intravenous catheter d. urethral catheterization
33. Protein replacement for nutritional balance can be accomplished with a diet that:
a. Is high in carbohydrates c. is low in fats.
b. Is high in protein d. includes all of the above.
34. A significant mortality rate exists for those alcoholics who experience
“delirium tremens” postoperatively. When caring for the alcoholics, the nurse
assesses for symptoms of alcoholic withdrawal:
a. Within the first 12 hours c. on the second or third day
b. About 24 hours postoperatively d. 4 days after surgery
35. It is recommended that those who smoke cigarettes should stop smoking at least
_____before surgery.
a. 2 months c. 2 weeks
b. 3 months d. 3 weeks
36. Because liver disease is associated with a high surgical mortality rate, the nurse
knows to alert the physician for:
a. A blood ammonia concentration of 180 mg/dL.
b. A lactate dehydrogenase concentration of 300 units
 c. A serum albumin concentration of 5.0g/dL.
d. A serum globulin concentration of 2.8 g/dL.
37. Obesity is positively corelated with surgical complications of:
a. The cardiovascular system c. the pulmonary system
b. The gastrointestinal system d. all of the systems listed
38. The nursing goal of encouraging postoperative body movements is to:
a. A contribute to optimal respiratory function
b. Improve circulation
c. Prevent venous stasis
d. Promote all of the above activities
39. Food and water are usually withheld beginning at midnight of the surgical day.
However, if necessary, water may be given to:
a. 8 hours before surgery c. 4 hours before surgery
b. 6 hours before surgery d. 2 hours before surgery
40. The primary goal in withholding food before surgery is to prevent:
a. Aspiration c. infection
b. Distention d. obstruction
41. Expected patient outcomes for relief of anxiety related to a surgical procedure
include all of the following except:
a. Understands the nature of surgery and voluntarily signs an informed consent.
b. Verbalizes an understanding of the preanesthetic medication.
c. Requests a visit with a member of a clergy. The patient:
d. Questions the anesthesiologist about anesthesia-related concerns.
Community Health Nursing
42. Choose an alternative health care delivery system that has dramatically reduced
patient- care days in acute care settings.
a. Health Maintenance Organizations c. Preferred Provider Organizations
b. Managed Health Care Systems d. each of the three is equally significant
43. The most frequent users of home health services are:
a. Children with chronic, debilitating disorders.
b. Newborns who are sent home with apnea monitors.
c. The frail and elderly who need a skilled care.
d. Young adults on prolonged intravenous therapy.
44. Discharge planning from the hospital to home care begins when the:
a. Discharge order is written c. physician notifies the insurance
Company
b. Nurse receives the physician’s order for discharge d. patient is admitted to
Hospital
45. Nurses working in the elementary schools are trained to deal with the leading
health problem of:
a. Dental disease c. infections
b. Emotional problems d. sports injuries
46. Nurses working in high schools expect to deal with the common health care
problem of:
a. Anorexia c. drug abuse
b. Cancer d. malnutrition
47. An example of a surgical procedure classified as urgent is:
a.An appendectomy c. a repair of multiple stab
wounds.
b.An exploratory lap. d. a face lift.
48. A mammoplasty would be classified as surgery that is:
a.Elective c. required
b.Optional d. reconstructive
49. An informed consent is required for:
a.Closed reduction of a fracture c. irrigation of external ear
canal
b.Insertion of an intravenous catheter d. urethral catheterization
50. Protein replacement for nutritional balance can be accomplished with a diet that:
a.Is high in carbohydrates c. is low in fats.
b.Is high in protein d. includes all of the above

Answers:
1. B
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. D
7. D
8. D
9. B
10. A
11. A
12. D
13. B
14. A
15. B
16. A
17. A
18. A
19. D
20. D
21. A
22. C
23. C
24. B
25. B
26. B
27. D
28. A
29. B
30. A
31. B
32. A
33. D
34. C
35. A
36. A
37. D
38. D
39. C
40. A
41. A
42. B
43. C
44. B
45. D
46. C
47. A
48. B
49. A
50. D
II. Fill in the blanks: write your answers below.
1. A type of solution which contains higher concentration of solute and makes
the body cell shrink.
2. is the movement of a solvent across a semipermeable membrane toward a
higher concentration of solute (lower concentration of solvent).
3. A type of solution which has the same component of our body fluids.
4. A solution that contains low concentration of solute and makes the body cell
swell.
5. is the delivery of liquid medicine or treatment through a vein which slower
depending on the gravity though with the controlled flow rate.
6. It is a treatment that delivers oxygen gas to an individual in order to breath.
7. An O2 treatment that delivers oxygen up to 60%.
8. Refers to the bluish discoloration of the skin due to lack of oxygen.
9.  Is a condition in which the body or a region of the body is deprived of
adequate oxygen supply at the tissue level.
10. What is the unit of oxygen via nasal cannula.

Answers:

1. Hypertonic
2. Osmosis
3. Plasma
4. Hypotonic
5. Intravenous fluid
6. Oxygen Therapy
7. Facemask
8. Cyanotic
9. Hypoxia
10. 4-5 liters