EE320A Solutions For Tutorial 2
EE320A Solutions For Tutorial 2
in) 1
EE320A
Solutions for Tutorial 2
Date: 18th Sept. 2020
Substituting for g1 (t) and G1 (f ) in the above equation we get the required
result.
3. Solution: Since gp (t) is periodic with a period T0 , the autocorrelation of
gp (t) is also periodic with period T0 . We also have
n m
T0 = =
f1 f2
n−m m+n 2n 2m
⇒ T0 = = = = (9)
f1 − f2 f1 + f2 2f1 2f2
where m and n are integers. Thus, frequencies f1 − f2 , f1 + f2 , 2f1 and
2f2 are also periodic with period T0 . Now, the autocorrelation of gp (t) is
equal to (note that gp (t) is real-valued):
T0
1
Z
∆
Rgp (τ ) = gp (t)gp (t − τ ) dt
T0 t=0
A21 A22
= A20 + cos(2πf1 τ ) + cos(2πf2 τ ) (10)
2 2
where we have made use of the fact that sinusoids integrated over one
period is equal to zero. In computing the autocorrelation, we have lost
the phase information.
4. Solution: We know that
2 2
e−πt ⇀
↽ e−πf
1 −πt2 1 −πf 2
⇒ e ⇀
↽ e . (11)
t0 t0
Using time scaling with a = 1/t0 we get
1 −πt2 /t20 2 2
g(t) = e ↽ e−πf t0 = G(f ).
⇀ (12)
t0
Since G(f ) is real-valued, the Fourier transform of the autocorrelation of
g(t) is simply G2 (f ). Thus
2 2
G2 (f ) = e−2πf t0
= G1 (f ) (say). (13)
Once again we use the time scaling property of the Fourier transform
namely
|a|g(at) ⇀
↽ G(f /a) (14)
K Vasudevan Faculty of EE IIT Kanpur ([email protected]) 3
√
with 1/a = 2 in (12) to get
1 2 2
g1 (t) = √ e−πt /(2t0 ) (15)
t0 2
which is the required autocorrelation of the Gaussian pulse.
5. Solution: We know that
x̂(t) ⇀
↽ −j sgn (f )X(f ). (16)
Therefore
X1 (f )
A
3A/4
A/2
−W 0 W
Figure 1: X1 (f ).
Then
X2 (f )
3A/2
3A/4
f0 f0 + W
Figure 2: X2 (f ).
Then
X3 (f )
A
3A/4
A/2
0 W 2W
Figure 3: X3 (f ).
X(f − W ) for f > W
X3 (f ) = (3/4)A for f = W (23)
(1/2)X(f − W ) for f < W
However,
dv2 (t)
i(t) = C . (25)
dt
K Vasudevan Faculty of EE IIT Kanpur ([email protected]) 5
dv2 (t)
v1 (t) = RC + v2 (t). (26)
dt
Taking the Fourier transform of both sides we get:
V1 (f ) = (j 2πf RC + 1)V2 (f )
V2 (f ) 1
⇒ = . (27)
V1 (f ) 1 + j 2πf RC
with x = f 2 . We have
f (0) = 1
4π 2 τ02
−N
f (1) (0) =
2 2
2 (1 + 4π τ0 x) N/2+1
x=0
K Vasudevan Faculty of EE IIT Kanpur ([email protected]) 6
−N
= (4π 2 τ02 )
2
2
4π 2 τ02
N N
f (2) (0) = +1
2 2 (1 + 4π 2 τ02 x)N/2+2
x=0
2
N 2 2
≈ 4π τ0 (34)
2
where we have assumed that for large N
N N
+1≈ . (35)
2 2
Generalizing (34), we can obtain the nth derivative of the MacLaurin series
as:
(n) nN N N
f (0) = (−1) + 1 ... +n−1
2 2 2
n
4π 2 τ02
×
2
(1 + 4π 2 τ0 x)N/2+n
x=0
n
n N 2 2
≈ (−1) 4π τ0 (36)
2
where we have used the fact that for any finite n ≪ N
N N
+n−1≈ . (37)
2 2
Thus f (x) in (33) can be written as:
y y2
f (x) = 1− x + x2 − . . .
1! 2!
= exp (−xy) . (38)
where
xy < 1
2 2 2 2
⇒ (N/2)4π R C f < 1
1
⇒ |f | < √ (40)
πRC 2N
which is in the vicinity of f = 0 for large N .
K Vasudevan Faculty of EE IIT Kanpur ([email protected]) 7
EE320A
Solutions for Tutorial 3
Date: 18th Sept. 2020
g1 (t) g2 (t)
2
2
t t
−3 0 3
−2
−3 −1 0 1 3
g2 (t)
2
t
0
−2
(1)
R12 (τ )
4
τ
−4
R12 (τ )
−8
−6 −4 −2 0 2 4 6
−3 −1 1 3
Here
⇀ 2
Rg (τ ) ↽ |G(f )|
⇀ 2
⇒ R̂g (τ ) ↽ −j sgn (f ) |G(f )| . (50)
and
∞ ∞
1
Z Z
2 2
g (t) dt = |g̃(t)| dt. (53)
t=−∞ 2 t=−∞
where g1 (t) and g2 (t) are real-valued signals. Hence ĝ1 (t) and ĝ2 (t) are
also real-valued. Next, we note that the real-part of the integral is equal
to the integral of the real-part. Hence the right-hand-side of (52) becomes:
1 ∞
Z
(g1 (t)g2 (t) + ĝ1 (t)ĝ2 (t)) dt. (55)
2 t=−∞
Next, we note that
Z ∞ Z ∞
g1 (t)g2 (t) dt = g1 (t) ⋆ g2 (−t)|t=0 = G1 (f )G∗2 (f ) df. (56)
t=−∞ f =−∞
Thus (52) is proved. Now, let us see what happens when g2 (t) is replaced
by g2 (−t). Let
g3 (t) = g2 (−t)
⇒ g3+ (t) = g3 (t) + j ĝ3 (t)
= g2 (−t) + j ĝ2 (−t)
∗
⇒ g3+ (t) = g3 (t) − j ĝ3 (t)
= g2 (−t) − j ĝ2 (−t). (60)
Clearly (52) is still valid with g2+ (t) replaced by g3+ (t) as given in (60),
that is
Z ∞ Z ∞
1 ∗
ℜ {g1+ (t)} ℜ {g3+ (t)} dt = ℜ g1+ (t)g3+ (t) dt . (61)
t=−∞ 2 t=−∞
where g̃(t) is the complex envelope of g(t). Thus (53) follows immediately.
4. Solution: Let H(f ) denote the Fourier transform of h(t). We have
Z ∞
H(f ) = h(t)e−j 2πf t dt
t=−∞
Z ∞
−j 2πf t
⇒ |H(f )| = h(t)e dt
t=−∞
Z ∞
h(t)e−j 2πf t dt
≤
t=−∞
Z ∞
⇒ |H(f )| ≤ |h(t)| dt (64)
t=−∞
Let
where we have used the Rayleigh’s energy theorem. Using the fact that
Since the input signal has finite energy, so does the output signal.
K Vasudevan Faculty of EE IIT Kanpur ([email protected]) 12
5. Solution: To prove
Trms Wrms ≥ 1/(4π) (70)
we need to use the Schwarz’s inequality which states that:
Z ∞ 2 Z ∞
∗ ∗
(g1 (t)g2 (t) + g1 (t)g2 (t)) dt ≤ 4 |g1 (t)|2 dt
t=−∞ t=−∞
Z ∞
× |g2 (t)|2 dt.
t=−∞
(71)
For the given problem we substitute
g1 (t) =
tg(t)
dg(t)
g2 (t) = . (72)
dt
Thus, the right-hand-side of the Schwarz’s inequality in (71) becomes
dg(t) 2
Z ∞ Z ∞
2 2
4 t |g(t)| dt dt dt.
(73)
t=−∞ t=−∞
Let
dg(t)
g3 (t) = ⇀
↽ j 2πf G(f ) = G3 (f ). (74)
dt
Then, by Rayleigh’s energy theorem
Z ∞ Z ∞
|g3 (t)|2 dt = |G3 (f )|2 df
t=−∞ f =−∞
dg(t) 2
Z ∞ Z ∞
2 2
⇒ dt dt
= 4π f 2 |G(f )| df. (75)
t=−∞ f =−∞
In the above equation we have used the fact (this can also be proved using
Fourier transforms) that:
∗
dg(t) dg ∗ (t)
= . (78)
dt dt
Let
2
|g(t)| ⇀
g4 (t) =
↽ G4 (f )
dg4 (t)
⇒ g5 (t) = ⇀
↽ j 2πf G4 (f ) = G5 (f )
dt
j dG5 (f )
⇒ tg5 (t) ↽ ⇀
2π df
Z ∞
j dG5 (f )
⇒ tg5 (t) dt =
t=−∞ 2π df f =0
Z ∞
j d
⇒ tg5 (t) dt = (j 2πf G4 (f ))
t=−∞ 2π df f =0
∞
d
Z
2
⇒ t
|g(t)| dt = −G4 (0)
t=−∞ dt
Z ∞ Z ∞
d 2 2
⇒ t |g(t)| dt = − |g(t)| dt (79)
t=−∞ dt t=−∞
Taking the square-root of (76) and (80) we get the desired result in (70).
To prove
Using the above inequality and the Rayleigh’s energy theorem which states
that
Z ∞ Z ∞
|g(t)|2 dt = |G(f )|2 df (84)
t=−∞ f =−∞