ATOMIC STRUCTURE FINAL LAP - 2019

ATOMIC STRUCTURE
Single correct :
Q.1 The MRI (magentic resonance imaging) body scanners used in hospitals operate with 400 MHz radio
frequency energy. The wavelength corresponding to this radio frequency is
(A) 0.75 m (B) 0.75 cm (C) 1.5 m (D) 2 cm

Q.2 Which is the correct relationship :

(A) E1 of H = 1/2 E2 of He = 1/3 E3 of Li2+ = 1/4 E4 of Be3+
+

(B) E1(H) = E2(He+) = E3 (Li2+) = E4(Be3+)

(C) E1(H) = 2E2(He+) = 3E3 (Li2+) = 4E4(Be3+)
(D) No relation

Q.3 The shortest wavelength of He atom in Balmer series is x, then longest wavelength in the Paschen series
of Li+2 is
36 x 16 x 9x 5x
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 7 5 9

Q.4 An electron in a hydrogen atom in its ground state absorbs energy equal to the ionisation energy of Li+2.
The wavelength of the emitted electron is:
(A) 3.32 ×10–10 m (B) 1.17 Å (C) 2.32 × 10–9 nm (D) 3.33 pm

Q.5 An electron, a proton and an alpha particle have kinetic energies of 16E, 4E and E respectively. What is
the qualitative order of their de Broglie wavelengths?
(A) e > p =  (B) p =  > e (C) p > e >  (D)  < e » p

Q.6 Given H for the process Li(g)  Li+3(g) + 3e– is 19800 kJ/mole & IE1 for Li is 520 then IE2 & IE3
of Li+ are respectively (approx, value)
(A) 7505, 11775 (B) 520, 19280 (C) 11775, 19280 (D) Data insufficient

Q.7 In a certain electronic transition in the hydrogen atoms from an initial state (1) to a final state (2), the
difference in the orbital radius (r1 – r2) is 24 times the first Bohr radius. Identify the transition.
(A) 5  1 (B) 25  1 (C) 8  3 (D) 6  5

Q.8  
The value of (n2 + n1) and n 22  n12 for He+ ion in atomic spectrum are 4 and 8 respectively. The
wavelength of emitted photon when electron jump from n2 to n1 is
32 9 9 32
(A) R (B) R (C) 32 R (D) 9 R
9 H 32 H H H

Q.9 The wavelength associated with a golf ball weighing 200g and moving at a speed of 5m/h is of the order
(A) 10–10m (B) 10–20m (C) 10–30m (D) 10–40m

Q.10 What is uncertainity in location of a photon of wavelength 5000Å if wavelength is known to an accuracy
of 1 pm?
(A) 7.96 × 10–14 m (B) 0.02 m (C) 3.9 ×10–8 m (D) none

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Q.11 Consider the following nuclear reactions involving X & Y.
X  Y + 42 He
Y  8O18 + 1H1
If both neutrons as well as protons in both the sides are conserved in nuclear reaction then moles
of neutrons in 4.6 gm of X
(A) 2.4 NA (B) 2.4 (C) 4.6 (D) 0.2 NA

Q.12 Assuming Heisenberg Uncertainity Principle to be true what could be the minimum uncertainty in de-broglie
wavelength of a moving electron accelerated by Potential Difference of 6 V whose uncertainty in position
7
is nm.
22
(A) 6.25 Å (B) 6 Å (C) 0.625 Å (D) 0.3125 Å

Q.13 Total no. of lines in Lyman series of H spectrum will be

(A) n (B) n – 1 (C) n – 2 (D) n (n + 1)
(where n = no. of orbits)

Q.14 In a sample of H-atom electrons make transition from 5th excited state to ground state, producing all
possible types of photons, then number of lines in infrared region are
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 3

Q.15 Suppose that a hypothetical atom gives a red, green, blue and violet line spectrum . Which jump according
to figure would give off the red spectral line.

(A) 3 
1 (B) 2 
1 (C) 4 
1 (D) 3 
2

Q.16 In which transition minimum energy is emitted -

(A)   1 (B) 2  1 (C) 3 
2 (D) n 
 (n – 1) (n  4)

Q.17 What possibly can the ratio be of the de Broglie wavelengths for two electrons having the same initial
energy and accelerated through 50 volts and 200 volts?
(A) 3 : 10 (B) 10 : 3 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 : 1

More than one may be correct :

Q.18 Choose the correct statement among the following
(A) Radial distribution function (  2 ·4r 2dr ) give probability at a particular distance along
one chosen direction
(B)  2 ( r ) give probability density at a particular distance over a spherical surface
(C) For 's' orbitals  ( r )  ()  ()   ( x , y, z ) is independent of  and 
(D) '2p' orbital with quantum numbers. n = 2,  = 1, m = 0, also shows angular dependence
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Q.19 Correct statement(s) regarding 3Py orbital is/are
(A) Angular part of wave function is independent of angles ( and )
(B) No. of maxima when a curve is plotted between 4r2R2(r) vs r are '2'
(C) 'xz' plane acts as nodal plane
(D) Magnetic quantum number must be '–1'

Q.20 Choose the incorrect statement(s):

(A) Increasing order of wavelength is
Micro waves > Radio waves > IR waves > visible waves > UV waves
(B) The order of Bohr radius is (rn : where n is orbit number for a given atom)
r 1 < r2 < r3 < r4
(C) The order of total energy is (En : where n is orbit number for a given atom)
E 1 > E2 > E3 > E4
(D) The order of velocity of electron in H, He+, Li+, Be3+ species in second Bohr orbit is
Be3+ > Li+2 > He+ > H

Q.21 Select the correct curve(s):

If v = velocity of electron in Bohr's orbit
r = Radius of electron in Bohr's orbit
P.E. = Potential energy of electron in Bohr's orbit
K.E. = Kinetic energy of electron in Bohr's orbit.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.22 If element 25X+Y has spin magnetic moment 1.732 B.M then
(A) number of unpaired electron = 1 (B) number of unpaired electron = 2
(C) Y = 4 (D) Y = 6

Q.23 Which of the following statement (s) are wrong.

(A) Photons having energy 400 kJ/mole can break 4 mole bonds of a molecule A2 where A – A
bond dissociation energy is 100kJ/mol.
(B) Two bulbs are emitting light having wavelength 2000Å & 3000Å respectively if the bulbs
A & B are 40watt and 30watt respectively then the ratio of no. of photons emitted by
A & B per day is 1/2.
(C) When an electron make transition from lower to higher orbit photon is emitted.
(D) None of the above

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Match the column :
Q.24 Column I & column II contain data on Schrondinger Wave–Mechanical model, where symbols have
their usual [Link] the columns.
Column I Column II (Type of orbital)

(A) (P) 4s

(B) (Q) 5px

(C) (,) = K (independent of &) (R) 3s

(D) atleast one angular node is present (S) 6dxy

Q.25 Column-I Column-I

(A) Electron moving in 2nd orbit in He+ ion (P) Radius of orbit in which
electron is moving is 0.529 Å

(B) Electron moving in 3rd orbit in H-atom (Q) Total energy of electron is
(–)13.6 × 9eV

(C) Electron moving in 1st orbit in Li+2 ion (R) Velocity of electron is
2.188  106
m/sec
3
(D) Electron moving in 2nd orbit is Be+3 ion (S) De-broglie wavelength of
150
electron is Å
13.6

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Subjective:
ke 2
Q.1 Suppose the potential energy between electron and proton at a distance r is given by  . Use
3r 3
Bohr’s theory to obtain energy of such a hypothetical atom.

Q.2 Mr. James Bond has to decode a number "ABCDEF" where each alphabet is represented by a single
digit. Suppose an orbital whose radial wave function is represented as
(r) = k1 · e  r / k 2 (r2 – 5k3r + 6k 32 )
From the following information given about each alphabet then write down the answers in the form of
"ABCDEF", for above orbital.
Info A = Value of n where "n" is principal quantum number
Info B = No. of angular nodes
Info C = Azimuthal quantum number of subshell to orbital belongs
Info D = No. of subshells having energy between (n + 5)s to (n + 5)p where n is principal quantum
number
Info E = Orbital angular momentum of given orbital.
Info F = Radial distance of the spherical node which is farthest from the nucleus
(Assuming k3= 1)

Q.3 In the Bohr's model, for unielectronic species following symbols are used
rn,z  Radius of nth orbit with atomic number "z"
Un,z  Potential energy of electron in nth orbit with atomic number "z"
Kn,z  Kinetic energy of electron in nth orbit with atomic number "z"
vn,z  Velocity of electron in nth orbit with atomic number "z"
Tn,z  Time period of revolution of electron in nth orbit with atomic number "z"
Calculate z in all in cases.
(i) U1, 2 : K1,z = – 8 : 1 (ii) r1,z : r2, 1 = 1 : 8
(iii) v1, z : v3, 1 = 9 : 1 (iv) T1, 2 : T2, z = 9 : 32

Q.4 Calculate the distance of spherical nodes for '3s' orbital from nucleus?
1  2r

2
R3s = 9 3a 3 / 2 (6 – 6  +  ) e 2 where  = na
0 0

Q.5 An atomic orbital has radial wave function represented as

(r )  ke r / k ' r 2 [(r 2  5.5a 0 r  7a 02 )(r 2  8.5a 0 r  18a 02 )]
where k, k' & a0 are constants.
(a) How many radial nodes are present at what distance from the nucleus? (answer in terms of a0)
(b) Draw a radial probability distribution curve for the above orbital clearly highlighting the parameters
which are being plotted & nodes & antinodes.
(c) In which period of periodic table does the first element with last electron in this orbital is expected to
go. What will be the total number of elements which can be present in that period?

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Q.1 A Q.2 B Q.3 B Q.4 B Q.5 A Q.6 A Q.7 A

Q.8 C Q.9 C Q.10 B Q.11 B Q.12 C Q.13 B Q.14 C
Q.15 D Q.16 D Q.17 D Q.18 C,D Q.19 B,C Q.20 A,C
Q.21 B,C,D Q.22 A, D Q.23 A, B, C
Q.24 (A) P, (B) P,Q,S, (C) P, R (D) Q, S
Q.25 (A) S, (B) R, (C) Q, (D) P

Subjective:
n6 h 6
Q.1 E=
384 m 3 K 2 e 4 6
93 3 93 3
Q.2 300303 Q.3 1, 2, 3, 3 Q.4 a0, a0
2 2
Q.5 5s orbital

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GASEOUS STATE
Single correct

Q.1 A manometer attached to a flask contains NH3 gas have no difference in mercury level initially as shown
in diagram. After the sparking into the flask, it have difference of 19 cm in mercury level in two columns.
Calculate % dissociation of ammonia.

(A) 10 % (B) 25 % (C) 50 % (D) 75 %

Q.2 Two gases NO and O2 were introduced at the two ends of a one metre long tube simultaneously
(tube of uniform cross- section). At what distance from NO gas end , Brown fumes will be seen.
(A) 22.3 cm (B) 44.8 cm (C) 50.8 cm (D) 74 cm

Q.3 Determine final pressure after the valve is left opened for a long time in the apparatus represented in
figure. Assume that the temperature is fixed at 300 K. Under the given conditions assume no reaction of
CO & O2.

(A) 3.28 atm (B) 5.34 atm (C) 8.23 atm (D) 10.4 atm

Q.4 The r. m. s. velocity of hydrogen is 7 times the r.. m. s. velocity of nitrogen. If T is the temperature of
the gas :
(A) T(H2) = T(N2) (B) T(H2) > T(N2) (C) T(H2) < T(N2) (D) T(H2) = 7 T(N2)

Q.5 The root mean square velocity of an ideal gas at constant pressure varies with density as
(A) d2 (B) d (C) d1/2 (D) 1/d1/2

Q.6 If the pressure of a gas contained in a closed vessel is increased by 0.4 % when heated by 1 ºC its initial
temperature must be :
(A) 250 K (B) 250 ºC (C) 25 ºC (D) 25 K
Q.7 The ratio of the rate of diffusion of helium and methane under identical condition of pressure and
temperature will be
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0.5

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Q.8 Gas A (1 mol) dissociates in a closed rigid container of volume 0.16 lit. as per following reaction.
2A (g)  3B (g) + 2C (g)
If degree of dissociation of A is 0.4 and remains constant in entire range of temperature, then the correct
P vs T graph is [Given R = 0.08 lit-atm/mol/K]

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.9 Calculate the ratio of rate of effusion of O2 and H2 from a container containing 16gm O2 and 2gm H2 :
(A) 1 : 8 (B) 8 : 1 (C) 1 : 4 (D) 4 : 1

Q.10 The number of effusion steps required to convert a mixture of H2 and O2 from 240 : 1600 (by mass) to
3072 : 20 (by mass) is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

Q.11 Three footballs are respectively filled with nitrogen , hydrogen and helium. If the leaking of the gas occurs

with time from the filling hole, then the ratio of the rate of leaking of gases  rN2 : rH2 : rHe  from three
footballs (in equal time interval) is

(A) 1 : 14 : 7  (B)  14 : 7 :1  (C)  7 : 1 : 14  
(D) 1 : 7 : 14 
Q.12 A rigid container containing 10 gm gas at some pressure and temperature. The gas has been allowed to
escape (do not consider any effusion or diffusion) from the container due to which pressure of the gas
becomes half of its initial pressure and temperature become 2 3rd of its initial. The mass of gas escaped
(A) 7.5 g (B) 1.5 g (C) 2.5 g (D) 3.5 g

Q.13 Consider the following pairs of gases A and B.

A B
(a ) CO N2
( b) O2 O3
235 238
(c ) UF6 UF6

Relative rates of effusion of gases A to B under similar condition is in the order:

(A) a < b < c (B) a < c < b (C) a > b > c (D) a > c > b
Q.14 The pressure of mixture of equal weights of two gases of molecular weight 4 and 40 is 1.1 atm. The
partial pressure of the lighter gas in the gas mixture is
(A) 0.55 atm (B) 0.11 atm (C) 1 atm (D) 0.1 atm
Q.15 The density of gas A is twice that of B at the same temperature the molecular weight of gas B is thrice that
of A. The ratio of pressure of gas A and gas B will be
(A) 1 : 6 (B) 7 : 8 (C) 6 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
Q.16 For the reaction
2NH3(g)  N2(g) + 3H2(g),
what is the % of NH3 converted if the mixture diffuses twice as fast as that of SO2 under similar conditions.
(A) 3.125 % (B) 31.25 % (C) 6.25 % (D) 62.5 %

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Q.17 A gaseous reaction,
3A  2B
is carried out in a 0.0821 litre closed container initially containing 1 mole of gas A. After sufficient time
a curve of P (atm) vs T (K) is plotted and the angle with x-axis was found to be 42.95°. The degree
of association of gas A is [Given : tan 42.95 = 0.8]
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.8

Q.18 For a real gas the P-V curve was experimentally plotted, and it had the following appearance. With
respect to liquefaction. Choose the correct statement.

(A) at T = 500 K, P = 40 atm, the state will be liquid.

(B) at T = 300 K, P = 50 atm, the state will be gas
(C) at T < 300 K, P > 20 atm, the state will be gas
(D) at 300 K < T < 500 K, P > 50 atm, the state will be liquid.

Q.19 Consider the following statements: If the van der Waal’s parameters of two gases are given as a
(atm lit2 mol–2) b (lit mol–1)
Gas X: 6.5 0.056
Gas Y: 8.0 0.011
then a : VC (X) < VC (Y) b : PC (X) < PC (Y) c : TC (X) < TC(Y)
Select correct alternate:
(A) a alone (B) a and b (C) a, b and c (D) b and c

Q.20 The critical density of the gas CO2 is 0.44 g cm–3 at a certain temperature. If r is the radius of the
molecule, r3 in cm3 is approximately. (N is Avogadro number)
25 100 6.25 25
(A)  N (B)  N (C)  N (D) 

Q.21 The curve of pressure volume (PV) against pressure (P) of the gas at a particular temperature is as
shown, according to the graph which of the following is incorrect (in the low pressure region):

(A) H2 and He show +ve deviation from ideal gas equation.

(B) CO, CH4 and O2 show negative deviation from ideal gas equation.
(C) H2 and He show negative deviation while CO2, CH4 and O2 show positive deviation.
(D) H2 and He are less compressible than that of an ideal gas while CO2, CH4 and O2 more compressible
than that of ideal gas.

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More than one correct:
Q.22 Select the correct observation for a 8.21 lit container, filled with 2 moles of He at 300 K.,
(A) It has pressure 6 atm
(B) If it is an open rigid container, its pressure increases to 8 atm on heating to 400 K.
(C) If it is closed non-rigid (like thin skin balloon), its volume increases to 16.42 lit. on heating to 600 K
(D) When connected with another similar empty container maintained at 150 K while maintaining original
2
container at 300 K, pressure reduces to atm.
3
Q.23 Select the correct option for an ideal gas undergoing a process as shown
in diagram.
(A) If 'n' is changing , 'V' must also be changing.
(B) If 'n' is constant , 'V' must be constant.
(C) If 'n' is constant , 'V' must be changing.
(D) If 'n' is changing , 'V' must be constant.

Q.24 Select the correct option(s) for an ideal gas

(A) Most probable speed increases with increase in temperature
(B) Fraction of particles moving with most probable speed increases with increase in temperature
(C) Fraction of particles moving with most probable speed are more for Cl2 than H2 under
similar condition of T, P & V.
(D) Most probable speed is more for Cl2 than H2 at same temperature
Q.25 Select the correct option(s):

(A) Pressure in container-I is 3 atm before opening the valve.

(B) Pressure after opening the valve is 3.57 atm.
(C) Moles in each compartment are same after opening the valve.
(D) Pressure in each compartment are same after opening the valve.
Q.26 Select the correct option(s).
(A) Fraction of molecule in the range Uavg ± f Uavg is same for SO2 and O2 at same Temperature
(0 < f < 1).
(B) Fraction of molecule in the range Umps ± 100 (m/sec) is same for SO2 and O2 at same Temperature.
(C) Fraction of molecule in the range Uavg ± f Uavg is same for O2 at 300 K and at 200 K (0 < f < 1).
(D) None of these

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Q.27 A container fitted with frictionless massless piston consist of five valves–I, II, III, IV and V. These
valves open automatically if pressure exceed over 1.5, 2.2, 2.5, 4.4 and 4.8 atm respectively. Under the
given initial conditions (mentioned in given diagram) system is in state of equilibrium. Piston is now
pressed in downward direction very slowly.
[Note: Consider the diameter of valve tube negligible and temperature remain constant.]

Select the correct option(s):

(A) Valve –II will be opened first
(B) As the piston crosses the valve which will be opened first, the remaining number of moles in container
5
are .
3
(C) Valve–V will be the second valve which open
(D) Number of moles will zero as piston crosses Valve–V

Q.28 An open ended mercury manometer is used to measure the pressure exerted by a trapped gas as shown
in the figure. Initially manometer shows no difference in mercury level in both columns as shown in
diagram.

After sparking 'A' dissociates according to following reaction

2A(g)  3B(g) + 2C(g)
If pressure of Gas "A" decreases to 0.8 atm. Then (Assume temperature to be constant and is 300 K)
(A) total pressure increased by 1.3 atm
(B) total pressure increased by 0.3 atm
(C) total pressure increased by 22.3 cm of Hg
(D) difference in mercury level is 228 mm.

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Q.29 Following represents the Maxwell distribution curve for an ideal gas at two temperatures T1 & T2.
Which of the following option(s) are true?

(A) Total area under the two curves is independent of moles of gas
(B) If dU1= f Umps1 & dU2 = f Umps2 then A1 = A2
(C) T1 > T2 and hence higher the temperature, sharper the curve.
(D) The fraction of molecules having speed = Umps decreases as temperature increases.

Match the column:

Q.30 Match the entries in column I with entries in Column II and then pick out correct options.
Column I Column II

1
(A) vs P for ideal gas at (P)
V2
constant T and n.

1
(B) V vs for ideal gas at (Q)
T

constant P and n

(C) log P vs log V for ideal gas (R)

at constant T and n.

1
(D) V vs for ideal gas (S)
P2

at constant T and n.

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Q.31 Match the description in Column I with graph provided in Column II. For n moles of ideal gas at
temperature 'T'.
Column I Column II

P
(A) vs P (P)
V

P
(B) vs V (Q)
V

V
(C) vs P–2 (R)
P

P
(D) vs log P (S)
V

Comprehension

Q.32 and Q.33 are based on the following passage.

Under a given condition, it is found that two separate gases effuse out of two separate container in such
dN dN
a way that they follows the equation = – K1 N & = – K2N, K1=6.93 × 10–3 sec–1 ,
dt dt
K2=6.93 × 10–5sec–1, where N is no. of molecules remaining in the container.

Q.32 Which one of the following may represent fraction of no. of molecules present after the given interval for gas-I?
(A) t = 0 t = 100sec t = 200 sec (B) t = 0 t = 100 sec t = 200 sec
1 1 1 1
1 1
2 8 8 16
(C) t = 0 t = 100 sec t = 200 sec (D) t = 0 t = 100 sec t = 200 sec
1 1 1 1
1 1
2 4 4 16
Q.33 Identify the correct option regarding sequence of (True) & (False) statements
(i) The time required for moles of gas I to get reduced to half of original & that of gas II to reduced to half
of original is independent of initial moles of gas I & gas II.
(ii) The rate at which initially molecules will come out in gas I as compared to gas II will be greater in gas
II if initial no. of molecules are same.
(iii) The time required for moles to get reduced from 1 to 0.8 in gas I and 2 to 1.6 in gas II will be same
(iv) For the two gases, moles remaining on the container after same interval should be in Geometrical
Progression.
(A) TFFT (B) TFTT (C) FTFT (D) TTFF

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Q.34 and Q.35 are based on the following passage.

For a gaseous reaction,
2A(g)  3B(g) + C(g)
Whose extent of dissociation depends on temperature is performed in a
closed container, it is known that extent of dissociation of A is different
in different temperature range. With in a temperature range it is constant.
(Temperature range T0 – T1, T1 – T2, T2 – T).
A plot of P v/s T is drawn under the given condition.
Given : tan55 = 1.42, tan50 = 1.19, tan60 = 1.73

Q.34 If  Ti  Ti 1 is the degree of dissociation of A then in the temperature

range Ti  Ti + 1
(A)  T is lowest (B)  T is highest
0  T1 0  T1

(C)  T2 T = 1 (D)  T2 T = 0

Q.35 If initially 1 mole of A is taken in a 0.0821 l container then [R = 0.0821 atm lit / k]
(A)  T = 0.19 (B)  T = 0.095 (C)  T1  T2  0.42 (D)  T1  T2  0.73
0  T1 0  T1

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Q.1 B Q.2 C Q.3 A Q.4 C Q.5 D

Q.6 A Q.7 B Q.8 B Q.9 A Q.10 C

Q.11 A Q.12 C Q.13 B Q.14 C Q.15 C

Q.16 C Q.17 B Q.18 D Q.19 D Q.20 C

Q.21 C Q.22 A, C Q.23 A, B Q.24 A, C

Q.25 A, D Q.26 A, C Q.27 B, C Q.28 B, D

Q.29 A, B, D

Q.30 (A) R, (B) S, (C) P, (D) Q

Q.31 (A) S; (B) R, (C) Q; (D) P

Q.32 C Q.33 A Q.34 A Q.35 A, C

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CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

Only one is correct

Q.1 The reaction A + B C + D is studied in a one litre vessel at 250°C. The initial concentration of A was
3n and that of B was n. When equilibrium was attained, equilibrium concentration of C was found to be
equal to the equilibrium concentration of B. What is the concentration of D at equilibrium?
(A) n/2 (B) (3n – 1/2) (C) (n – n/3) (D) n

Q.2 What is the equilibrium constant for the reaction

P4(s) + 5O2(g) P4O10(s) :
1 P4O10  P4O10 
(A) Kc = 5 (B) Kc = 5[P ][O ]5 (C) Kc = [O2]5 (D) Kc = [P ][O ]5
O 2  4 2 4 2

Q.3 Equilibrium constant for the following equilibrium is given at 0ºC.

Na2HPO4 . 12H2O (s) Na2HPO4 . 7H2O (s) + 5H2O(g) KP = 31.25 × 10–13
the partial pressure of water is
1
(A) ×10–3 atm (B) 0.5 × 10–3 atm (C) 5 × 10–2 atm (D) 5 × 10–3 atm.
5

Q.4 The equilibrium constant for the given reaction :

1
SO3(g) SO2(g) + O (g) ; Kc = 4.9 × 10–2
2 2
The value of Kc for the reaction :
2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g), will be
(A) 416 (B) 2.40 × 10–3 (C) 9.8 × 10–2 (D) 4.9 × 10–2

Q.5 For the following three reactions 1, 2 and 3, equilibrium constants are given :
(1) CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g) ; K1
(2) CH4(g) + H2O(g) CO(g) + 3H2(g) ; K2
(3) CH4(g) + 2H2O(g) CO2(g) + 4H2(g) ; K3
Which of the following relations is correct ?
(A) K1 K 2 = K3 (B) K2K3 = K1 (C) K3 = K1K2 (D) K3 · K23K12

Q.6 Consider following reactions in equilibrium with equilibrium concentration 0.01 M of every species
(I) PCl5 (g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) (II) 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2 (g)
(III) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
Extent of the reactions taking place is:
(A) I > II > III (B) I < II < III (C) II < III < I (D) III < I < II

Q.7 A definite amount of solid NH4HS is placed in a flask already containing ammonia gas at a certain
temperature and 0.50 atm pressure. NH4HS decomposes to give NH3 and H2S and at equilibrium total
pressure in flask is 0.84 atm. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is :
(A) 0.30 (B) 0.18 (C) 0.17 (D) 0.11

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Q.8 X2 + Y2 2XY reaction was studied at a certain temperature. In the beginning 1 mole of X2 was
taken in a one litre flask and 2 moles of Y2 was taken in another 2 litre flask and both these containers are
connected so equilibrium can be established. What is the equilibrium concentration of X2 and Y2? Given
Equilibrium concentration of [XY] = 0.6 moles/litre.
1  2  1  2 
(A)  3  0.3  ,  3  0.3  (B)  3  0.6  ,  3  0.6 
       
(C) (1 – 0.3) , (2 – 0.3) (D) (1 – 0.6) , (2 – 0.6)

Q.9 At a temp, T, a compound AB4(g) dissociates as 2AB4(g) A2(g) + 4B2(g) with a degree of dissociation
x, which is small compared with unity. The expression of Kp in terms of x and total pressure P is ;
(A) 8P3x5 (B) 256P3x5 (C) 4Px2 (D) None of these.

Q.10 1 mole N2 and 3 mol H2 are placed in a closed container at a pressure of 4 atm. The pressure falls to 3
atm at the same temperature when the following equilibrium is attained.
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g). The equilibrium constant KP for dissociation of NH3 is:
1 0.5  (1.5)3 3 3
(A) × (1.5)3 atm–2 (B) 0.5 ×(1.5)3 atm2 (C) atm2 (D) 3 atm
–2
0. 5 3 3 0 .5  (1 . 5)

Q.11 One mole of N2O4 (g) at 300 K is left in a closed container under one atm . It is heated to 600 K
when 20 % by mass of N2O4 (g) decomposes to NO2 (g) . The resultant pressure is :
(A) 1.2 atm (B) 2.4 atm (C) 2.0 atm (D) 1.0 atm

Q.12 For the following gases equilibrium. N2O4 (g) 2NO2 (g)
Kp is found to be equal to Kc. This is attained when temperature is
(A) 0°C (B) 273 K (C) 1 K (D) 12.19 K
1
Q.13 For the reaction : CO(g) + O (g) CO2(g), Kp/ Kc is :
2 2
(A) RT (B) (RT)–1 (C) (RT)–1/2 (D) (RT)1/2

Q.14 For the reaction; 2NO2(g) 2NO(g) + O2(g)

Kc = 1.8 × 10 at 184° C and R = 0.083 latmK–1 mol–1. When Kp and Kc are compared at 184°C,
–6

it is found that :
(A) Kp > Kc (B) Kp < Kc
(C) Kp = Kc (D) Kp  Kc depends upon pressure of gases

Q.15 PCl5 dissociation a closed container as :

PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
If total pressure at equilibrium of the reaction mixture is P and degree of dissociation of PCl5 is , the
partial pressure of PCl3 will be :
    2       
(A) P ·   (B) P ·   (C) P ·   (D) P ·  
   1 1       1 1   

Q.16 For the reaction : 2Hl (g) H2(g) + I2(g), the degree of dissociated () of Hl(g) is related to equilibrium
constant KP by the expression

1 2 Kp 1  2K p 2K p 2 Kp
(A) (B) (C) 1  2K p (D) 1  2 K
2 2 p

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Q.17 The equilibrium constant for the reaction

A(g) + 2B(g) C(g)
is 0.25 dm mol . In a volume of 5 dm3, what amount of A must be mixed with 4 mol of B to yield 1 mol
6 –2

of C at equilibrium.
(A) 3 moles (B) 24 moles (C) 26 moles (D) None of these

Q.18 For the reaction A(g) + 2B(g) C(g) + D(g) ; Kc = 1012 .

If the initial moles of A,B,C and D are 0.5, 1, 0.5 and 3.5 moles respectively in a one litre vessel. What
is the equilibrium concentration of B?
(A) 10–4 (B) 2 × 10–4 (C) 4 ×10–4 (D) 8 × 10–4

Q.19 The equilibrium constant KC for the reaction,

A(g) + 2B(g) 3C(g) is 2 × 10–3
What would be the equilibrium partial pressure of gas C if initial pressure of gas A & B are 1 & 2 atm
respectively.
(A) 0.0625 atm (B) 0.1875 atm (C) 0.21 atm (D) None of these

Q.20 A 20.0 litre vessel initially contains 0.50 mole each of H2 and I2 gases. These substances react and finally
reach an equilibrium condition. Calculate the equilibrium concentration of HI if Keq = 49 for the reaction
H2 + I2 2HI.
(A) 0.78 M (B) 0.039 M (C) 0.033 M (D) 0.021 M

Q.21 A vessel of 250 litre was filled with 0.01 mole of Sb2S3 and 0.01 mole of H2 to attain the equilibrium at
440°C as Sb2S3 (s) + 3H2 (g) 2Sb (s) + 3H2S (g).
After equilibrium the H2S formed was analysed by dissolving it in water and treating with excess of Pb2+
to give 1.195 g of PbS (Molecular weight = 239) precipitate.
What is value of Kc of the reaction at 440°C?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) None of these

Q.22 The equilibrium constant for the reaction CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g) is 3 at 500 K. In a 2 litre
vessel 60 gm of water gas [equimolar mixture of CO(g) and H2(g)] and 90 gm of steam is initially taken.
What is the equilibrium concentration of H2(g) at equilibrium (mole/L)?
(A) 1.75 (B) 3.5 (C) 1.5 (D) 0.75

Q.23 At 87°C, the following equilibrium is established

H2(g) + S(s) H2S (g) Kp = 7 × 10–2
If 0.50 mole of hydrogen and 1.0 mole of sulfur are heated to 87°C in 1.0 L vessel, what will be the
partial pressure of H2S at equilibrium?
(A) 0.966 atm (B) 1.38 atm (C) 0.0327 atm (D) 9.66 atm

Q.24 At certain temperature (T) for the gas phase reaction

2H2O(g) + 2Cl2 (g) 4HCl(g) + O2(g) Kp = 12 × 108 atm
If Cl2, HCl & O2 are mixed in such a manner that the partial pressure of each is 2 atm and the mixture is
brough into contact with excess of liquid water. What would be approximate partial pressure of Cl2
when equilibrium is attained at temperature (T)?
[Given : Vapour pressure of water is 380 mm Hg at temperature (T)]
(A) 3.6 ×10–5 atm (B) 10–4 atm (C) 3.6 ×10–3 atm (D) 0.01 atm

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Q.25 At 675 K, H2(g) and CO2 (g) react to form CO(g) and H2O (g), Kp for the reaction is 0.16.
If a mixture of 0.25 mole of H2(g) and 0.25 mol of CO2 is heated at 675 K, mole % of CO(g) in
equilibrium mixture is :
(A) 7.14 (B) 14.28 (C) 28.57 (D) 33.33

Q.26 In which of the following reactions, increase in the pressure at constant temperature does not affect the
moles at equliibrium :
1
(A) 2NH3(g) N2(g) + 3H2(g) (B) C(g) + O (g) CO(g)
2 2
1
(C) H2(g) + O (g) H2O(g) (D) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
2 2

Q.27 Change in volume of the system does not alter the number of moles in which of the following equilibrium
(A) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) (B) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(C) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) (D) SO2Cl2(g) SO2(g) + Cl2(g)

Q.28 The conditions favourable for the reaction :

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) ; H° = – 198 kJ
are :
(A) low temperature, high pressure (B) any value of T and P
(C) low temperature and low pressure (D) high temperature and high pressure

Q.29 The exothermic formation of ClF3 is represented by the equation :

Cl2(g) + 3F2(g)  2ClF3(g) H = – 329 kJ
Which of the following will increase the quantity of ClF3 in an equilibrium mixture of Cl2, F2 and ClF3 :
(A) Increasing the temperature (B) Removing Cl2
(C) Increasing the volume of container (D) Adding F2

Q.30 Densities of diamond and graphite are 3.5 and 2.3 gm/mL.
C (diamond) C (graphite) rH = –1.9 kJ/mole
favourable conditions for formation of diamond are
(A) high pressure and low temperature (B) low pressure and high temperature
(C) high pressure and high temperature (D) low pressure and low temperature

Q.31 The equilibrium SO2Cl2(g) SO2(g) + Cl2(g) is attained at 25°C in a closed rigid container and an
inert gas, helium is introduced. Which of the following statements is/are correct.
(A) concentrations of SO2, Cl2 and SO2Cl2 do not change
(B) more chlorine is formed
(C) concentration of SO2 is reduced
(D) more SO2Cl2 is formed

Q.32 Following two equilibrium is simultaneously established in a container

PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
CO(g) + Cl2(g) COCl2(g)
If some Ni(s) is introduced in the container forming Ni (CO)4 (g) then at new equilibrium
(A) PCl3 concentration will increase (B) PCl3 concentration will decrease
(C) Cl2 concentration will remain same (D) CO concentration will remain same
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Q.33 The yield of product in the reaction, 2A(g) + B(g) 2C(g) + Q kJ
would be lower at :
(A) low temperature and low pressure (B) high temperature & high pressure
(C) low temperature and to high pressure (D) high temperature & low pressure

Q.34 What is the effect of the reduction of the volume of the system for the equilibrium 2C(s) + O2(g) 2CO (g)?
(A) The equilibrium will be shifted to the left by the increased pressure caused by the reduction in
volume.
(B) The equilibrium will be shifted to the right by the decreased pressure caused by the reduction in
volume.
(C) The equilibrium will be shifted to the left by the increased pressure caused by the increase in volume.
(D) The equilibrium will be shifted to the right by the increased pressure caused by the reduction in
volume.

Q.35 The vapour density of N2O4 at a certain temperature is 30. What is the % dissociation of N2O4 at this
temperature?
(A) 53.3% (B) 106.6% (C) 26.7% (D) None

Q.36 The equilibrium constant KP for the reaction is 9 at 7 atm and 300 K for A2 (g) B2(g) + C2 (g)
Calculate the average molar mass (in gm/mol) of an equilibrium mixture.
Given : Molar mass of A2, B2 and C2 are 70, 49 & 21 gm/mol respectively.
(A) 50 (B) 45 (C) 40 (D) 37.5

Q.37 The equilibrium constants K P1 and K P2 for the reactions

X 2Y and Z P + Q, respectively are in the ratio of 1 : 9. If the degree of dissociation of X and
Z be equal then the ratio of total pressures at these equilibria is :
(A) 1 : 36 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 1 : 9

Q.38 When N2O5 is heated at temp. T, it dissociates as N 2 O5 N 2 O3  O 2 , Kc = 2.5. At the same time
N 2O3 also decomposes as : N2O3  N2O + O2. If initially 4.0 moles of N2O5 are taken in 1.0 litre flask
and allowed to attain equilibrium, concentration of O2 was formed to be 2.5 M. Equilibrium concentration
of N2O is
(A) 1.0 (B) 1.5 (C) 2.166 (D) 0.334

Q.39 An exothermic reaction is represented by the graph :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

More than one may be correct

Q.40 For the reaction PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), the forward reaction at constant temperature is favoured
by
(A) introducing an inert gas at constant volume (B) introducing chlorine gas at constant volume
(C) introducing an inert gas at constant pressure (D) introducing PCl5 at constant volume.

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Q.41 When NaNO3 is heated in a closed vessel, oxygen is liberated and NaNO2 is left behind. At equilibrium
(A) addition of NaNO2 favours reverse reaction
(B) addition of NaNO3 favours forward reaction
(C) increasing temperature favours forward reaction
(D) increasing pressure favours reverse reaction

Q.42 For the gas phase reaction, C2H4 + H2 C2H6 (H = – 32.7 kcal), carried out in a closed vessel, the
equilibrium moles of C2H4 can be increased by
(A) increasing the temperature (B) decreasing the pressure
(C) removing some H2 (D) adding some C2H6

Q.43 Phase diagram of CO2 is shown as following

73
Solid Liquid
67
P (atm)
5

1 Gas

195 217 298 304

T(K)
Based on above find the correct statement(s)
(A) 298K is the normal boiling point of liquid CO2
(B) At 1 atm & 190 K CO2 will exist as gas.
(C) CO2(s) will sublime above 195K under normal atmospheric pressure
(D) Melting point & boiling point of CO2 will increase on increasing pressure
Q.44 The equilibrium between, gaseous isomers A, B and C can be represented as
Reaction Equilibrium constant
A (g) B (g) : K1 = ?
B (g) C (g) : K2 = 0.4
C (g) A (g) : K3 = 0.6
If one mole of A is taken in a closed vessel of volume 1 litre, then
(A) [A] + [B] + [C] = 1 M at any time of the reactions
(B) Concentration of C is 4.1 M at the attainment equilibrium in all the reactions
1
(C) The value of K1 is (D) Isomer [A] is least stable as per thermodynamics.
0.24

Q.45 For the gas phase exothermic reaction, A2 + B2 C2, carried out in a closed vessel, the equilibrium
moles of A2 can be increased by
(A) increasing the temperature (B) decreasing the pressure
(C) adding inert gas at constant pressure (D) removing some C2
Q.46 Consider the equilibrium HgO(s) + 4I– (aq) + H2O (l) HgI42– (aq) + 2OH– (aq), which changes
will decrease the equilibrium concentration of HgI42–
(A) Addition of 0.1 M HI (aq) (B) Addition of HgO (s)
(C) Addition of H2O (l) (D) Addition of KOH (aq)

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Q.47 Decrease in the pressure for the following equilibria : H2O (s) H2O(l) result in the :
(A) formation of more H2O (s) (B) formation of more H2O(l)
(C) increase in melting point of H2O(s) (D) decrease in melting point of H2O(s)

Assertion Reason
Q.48 Statement -1 : Total number of moles in a closed system at new equilibrium is less than the old equilibrium
if some amount of a substance is removed from a system
(consider a reaction A(g) B(g) ) at equilibrium.
Statement -2 : The number of moles of the substance which is removed, is partially compensated as the
system reached to new equilibrium.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
(D) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.

Q.49 Statement-1 : Ammonia at a pressure of 10 atm and CO2 at a pressure of 20 atm are introduced
into an evacuated chamber. If Kp for the reaction
NH2COONH4 (s) 2NH3 (g) + CO2 (g) is 2020 atm3, the total pressure
after a long time is less than 30 atm.
Statement-2 : Equilibrium can be attained from both directions.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Comprehension :
Paragraph for Question Nos. 50 to 53
In a 7.0 L evacuated chamber , 0.50 mol H2 and 0.50 mol I2 react at 427°C .
H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) . At the given temperature, KC=49 for the reaction.

Q.50 What is the value of Kp ?

(A) 7 (B) 49 (C) 24.5 (D) None

Q.51 What is the total pressure (atm) in the chamber?

(A) 83.14 (B) 831.4 (C) 8.21 (D) None

Q.52 How many moles of the iodine remain unreacted at equilibrium?

(A) 0.388 (B) 0.112 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.125

Q.53 What is the partial pressure (atm) of HI in the equilibrium mixture?

(A) 6.385 (B) 12.77 (C) 40.768 (D) 646.58

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 54 to 56
If we know the equilibrium constant for a particular reaction, we can calculate the concentrations in the
equilibrium mixture from the initial concentrations. Commonly only the initial concentration of reactants
are given.

Q.54 In a study of equilibrium

H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI (g)
1 mol of H2 and 3 mol of I2 gave rise at equilibrium to x mol of HI.
Addition of a further 2 mol of H2 gave an additional x mol of HI. What is x?
(A) 0.5 (B) 1 (C) 1.5 (D) None of these

Q.55 In above problem, what is Kp at the temperature of the experiment.

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) None of these

Q.56 In a study of equilibrium

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g).
Starting with 2 mole SO2 and 1.5 mole O2 in 5 litre flask. Equilibrium mixture required 0.4 mole KMnO4
in acidic medium. Hence KC is :
(A) 0.2 (B) 5.0 (C) 675.0 (D) None of these

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Q.1 A Q.2 A Q.3 D Q.4 A Q.5 C Q.6 B Q.7 D

Q.8 A Q.9 B Q.10 B Q.11 B Q.12 D Q.13 C Q.14 A

Q.15 A Q.16 D Q.17 C Q.18 B Q.19 B Q.20 B Q.21 A

Q.22 A Q.23 A Q.24 C Q.25 B Q.26 D Q.27 A Q.28 A

Q.29 D Q.30 C Q.31 A Q.32 B Q.33 D Q.34 A Q.35 A

Q.36 C Q.37 A Q.38 D Q.39 A Q.40 C,D Q.41 C, D

Q.42 A, B, C, D Q.43 C, D Q.44 A, C, D Q.45 A, B, C

Q.46 C, D Q.47 A, C Q.48 B Q.49 D Q.50 B Q.51 C Q.52 B

Q.53 A Q.54 C Q.55 C Q.56 B

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IONIC EQUILIBRIUM
Single correct
Q.1 Which of the following solution will have a pH exactly equal to 8 ?
(A) 10–8 M HCl solution at 25ºC (B) 10–8 M H+ solution at 25ºC
(C) 2 × 10–6 M Ba(OH)2 solution at 25ºC (D) 10–6 M NaOH solution at 50ºC

Q.2 0.1mol HCl is dissolved in distilled water of volume V then V  lim

  (pH)solution is equal to
(A) zero (B) 1 (C) 7 (D) 14

Q.3 pH of an aqeous solution of NaCl at 85°C should be

(A) 7 (B) > 7 (C) < 7 (D) 0

Q.4 Which of the following is true

(A) pkb for OH¯ is – 1.74 at 25°C
(B) The equilibrium constant for the reaction between HA (pka = 4) and NaOH at 25°C will be
equal to 1010.
(C) The pH of a solution containing 0.1 M HCOOH (ka = 1.8 × 10–4 ) and 0.1 M HOCN.
(ka = 3.2 × 10–4 ) will be nearly (3 - log 7).
(D) all the above are correct.

M M
Q.5 10 ml of H2SO4 is mixed with 40 ml of H SO . The pH of the resulting solution is
200 200 2 4
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 2.3 (D) none of these

Q.6 If pKb for fluoride ion at 25° C is 10.83, the ionisation constant of hydrofluoric acid in water at this
temperature is :
(A) 1.74 × 105 (B) 3.52 × 103 (C) 6.75 × 104 (D) 5.38 × 102

Q.7 At what molar concentration of HCl will its aqueous solution have an [H+] to which equal contributions
come from HCl and H2O.
(A) 60 × 10–7 M (B) 50 × 10–8 M (C) 40 × 10–9 M (D) 30 × 10–8

Q.8 If K1 & K2 be first and second ionisation constant of H3PO4 and K1 >> K2 which is incorrect.
(A) [H+] = [ H 2 PO4 ] (B) [H+] = K1[ H 3PO 4 ]
(C) K2 = [HPO4  ] (D) [H+] = 3[ PO 34 ]

Q.9 If 50 ml of 0.2 (M) KOH is added to 40 ml of 0.5 (M) HCOOH. the pH of the resulting solution is:
(K = 1.8 × 10–4)
(A) 3.75 (B) 5.6 (C) 7.5 (D) 3.4

Q.10 A solution with pH 2.0 is more acidic than the one with pH 6.0 by a factor of:
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 3000 (D) 10000

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Q.11 What will be the pH at the equivalence point during the titration of a 100 mL 0.2 M solution of
CH3 COONa with 0.2 M solution of HCl ? Ka = 2 × 10–5 .
(A) 3 – log 2 (B) 3 + log 2 (C) 3 – log 2 (D) 3 + log 2

Q.12 An aqueous solution contains 0.01 M RNH2 (Kb = 2 ×10–6) & 10–4 M NaOH.
The concentration of OH¯ is nearly :
(A) 2.414 ×10–4 (B) 10–4 M (C) 1.414 × 10–4 (D) 2 × 10–4

Q.13 The degree of hydrolysis of a salt of weak acid and weak base in it’s 0.1 M solution is found to be 50%.
If the molarity of the solution is 0.2 M, the percentage hydrolysis of the salt should be
(A) 100% (B) 50% (C) 25% (D) none of these

Q.14 What is the percentage hydrolysis of NaCN in N/80 solution when the dissociation constant for HCN is
1.3 × 10–9 and Kw = 1.0 × 10–14
(A) 2.48 (B) 5.26 (C) 8.2 (D) 9.6

Q.15 The compound whose 0.1 M solution is basic is

(A) Ammonium acetate (B) Ammonium chloride
(C) Ammonium sulphate (D) Sodium acetate

Q.16 When a weak acid is titrated against a strong base. The pH of solution keeps on changing with amount
 v MOH 
of base added. In this titration there is a formation of buffer also. If the buffer capacity  H  (here
 
defined as the volume of base of a particular concentration added per unit change in pH), is plotted
against volume of base added for titration of 25 ml, 0.1 M HA (weak acid) solution with 0.1 M strong
base solution, then the most appropriate curve will be :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Q.17 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added to 60 mL of 0.15 M H3 PO4 solution (K1 , K2 and K3 is

10–3, 10–8 and 10–13 respectively). The pH of the mixture would be about
(A) 3.1 (B) 5.5 (C) 4.1 (D) 6.5

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Q.18 The pKa of a weak acid, HA, is 4.80. The pKb of a weak base, BOH, is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous
solution of the corresponding salt, BA, will be :
(A) 8.58 (B) 4.79 (C) 7.01 (D) 9.22

Q.19 A physician wishes to prepare a buffer solution at pH = 3.85 that efficiently resists changes in pH yet
contains only small concentration of the buffering agents. Which of the following weak acids together
with its sodium salt would be best to use
(A) m-chlorobenzoic acid (pKa = 3.98) (B) p-chlorocinnamic acid (pKa = 2.97)
(C) 2, 5-dihydroxy benzoic acid (pKa = 2.97) (D) Acetoacetic acid (pKa = 3.58)

Q.20 How many gm of solid NaOH must be added to 100 ml of a buffer solution which is 0.1 M each w.r.t.
Acid HA and salt Na+ A– to make the pH of solution 5.5. Given pka (HA) = 5.
(Use antilog (0.5) = 3.16)
(A) 2.08 × 10–1 (B) 3.05 × 10–3 (C) 2.01 × 10–2 (D) None of these

Q.21 If 40 ml of 0.2 M KOH is added to 160 ml of 0.1 M HCOOH [Ka = 2×10–4], the pOH of the resulting
solution is
(A) 3.4 (B) 3.7 (C) 7 (D) 10.3

Q.22 A buffer solution is prepared by mixing 'a' moles of CH3 COONa and 'b' moles of CH3 COOH
such that (a + b) = 1, into water to make 1L buffer solution. If the buffer capacity of this buffer
solution is plotted against moles of salt CH3COONa (with a) then the plot obtained will be (to
the scale) approximately.
0.55
0.50
0.25 0.45
Buffer capacity
Buffer capacity

0.20 0.40
(A) (B)
0.15 0.35

0.10 0.30
0.0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0 0.0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0
a a
0.55
0.50
Buffer capacity

0.25
Buffer capacity

0.45
0.20
0.40
0.15
(C) 0.35 (D)
0.10
0.30 0.0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0
0.0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0
a
a

Q.23 The pKa of a weak acid (HA) is 4.5. The pOH of an aqueous buffered solution of HA in which 50% of
the acid is ionized is :
(A) 4.5 (B) 2.5 (C) 9.5 (D) 7.0

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Q.24 The solubility product Mg(OH)2 in water at 250C is 8.9 x 10-13(mol dm-3)3 while that of Al(OH)3 is
5 x 10-33(mol dm-3)4. If S1 and S2 are the solubilities of Mg(OH)2 and Al(OH)3 in water in mol dm-3 at
250C, what is the order of magnitude of the ratio, S1/S2?
(A) 105 (B) 104 (C) 106 (D) 103

Q.25 If Ksp for HgSO4 is 6.4 ×10–5, then solubility of this substance in mole per m3 is
(A) 8 ×10–3 (B) 6.4 ×10–5 (C) 8 × 10–6 (D) None of these

Q.26 The solubility of a sparingly soluble salt AB2 in water is 1.0 × 10–5 mol L–1. Its solubility product is:
(A) 10–15 (B) 10–10 (C) 4 × 10–15 (D) 4 × 10–10

Q.27 Which of the following is most soluble in water?

(A) MnS (Ksp= 8×10–37) (B) ZnS (Ksp= 7×10–16)
(C) Bi2S3 (Ksp= 1×10 )–72 (D) Ag3(PO4) (Ksp= 1.8×10–18)

Q.28 What fraction of an indicator HIn is in the basic form at a pH of 6 if the pKa of the indicator is 5?
1 1 10 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) 10
2 11 11
Q.29 Which is/are correct statements :
(a) In any strong acid’s solution, the concentration of [OH–] will be zero.
(b) If Gº of a reaction is positive, then the reaction will not proceed at all, in the forward direction
for any concentrations of reactants and products.
(c) When titration curves are drawn for
(i) 1M HCl (50 mL) with 1 M NaOH and
(ii) 0.01 M HCl (50 mL) with 0.01 M NaOH on the same graph paper they look like:

(A) a & b (B) c only (C) b only (D) a & c

Q.30 50 litre of a solution containing 10–5 mole of AgBr is mixed with 50 litre of a 2 × 10–7 M HBr solution.
[Ag+] in resultant solution is : [Given : Ksp (AgBr) = 5 × 10–13]
(A) 10–5 M (B) 10–6 M (C) 10–7 M (D) None of these

Q.31 pH of a saturated solution of silver salt of monobasic acid HA is found to be 9.

Find the Ksp of sparingly soluble salt Ag A(s).
Given : Ka (HA) = 10–10
(A) 1.1 × 10–11 (B) 1.1 × 10–10 (C) 10–12 (D) None of these

Q.32 The solubility of metal sulphides in saturated solution of H2S {[H2S]= 0.1 M}can be represented by
[M 2 ][H 2S]
MS + 2H+  M2+
 + H2S ; Keq =
[H  ]2
The value of Keq is given for few metal sulphide. If conc. of each metal ion in solution is 0.01 M, which
metal sulphides are selectively ppt at total [H+]= 1M in saturated H2S solution.

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Metal sulphides MnS ZnS CoS PbS

[M 2 ][H 2S]
Keq = 3 × 1010 3 × 10–2 3 3 × 10–7
[H  ]2
(A) MnS, ZnS, CoS (B) PbS, ZnS, CoS (C) PbS, ZnS (D) PbS

Q.33 Solid Ba(NO3)2 is gradually dissolved in a 1.0 × 10–4 M Na2CO3 solution. At what concentration of Ba2+
will a precipitate begin to form ? (Ksp for BaCO3 = 5.1 × 10–9)
(A) 4.1 × 10–5 M (B) 5.1 × 10–5 M (C) 8.1 × 10–8 M (D) 8.1 × 10–7 M

Q.34 What is the difference in pH for 1/3 and 2/3 stages of neutralisation of 0.1 M CH3COOH with 0.1 M
NaOH.
(A) – 2 log 3 (B) 2 log (1/4) (C) 2 log (2/3) (D) – 2 log 2

More than one may be correct

Q.35 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?

(A) the pH of 1.0 × 108 M solution of HCl is 8
(B) the conjugate base of H2PO4 is HPO42
(C) autoprotolysis constant of water increases with temperature
(D) when a solution of a weak monoprotic acid is titrated again a strong base, at halfneutralization point
pH = (1/2) pKa .

Q.36 A 2.5 gm impure sample containing weak monoacidic base (Mol. wt. = 45) is dissolved in 100 ml water
th
1
and titrated with 0.5 M HCl when   of the base was neutralised the pH was found to be 9 and at
5
equivalent point pH of solution is 4.5 . Given : All data at 25°C & log 2 = 0.3.
Select correct statement(s) .
(A) Kb of base is less than 10–6
(B) Concentration of salt (C) at equivalent point is 0.25 M
(C) Volume of HCl is used at equivalent point is 100 ml
(D) Weight percentage of base in given sample is 80%.

Q.37 Which one is the correct graph for the corresponding acid base titration?

pH pH

(A) (B)
volume of strong base added volume of strong acid added
to a monobasic strong acid to a monoacidic weak base

pH pH

(C) (D)
volume of strong base volume of strong acid added
added to a weak dibasic acid to a weak diacidic base

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Q.38 Titration curves for 0.1M solutions of three weak acids HA1, HA2 and HA3 with ionization constants
K1, K2 and K3 respectively are plotted as shown in the figure. Which of the following is/are true?

(A) K2 = (K1 + K3)/2 (B) K1< K3 (C) K1 > K2 (D) K2 > K3

Assertion & Reasoning type questions

Q.39 Statement-1 : pH of 10–7 M NaOH solution is exist between 7 to 7.3 at 25°C.
Statement-2 : Due to common ion effect ionization of water is reduced.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.40 Statement-1 : In general phenolphthalein is used as an indicator for the titration of weak acid
(HA) against strong base (NaOH).
Statement-2 : At equivalent point solution is basic.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.41 Statement-1 : Moles of Sr2+ furnished by sparingly soluble substance Sr(OH)2 decreases due
to dilution in its saturated solution.
Statement-2 : Solubility product constant of Sr(OH)2 is not affected by dilution.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

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Comprehension
Paragraph for Question Nos. 42 to 44
1.2 g of a monoprotic acid HA, is titrated with 0.222 M NaOH solution. The pH of the solution is
monitored with pH meter. A portion of the titration curve is shown in the diagram.

Expanded titration
12.00 curve of
11.00 HA vs NaOH
10.00

pH 9.00
8.00
7.00
6.00
5.00
15 16 17 18 19 20
Volume of NaOH (mL)

Q.42 How many mL of NaOH is required to bring about the titration to its equivalence point ?
(A) 4.00 (B) 9.00 (C) 19.00 (D) None of these

Q.43 What is the pH of solution at the equivalence point ?

(A) 3.50 (B) 7.00 (C) 8.40 (D) 5.00

Q.44 What is the molar mass of HA ?

(A) 180 (B) 222 (C) 282 (D) None of these

Paragraph for Question Nos. 45 to 48

Potash alum is K Al(SO4)2·12H2O. As a strong electrolyte, it is considered to be 100 % dissociated
into K+, Al3+ and SO42–. The solution is acidic because of the hydrolysis of Al3+, but not so acidic as
might be expected, because the SO42– can sponge up some of the H3O+ by forming HSO4¯. Given a
solution made by dissolving 11.85 gm of K Al(SO4)2·12H2O in enough water to make 100 cm3 of
solution. What is [H3O+] of the solution if

Q.45 None of the ion is hydrolysing.

(A) 10–7 M (B) less than 10–7 M
(C) More than 10–7M (D) 0.0

Q.46 Only Al3+ is hydrolysing and its first hydrolysis constant is 1.4 × 10–5 M
(A) 1.87 × 10–3 M (B) 6.24 × 10–4 M (C) 0.09 M (D) None of these

Q.47 Only SO42– is hydrolysing and acid dissociation constant of HSO4¯ in water is 1.25× 10–2.
(A) 1.26 × 10–3 M (B) 6.32 × 10–7 M (C) 1.58 × 10–8 M (D) None of these

Q.48 Both Al3+ and SO42– are hydrolysing.

(A) 2.93 × 10–4 M (B) 0.0114 M (C) 5.43 × 10–6 M (D) None of these

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Match the column
Q.49 Column I Column II
(At 25°C)

(A)  10 litre of 0.03 N X(OH)2 (strong diacidic base) (P) pH ~
 3.7
 +

 5 litre of 0.08 M HNO3
 +
 485 litre of 0.01 M NaNO
 3


(B) –9 pH ~
 10 ml of 0.5 M RNH3Cl (Kh = 10 ) (Q)  111
 +

 40 ml of 0.125 M KOH




(C)  100 ml of 0.8 M HCO3 (R) pH ~
 7

 +
 2
 100 ml of 0.4 M CO 3

 (for H2CO3 , use K a1 = 4 × 10–7 & K a 2 = 4 × 10–11)


(D) Saturated aqueous solution of Co(OH)3 (Ksp = 2.7 × 10–43) (S) pH ~

 10

Q.50 Column I Column II

(pH of resultant solution) (Exist between Colour transition
range of an indicator)
(A) 200 ml of H2SO4 solution (P) Phenol Red (6.8 to 8.4)
(specific gravity 1.225 containing
25% H2SO4 by weight) + 800 ml
of 0.525 M strong triacidic base (Q) Propyl red (4.6 to 6.4)
X (OH)3

(B) 50 ml of 0.1 M HCO3 + (R) Phenolphtalein (8.3 to 10.1)

50 ml of 0.8 M CO 32

(H2CO3 : K a1 = 4 × 10–7 , K a 2 = 2 × 10–11 )

(C) 50 ml of 0.2 M HA (aq) (Ka = 10–5) (S) Malachite green (11.4 to 13)
+ 50 ml of 0.1 M HCl (aq)
+ 100 ml of 0.13 M NaOH (aq)

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Q.1 B Q.2 C Q.3 C Q.4 D Q.5 B

Q.6 C Q.7 B Q.8 D Q.9 A Q.10 D

Q.11 A Q.12 C Q.13 B Q.14 A Q.15 D

Q.16 B Q.17 A Q.18 C Q.19 A Q.20 A

Q.21 D Q.22 B Q.23 C Q.24 B Q.25 D

Q.26 C Q.27 D Q.28 C Q.29 B Q.30 C

Q.31 A Q.32 D Q.33 B Q.34 D Q.35 B, C

Q.36 B, C Q.37 A, B, C, D Q.38 C, D Q.39 A Q.40 B

Q.41 D Q.42 C Q.43 C Q.44 C Q.45 A

Q.46 A Q.47 C Q.48 A Q.49 (A) P, (B) Q, (C) S, (D) R

Q.50 (A) S, (B) S, (C) Q

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Only one correct :

Q.1 A block of ice at –10 °C is slowly heated and converted into steam at 100°C .Which of the following
curves represents the phenomenon qualitatively ?

R T
T
P
(A) Q (B) (C) (D)
X
O Heat supplied

Q.2 Consider the reaction at 300 K

H2 (g) + Cl2 (g)  2HCl (g) H = – 185 kJ/mol
Calculate U if 3 mole of H2 completely react with 3 mole of Cl2 to form HCl.
(A) 0 (B) – 185 kJ (C) 555 kJ (D) None of these

Q.3 If w1 , w2, w3 and w4 are work done by system in isothermal, adiabatic, isobaric and isochoric reversible
process, the correct order (for expansion) will be
(A) w1 > w2 > w3 > w4 (B) w3 > w2 > w1 > w4
(C) w3 > w2 > w4 > w1 (D) w3 > w1 > w2 > w4

Q.4 What is U for the process described by figure. Heat supplied during the process q = 100 kJ.

(A) + 50 kJ (B) – 50 kJ (C) –150 kJ (D) + 150 kJ

Q.5 What is the change in internal energy when a gas contracts from 377 ml to 177 ml under a constant
pressure of 1520 torr, while at the same time being cooled by removing 124 J heat?
(A) –24 J (B) – 84 J (C) – 164 J (D) –248 J

Q.6 The heat capacity of liquid water is 75.6 J / mol.K, while the enthalpy of fusion of ice is 6.0 kJ/mol. What
is the smallest number of ice cubes at 0°C, each containing 9.0 g of water, needed to cool 500 g of liquid
water from 20°C to 0°C?
(A) 1 (B) 7 (C) 14 (D) None of these

Q.7 An ideal gas is taken around the cycle ABCDA as shown in figure. The net work done during the cycle
is equal to :
P2 B D
P
P1
C
V1 V2
V
(A) zero (B) positive (C) negative (D) we cannot predict
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Q.8. A sample of 2 kg of helium (assumed ideal) is taken through the process
ABC and another sample of 2 kg of the same gas is taken through the
B C
process ADC. Then the temperature of the states A and B are 10

P(10 N/m )
2
(Given R = 8.3 joules/mol K) :

4
5 A D
(A) TA = 120.5 K, TB = 120. 5K (B) TA = 241 K, TB = 241 K
(C) TA = 120.5 K, TB = 241 K (D) TA = 241 K, TB = 482 K 10 20V(m3)

Q.9 A cyclic process ABCD is shown in PV diagram for an ideal gas. Which of the
following diagram represents the same process?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Q.10 One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas expanded irreversibly in two stage expansion.
State-1 (8.0 bar, 4.0 litre, 300 K)
State-2 (2.0 bar, 16 litre, 300 K)
State-3 (1.0 bar, 32 litre, 300 K)
Total heat absorbed by the gas in the process is :
(A) 116 J (B) 40 J (C) 4000 J (D) None of these

Q.11 What is the net work done (in calories) by 1 mole of monoatomic ideal gas in a process described by
1, 2, 3, 4 in given V–T graph.

Use : R = 2cal / mole K

ln 2 = 0.7
(A) – 600 cal (B) – 660 cal (C) + 660 cal (D) + 600 cal
Q.12 An insulated container of gas has two chambers separated by an insulating partition. One of the chambers
has volume V1 and contains ideal gas at pressure P1 and temperature T1. The other chamber has volume
V2 and contains same ideal gas at pressure P2 and temperature T2. If the partition is removed without
doing any work on the gas, the final equilibrium temperature of the gas in the container will be
T1T2 (P1V1  P2 V2 ) P1V1T1  P2 V2T2
(A) P V T  P V T (B) P1V1  P2 V2
1 1 2 2 2 1

P1V1T2  P2 V2 T1 T1T2 (P1V1  P2 V2 )

(C) P1V1  P2 V2 (D) P V T  P V T
1 1 1 2 2 2

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Q.13 One mole of ideal gas is allowed to expand reversibly and adiabatically from a temperature of 27°C. If
the work done by the gas in the process is 3 kJ, the final temperature will be equal to (CV=20 J/K mol)
(A) 100 K (B) 450 K (C) 150 K (D) 400 K

5
Q.14 A gas (Cv,m = R) behaving ideally was allowed to expand reversibly and adiabatically from 1 litre to
2
32 litre. It's initial temperature was 327°C. The molar enthalpy change (in J/mole) for the process is
(A) –1125 R (B) – 575 R (C) –1575 R (D) None of these

Q.15 An ideal gas undergoes a thermodynamics cycle as shown in figure.

Which of the following graphs represents the same cycle?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.16 A diatomic ideal gas initially at 273 K is given 100 cal heat due to which system did 209 J work.
Molar heat capacity (Cm) of gas for the process is :
3 5 5
(A) R (B) R (C) R (D) 5 R
2 2 4

Q.17 For an ideal monoatomic gas during any process T = kV, find out the molar heat capacity of the gas
during the process. (Assume vibrational degree of freedom to be active)
5 7
(A) R (B) 3R (C) (D) 4 R
2 2

Q.18 . One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is caused to go through the cycle shown in figure. Then the change
in the internal energy in expending the gas from a to c along the path abc is :

2P0 c
Pressure

T0
P0 b
a

V0 4V0
Volume

(A) 3 P0V0 (B) 6 RT0 (C) 4.5 RT0 (D) 10.5 RT0
Q.19 The expansion of an ideal gas of mass m at a constant pressure P is
given by the straight line B. Then the expansion of the same ideal gas of
mass 2 m at a pressure 2P is given by the straight line
(A) C (B) A (C) B (D) none

Q.20 One mole of an ideal diatomic gas is taken through the cycle as shown in the figure.
1  2 : isochoric process 2  3 : straight line on P-V diagram
3  1 : isobaric process
The average molecular speed of the gas in the states 1, 2 and 3 are in the ratio
(A) 1 : 2 : 2 (B) 1 : 2 : 2 (C) 1 : 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 2 : 4
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Q.21 An ideal gas undergoes an adiabatic process obeying the relation PV4/3 = constant. If its initial temperature
is 300 K and then its pressure is increased upto four times its initial value, then the final temperature is
(in Kelvin):
(A) 300 2 (B) 300 3 2 (C) 600 (D) 1200

Q.22 The figure, shows the graph of logarithmic reading of pressure and volume for two
ideal gases A and B undergoing adiabatic process. From figure it can be concluded
that
(A) gas B is diatomic (B) gas A and B both are diatomic
(C) gas A is monoatomic (D) gas B is monoatomic & gas A is diatomic

Q.23 If Hvaporisation of substance X (l) (molar mass : 30 g/mol) is 300 J/g at it's boiling point 300 K, then
molar entropy change for reversible condensation process is
(A) 30 J/mol.K (B) – 300 J/mol.K (C) –30 J/mol.K (D) None of these

Q.24 A process is shown in the diagram. Which of the following curves

may represent the same process ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.25 The change in entropy of 2 moles of an ideal gas upon isothermal expansion at 243.6 K from 20 litre until
the pressure becomes 1 atm, is :
(A) 1.385 cal / K (B) –1.2 cal / K (C) 1.2 cal / K (D) 2.77 cal / K

Q.26 Pressure of 10 moles of an ideal gas is changed from 2 atm to 1 atm against constant external pressure
without change in temperature. If surrounding temperature (300 K) and pressure (1 atm) always remains
constant then calculate total entropy change (Ssystem + Ssurrounding) for given process.
[Given : n2 = 0.70 and R = 8.0 J/mol/K]
(A) 56 J/K (B) 14 J/K (C) 16 J/K (D) None of these

Q.27 The enthalpy of tetramerization of X in gas phase (4X(g)  X4(g)) is – 100 kJ/mol at 300 K.
The enthalpy of vaporisation for liquid X and X4 are respectively 30 kJ/mol and 72 kJ/mol respectively.
S for tetramerization of X in liquid phase is – 125 J / K mol at 300 K.
What is the G at 300 K for tetramerization of X in liquid phase ?
(A) –52 kJ/mol (B) –89.5 kJ/mol (C) –14.5 kJ/mol (D) None of these

Q.28 Standard entropy of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and 50 JK–1mol–1, respectively. For the reaction,
1 3
X 2  Y2  XY3 , H  30kJ to be at equilibrium, the temperature will be
2 2
(A) 1250 K (B) 500 K (C) 750 K (D) 1000 K

Q.29 One mole of an ideal diatomic gas (Cv = 5 cal) was transformed from initial 25°C and 1 L to the state
when temperature is 100°C and volume 10 L. The entropy change of the process can be expressed as
(R = 2 calories/mol/K)
298 373 373 1 373 1
(A) 3 ln 373 + 2 ln10 (B) 5 ln 298 + 2 ln10 (C) 7 ln 298 + 2 ln 10 (D) 5 ln 298 + 2 ln 10

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Q.30 One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas expands isothermally against constant external pressure of 1
atm from initial volume of 1L to a state where its final pressure becomes equal to external pressure.
If initial temperature of gas is 300 K then total entropy change of system in the above process is :
[R = 0.082 L atm mol–1 K–1 = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1 ].
3
(A) 0 (B) Rln (24.6) (C) R ln (2490) (D) Rln (24.6)
2
o
Q.31 The value of G f of gaseous mercury is 31 K J/mole. At what total external pressure mercury start
boiling at 25°C. [R = 8.3 J/K mole]
(A) 10–5.44 (B) 10–12.5 (C) 10–6.52 (D) 10–3.12

Q.32 What is rG (KJ/mole) for synthesis of ammonia at 298 K at following sets of partial pressure:
 2NH3(g) ; rG° = –33 KJ/mole. [Take R = 8.3 J/K mole, log2 = 0.3; log3 = 0.48]
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 
Gas N2 H2 NH3
Pressure (atm) 1 3 0.02
(A) + 6.5 (B) – 6.5 (C) + 60.5 (D) – 60.5

 NH3(g) + H2S (g),

Q.33 For the reaction takes place at certain temperature NH4HS (s) 
if equilibrium pressure is X bar, then rG° would be
(A) –2 RT ln X (B) – RT ln (X – ln2) (C) – 2 RT (ln X–ln 2) (D) None of these

Q.34 Calculate log10 {[C]eq [A]eq } where [C] and [A] are equilibrium molar concentration of respective
species, when 2 mole each of A and B were allowed to come to equilibrium at 900 K.
A+B C+D ; G° = 460.6 Calorie
Take : lnX  2.303 log X
R  2 Cal / K mole
(A) – 5.56 × 10–2 (B) – 5.57 × 10–3
(C) –1.1 × 10–2 (D) – 1.1 × 10–3

Q.35 1 mole of an ideal gas at 25°C is subjected to expand reversibly ten times of its initial volume. The
change in entropy due to expansion is :
(A) 19.15 JK–1 mole–1 (B) 16.15 JK–1 mole–1 (C) 22.15 JK–1 mole–1 (D) none
Q.36 q, w, E and H for the following process ABCD on a monoatomic gas are :

(A) w = – 2 P0 V0 ln 2, q = 2 P0 V0 ln 2, E = 0, H = 0
(B) w = – 2 P0 V0 ln 2, q = 2 P0 V0 ln 2, E = 0, H = 2 P0 V0 ln 2
(C) w = – P0 V0 (1+ ln 2), q = P0 V0 (1+ ln 2) E = 0, H = 0
(D) w = – P0 V0 ln 2, q = P0 V0 ln 2, E = 0, H = 0

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More than one correct:
Q.37 Two moles of an ideal gas (Cv,m = 3/2R) is subjected to following change of state.
  B Isochoric
A (500 K, 5.0 bar) Reversible   C (250 K, 1.0 bar)
isothermal cooling
expansion Single stage
adiabatic
compression
D
(3 bar)
The correct statement is / are :
(A) The pressure at B is 2.0 bar
(B) The temperature at D is 450 K
(C) HCD = 1000 R
(D) UBC = 375 R

Q.38 Which of the following is true for reversible adiabatic process involving an ideal gas?
(A) Gas with higher  has high magnitude of slope in a P (y-axis) v/s T (x-axis) curve
(B) Gas with higher  has high magnitude of slope in a V (y-axis) v/s T (x-axis) curve
(C) Gas with higher  has high magnitude of slope in a P (y-axis) v/s V (x-axis) curve
(D) Gas with higher  has low magnitude of slope in a P (y-axis) v/s T (x-axis) curve

Q.39 An ideal gas is taken from state A (Pressure P, Volume V) to the state B
(Pressure P/2, Volume 2V) along a straight line path in PV diagram as
shown in the adjacent figure.
Select the correct statement(s) among the following.
(A) The work done by gas in the process A to B exceeds the work that
would be done by it if the system were taken from A to B along the
isotherm.
(B) In the T–V diagram, the path AB become part of parabola
(C) In the P–T diagram, the path AB becomes a part of hyperbola.
(D) In going from A to B, the temperature T of the gas first increases to a maximum value then decreases.

Q.40 If one mole monoatomic ideal gas was taken through process AB as shown in figure, then select correct
option(s).
Given : ln 1.5 = 0.4

(A) wAB = – 1496.52 J (B) qAB = 5237.82 J

(C) HAB = 3741.3 J (D) SAB is +ve

Q.41 The normal boiling point of a liquid 'A' is 350 K. Hvap at normal boiling point is 35 kJ/mole. Pick out
the correct statement(s). (Assume Hvap to be independent of pressure).
(A) Svaporisation > 100 J/Kmole at 350 K and 0.5 atm
(B) Svaporisation < 100 J/K mole at 350 K and 0.5 atm
(C) Svaporisation < 100 J/K mole at 350 K and 2 atm
(D) Svaporisation = 100 J/K mole at 350 K and 2 atm

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Q.42 Which statement is / are correct:
(A) Final temperature in reversible adiabatic expansion is lesser than in irreversible adiabatic expansion.
(B) When heat is supplied to an ideal gas in an isothermal process, kinetic energy of gas will increase
(C) When an ideal gas is subjected to adiabatic expansion it gets cooled
(D) Entropy increases in atomisation of dihydrogen

Q.43 Which is / are correct statement.

(A) wadiabatic > wisothermal in an ideal gas compression from same initial state to same final volume
 Cp 
(B) The value of     C  remains constant for diatomic gas at all temperature
 v 

(C) Entropy increases when an ideal gas expanded isothermally.

(D) rH & rS both are + ve for the decomposition of MgCO3(s) .

Q.44 In isothermal ideal gas compression:

(A) w is +ve (B) H is zero (C) Sgas is +ve (D) G is +ve

Q.45 Which of the following statement(s) is/are false :

1
(A) rS for N (g)  N(g) is positive
2 2
(B) Gsystem is always zero for a reversible process in a closed system
(C) G° for an ideal gas is a function of temperature and pressure
(D) entropy of a closed system is always maximized at equilibrium
Assertion Reason :
Q.46 Statement -1 : There is no change in enthalpy of an ideal gas during compression at constant temperature.
Statement -2 : Enthalpy of an ideal gas is a function of temperature and pressure.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.47 Statement-1: Due to adiabatic free expansion, temperature of a real gas always increases.
Statement-2: If a real gas is at inversion temperature then no change in temperature is observed
in adiabatic free expansion.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

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Comprehension-1
A cylindrical container of volume 44.8 litres is containing equal no. of moles (in integer no.) of an ideal
monoatomic gas in two sections A and B separated by an adiabatic frictionless piston as shown in figure.
The initial temperature and pressure of gas in both section is 27.3 K and 1 atm. Now gas in section 'A'
is slowly heated till the volume of section B becomes (1/8)th of initial volume.

3
Given : R = 2 cal/mol-K, Cv,m of monoatomic gas = R,
2
At 1 atm & 0°C ideal gas occupy 22.4 litre.
Q.48 What will be the final pressure in container B :
(A) 2 atm (B) 8 atm (C) 16 atm (D) 32 atm

Q.49 Find temperature in container A will be

(A) 1638 K (B) 6988 K (C)3274 K (D) 51 K

Q.50 Change in enthaly for section A in Kcal.

(A) 48.3 (B) 80.53 (C) 4.83 (D) 8.05

Comprehension-2
An ideal gas (CP/CV = ) is expanded so that the amount of heat transferred to the gas is equal to the
decrease in its internal energy.

Q.51 What is the molar heat capacity of gas in this process?

(A) CV (B) – CV (C) CP (D) 2 CV

Q.52 What is the relationship between temperature and volume of gas in this process ?
(A) T · V2(–1) = constant (B) T · V–1 = constant
(C) T · V(–1)/2 = constant (D) T · V = constant

Q.53 What is the magnitude of work performed by one mole of the gas when its volume increases eight times
if the initial temperature of the gas is 300 K ? CV for the gas is 1.5 R. (R = 2 Cal/mol/K)
(A) 900 Cal (B) 450 Cal (C) 1247.7 Cal (D) 623.8 Cal

Comprehension-3
Two moles of helium gas are taken over the cycle ABCDA, as shown in the P-T diagram.

5 A B
2×10
P(Pa)
5
1×10 D C
T
300K 500K

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Q.54 Assuming the gas to be ideal the work done on the gas in taking it from A to B is –
(A) 200 R (B) 300 R (C) – 400 R (D) 500 R

Q.55 The work done on the gas in taking it from D to A is –

(A) – 414 R (B) + 414 R (C) – 690 R (D) + 690 R

Q.56 The net work done on the gas in the cycle ABCDA is –
(A) Zero (B) – 276 R (C) 1076 R (D) 1904 R

Match the column :

Q.57 Match the column-I with column-II.

Note that column-I may have more than one matching options in column-II.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Reversible adiabatic compression (P) Ssystem > 0
(B) Reversible vaporisation (Q) Ssystem < 0
(C) Adiabatic free expansion of ideal gas in vacuum (R) Ssurrounding < 0
(D) Dissociation of (S) Ssurrounding = 0
CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)

Q.58 Column I Column II

(A) For the process (P) – ve, + ve
A(l)  A(s),H & V may be

(B) A2(s) + B2(g)  C2(s) + D2(s) (Q) + ve, – ve

H & G may be

(C) For the given reaction (R) + ve, + ve

A2(g) B2(g) + C2(g),
Ea(forward)= 50 kJ/mol
and Ea(backward) = 40 kJ/mol ,
at very high temperature H & G are

(D) For the given reaction (S) – ve, – ve

A(g) B(g), at very low temperature
H & G may be

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Q.1 A Q.2 D Q.3 D Q.4 B Q.5 B Q.6 C Q.7 A

Q.8 C Q.9 C Q.10 C Q.11 B Q.12 A Q.13 C Q.14 C

Q.15 A Q.16 D Q.17 A Q.18 D Q.19 C Q.20 A Q.21 A

Q.22 D Q.23 C Q.24 C Q.25 D Q.26 C Q.27 C Q.28 C

Q.29 B Q.30 B Q.31 A Q.32 D Q.33 C Q.34 A Q.35 A

Q.36 A Q.37 A,B,C Q.38 C,D Q.39 A,B,D

Q.40 A,B,D Q.41 A,C Q.42 A,C,D

Q.43 A,C,D Q.44 A,B,D Q.45 B,C,D

Q.46 C Q.47 D Q.48 D Q.49 A Q.50 B Q.51 B Q.52 C

Q.53 A Q.54 C Q.55 B Q.56 B

Q.57 (A)  S (B)  P, R (C)  P, S (D)  P, R

Q.58 (A) P,S (B) P,R,S (C) Q, (D) R,S

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Single correct
Q.1 The rate of a reaction is expressed in different ways as follows :
1 d[C] 1 d[D] 1 d[A] d[B]
   
2 dt 3 dt 4 dt dt
The reaction is:
(A) 4 A + B  2C + 3D (B) B + 3 D  4 A + 2 C
(C) A + B  C + D (D) B + D A + C

Q.2 A reaction follows the given concentration (M)–time graph. The rate for this reaction at 20 seconds will
be:

0.5
0.4
0.3
0.2
0.1

0 20 40 60 80 100
Time/second

(A) 4 × 10–3 M s–1 (B) 8 × 10–2 M s–1 (C) 2 × 10–2 M s–1 (D) 7 × 10–3 M s–1

Q.3 The rate law for a reaction between the substances A and B is given by
rate = k [A]n [B]m
On doubling the concentration of A and halving the concentration of B, the ratio of the new rate to the
earlier rate of the reaction will be as
(A) 2 (n–m) (B) 1 / 2 (m+n) (C) (m + n) (D) (n – m)

Q.4 Two substances A (t 1/2 = 5 min) and B (t 1/2 = 15 min) are taken in such a way that initially
[A] = 4[B]. The time after which both the concentration will be equal is:
(A) 5 min (B) 15 min (C) 20 min (D) concentration can never be equal

Q.5 In a first order reaction, the concentration of the reactant, decreases from 0.8 to 0.4 M in 15 minutes.
The time taken for the concentration to change from 0.1 M to 0.025 M is
(A) 30 minutes (B) 15 minutes (C) 7.5 minutes (D) 60 minutes

Q.6 The rate equation for the reaction 2A + B  C is found to be : rate = k [A] [B]. The correct statement
in relation to this reaction is
(A) unit of k must be s–1
(B) t1/2 is a constant
(C) rate of formation of C is twice the rate of disappearance of A
(D) value of k is independent of the initial concentrations of A and B.

Q.7 t1/4 can be taken as the time taken for the concentration of a reactant to drop to 3/4 of its value. If the
rate constant for a first order reaction is k, the t1/4 can be written as [ln2 = 0.695, ln3 = 1.1]
(A) 0.69 / k (B) 0.75 / k (C) 0.10 / k (D) 0.29 / k

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Q.8 A reaction was found to be second order with respect to the concentration of carbon monoxide. If the
concentration of carbon monoxide is doubled, with everything else kept the same, the rate of reaction will
(A) Double (B) remain unchanged (C) Triple (D) Increase by a factor of 4

Q.9 The energies of activation for forward and reverse reactions for A2 + B2 2AB are 180 kJ mol–1
and 200 kJ mol–1 respectively. The presence of catalyst lowers the activation energies of both (forward
and reverse) reactions by 100 kJ mol–1 . The magnitude of enthalpy change of the reaction
(A2 + B2  2AB) in the presence of catalyst will be (in kJ mol–1).
(A) 300 (B) 120 (C) 20 (D) –20

Q.10 Which graph represents zero order reaction [A(g)  B(g)] :

d[B] t1/2 t3/4

[B] dt
(A) (B) (C) (D)
t t [A]0
[A]0

Q.11 For a hypothetical reaction,

A + 3B  P H = –2 x kJ/mole of A
& M  2Q + R H = + x kJ/mole of M
If these reactions are carried simultaneously in a reactor such that temperature is not changing. If rate of
disappearance of B is y M sec–1 then rate of formation (in M sec–1) of Q is :
2 3 4 3
(A) y (B) y (C) y (D) y
3 2 3 4

Q.12 Gaseous reaction A  B + C follows first order kinetics. Concentration of A changes from 1 M to
0.25 M in 138.6 minutes. Find the rate of reaction when concentration of A is 0.1 M.
(A) 2×10–3 M min–1 (B) 10–3 M min–1 (C) 10–4 M min–1 (D) 5 × 10–4 M min–1

Q.13 The reaction, X + 2Y + Z  N occurs by the following mechanism

(i) X + Y M ........very rapid equilibrium
(ii) M + Z  O ....... slow
(iii) O + Y  N ........ very fast
What is the rate law for this reaction
(A) Rate = k[Z] (B) Rate = k[X] [Y]2 [Z] (C) Rate = [N] (D) Rate = k[X] [Y] [Z]

Q.14 Consider the following first order competing reactions:

k1 2 k
X  A + B and Y  C+D
if 50% of the reaction of X was completed when 96% of the reaction of Y was completed, the ratio of
their rate constants (k2/k1) is
(A) 4.06 (B) 0.215 (C) 1.1 (D) 4.65

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Q.15 Consider the reaction A  B, graph between half life (t1/2) and initial concentration (a) of the
reactant is

t1/2

a
d[ A]
Hence graph between  and time will be
dt

d[ A] d[ A]
(A)  (B) 
dt dt
t

d[A] d[A]
(C)  (D) 
dt dt
t t

Q.16 At certain temperature, the half life period for the thermal decomposition of a gaseous substance depends
on the initial partial pressure of the substance as follows
P(mmHg) 500 250
t1 2 (in min.) 235 950
Find the order of reaction [Given log (23.5) = 1.37 ; log (95) = 1.97; log 2 = 0.30]
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 2.5 (D) 3
Q.17 Consider the reaction :
A  B + C
Initial concentration of A is 1 M. 20 minutes time is required for completion of 20 % reaction.
d[ B]
If = k[A], then half life (t1/2 ) is
dt
(A) 55.44 min. (B) 50 min (C) 62.13 min (D) None of these

Q.18 If decomposition reaction A (g)  B (g) follows first order kinetics then the graph of rate of formation
(R) of B against time t will be

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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Q.19 For the first order decomposition of SO2Cl2(g),
SO2Cl2(g)  SO2(g) + Cl2(g)
a graph of log (a0 – x) vs t is shown in figure. What is the rate constant (sec–1)?
Time (min) 
2 4 6 8 10
(0,0)
| | | | |

log (a0 – x)
-1–

-2–

-3–

(A) 0.2 (B) 4.6 × 10–1 (C) 7.7 × 10–3 (D) 1.15 × 10–2

Q.20 The rate constant for the forward reaction A (g) 2B(g) is 1.5 × 10–3 s–1 at 100 K. If 10–5
moles of A and 100 moles of B are present in a 10 litre vessel at equilibrium then rate constant for the
backward reaction at this temperature is
(A) 1.50× 104 L mol–1 s–1 (B) 1.5 × 1011 L mol–1 s–1
(C) 1.5 × 1010 L mol–1 s–1 (D) 1.5 × 10–11L mol–1 s–1
1 1

Q.21 Reaction A + B  C + D follows following rate law : rate = k [A] 2 [ B] 2 . Starting with initial conc.

of 1 M of A and B each, what is the time taken for concentration of A of become 0.25 M.
Given : k = 2.303 × 10–3 sec–1.
(A) 300 sec. (B) 600 sec. (C) 900 sec. (D) 1200 sec.

Q.22 The variation of concentration of A with time in two experiments starting with two different initial
concentration of A is given in the following graph. The reaction is represented as A(aq) B(aq).
What is the rate of reaction (M/min) when concentration of A in aqueous solution was 1.8 M?

(A) 0.072 M min–1

Concentration(M) 

1.5

(B) 0.036 M min–1

1.2

(C) 0.08 M min–1 1

0.8 Experiment-1
(D) 1 M min–1 0.6 Experiment-2
5 10 15 20
time(min.) 

(2  2 ) 1/ 2
Q.23 For a certain reaction of order n, the time for half change, t1/2 , is given by t 1/2 = C0
k
where k is constant and C0 is the initial concentration. What is n?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 0.5

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Q.24 Given that for a reaction of order n, the integrated form of the rate equation is
1  1 1 
k = t (n  1)  n1  n 1  where C0 and C are the values of the reactant concentration at the start
C C0 
and after time t. What is the relationship between t3/4 and t 1/2 where t 3/4 is the time required for C
to become 1/4 C0 ?
(A) t 3/4 = t 1/2 [2n-1 + 1] (B) t 3/4 = t 1/2 [2n-1 - 1]
n+1
(C) t 3/4 = t 1/2 [2 - 1] (D) t 3/4 = t 1/2 [2n+1 + 1]

Q.25 The time elapsed of a certain between 33% and 67% completion of a first order reaction is 30
minutes. What is the time needed for 25% completion?
(A) 150.5 minutes (B) 125 minutes (C) 180.5 minutes (D) 165.5 minutes

Q.26 A first order reaction is 50% completed in 20 minutes at 27°C and in 5 min at 47°C. The energy of
activation of the reaction is
(A) 43.85 kJ/mol (B) 55.14 kJ/mol (C) 11.97 kJ/mol (D) 6.65 kJ/mol

Q.27 For the first order reaction A — B + C, carried out at 27 ºC if 3.8 × 10–16 % of the reactant molecules
exists in the activated state, the Ea (activation energy) of the reaction is [log 3.8 = 0.58]
(A) 12 kJ/mole (B) 831.4 kJ/mole (C) 100 kJ/mole (D) 88.57 kJ/mole
K
Q.28 A reaction 2A + B  C + D is first order with respect to A and 2nd order with respect to B.
Initial conc. (t = 0) of A is C0 while B is 2C0. If at t as 30 minutes the conc. of C is C0 /4 then rate
expression at t = 30 minutes is :
(A) R = 7 C0 3 k/16 (B) R = 27 C0 3 k / 32
(C) R = 247 C0 3 k / 64 (D) R = 49 k C0 3 / 32

Q.29 The following mechanism has been proposed for the exothermic catalyzed complex reaction.
k k2
A+ B I AB  1 AB + I  P+A
If k1 is much smaller than k2. The most suitable qualitative plot of potential energy (P.E.) versus reaction
coordinate for the above reaction.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.30 The rate of a reaction gets doubled when the temperature changes from 70 C to 170 C. By what
factor will it change for the temperature change from 170 C to 270C?
(A) 1.81 (B) 1.71 (C) 1.91 (D) 1.76

Q.31 For the reaction A + 2B products(started with concentrations taken in stoichiometric proportion),
the experimentally deermined rate law is
d [A]
– = k [A] [B]
dt
The half time of the reaction would be
0.693 0.693 0.693
(A) (B) (C) 2k
(D) not defined
k 1/ k
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More than one may be correct
d[A]
Q.32 For the reaction A  B, the rate law expression is  d t = k [A]1/2. If initial concentration of [A] is

[A]0, then
2 1/ 2
(A) The integerated rate expression is k = ( A 0  A1 / 2 )
t

(B) The graph of A Vs t will be

K
(C) The half life period t1 / 2 =
2[A ]10/ 2
[A]0
(D) The time taken for 75% completion of reaction t 3 / 4 =
k

Q.33 Consider the reaction, –1

10
–2
m in B
k 1= 6.93×
A
k2 =1
3 .8 6 ×
10 –2m
C in –1
A, B and C all are optically active compound . If optical rotation per unit concentration of A, B and C are
60°, –72°, 42° and initial concentration of A is 2 M then select write statement(s).
(A) Solution will be optically active and dextro after very long time
(B) Solution will be optically active and levo after very long time
(C) Half life of reaction is 15 min
(D) After 75% conversion of A into B and C angle of rotation of solution will be 36°.

Q.34 Select incorrect statement(s):

(A) Unit of pre-exponential factor (A) for second order reaction is mol L–1 s–1.
(B) A zero order reaction must be a complex reaction.
(C) Molecularity is defined only for RDS in a complex reaction.
(D) Decay constant () of radioactive substance is affected by temperature.

Q.35 Which of the following is/are correct statement?

(A) Stoichiometry of a reaction tells about the order of the elementary reactions.
(B) For a zero order reaction, rate and the rate constant are identical.
(C) A zero order reaction is controlled by factors other than concentration of reactants.
(D) A zero order reaction is always elementary reaction.

Q.36 Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(A) The order of reaction is the sum of powers of all the concentration terms in the rate equation.
(B) The order of reaction with respect to one reactant is the ratio of the change of logarithm of the rate
of the reaction to the change in the logarithm of the concentration of the particular reactant, keeping the
concentrations of all other reactants constant.
(C) Orders of reactions can not be fractional.
(D) The order of a reaction can only be determined from the stoichiometric equation for the reaction.

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Assertion & Reasoning type questions
Q.37 Statement-1 : A fractional order reaction must be a complex reaction.
Statement-2 : Fractional order of RDS equals to overall order of a complex reaction.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.38 Statement-1 : The time of completion of reactions of type A  product (order <1) may be
determined.
Statement-2 : Reactions with order  1 are either too slow or too fast and hence the time of
completion can not be determined.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.39 Statement-1 : Temperature coefficient of an one step reaction may be negative.

Statement-2 : The rate of reaction having negative order with respect to a reactant decreases
with the increase in concentration of the reactant.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.40 Statement-1 : The overall rate of a reversible reaction may decrease with the increase in
temperature.
Statement-2 : When the activation energy of forward reaction is less than that of backward
reaction, then the increase in the rate of backward reaction is more than that of
forward reaction on increasing the temperature.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.41 Statement-1 : In a reversible endothermic reaction, Eact of forward reaction is higher than that
of backward reaction
Statement-2 : The threshold energy of forward reaction is more than that of backward reaction
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

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Q.42 Statement-1 : A catalyst provides an alternative path to the reaction in which conversion of
reactants into products takes place quickly
Statement-2 : The catalyst forms an activated complex of lower potential energy, with the
reactants by which more number of molecules are able to cross the barrier per
unit of time.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Comprehension
Paragraph for Question Nos. 43 & 44
Oxidation of metals is generally a slow electrochemical reaction involving many steps. These steps involve
electron transfer reactions. A particular type of oxidation involve overall first order kinetics with respect
to fraction of unoxidised metal (1– f ) surface thickness relative to maximum thickness (T) of oxidised
surface, when metal surface is exposed to air for considerable period of time
df
Rate law : = k(1 – f ), where f = x/T,,
dt
x = thickness of oxide film at time 't'
& T = thickness of oxide film at t = 
A graph of ln(1 – f ) vs t is shown in the adjacent figure.

Q.43 The time taken for thickness to grow 50% of 'T' is

(A) 23.1 hrs (B) 46.2 hrs (C) 100 hrs (D) 92.4 hrs

Q.44 The exponential variation of 'f' with t(hrs) is given by

(A) [1  e 3 t / 200 ] (B) e3t / 200  1 (C) e3t / 200 (D) e3t / 200

Paragraph for Question Nos. 45 & 46

k1 1
For a hypothetical elementary reaction where 
k2 2
Initially only 2 moles of A are present.
Q.45 The total number of moles of A, B & C at the end of 50% reaction are
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

Q.46 Number of moles of B are

(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 0.666 (D) 0.333

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 47 & 48
A reaction is said to be first order if it's rate is proportional to the concentration of reactant. Let us
consider a reaction
A(g)  B(g) + C(g)
At t = 0 a 0 0
At time t a–x x x
dx
The rate of reaction is given by the expression = k(a – x) and integrated rate equation for a given
dt

1  a 
reaction is represented as k = ln   where a = initial concentration and (a – x) = concentration
t ax
of A after time t.

Q.47 Thermal decomposition of compound X is a first order reaction. If 75% of X is decomposed in 100
min. How long will it take for 90% of the compound to decompose?
Given : log 2 = 0.30
(A) 190 min (B) 176.66 min (C) 166.66 min (D) 156.66 min

Q.48 Consider a reaction A(g)  3B(g) + 2C(g) with rate constant 1.386 × 10–2 min–1. Starting with
2 moles of A in 12.5 litre vessel initially, if reaction is allowed to takes place at constant pressure & at
298K then find the concentration of B after 100 min.
(A) 0.04 M (B) 0.36 M (C) 0.09 M (D) None of these

Paragraph for Question Nos. 49 to 51

The gaseous reaction : n1A (g)  n2B (g) is first order with respect to A. The true rate constant of
reaction is k. The reaction is studied at a constant pressure and temperature. Initially, the moles of A
were 'a' and no B were present.
Q.49 How many moles of A are present at time, t?
(A) a · e–kt (B) a · e  n1kt (C) a · e  n 2 kt (D) a (1  e  n1kt )

Q.50 If the initial volume of system were v0, then the volume of system after time, t, will be
n1 v 0 n 2v0
(A) n (B) n
2 1

 n 2  n 2  n1kt   n 2  n 2  n1kt 
(C) v 0  n  1  n  · e  (D) v 0  n   n  1 · e 
 1  1    1  1  

Q.51 What will be the concentration of A at time t, if n1 = 1 and n2 = 2?

 e  kt   e  kt 
(A) [A0] · e–kt (B) 0 
[ A ] 
 kt  (C) 0 
[ A ] 
 kt  (D) [A0] (1–2 · e–kt )
2e  1 e 

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 52 & 53
For the given sequential reaction
k1 k2
A  B  C
the concentration of A, B & C at any time 't' is given by
k1[A ]0
[A]t = [A]0 e  k1t ; 
[B]t = (k  k ) e  k1t  e  k 2 t
2 1

[C]t = [A0] – ( [A]t + [B]t )
Q.52 The time at which concentration of B is maximum is
k1 1 k1 1 k1 k2
(A) k  k (B) k  k ln k (C) k  k ln k (D) k  k
2 1 2 1 2 1 2 2 2 1
Q.53 Select the correct option if k1 = 1000 s–1 and k2 = 20 s–1.

[C]t

Conc.
[C]t
conc.

(A) [B]t
(B)
[B] t [A]t
[A]t
time time

[C]t [C]t
Conc.

Conc.

[B] t [B]t
(C) (D)
[A] t [A] t

time time
Q.54 For the reaction of type A(g)  2B(g)
Column-I contains four entries and column-II contains four entries. Entry of column-I are to be matched
with ONLY ONE ENTRY of column-II
Column I Column II

d[ B]  d[ A]
(A) vs for first order (P)
dt dt

(B) [A] vs t for first order (Q)

(C) [B] vs t for first order (R)

(D) [A] vs t for zero order (S)

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Q.55 Column-I and column-II. Entry of column-I are to be matched with ONE OR MORE THAN ONE
ENTRIES of column-II and vice versa.
Column I Column II
(Graphs reaction A Products) (Co-ordinates)

(A) (P) ln [A] (y-axis), t (x-axis) (order = 1)

(B) (Q) t1/2 (y-axis), [A0] (x-axis) (order = 1)

(C) (R) r (y-axis), t (x-axis) (order = 0)

(D) (S) t1/2 (y-axis), [A0] (x-axis) (order > 1)

(T) r (y-axis), [A] (x-axis) (order = 1)

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Q.1 B Q.2 D Q.3 A Q.4 B Q.5 A Q.6 D Q.7 D

Q.8 D Q.9 C Q.10 D Q.11 C Q.12 B Q.13 D Q.14 D

Q.15 C Q.16 D Q.17 C Q.18 C Q.19 C Q.20 D Q.21 B

Q.22 A Q.23 D Q.24 A Q.25 B Q.26 B Q.27 C Q.28 D

Q.29 A Q.30 C Q.31 C Q.32 A,B,D Q.33 A,D Q.34 A,C,D

Q.35 A,B,C Q.36 C,D Q.37 C Q.38 C Q.39 D Q.40 A Q.41 C

Q.42 A Q.43 B Q.44 A Q.45 B Q.46 C Q.47 C Q.48 C

Q.49 B Q.50 D Q.51 B Q.52 C Q.53 C

Q.54 (A) S, (B) R, (C) P, (D) Q Q.55 (A) P (B) Q,R (C) S (D) T

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Single correct
Q.1 One gm metal M+2 was discharged by the passage of 1.81 × 1022 electrons. What is the atomic weight
of metal?
(A) 33.35 (B) 133.4 (C) 66.7 (D) 55

Q.2 One mole of electron passes through each of the solution of AgNO3, CuSO4 and AlCl3 when Ag, Cu
and Al are deposited at cathode. The molar ratio of Ag, Cu and Al deposited are
(A) 1 : 1 : 1 (B) 6 : 3 : 2 (C) 6 : 3 : 1 (D) 1 : 3 : 6

Q.3 Salts of A (atomic weight = 7), B (atomic weight =27) and C (atomic weight = 48) were electrolysed
under identical conditions using the same quantity of electricity. It was found that when 2.1 g of Awas
deposited, the weights of B and C deposited were 2.7 and 7.2 g. The valencies of A, B and C
respectively are
(A) 3, 1 and 2 (B) 1, 3 and 2 (C) 3, 1 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 2

Q.4 The density of Cu is 8.94 g cm–3. The quantity of electricity needed to plate an area 10 cm × 10 cm to
a thickness of 10–2 cm using CuSO4 solution would be
(A) 13586 C (B) 27172 C (C) 40758 C (D) 20348 C

Q.5 The reduction potential values are given below

Al3+/Al = –1.67 volt,Mg2+/Mg = –2.34 volt Cu2+/Cu = +0.34 volt
I2/2I¯ = +0.53 volt. Which one is the best reducing agent ?
(A) Al (B) Mg (C) Cu (D) I2

Q.6 During electrolysis of an aqueous solution of CuSO4 using copper electrodes, if 2.5 g of Cu is deposited
at cathode, then at anode
(A) 890 ml of Cl2 at STP is liberated (B) 445 ml of O2 at STP is liberated
(C) 2.5 g of copper is deposited (D) a decrease of 2.5 g of mass takes place

Q.7 The charge required for the oxidation of one mole Mn3O4 into MnO 24 in presence of alkaline medium is
(A) 5 × 96500 C (B) 96500 C (C) 10 × 96500 C (D) 2 × 96500 C

Q.8 A current of 9.65 ampere is passed through the aqueous solution NaCl using suitable electrodes for
1000 s. The amount of NaOH formed during electrolysis is
(A) 2.0 g (B) 4.0 g (C) 6.0 g (D) 8.0 g

Q.9 When an aqueous solution of lithium chloride is electrolysed using graphite electrodes
(A) Cl2 is liberated at the anode.
(B) Li is deposited at the cathode
(C) as the current flows, pH of the solution around the cathode remains constant
(D) as the current flows, pH of the solution around the cathode decreases.

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Q.10 The standard reduction potentials E° of the following systems are
System E° (volts)
(i) MnO4¯ + 8H+ + 5e  2+
 Mn + 4H2O 1.51
(ii) Sn4+ + 2e 
 Sn
2+
0.15
(iii) Cr2 O72– + 14H+ + 6e  3+
 2Cr + 7H2O 1.33
(iv) Ce4+ + e   Ce
3+
1.61
The oxidising power of the various species decreases in the order
(A) Ce4+ > Cr2 O72– > Sn4+ > MnO4¯ (B) Ce4+ > MnO4¯ > Cr2 O72– > Sn4+
(C) Cr2O72– > Sn4+ > Ce4+ > MnO4¯ (D) MnO4¯ > Ce4+ > Sn4+ > Cr2 O72–

Q.11 If the pressure of H2 gas is increased from 1 atm to 100 atm keeping H+ concentration constant at 1 M,
the change in reduction potential of hydrogen half cell at 25°C will be
(A) 0.059 V (B) 0.59 V (C) 0.0295 V (D) 0.118 V

Q.12 The equilibrium constant for the reaction

 Sr+2 (aq) + Mg(s) is 2.69 × 1012 at 25°C
Sr(s) + Mg+2 (aq) 
The E° for a cell made up of the Sr/Sr+2 and Mg+2/Mg half cells
(A) 0.3667 V (B) 0.7346 V (C) 0.1836 V (D) 0.1349 V

Q.13 A silver wire dipped in 0.1 M HCl solution saturated with AgCl develops oxidation potential of –0.25 V.
If E  = – 0.799 V, the Ksp of AgCl in pure water will be
Ag / Ag 
(A) 2.95 × 10–11 (B) 5.1 × 10–11 (C) 3.95 × 10–11 (D) 1.95 × 10–11

Q.14 Consider the reaction of extraction of gold from its ore

1 1
Au + 2CN– (aq.) + O2 (g) + H2O  Au (CN ) 2 + OH–
4 2
Use the following data to calculate G° for the reaction
Kf {Au (CN ) 2 } = X
O2 + 2H2O + 4e–  4OH– ; E° = + 0.41 volt
Au3+ + 3e–  Au ; E° = + 1.5 volt
Au3+ + 2e–  Au+ ; E° = + 1.4 volt
(A) – RT ln X + 1.29 F (B) – RT ln X – 2.11 F
1
(C) – RT ln + 2.11 F (D) – RT ln X – 1.29 F
X
Q.15 Consider the following Galvanic cell.

By what value the cell voltage change when concentration of ions in anodic and cathodic compartments
both increased by factor of 10 at 298 K
(A) +0.0591 (B) –0.0591 (C) –0.1182 (D) 0
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Q.16 For the cell
Pt | H2(0.4 atm) | H+(pH=1) || H+(pH = 2) | H2 (0.1 atm) | Pt
The measured potential at 25°C is
(A) –0.1 V (B) –0.5 (C) –0.041 (D) none
o
Q.17 For the fuel cell reaction 2H2(g) + O2(g)  2H2O(l) ;  f H 298 (H 2O, l ) = –285.5 kJ/mol

What is So298 for the given fuel cell reaction?

Given: O2(g) + 4H+(aq) + 4e–  2H2O(l) E° = 1.23 V
(A) – 0.322 J/K (B) – 0.635 kJ/K (C) 3.51 kJ/K (D) – 0.322 kJ/K

Q.18 The standard reduction potentials of Cu2+/ Cu and Cu2+ / Cu+ are 0.337 and 0.153 V respectively. The
standard electrode potential of Cu+ / Cu half cell is
(A) 0.184 V (B) 0.827 V (C) 0.521 V (D) 0.490 V

Q.19 A hydrogen electrode X was placed in a buffer solution of sodium acetate and acetic acid in the ratio
a : b and another hydrogen electrode Y was placed in a buffer solution of sodium acetate and acetic acid
in the ratio b : a. If reduction potential values for two cells are found to be E1 and E2 respectively w.r.t.
standard hydrogen electrode, the pKa value of the acid can be given as
E1  E 2 E 2  E1 E1  E 2 E1  E 2
(A) (B) (C)  (D)
0.118 0.118 0.118 0.118

Q.20 The resistance of 0.5 M solution of an electrolyte in a cell was found to be 50 . If the electrodes in the
cell are 2.2 cm apart and have an area of 4.4 cm2 t hen the molar conductivity
(in S m2 mol–1) of the solution is
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.02 (C) 0.002 (D) None of these

Q.21 Equivalent conductance of 0.1 M HA(weak acid) solution is 10 Scm2equivalent–1 and that at infinite
dilution is 200 Scm2equivalent–1 Hence pH of HA solution is
(A) 1.3 (B) 1.7 (C) 2.3 (D) 3.7

Q.22 If x is specific resistance of the electrolyte solution and y is the molarity of the solution, then ^m is given
by
1000 x y 1000 xy
(A) (B) 1000 (C) (D)
y x xy 1000

Q.23 The dissociation constant of n-butyric acid is 1.6 × 10–5 and the molar conductivity at infinite dilution is
380 × 10–4 Sm2mol–1. The specific conductance of the 0.01 M acid solution is
(A) 1.52 × 10–5 Sm–1 (B) 1.52 × 10–2 Sm–1
–3
(C) 1.52 × 10 Sm –1 (D) None

Q.24 The conductivity of a saturated solution of Ag3PO4 is 9 × 10–6 S m–1 and its equivalent conductivity is
1.50 × 10–4 S m2 equivalent–1. The Ksp of Ag3PO4 is
(A) 4.32 × 10–18 (B) 1.8 ×10–9 (C) 8.64 × 10–13 (D) None of these

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Q.25 A saturated solution in AgA (Ksp = 3×10–14) and AgB (Ksp = 1×10–14) has conductivity of
375 × 10–10 Scm–1 and limiting molar conductivity of Ag+ and A¯ are 60 Scm2 mol–1 and
80 Scm2 mol–1 respectively then what will be the limiting molar conductivity of B¯ (in Scm2 mol–1)
(A) 150 (B) 180 (C) 190 (D) 270
Q.26 Equal volumes of 0.015 M CH3COOH & 0.015 M NaOH are mixed together. What would be molar
conductivity of mixture if conductivity of CH3COONa is 6.3 ×10–4 S cm–1
(A) 8.4 S cm2 mol–1 (B) 84 S cm2 mol–1
(C) 4.2 S cm2 mol–1 (D) 42 S cm2 mol–1

More than one may be correct

Q.27 During discharging of lead storage battery, which of the following is/are true ?
(A) H2SO4 is produced
(B) H2O is consumed
(C) PbSO4 is formed at both electrodes
(D) Density of electrolytic solution decreases

Q.28 Which of the following arrangement will produce oxygen at anode during electrolysis ?
(A) Dilute H2SO4 solution with Cu electrodes.
(B) Dilute H2SO4 solution with inert electrodes.
(C) Fused NaOH with inert electrodes.
(D) Dilute NaCl solution with inert electrodes.

Q.29 If 270.0 g of water is electrolysed during an experiment performed by miss Abhilasha with 75% current
efficiency then
(A) 168 L of O2 (g) will be evolved at anode at 1 atm & 273 K
(B) Total 504 L gases will be produced at 1 atm & 273 K.
(C) 336 L of H2 (g) will be evolved at anode at 1 atm & 273 K
(D) 45 F electricity will be consumed

Q.30 Pick out the correct statements among the following from inspection of standard reduction potentials
(Assume standard state conditions).
 2Cl–(aq.)
Cl 2 (aq.) + 2e  E oCl  = + 1.36 volt
2 / Cl

 2Br–(aq.)
Br2 (aq.) + 2e  E oBr  = + 1.09 volt
2 / Br

I2(s) + 2e  2I– (aq.)

 E oI  = + 0.54 volt
2 /I

 2SO 24  (aq.)

S2O82 (aq.) + 2e  ESo 2 2
= + 2.00 volt
2O8 / SO 4

(A) Cl2 can oxidise SO 24  from solution

(B) Cl2 can oxidise Br– and I– from aqueous solution
(C) S2O82 can oxidise Cl–, Br– and I– from aqueous solution
(D) S2O82– is added slowly, Br– can be reduce in presence of Cl–

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Q.31 The EMF of the following cell is 0.22 volt.
Ag(s) | AgCl(s) | KCl (1M) | H+(1M) | H2(g) (1atm) ; Pt(s).
Which of the following will decrease the EMF of cell.
(A) increasing pressure of H2(g) from 1 atm to 2 atm
(B) increasing Cl– concentration in Anodic compartment
(C) increasing H+ concentration in cathodic compartment
(D) decreasing KCl concentration in Anodic compartment.

Assertion & Reasoning type questions

Q.32 Statement -1 : The voltage of mercury cell remains constant for long period of time.
Statement -2 : It is because net cell reaction does not involve active species.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.33 Statement -1 : The SRP of three metallic ions A+,B2+, C3+ are –0.3, –0.5, 0.8 volt respectively, so
oxidising power of ions is C3+ > A+ > B2+.
Statement -2 : Higher the SRP, higher the oxidising power.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.34 Statement -1 : We can add the electrode potential in order to get electrode potential of net reaction.
Statement -2 : Electrode potential is an intensive property.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Comprehension
Paragraph for Question Nos. 35 to 37
A sample of water from a large swimming pool has a resistance of 10000  at 25°C when placed in a
certain conductance cell. When filled with 0.02 M KCl solution, the cell has a resistance of 100  at
25°C. 585 gm of NaCl were dissolved in the pool, which was throughly stirred. A sample of this solution
gave a resistance of 8000 . [Given : Molar conductance of NaCl at that concentration is 125  –1
cm2 mol–1 and molar conductivity of KCl at 0.02 M is 200  –1 cm2 mol–1.]

Q.35 Cell constant (in cm–1) of conductance cell is:

(A) 4 (B) 0.4 (C) 4 ×10–2 (D) 4 ×10–5

Q.36 Conductivity (Scm–1) of H2O is:

(A) 4 × 10–2 (B) 4 × 10–3 (C) 4 × 10–5 (D) None of these

Q.37 Volume (in Litres) of water in the pool is:

(A) 1.25 × 105 (B) 1250 (C) 12500 (D) None of these
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Paragraph for Question Nos. 38 & 39

Copper reduces NO3 into NO and NO2 depending upon conc. of HNO3 in solution. Assuming
[Cu2+] = 0.1 M, and PNO= PNO =10–3 atm and using given data answer the following questions:
2

Eo = + 0.34 volt
Cu 2  / Cu

Eo = + 0.96 volt
NO3 / NO

Eo = + 0.79 volt
NO3 / NO2

RT
at 298 K (2.303) = 0.06 volt
F

Q.38 ECell for reduction of NO3  NO by Cu(s), when [HNO3] = 1M is [At T = 298]
(A) ~ 0.61 (B) ~ 0.71 (C) ~ 0.51 (D) ~ 0.81

Q.39 At what HNO3 concentration thermodynamic tendency for reduction of NO 3 into NO and NO2 by
copper is same?
(A) 101.23 M (B) 100.56 M (C) 100.66 M (D) 100.12 M

Match the column

Q.40 Column I Column II
(Electrolysis product using inert electrode)

(A) Dilute solution of HCl (P) O2 evolved at anode

(B) Dilute solution of NaCl (Q) H2 evolved at cathode

(C) Concentrated solution of NaCl (R) Cl2 evolved at anode

(D) AgNO3 solution (S) Ag deposition at cathode

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Q.1 C Q.2 B Q.3 B Q.4 B Q.5 B Q.6 D Q.7 C

Q.8 B Q.9 A Q.10 B Q.11 A Q.12 A Q.13 B Q.14 A

Q.15 C Q.16 C Q.17 D Q.18 C Q.19 C Q.20 C Q.21 C

Q.22 C Q.23 B Q.24 A Q.25 D Q.26 B Q.27 C, D

Q.28 B, C, D Q.29 A, B Q.30 B, C Q.31 A, D Q.32 A Q.33 A

Q.34 D Q.35 B Q.36 C Q.37 A Q.38 B Q.39 C

Q.40 (A) P, Q (B) P, Q (C) Q, R, (D) P,S

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Single correct

Q.1 Osmotic pressure of 30% solution of glucose is 1.20 atm and that of 3.42% solution of cane sugar
is 2.5 atm. The osmotic pressure of the mixture containing equal volumes of the two solutions will
be
(A) 2.5 atm (B) 3.7 atm (C) 1.85 atm (D) 1.3 atm.

Q.2 Mole fraction of A vapours above the solution in mixture of A and B (XA = 0.4) will be
[Given : PA = 100 mm Hg and PB = 200 mm Hg]
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.8 (C) 0.25 (D) none of these
Q.3 The exact mathematical expression of Raoult’s law is

P 0  Ps n P 0  Ps N P 0  Ps n P 0  Ps
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) =n×N
P0 N P0 n Ps N P0

Q.4 A mixture contains 1 mole of volatile liquid A ( PA =100 mm Hg) and 3 moles of volatille liquid
B ( PB = 80 mm Hg). If solution behaves ideally, the total vapour pressure of the distillate is
(A) 85 mm Hg (B) 85.88 mm Hg (C) 90 mm Hg (D) 92 mm Hg
Q.5 Relative decrease in vapour pressure of an aqueous solution containing 2 moles [Cu(NH3)3 Cl] Cl in 3
moles H2O is 0.50. On reaction with AgNO3, this solution will form
(A) 1 mol AgCl (B) 0.25 mol AgCl (C) 2 mol AgCl (D) 0.40 mol AgCl

Q.6 The van't Hoff factor i for an infinitely dilute solution of NaHSO4 is
(A) 1/ 2 (B) 1/ 3 (C) 3 (D) 2

Q.7 Barium ions, CN¯ and Co2+ form an ionic complex. If that complex is supposed to be 75% ionised in
water with vant Hoff factor ‘ i ’ equal to four, then the coordination number of Co2+ in the complex can
be :
(A) Six (B) Five (C) Four (D) Six and Four both

Q.8 A 0.001 molal solution of a complex [MA8] in water has the freezing point of –0.0054°C. Assuming
100% ionization of the complex salt and Kf for H2O = 1.86 km–1, write the correct representation for
the complex
(A) [MA8] (B) [MA7]A (C) [MA6]A2 (D) [MA5]A3

Q.9 The vapour pressure of a solution of a non-volatile electrolyte B in a solvent A is 95% of the vapour
pressure of the solvent at the same temperature. If the molecular weight of the solvent is 0.3 times the
molecular weight of solute, the weight ratio of the solvent and solute are
(A) 0.15 (B) 5.7 (C) 0.2 (D) 4.0

Q.10 At a given temperature, total vapour pressure in Torr of a mixture of volatile components A and B is
given by
PTotal = 120 – 75 XB
hence, vapour pressure of pure A and B respectively (in Torr) are
(A) 120, 75 (B) 120, 195 (C) 120, 45 (D) 75, 45

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Q.11 Assuming each salt to be 90 % dissociated, which of the following will have highest boiling point?
(A) Decimolar Al2(SO4)3 (B) Decimolar BaCl2
(C) Decimolar Na2SO4
(D) A solution obtained by mixing equal volumes of (B) and (C)

Q.12 The vapour pressure of a solvent decreased by 10 mm of Hg when a non-volatile solute was added to
the solvent. The mole fraction of solute in solution is 0.2, what would be mole fraction of the solvent if
decrease in vapour pressure is 20 mm of Hg
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.4 (C) 0.6 (D) 0.8

Q.13 Elevation of boiling point of molar aqueous glucose solution (density = 1.2 g/ml) is
(A) Kb (B) 1.20 Kb (C) 1.02 Kb (D) 0.98 Kb

Q.14 A solute’S’ undergoes a reversible trimerization when dissolved in a certain solvent. The boiling
point elevation of its 0.1 molal solution was found to be identical to the boiling point elevation in
case of a 0.08 molal solution of a solute which neither undergoes association nor dissociation. To
what percent had the solute ‘S’ undergone trimerization?
(A) 30% (B) 40% (C) 50% (D) 60%

Q.15 1.0 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte A2B3 is 60% ionised. The boiling point of the solution at 1
1
atm is ( K b( H 2O)  0.52 K kg mol )
(A) 274.76 K (B) 377 K (C) 376.4 K (D) 374.76 K

Q.16 Which of the following plots represents an ideal binary mixture?

(A) Plot of Ptotal v/s 1/XB is linear (XB = mole fraction of 'B' in liquid phase).
(B) Plot of Ptotal v/s YA is linear (YB = mole fraction of 'A' in vapour phase)
1 1
(C) Plot of P v/s YA is linear (D) Plot of P v/s YB is non linear
total total
Q.17 x mole of KCI and y mole of BaCl2 are both dissolved in 1 kg of water. Given that x + y = 0.1 and Kf for
water is 1.85 K/molal, what is the observed range of Tf, if the ratio of x to y is varied ?
(A) 0.370 to 0.550 (B) 0.1850 to 0.930 (C) 0.560 to 0.930 (D) 0.370 to 0.930

Q.18 Two liquids A & B form an ideal solution. What is the vapour pressure of solution containing 2 moles of
A and 3 moles of B at 300 K? [Given : At 300 K, Vapour pr. of pure liquid A ( PAo ) = 100 torr,,
Vapour pr. of pure liquid B ( PBo ) = 300 torr ]
(A) 200 torr (B) 140 torr (C) 180 torr (D) None of these

Q.19 A solution of x moles of sucrose in 100 grams of water freezes at -0.20C. As ice separates the freezing
point goes down to -0.250C. How many grams of ice would have separated?
(A) 18 grams (B) 20 grams (C) 25 grams (D) 23 grams

Q.20 FeCl3 on reaction with K4[Fe(CN)6] in aqueous solution gives blue

colour. These are separated by a semipermeable membrane AB as
shown. Due to osmosis there is
(A) blue colour formation in side X.
(B) blue colour formation in side Y.
(C) blue colour formation in both of the sides X and Y.
(D) no blue colour formation.
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Q.21 A liquid mixture having composition corresponding to point z in the figure
shown is subjected to distillation at constant pressure. Which of the
following statement is correct about the process
(A) The composition of distillate differs from the mixture
(B) The boiling point goes on changing
(C) The mixture has highest vapour pressure than for any other
composition.
(D) Composition of an azeotrope alters on changing the external pressure.

Q.22 The vapour pressure of a saturated solution of sparingly soluble salt (XCl3) was 17.20 mm Hg at
27°C. If the vapour pressure of pure H2O is 17.25 mm Hg at 300 K, what is the solubility of
sparingly soluble salt XCl3 in mole/Litre.
(A) 4.04 × 10–2 (B) 8.08 ×10–2 (C) 2.02 × 10–2 (D) 4.04 × 10–3

Q.23 At 300 K, the vapour pressure of an ideal solution containing 3 mole of A and 2 mole of B is 600 torr. At
the same temperature, if 1.5 mole of A & 0.5 mole of C (non-volatile) are added to this solution the
vapour pressure of solution increases by 30 torr. What is the value of PBo ?
(A) 940 (B) 405 (C) 90 (D) none of these

Q.24 The following graph represents variation of boiling point with composition of liquid and vapours ofbinary
liquid mixture. The graph is plotted at constant pressure.
Which of the following statement(s) is incorrect. Here X & Y stands for mole fraction in liquid and
vapour phase respectively

(A) Xbenzene = 0.5 and Ytoluene = 0.2 (B) Xtoluene = 0.3 and Ybenzene = 0.6
(C) Xbenzene = 0.3 and Ytoluene = 0.4 (D) if Xbenzene = 0.7 than Ytoluene < 0.3

Q.25 The freezing point depression of a 0.1 M aq. solution of weak acid (HX) is –0.20°C.
What is the value of equilibrium constant for the reaction?
 H +(aq) + X¯ (aq)
HX (aq) 
[Given : Kf for water = 1.8 kg mol–1 K. & Molality = Molarity ]
(A) 1.46×10–4 (B) 1.35 × 10–3 (C) 1.21 × 10–2 (D) 1.35 × 10–4

Q.26 The vapour pressure of an aqueous solution is found to be 750 torr at certain temperature 'T'. If 'T' is the
temperature at which pure water boils under atmospheric pressure and same solution show elevation in
boiling point Tb = 1.04 K, find the atmospheric pressure (Kb = 0.52 K kg mol–1 )
(A) 777 (B) 779 (C) 782 (D) 746

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Q.27 At 323 K, the vapour pressure in millimeters of mercury of a methanol-ethanol solution is represented by
pA
the equation p = 120 XA + 140, where XA is the mole fraction of methanol. Then the value of xlim
A 1 X
is
A

(A) 250 mm (B) 140 mm (C) 260 mm (D) 20 mm

Q.28 Assuming the formation of an ideal solution, determine the boiling point of a mixture containing
1560 g benzene (molar mass = 78) and 1125 g chlorobenzene (molar mass = 112.5) using the
following against an external pressure of 1000 Torr.

benzene
2200
1800
Vapour 1350 chlorobenzene
Pressure
1000
540
400
300
200
90 100 110 120
t(cº)

(A) 90ºC (B) 100ºC (C) 110º (D) 120ºC

Q.29 The vapor pressures of benzene, toluene and a xylene are 75 Torr, 22 Torr and 10 Torr at 20ºC.
Which of the following is not a possible value of the vapor pressure of an equimolar binary/ternary
solution of these at 20ºC ? Assume all form ideal solution with each other.
1 2 1
(A) 48 (B) 16 (C) 35 (D) 53
2 3 2

Q.30 Observe the P-T phase diagram for a given substance A. Then melting point of A(s), boiling point ofA(l),
critical point of A and triple point of A (at their respective pressures) are respectively.

(A) T1, T2, T3, T4 (B) T4, T3, T1, T2 (C) T3, T4, T2, T1 (D) T2, T1, T3, T4

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Q.31 Consider two liquids A & B having pure vapour pressures PA & PB forming an ideal solution.

1 1
The plot of v/s (where XA and YA are the mole fraction of liquid A in liquid and vapour phase
XA YA
respectively) is linear with slope and Y intercepts respectively :

(PAº  PBº ) (PBº  PAº )

(A) PAº / PBº and (B) PAº / PBº and
PBº PBº

(PAº  PBº ) (PBº  PAº )

(C) PBº / PAº and (D) PBº / PAº and
PBº PBº
Q.32 Given P-x curve for a non-ideal liquid mixture (Fig.1). Identify the correct T-x curve for the same
mixture.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.33 When 100 ml of 0.2M BaCl2 (aq) is added to 100ml of 0.2M K2SO4 solution, _______of K2SO4
solution is lowered. Assume 100% dissociation of soluble salts and 100% precipitation of insoluble
ones.
(A) Freezing point (B) Boiling point (C) Vapour pressure (D)Osmotic pressure

Q.34 Solubility curves of four ionic salts X, Y, Z, W are given below :

In which case the value of DHsol. < 0

(A) X (B) Y (C) Z (D) W.
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Q.35 The diagram given below represents boiling point composition diagram of solution of component A
and B, what is true among the following?

(A) The solution shows negative deviation

(B) A-B-interactions are stronger than A-A and B-B
(C) The solution is ideal solution
(D) The solution shows positive deviation.

Q.36 Two elements A and B form compounds having molecular formulae AB2 and AB4. When dissolved
in 20.0 g of Benzene, 1.00 g of AB2 lowers f.p. by 2.3ºC whereas 1.00 g of AB4 lowers f.p. by
1.3ºC. The molal depression constant for benzene is 5.1. The atomic masses of A and B are
respectively
(A) can't be predicted (B) 42.6, 25.5 (C) 30.60 (D) 25.5, 42.6

Q.37 Two beakers, one containing 20 ml of a 0.05 M aqueous solution of a non volatile, non electrolyte and
the other, the same volume of 0.03 M aqueous solution of NaCl, are placed side by side in a closed
enclose. What are the volumes in the two beakers when equation is attached ? Volume of the solution in
the first and second beaker are respectively.
(A) 21.8 ml and 18.2 mL (B) 18.2 mL and 21.8 mL
(C) 20 mL and 20 mL (D) 17.1 mL and 22.9 mL

Q.38 Insulin (C2H10O5)n is dissolved in a suitable solvent and the osmotic pressure p of the solution of
various concentration (in kg/m3) is measured at 20ºC. The slope of a plot of p against c is found to be
8.134 × 10–3 (SI units) The molecular weight of the insulin (in kg/mol) is :
(A) 4.8 × 105 (B) 9 × 105 (C) 293 × 103 (D) 8.314 × 105

Q.39 When only a little quantity of HgCl2(s) is added to excess KI(aq) to obtain a clear solution, which of the
following is true for this solution? (no volume change on mixing)
(A) Its boiling and freezing points remain same (B) Its boiling point is lowered
(C) Its freezing point is raised (D) Its boiling point is raised
(E) Its freezing point is lowered.

Q.40 An ideal mixture of liquids A and B with 2 moles of A and 2 moles of B has a total vapour pressure of 1
atm at a certain temperature. Another mixture with 1 mole of A and 3 moles of B has a vapour pressure
greater than 1 atm. But if 4 moles of C are added to the second mixture, the vapour pressure comes
down to 1 atm. Vapour pressure of C, Pc0 = 0.8 atm. Calculate the vapour pressures of pure A and pure B.
(A) PA0 = 1.4 atm, PB0 = 0.7 atm (B) PA0 = 1.2 atm, PB0 = 0.6 atm
0 0
(C) PA = 1.4 atm, PB = 0.6 atm (D) PA0 = 0.6 atm, PB0 = 1.4 atm

Question No. 41 to 43 (3 questions)

The partial vapour pressure of any volatile component of an ideal solution is equal to the vapour pressure
of the pure component multiplied by the mole fraction of that component in the solution

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Q.41 At a temperature, total pressure in Torr of a mixture of volatile components A and B is given by
P = 120 – 75 XB
hence, vapour pressure of pure A and B respectively (in Torr) are:
(A) 120, 75 (B) 120, 195 (C) 120, 45 (D) 75, 45

Q.42 A mixture contains 1 mol volatile liquid A ( p oA =100 mm Hg) and 3 mol volatile liquid B ( poB = 80 mm
Hg). If solution behave ideally, total vapour pressure of the distillate is approximately:
(A) 85 mm Hg (B) 86 mm Hg (C) 90 mm Hg (D) 92 mm Hg

Q.43 Moles of K2SO4 to be dissolved in 12 mol water to lower its vapour pressure by 10 mm Hg at a
temperature at which vapour pressure of pure water is 50 m Hg is:
(A) 3 mol (B) 2 mol (C) 1 mol (D) 0.5 mol

Question No. 44 to 50 (7 questions)

Figure explains elevation in boiling point when a non-volatile solute is added to a solvent.

Atmospheric Pressure
1 atm A B

PSolvent
Vapour Pressure

PSolution Tb
T0 T
Temperature

Variation of vapour pressure with temperature and showing elevation in boiling point.
Q.44 Given that Tb is the elevation in boiling point of the solvent in a solution of molality ‘m’ then

Lt  Tb  is equal to:

m 0  m 
 
(A) Kb (molal elevation constant) (B) Lv (latent heat of vaporisation)
(C) S (entropy change) (D) x (mole fraction of solute)

Q.45 Elevation in b.p. of an aqueous urea solution is 0.52°. (Kb = 0.52° mol–1 kg). Hence, mole fraction of
urea in this solution is:
(A) 0.982 (B) 0.0567 (C) 0.943 (D) 0.018

Q.46 A complex of iron and cyanide ions is 100% ionised at 1 m (molal). if its elevation in b.p. is 2.08°
(Kb = 0.52° mol–1 kg) then the complex is:
(A) K3[Fe(CN)6] (B) Fe(CN)2 (C) K4[Fe(CN)6] (D) Fe(CN)4

Q.47 Select correct statement:

(A) Heats of vaporisation for a pure solvent and for a solution are similar because similar intermolecular
forces between solvent molecules must be overcome in both cases.
(B) Entropy change between solution and vapour is similar than the entropy change between pure solvent
and vapour
(C) Boiling point of the solution is larger than that of the pure solvent
(D) All are correct statements

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Q.48 Consider following terms:
Tb
(I) mKb (II) mKbi (III) (IV) Kb
i
Terms which can be expressed in degree (temperature) are:
(A) III, IV (B) I, II (C) I, II, III (D) I, III

Q.49 Ratio of Tb/Kb of 6% AB2 and 9% A2B (AB2 and A2 B both are non-electrolytes) is 1 mol/kg in both
cases. Hence atomic masses of A and B are respectively:
(A) 60, 90 (B) 40, 40 (C) 40, 10 (D) 10, 40

Q.50 Which represents correct difference?

(I) (II)

(III)

(A) I, II, III (B) I, III (C) II, III (D) I, II

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Q.1 C Q.2 C Q.3 C Q.4 B Q.5 A Q.6 C Q.7 B

Q.8 C Q.9 B Q.10 C Q.11 A Q.12 C Q.13 D Q.14 A

Q.15 D Q.16 C Q.17 A Q.18 D Q.19 B Q.20 D Q.21 D

Q.22 A Q.23 C Q.24 B Q.25 B Q.26 A Q.27 C Q.28 B

Q.29 D Q.30 C Q.31 B Q.32 B Q.33 C Q.34 A Q.35 D

Q.36 D Q.37 A Q.38 C Q.39 B Q.40 D Q.41 C Q.42 B

Q.43 C Q.44 A Q.45 D Q.46 A Q.47 D Q.48 C Q.49 C

Q.50 A

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Single correct

Q.1 In a face centred lattice of X and Y, X atoms are present at the corners while Y atoms are at face centres.
Then the formula of the compound would be if one of the X atoms is missing from a corner in each unit
cell
(A) X7Y24 (B) X24Y7 (C) XY24 (D) X24Y

Q.2 The density of CaF2 (fluorite structure) is 3.18 g/cm3. The length of the side of the unit cell is
(A) 253 pm (B) 344 pm (C) 546 pm (D) 273 pm

Q.3 Which of the following statements is correct in the rock-salt structure of an ionic compounds?
(A) coordination number of cation is four whereas that of anion is six.
(B) coordination number of cation is six whereas that of anion is four.
(C) coordination number of each cation and anion is four.
(D) coordination number of each cation and anion is six.

Q.4 Which of the following are the correct axial distance and axial angles for rhombohedral system?
(A) a = b = c,  =  =   900 (B) a = b  c,  =  =  = 900
(C) a  b  c,  =  =  = 900 (D) a  b  c,       900

Q.5 Which of the following shaded plane in fcc lattice contains arrangement of atoms as shown by circles :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.6 The tetrahedral voids formed by ccp arrangement of Cl– ions in rock salt structure are
(A) Occupied by Na+ ions (B) Occupied by Cl– ions
(C) Occupied by either Na+ or Cl– ions (D) Vacant

Q.7 The number of nearest neighbours around each particle in a face-centred cubic lattice is
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 12

Q.8 If the anions (A) form hexagonal closest packing and cations (C) occupy only 2/3 octahedral voids in it,
then the general formula of the compound is
(A) CA (B) CA2 (C) C2A3 (D) C3A2

Q.9 A solid is formed and it has three types of atoms X, Y, Z. X forms a FCC lattice with Y atoms occupying
all the tetrahedral voids and Z atoms occupying half the octrahedral voids. The formula of the solid is:
(A) X2Y4Z (B) XY2Z4 (C) X4Y2Z (D) X4YZ2

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Q.10 The intermetallic compound LiAg crystallizes in cubic lattice in which both lithium and silver have
coordination number of eight. The crystal class is
(A) Simple cubic (B) Body centred cubic (C) Face centred cubic (D) None

Q.11 A compound XY crystallizes in BCC lattice with unit cell edge lenght of 480 pm. If the radius of Y– is
225 pm, then the radius of X+ is
(A) 127.5 pm (B) 190.68 pm (C) 225 pm (D) 255 pm

Q.12 You are given 6 identical [Link] is the maximum number of square voids and triangular voids
(in separete arrangements) that can be created?
(A) 2 , 4 (B) 4 , 2 (C) 4 , 3 (D) 3 , 4

Q.13 Square packed sheets are arranged on the top of other such that a sphere in the next layer rests on the
centre of a square in the previous layer. Identify the type of arrangement and find the the coordination
number.
(A) Simple Cubic, 6 (B) Face Centered Cubic, 8
(C) Face Centered Cubic, 12 (D) Body Centered Cubic, 8

Q.14 Consider a cube containing n unit cells of a cubic system consisting of the same types of atoms.

D B

A plane ABCD obtained by joining the mid points of the edges on one of its faces had atoms arranged as
shown. Let p be the packing [Link] the correct option:
22 11
(A) n = 1 , p = (B) n = 8 , p =
21 2 21

11 11 3
(C) n = 8 , p = (D) n = 1 , p =
14 28
Q.15 An ionic compound AB has ZnS type structure. If the radius A+ is 22.5 pm, then the ideal radius of B–
would be
(A) 54.35 pm (B) 100 pm (C) 145.16 pm (D) none of these

Q.16 NH4Cl crystallizes in a body-centered cubic type lattice with a unit cell edge length of 387 pm. The
distance between the oppositively charged ions in the lattice is
(A) 335.1 pm (B) 83.77 pm (C) 274.46 pm (D) 137.23 pm

Q.17 In diamond, carbon atom occupy FCC lattice points as well as alternate tetrahedral voids. If edge length
of the unit cell is 356 pm, then radius of carbon atom is
(A) 77.07 pm (B) 154.14 pm (C) 251.7 pm (D) 89 pm

Q.18 Which of the following will show schottky defect

(A) CaF2 (B) ZnS (C) AgCl (D) CsCl

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Q.19 Copper metal crystallizes in FCC lattice. Edge length of unit cell is 362 pm. The radius of largest atom
that can fit into the voids of copper lattice without disturbing it.
(A) 53 pm (B) 45 pm (C) 93 pm (D) 60 pm

Q.20 In FCC unit cell, what fraction of edge is not covered by atoms?
(A) 0.134 (B) 0.24 (C) 0.293 (D) None of these

Q.21 Consider a Body Centered Cubic(BCC) arrangement, let de, dfd, dbd be the distances between succes-
sive atoms located along the edge, the face-diagonal, the body diagonal respectively in a unit [Link]
order is given by:
(A) de < dfd < dbd (B) dfd > dbd > de (C) dfd > de > dbd (D) dbd > de > dfd,

Q.22 Figure shows a cube of unit cell of CCP arrangement with atoms are marked as 1, 2, [Link] of the
following statements is true.
3

1
(A) Atom 3 is twice as far from 1 as from 2 (B) Atom 2 is equidistant from atoms 1 & 3.
(C) Atom 2 is nearer to 1 than to 3. (D) All atoms lie on a right angled triangle.

Q.23 In a hypothetical solid C atoms form CCP lattice with A atoms occupying all the Tetrahedral Voids and
B atoms occupying all the octahedral voids. A and B atoms are of the appropriate size such that there is
no distortion in the CCP [Link] if a plane is cut(as shown) then the cross section would like.
Plane

CCP unit cell

C B C C C C C C C C C C
A A A
B B B B B B B B B B B B
(A) A (B) (C) A A (D)
C B C C C C C C C C C C

Q.24 In an FCC unit cell a cube is formed by joining the centres of all the tertahedral voids to generate a new
[Link] the new cube would contain voids as:

(A) 1 full Tetrahedral void, 1 full Octahedral void (B) 1 full Tetrahedral void only
(C) 8 full Tetrahedral voids and 1 full Octahedral void (D) 1 full Octahedral void only

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Q.25 Given an alloy of Cu, Ag and Au in which Cu atoms constitute the CCP [Link] the hypothetical
formula of the alloy is Cu4Ag3Au. What are the probable locations of Ag and Au atoms.
(A) Ag - all Tetrahedral voids; Au - all Octahedral voids
(B) Ag - 3/8th Tetrahedral voids; Au - 1/4th Octahedral voids
(C) Ag - 1/2 Octahedral voids; Au - 1/2 Tetrahedral voids
(D) Ag - all Octahedral voids; Au - all tetrahedral voids

Q.26 Consider a cube 1 of Body Centered Cubic unit cell of edge length [Link] atom at the body centre can
be viewed to be lying on the corner of another cube [Link] the volume common to cube 1 and cube 2.
a3 a3 a3 a
3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
27 64 2 2 8

Q.27 Three lines are drawn from a single corner of an FCC unit cell to meet the other corner such that they are
found to pass through exactly 1 Octahedral void only, no voids of any type and exactly 2 tertahedral
voids with exactly 1 Octahedral void [Link] the line in the same order.
(A) Edge, Face diagonal, Body diagonal (B) Face diagonal, Edge, Body diagonal
(C) Body diagonal, Face diagonal, Edge (D) Edge, Body diagonal, Face diagonal

Q.28 Following three planes( P1, P2, P3) in an FCC unit cell are shown:

Consider the following statements and choose the correct option that follow:
(i) P1 contains no voids of three dimensions.
(ii) P2 contains only Octahedral voids.
(iii) P3 conatins both Octahedral and Tertahedral voids.
(A) All are true (B)Only (i) & (ii) are true
(C) (i) & (iii) are true (D) Only (iii) is true.

Q.29 MgAl2O4, is found in the Spinel structure in which O2  ions constitute CCP lattice, Mg2+ ions occupy
1/8th of the Tetrahedral voids and Al3 ions occupy 1/2 of the Octahedral voids.
Find the total +ve charge contained in one unit cell.
(A) +7/4 electronic charge (B) +6 electronic charge
(C) +2 electronic charge (D) +8 electronic charge

Q.30 Consider the following staments and choose the correct option:
(i) Addition of CdCl2 to the Crystals of AgCl will produce Schottky defects.
(ii) Addition of NaCl to the crystals of AgCl would not produce Schottky defects.
(A) Both (i) and (ii) are true (B) Only (i) is true
(C) Only (ii) is true (D) Both are false

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Assertion & Reason

Q.31 Statement-1 : KCl is more likely to show schottky defect, while LiI is more likely to show Frenkel
defect.
Statement-2 : Schottky defect is more likely in ionic solids in which cations and anions are of
comparable size while Frenkel defect is more likely is which cations and anions have
large differences in their ionic sizes.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.32 Statement-1 : Increasing temperature increases the density of point defects

Statement-2 : The process of formation of point defects in solids in endothermic and has S > 0.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.33 Statement-1 : Increase in dielectric constant is observed in Frenkel defect.

Statement-2 : Only anions come in interstitial space in case of Frenkel defect.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

Q.34 Statement-1 : Distance between nearest lattice points in BCC is greater than the same in FCC having
same edge length .
Statement-2 : FCC has greater packing efficiency than BCC.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

More than one may be correct

Q.35 Which of the following statements is/are correct :

(A) The coordination number of each type of ion in CsCl is 8.
(B)A metal that crystallises in BCC structure has a coordination number 12.
(C) A unit cell of an ionic crystal shares some of its ions with other unit cells
(D) The length of the unit cell in NaCl is 552 pm.
[ rNa = 95 pm ; rCl  = 181 pm ]

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Q.36 Which of the following statements is/are correct :
(A) In an anti-fluorite structure anions form FCC lattice and cations occupy all tetrahedral voids.
(B) If the radius of cations and anions are 0.2 Å and 0.95 Å then coordinate number of cation in the
crystal is 4.
(C) An atom/ion is transferred from a lattice site to an interstitial position in Frenkel defect.
(D) Density of crystal always increases due to substitutinal impurity defect.

Q.37 80.0 gm salt of weak base & strong acid XY is dissolved in water and formed 2 litre of aqueous solution.
The pH of the resultant solution was found to be 5 at 298 K. If XY forms CsCl type crystal having
rX  (radius of X+) = 1.6 Å & rY – (radius of Y¯) = 1.864 Å then select write statement(s).
(Given : Kb (XOH) = 4 × 10–5 ; NA = 6 × 1023)
(A) Molar mass of salt is 100 g/mol
(B) % Degree of hydrolysis of salt is 0.25
(C) Edge length of AB is 4Å
(D) Density of solid salt XY is 2 in gm/cc

Q.38 Select write statement(s)

(A) 8 Cs+ ions occupy the second nearest neighbour locations of a Cs+ ion
(B) Each sphere is surrounded by six voids in two dimensional hexagonal close packed layer
(C) If the radius of cations and anions are 0.3 Å and 0.4 Å then coordinate number of cation in the
crystal is 6.
(D) In AgCl, the silver ion is displaced from its lattice position to an interstitial position such a defect is
called a frenkel defect

Comprehension:
(Q.39 to Q.42)
Calcium crystallizes in a cubic unit cell with density 3.2 g/cc. Edge-length of the unit cell is 437picometre (pm)

Q.39 The type of unit cell is

(A) Simple cubic (B) BCC (C) FCC (D) Edge-centred

Q.40 The nearest neighbour distance is

(A) 154.5 pm (B) 309 pm (C) 218.5 pm (D) 260 pm

Q.41 The number of nearest neighbours of a Ca atom are

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 12

Q.42 If the metal is melted, density of the molten metal was found to be 3 g/cc. What will be the percentage of
empty space in the melt?
(A) 31% (B) 36% (C) 28% (D) 49%

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(Q.43 & Q.44)
Silicon carbide (SiC) and diamond are covalent solids which crystallize in cubic strucures. In SiC, carbon
atoms occupy points of the face centred cubic lattice (FCC positions) and silicon atoms occupy half of
the tetrahedral voids available. In diamonds, same position of the tetrahedral voids are occupied by
other carbon atoms.
Also the density of SiC and diamond are 3.2 and 3.6 g/cc respectively. Answer the following four
questions based on the above information: (M : Si = 28)

Q.43 The radius of silicon atom is

(A) 0.76 Å (B) 1.12 Å (C) 3.54 Å (D) 4.75 Å

Q.44 Which of the following will not change the density of SiC solid?
(A) Substitution of some Si atoms by some carbon atoms
(B) Schottky defects
(C) Interchange of some Si atom by some C atom
(D) None

Match the Column:

Q.45 Column I Column II

[Distance in terms of edge length of cube (a)]

(A) 0.866 a (P) Shortest distance between cation & anion in

CsCl structure.

(B) 0.707 a (Q) Shortest distance between two cation in CaF2

structure.

(C) 0.433 a (R) Shortest distance between carbon atoms in

diamond.

(S) Shortest distance between two cations in rock

salt structure.

Q.46 Match the column:

Column I Column II
(A) Rock salt structure (P) Co-ordination number of cation is 4

3a
(B) Zinc Blend structure (Q) = r+ + r–
4
(C) Flourite structure (R) Co-ordination number of cation and anion
are same

a
(S) Distance between two nearest anion is
2

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Q.1 A Q.2 C Q.3 D Q.4 A Q.5 C Q.6 D Q.7 D

Q.8 C Q.9 A Q.10 B Q.11 B Q.12 A Q.13 D Q.14 B

Q.15 B Q.16 A Q.17 A Q.18 D Q.19 A Q.20 C Q.21 C

Q.22 B Q.23 C Q.24 A Q.25 B Q.26 D Q.27 A Q.28 A

Q.29 D Q.30 A Q.31 A Q.32 A Q.33 C Q.34 A

Q.35 A,C,D Q.36 A,C Q.37 A,C Q.38 B,D Q.39 C Q.40 B

Q.41 D Q.42 A Q.43 B Q.44 C

Q.45 (A) P (B) Q,S (C) R Q.46 (A) R,S (B) P,Q,R,S (C)

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1. Ozone, on reaction with KI solution produces:

(A) Cl2 (B) I2 (C) HI (D) IO3

2. For the redox reaction

aMnO4 + bC2O42 + cH+  Mn2+ + CO2 + H2O,
the correct coefficients a, b, c of the reactants for the balanced reaction are
(A) 2, 5, 16 (B) 16, 5, 2 (C) 5, 16, 2 (D) 2, 16, 5

3. When 4.0 g of a metal oxide MxOy were reduced in hydrogen 02.8 g of the metal remained. What was the
formula of the metal oxide if the relative atomic mass of the metal M was 56 ?
(A) MO (B) M2O (C) M2O3 (D) M3O4

4. Given that [Au(SO3F)4-] ion always has (-1) charge. The equivalent weight of Br2 in
[Br3][Au(SO3F)4] + Br2  [Br5] [Au(SO3F)4] is
(A) 32 (B) 80 (C) 160 (D) 400

5. As2O3 is oxidised to H3AsO4 by KMnO4 in acidic medium. Volume of 0.02M KMnO4 required for this purpose by
1mmol of As2O3 will be
(A) 10 mL (B) 20 mL (C) 40 mL (D) 80 mL

6. Number of moles of electrons taken up when 1 mole of NO3 ions is reduced to 1 mole of NH2OH is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

7. Hydrazinium chloride (N2H5Cl) can precipitate copper mirror from CuSO4 and dinitrogen is liberated. Equivalent
weights of hydrazinium chloride and copper sulphate respectively, in this reaction are
(A) 17.13, 79.75 (B) 17.13, 159.5 (C) 34.25, 79.75 (D) 34.25, 159.5

8. In a redox reaction, the equivalent weight of HNO2 is found to be 23.5. The reaction products might contain
(A) N2O (B) NO (C) NH3 (D) HNO3

9. ClF3 (molecular weight, M1) can oxidize UF4(g) (molecular weight, M2) to UF6(g) and get reduced to Cl2 itself.
Equivalent weights of ClF3 and UF4 respectively in this reaction are
(A) M2/2, M1/6 (B) M1/3, M2/2 (C) M1/6, M2/2 (D) M1/6, M2/6

10. Sb2S3 is oxidized to SbF5 and SF6 by fluorine (F2). If meq of antimony (Sb), sulfur and fluorine in this redox
reaction are x, y and z respectively then
(A) x = y (B) x + y = z (C) x = y (D) 2x + 3y = z

11. 50g of pure CaCO3 is heated, liberated CO2 reacted 0.4 mol of moist ammonia to yield only (NH4)2CO3. Find the
volume of CO2 liberated at STP
(A) zero (B) 6.72 L
(C) 2.24 L (D) indeterminate from this data.

12. 100 ml of 0.1M NaAl(OH)2CO3 is neutralised by 0.25 N HCl to form NaCl, AlCl3 and CO2. Volume of HCl required is
(A) 10 mL (B) 40 mL (C) 100mL (D) 160 mL

13. Phenolphthalein will be pink in a 0.1M aqueous solution of

(A) NaOH (B) Na2CO3 (C) NaHCO3 (D) CO2

14. A small amount of HCl(aq) is added to an aqueous of NaHCO3 and K2CO3. Which of the following conditions,
when true, will ensure no evolution of CO2?
(A)mmol of HCl added are less than mmol of K2CO3
(B)mmol of HCl added are less than 2 x mmol of K2CO3
(C)mmol of HCl added are less than 0.5 x mmol of K2CO3
(D) none of these

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15. x ml and y ml of 0.1N HCl are required for two separate titrations against a given sample of NaOH using methyl
orange and phenolphthalein as indicators respectively. Which of the following is true?
(A) x =y (B) 2x = y (C) x = 2y
(D) no colour change in titration at equivalance point using methyl orange

16. The mixture of (Na2CO3 and NaHCO3) required x ml of HCl for titration using methyl orange as indicator and y
ml for titration using phenolphthalein as indicator. Volume of same sample of HCl required for complete titration
of the given mixture is
(A) x mL (B) y mL (C) (x+y) mL (D) (xy) mL

17. An aqueous solution of NaOH and Na2CO3 is titrated against 0.1N HCl using phenolphthalein as indicator and
‘x’ ml of HCl are required for titration. When the titration is continued using methyl orange, if ml of HCl are
required additionally. Which of the following is (are) true?
(A) x = y (B) x > y (C) y > 2x (D) x > 2y

18. x ml of 0.01N HCl are required for titration against a mixture of NaOH and Na2CO3 using phenolphthalein as
indicator. When the colour changed from pink to colourless, few drops of methyl orange were added and the
titration was continued. Additional y ml of 0.01N HCl were required. Which of the following values of x and y are
possible?
(A) x = 100, y = 130 (B) x = 148, y = 54 (C) x = 36, y = 63 (D) x = 420, y = 140

19. Equal volumes of two aqueous solutions A and B containing NaOH and NaHCO3 respectively are mixed. Half
of the resultant solution required 20 ml of decimolar HCl solution for exact titration using using phenolphthalein
as indicator and the other half required 30 ml of decimolar HCl solution for exact titration using methyl oragne
as indicator. Which of the following are correct?
(A) Molarity of NaOH in A > Molarity of NaHCO3 in B.
(B) Molarity of NaOH in A < Molarity of NaHCO3 in B.
(C) Molarity of NaOH in A = Molarity of NaHCO3 in B.
(D) No conclusion can be drawn from this data.

20. In the mysterious deserts of Egypt, large deposits of ‘Trona’ (Na2CO3·NaHCO3) are found. If a sample of ‘Trona’
(containing some inert impurities) is dissolved in water and titrated against 0.1M HCl, which of the following
readings are possible when x and y ml of HCl are required for titration against equal volumes of this solution,
one using phenolphthalein and the other using methyl orange respectively as indicators?
(A) x = 20, y = 20 (B) x = 20, y = 30 (C) x = 20, y = 60 (D) x = 20, y = 10

21. x mmol of KIO3 react completely with y mmol of K to give 2 quantitavely. Then
(A) x = y (B) 5x = y (C) x = 5y (D) x < y

22. Br2+ can be prepared by treating Br2 with S2O6F2 followed by treatment with SbF5 to form bright red [Br2][Sb3F16].
Equivalent weight of Br2 in this redox reaction is (Br = 80)
(A) 20 (B) 40 (C) 80 (D) 160

23. Reduction of V2O5, followed by addition of a strong base yields Na12V18O42·24H2O on crystallization. If the
addition of strong base causes no change in oxidation state of vanadium (obtained after reduction), the equivalent
weight for reduction of V2O5 in this case will be (if M denotes molecular weight of V2O5):
(A) M/5 (B) M/2 (C) M (D) Indeterminate

24. A sample of HCN yields potassium cyanide (KCN) on titration against 100mL of 1M KOH. What volume of 5M
KMnO4 may be required for titration against same amount of HCN in acidic medium yielding Mn2+, K+ and NO3
ions, alongwith liberation of CO2(g).
(A) 40 mL (B) 120 mL (C) 200 mL (D) 400 mL

25. Dichloroacetic acid (CHCl2COOH) is oxidized to CO2, H2O and Cl2 by 600 meq of an oxidizing agent. Same
amount of acid can neutralize how many moles of ammonia to form ammonium dichloroacetate?
(A) 0.0167 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.6

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26. 100 mL of 0.1N I2 oxidizes Na2S2O3 in 50 ml solution to Na2S4O6. The normality of this hypo solution against
KMnO4 (which oxidizes it to Na2SO4) would be
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.2 (C) 1.0 (D) 1.6

27. x mmol of XeF4 quantitatively oxidized KI to I2 and liberated Xe, alongwith formation of KF. This iodine required
20 ml of decinormal hypo solution for exact titration. The value of x is
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 2.0 (D) 5.0

28. 1 mole of chlorine reacts exactly with a given sample of HI to give ICl and HCl completely. If exactly same
amount of HI is dissolved in distilled water to give 10L solution, normality of this acid solution against NaOH will
be
(A) 0.05 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.4

29. m grams of a mixture of Na2CO3 and NaHCO3 yields oone mole of CO2 on treatment with HCl. After this
reaction the solution is evaporated and yields 1.4 mole of NaCl. What is the value of m?
(A) 95 gm (B) 101 gm (C) 97.2 gm (D) 92.4 gm

30. In the preceding problem what volume of CO2 measured at STP would be obtained if HCl is added only after
strongly heating and cooling the mixture?
(A) 15.68 litres (D) 13.44 litres (C) 14.52 litres (D) 12.36 litres

31. 20.0 g of H3PO4 are dissolved in water and made up to one litre. What is the normality of the solution, if titration
against NaOH is carried only up to the second stage of neutralization?
(A) 0.408 (B) 0.204 (C) 0.612 (D) 0.102

32. 2.2 g CH3(CH2)n COOH was burnt in excess air and the resultant gases (CO2 and H2O) were passes through a
solution of NaOH. The resulting solution was divided into two equal parts. One part required 30 mL of 2.5
N HCl for neutralization using phenolphthalein as indicator while the other titrated 70 mL of same HCl solution
using methyl orange as indicator. Find the value of n.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

33. A solution of KMnO4 is reduced to MnO2. The normality of solution is 0.6. The molarity is:
(A) 1.8M (B) 0.6M (C) 0.1M (D) 0.2M

34. Number of moles of electrons taken up when 1 mole of NO3 ions is reduced to 1 mole of NH2OH is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

35. The molecular mass of H3PO3 is 82. Its equivalent mass if it is completely neutralised, is :
(A) 82 (B) 27.3 (C) 41 (D) 246

36. 200 mL of 3 N HCl were mixed with 200 mL of 6 N H2SO4 solution. The final normality of H2SO4 in the resultant
solution will be :
(A) 9 N (B) 3 N (C) 6 N (D) 2 N

37. In an experiment 20 mL of a decinormal HCl solution was added to 15 mL of a decinormal AgNO3 solution. AgCl
was percipitated out and excess of acid was titrated with N/20 NaOH solution. The volume of NaOH required
was :
(A) 10 mL (B) 20 mL (C) 30 mL (D) 5 mL

38. The molar concentration of the chloride ion in the solution obtained by mixing 300 mL of 3.0 M NaCl and 200
mL of 4.0 M solution BaCl2 is :
(A) 1.6 M (B) 1.8 M (C) 5.0 M (D) 0.5 M

39. A 100 mL solution of 0.1 N HCl was titrated with 0.2 N NaOH solution. The tiration was discontinued after
adding 30 mL of NaOH solution. The titration was completed by adding 0.25 N KOH solution.. The volume of
KOH required for completing the titration is :
(A) 70 mL (B) 32 mL (C) 35 mL (D) 16 mL

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40. 3 g of an oxide of a metal is converted to chloride completely and it yielded 5 g of chloride. Equivalent weight
of the metal is :
(A) 33.25 (B) 3.325 (C) 12 (D) 20

41. Phosphoric acid H3PO4 can not be neutralised to :

(A) HPO42– (B) PO43– (C) H2PO4– (D) HPO32–

42. ‘a’ g KHC2O4 required to reduce 100 mL of 0.02 M KMnO4 in acid medium and ‘b’ g KHC2O4 neutralises 100 mL
of 0.05 M Ca(OH)2 then :
(A) a = b (B) 2a = b (C) a = 2b (D) None of these

43. 28 NO3– + 3As2S3 + 4H2O  6AsO43– + 28NO + 9SO42– + *H+.

What will be the equivalent mass of As2S3 in above reaction?
[Link]. [Link]. [Link]. [Link].
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 4 24 28
44. For a balanced reaction:
a Na2TeO3 + 4NaI + b HCl  c NaCl + d Te + e H2O + f I2
Which of the following is (are) correct?
(A) a+b = c+d (B) a+b = c+d+e+f (C) d = 1 (D) f = 4

45. The sum of the coefficients of reactants and of products for the reaction
2MnO + PbO2 + HNO3  HMnO4 + Pb(NO3)2 + H2O is
(A) 4, 3 (B) 10, 18 (C) 19, 3 (D) 17, 11

46. Consider the unbalanced equation

4Ag + KCN + O2 + H2O  KAg(CN)2 + KOH
The correct sum of coefficients of all the reactants (including coefficient of Ag as ‘4’) is
(A) 11 (B) 15 (C) 23 (D) none of these

47. Consider the unbalanced equation:

SbCl3 + KIO3 + HCl  SbCl5 + ICl + KCl + H2O
If coefficient of KIO3 is maintained as 1, the sum of coefficients of all the products will be
(A) 8.5 (B) 16 (C) 7 (D) none of these

48. Consider the reaction H+ + O4 +   2 + H2O. The ratio of coefficients of O4,  and I2 is
(A) 1 : 7 : 4 (B) 1 : 7 : 8 (C) 7: 1 : 4 (D) 7 : 1 : 8

49. p Au + q KCN + r H2O + m O2  p KAu(CN)4 + n KOH. The values of p, q, r, m and n:

(A) p = 4, q = 16, r = 6, m = 3, n = 12 (B) p = 4, q = 12, r = 6, m = 3, n = 10
(C) p = 4, q = 12, r = 6, m = 4, n = 10 (D) p = 4, q = 16, r = 3, m = 6, n = 12

50. 25 ml of a solution containing 6.1 gL–1 an oxalate of formula KxHy(C2O4)2nH2O required 18 ml of 0.1 N NaOH and
24 ml of 0.1 N KMnO4 in two separate titrations. Then value of ‘n’ is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

51. If 0.5 mole of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.2 mole of Na3PO4 the maximum number of moles of Ba3(PO4)2 that can be
formed is -
(A) 0.7 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.1

52. The amount of oxalic acid (hydrated) required to prepare 500 ml of its 0.1 N solution is -
(A) 0.315 g (B) 6.3 g (C) 3.15 g (D) 63 g

53. What weight of sodium hydroxide is required to neutralise 100 ml of 0.1 N HCl
(A) 4.0 g (B) 0.04 g (C) 0.4 g (D) 2.0 g

54. It takes 2.56 × 10–3 equivalents of KOH to neutralise 0.1254 g H2XO4. The number of proton in X is -
(A) 16 (B) 8 (C) 7 (D) 32

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55. The number of moles of Cr2O72– needed to oxidise 0.136 equivalents of N2H5+ by the reaction.
N2H5+ + Cr2O72–  N2 + Cr3+ + H2O is
(A) 0.136 (B) 0.272 (C) 0.816 (D) 0.0227

56. 125 ml of Na2CO3 solution requires 100 ml of 0.1 N HCl to reach end point with phenolphthalein as indicator.
Molarity of resulting solution with respect to HCO3– ion
(A) 0.008 M (B) 0.004 M (C) 0.16 M (D) 0.044 M

57. 100 ml of 0.1 N KMnO4 reacts with 0.45 g of oxalic acid. The molecular weight of oxalic acid
(A) 45 (B) 90 (C) 180 (D) 22.5

58. 100 ml of 0.3 N HCl solution were mixed with 200 ml of 0.6 N H2SO4 solution. The final normality of mixture is
(A) 0.9 N (B) 0.6 N (C) 0.5 N (D) 0.4 N

59. 0.7 g of Na2CO3.xH2O were dissolved in water and the volume was made to 100 ml, 20 ml of this solution
required 19.8 ml of N/10 HCl for complete neutralisation. The value of x is -
(A 7 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 5

60. 0.84 g of a metal carbonate reacts with 40 ml of N/2 H2SO4. The equivalent weight of metal carbonate is -
(A) 84 g (B) 64 g (C) 42 g (D) 38 g

61. Three solutions (a) 12N (b) 6N and (c) 2N of HCl are available. If it is required to produce 4N HCl by mixing
them in the volumeratio x : y : z, which of the following ratios would be incorrect?
(A) 1 : 1 : 5 (B) 1: 2 : 6 (C) 2 : 1 : 9 (D) 1 : 2 : 4

62. The formula of the copper salt of a monobasic acid is CuA2.nH2O. (HA is the formula of the acid).1 gram of
the salt on strong heating leaves behind 0.331 gram of CuO. Given that the equivalent weight of the acid is
62.58. What is the value of n ?
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4

63. Volume V1 ml of 0.1 MK2Cr2O7 is needed for complete oxidation of 0.678g N2H4 in acidic medium. The volume
of 0.3 M KMnO4 needed for same oxidation in acidic medium will be
2 5
(A) V (B) V (C) 113 V1 (D) can't say
5 1 2 1

64. 0.62 g Na2CO3 × H2O completely neutralises 100 ml of N/10 H2SO4. The value of x muxt be
(A) 1 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10

65. How many litre of O3 at STP will be needed to completely oxidise 10 ml of 0.4M KI into I2
(A) 0.448 (B) 0.0448 (C) 4.48 (D) 2.24

66. How many moles of FeCr2O4 can be oxidised completely by 1 mole of KMnO4 in acidic medium.
(A) 7 (B) 5 (C) 7/5 (D) 5/7

67. A sample of Ca3(PO4)2 contains 3.1 g phosphorous, the weight of Ca in the sample is
(A) 6gm (B) 4gm (C) 2 gm (D) 5.56gm

68. In which of the following reaction equivalent weight of oxidant is not defined
(A) 2BrO3¯ + 12H+ + 10e¯  Br2 + 6H2O
(B) BrO3– + 6H+ + 6e¯  Br¯ + 3H2O
(C) 3Br2 + 6CO32 – + 3H2O  5Br¯ + BrO3– + 6HCO3–
(D) CaOCI2 + H2O  Ca(OH)2 + Cl2

69. How many mole of electron is needed for reduction of each mole of Cr in the reaction
CrO5 + H2SO4  Cr2(SO4)3 + H2O + O2
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 7

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70. The moles of Ammonium sulphate needed to react with one mole of MnO2 in acidic medium in a reaction giving
MnSO4 and (NH4)2S2O8 is
(A) 2 (B) 1/2 (C) 1 (D) 1/3

71. A 20 ml (specific gravity 1.02) of chlorine water is treated with excess of KI and liberated iodine required 25 ml
of 0.2N Na2S2O3. The percentage of free chlorine in chlorine water is
(A) 0.87 (B) 87 (C) 0.78 (D) 0.82

72. For 1.34 × 10–3 moles of KBrO3 to reduce into bromide 4.02 × 10–3 mole of Xn+ ion is needed. New oxidation
state of X is
(A) n + 2 (B) n – 2 (C) 2 (D) – 2

73. We have three separate solutions of KCl, MgCl2 and AlCl3 . The concentration of Cl¯ ion is same in all three
solution. Which solution will require the least volume to coagulate (precipitate) a negatively charged colloidal
solution.
(A) KCl solution (B) MgCl, solution (C) AlCl3 solution (D) All the same

74. What volume of 0.3 N Cr2O7¯ / H+ is needed for complete oxidation of 200 ml of 0.6M FeC2O4 soution.
(A) 1.2cc (B) 1.2 Litre (C) 120cc (D) 800 cc

75. 25 ml of Na2CO3 solution requires 100 ml of 0.1N HCl to reach end point with Phenolphthalein as indicator.
Molarity of resulting solution with respect to HCO3¯ ion
(A) 0.008M (B) 0.004M (C) 0.16M (D) 0.08M

76. 5 gm of a metal carbonate on heating strongly releases 1.51 litre CO2, gas at STP. The equivalent weight of
metal is
(A) 7 (B) 23 (C) 21 (D) 5

77. x g of the metal gave y g of its oxide. Hence equivalent weight of the metal
yx x x xy
(A) ×8 (B) ( y  x ) × 8 (C) y × 8 (D) ×8
x x
78. 1.2475g of CuSO4.xH2O was dissolved in water and H2S was passed through it till all the CuS was precipitated
completely. If the H2SO4 produced required 10mL of 1N NaOH for complete neutralisation, compute x.
(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 2 (D) 4

79. 25 ml of a 0.1 (M) solution of a stable cation of transition metal z reacts exactly with 25 ml of
0.04 (M) acidified KMnO4 solution. Which of the following is most likely to represent the charge in oxidation
state of z correctly?
(A) Z+  Z2+ (B) Z2+  Z3+ (C) Z3+  Z4+ (D) Z2+  Z4+

80. What is the equivalent weight of C12H22O11 in the following reaction?

C12H22O11+ 36 HNO3  6H2C2O4 + 36NO2 + 23H2O
342 342 342 342
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36 12 22 3

81. What is the equivalent weight of P4 in the following reaction?

P4 + NaOH  NaH2PO2 + PH3
31 31 31
(A) (B) (C) (D) 31 × 4/3
4 3 2

82. Equivalent weight of H3PO2 when it disproportionates into PH3 and H3PO3 is
3M M M
(A) M (B) (C) (D)
4 2 4

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83. The ratio of the equivalent weights of C2H5OH in the following reaction is
(a) C2H5OH  CH3 CHO + 2H+ + 2e (b) C2H5OH + Na  C2H5ONa + H
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 3

84. 0.05 moles of NaHCO3 will react with how many equivalents of Mg(OH)2?
(A) 0.2 equivalent (B) 0.05 equivalent (C) 0.02 equivalent (D) 0.01 equivalent

85. 0.078 gm Al (OH)3 is dehydrated to Al2O3. The Al2O3 so obtained reacted with 6 milli equiv of HCl, what will be
the equivalents of AlCl3 produced by this method?

10 3
(A) 6 × 10–3 (B) 2 × 10–3 (C) 4 × 10–3 (D)
2

86. In one litre of solution 2.7 gm Ca3(PO4)2, 1.11 gm CaCl2 and 1.61 gm of Na2SO4, 10 H2O. If the metal ions
present in the 50 ml of solution is to be reduced completely, how many number of electrons are required?
(A) 27 × 1020 (B) 10 × 1020 (C) 6 × 1023 (D) 5 × 1022

87. W rite down the basicity of H 3PO 4 for which equal weights of H 3PO 4 and H 2SO 4 neutralise the
100 ml of 0.1 (M) NaOH separately -
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) none of the given

88. In a compound Ax By
(A) mole of A = mole of B = mole of Ax By
(B) equiv of A = equiv = equiv of Ax By
(C) y × moles of A = y × mole of B = (x + y) mole of Ax By
(D) y × mole of A = y × mole of B

89. 2 gm of a base whose equivalent wt. is 40 reacts with 3 gm of an acid. The equivalent wt of the acid is
(A) 40 (B) 60 (C) 10 (D) 80

90. 1.575 gm of oxalic acid (COOH)2, xH2O are dissolved in water and the volume made up to 250 ml. On titration
N
16.68 ml of this solution requires 25 ml of   NaOH solution for complete reaction. What is value of x?
 15 
(A) x = 2 (B) x = 1 (C) x = 3 (D) x = 6

91. What volume of HNO3 solution 36% by strength is required to prepare 2 litres of 0.2 (N) solution?
(A) 67.66 ml (B) 50.25 ml (C) 99.85 ml (D) 70 ml

92. What is the strength in gm/litre of a solution of H2SO4, 12 ml of which neutralized 15 ml of N/10 NaOH solution?
(A) 9.233 gm/litre (B) 0.0923 gm/litre (C) 6.125 gm/litre (D) 4.9 gm/litre

93. 2 litres of ammonia at 13°C and 0.9 atm is neutralised by 134 ml of H2SO4 solution. Find the normality of the
acid.
(A) 0.57 (N) (B) 0.67 (N) (C) 0.87 (N) (D) 1.87 (N)

94. A solution of KCl and KOH was neutralised with 120 ml of 0.12 (N) HCl. What is the amount of KOH in the
mixture
(A) 1.5 gm (B) 0.806 gm (C) 1.2 gm (D) 0.88 gm

95. H3PO4 is a tribasic acid and one of its salt is NaH2PO4. What volume of 1 (M) NaOH solution should be added
to 12 gm of NaH2PO4 to convert it into Na3PO4?
(A) 100 ml (B) 200 ml (C) 80 ml (C) 300 ml

96. The normality of a “20 V” H2O2 is

(A) 1.79 (B) 3.57 (C) 60.86 (D) 6.086

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97. RH2 (ion exchange resin) can replace Ca2+ in hard water
RH2 + Ca+  RCa + 2H+
1 L of hard water after passing through RH2 has pH 2. Hence hardness in ppm of Ca2+ is -
(A) 200 (B) 100 (C) 50 (D) 125

98. In the mixture of NaHCO3 and Na2CO3, volume of a given HCl required is x mL with phenolphthalein indicator
and further y mL required with methyl orange indicator. Hence volume of HCl for complete reaction of NaHCO3
is -
(A) 2x (B) y (C) x/2 (D) (y – x)

99. 40 mL of 0.05 M solution of sodium sesquicarbonate (Na2CO3.NaHCO3. 2H2O) is titrated against 0.05 M HCl.
x mL of HCl is used when phenolphthalein is the indicator and y ml of HCl is used when methyl orange is the
indicator in two separate titrations. Hence ( y – x) is
(A) 80 ml (B) 30 ml (C) 120 ml (D) None

100. In the reaction

Br2 + Na2CO3  NaBr + NaBrO3 + CO2
The equivalent wt. of NaBrO3 is
Mol. wt Mol. wt Mol. wt Mol. wt
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1 10 5 4

101. The equivalent wt. of hypo in the reaction Na2S2O3 + Cl2 + H2O  KNa2SO4 + H2SO4 + HCl is-
Mol. wt Mol. wt Mol. wt Mol. wt
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 4 1 8

102. In acting as a reducing agent, a piece of metal M weighing 16 grams gives up 2.25 × 1023 electrons, what is the
equivalent weight of the metal
(A) 42.83 (B) 21.33 (C) 83.32 (D) 32

103. The equivalent of the salt

KHC2O4, H2C2O4, 4H2O (to be used as a reducing agent) is
Mol. wt Mol. wt Mol. wt Mol. wt
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1 2 3 4
104. The equivalent wt of an element is 9. If it forms volatile chloride of vapour density 58.5. What is the approximate
at wt. of the element?
(A) 9 (B) 18 (C) 27 (D) 54

105. The equivalent wt of element is 5.33. If it forms oxychloride which is isomorphous with CrO2Cl2 the at wt. of
element is -
(A) 16 (B) 32 (C) 64 (D) 8

106. 6.90 gm of a metal carbonate were dissolved in 60 ml of 2(N). HCl. The excess acid was neutralized by 20 ml
of 1 (N) NaOH. What is the equivalent wt. of metal?
(A) 40 (B) 20 (C) 19 (D) 39

107. The normality of HCl solution with a density of 1.19 gm/ml containing 37% by weight is -
(A) 12.06 (B) 6.035 (C) 18.4 (D) 11.9

N N N

108. 10 ml of   HCl, 30 ml of   HNO3 and 75 ml of   HNO are mixed, the normality of H+ in the resulting
2
   10  5 3

solution is
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.25

109. What weight of H2C2O4, 2H2O (mol. wt. = 126) should be dissolved to prepare 250 ml of centinormal to be used
as a reducing agent?
(A) 0.63 gm (B) 0.1575 gm (C) 0.126 gm (D) 0.875 gm
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110. The NH3 evolved from 1.40 gm sample of protein was absorbed in 45.0 ml of 0.4 (N) HNO3. The excess acid
required 20 ml of 0.1 (N) NaOH. The % N in the sample is
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 24 (D) 14

111. Which of the following has the highest normality? (Consider each of the acid is 100% ionized.)
(A) 1 (M) H2SO4 (B) 1 (M) H3PO3 (C) 1 (M) H3PO4 (D) 1 (M) HNO3

112. 600 ml of a 0.1 (N) solution of AgNO3 is added to 500 ml of 0.1 (N) KCl solution. The concentration of nitrate in
the resulting solution is
(A) 0.0545 (N) (B) 0.0455 (N) (C) 0.05 (N) (D) 0.1 (N)

113. A metal chloride weighing 0.22 gm required 0.51 gm of AgNO3 to precipitate chloride completely. The sp. heat
of metal is 0.057 cal/gm. What is the formula of metal chloride?
(A) MCl3 (B) MCl2 (C) MCl (D) MCl4

114. The equivalent wt. of metal is double that of oxygen. How many times is weight of its oxide greater than the wt.
of metal?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 1.5 (D) 2.5

115. 100 ml of a sample of hard water required 25.1 ml of 0.02 (N) H2SO4 for complete reaction. What is the
hardness of the given water sample?
(A) 200 ppm (B) 250 ppm (C) 251 ppm (D) 258 ppm

116. You are given one litre of 0.183 (M) HCl and one litre of 0.381 (M). What maximum volume of 0.243 (M) HCl
which you can make from these two solution? (No water is added).
(A) 1434.78 ml (B) 1500.8 ml (C) 1800.77 ml (D) 2000 ml

117. 50 litre of hard water of 120 ppm temporary hardness is mixed with 1.62 kg of Ca(OH)2, what is the hardness
of the resulting water? (The sp gr of hard water = 1 gm/ml)
(A) 8.088 × 105 ppm (B) 8.088 × 104 ppm (C) 80 ppm (D) 808 ppm

118. 5 g of a sample of bleaching powder is treated with excess acetic acid and K solution. The liberated 2 required
50 ml of N/10 hypo. The % available chlorine in the sample is
(A) 3.55 (B) 7.0 (C) 35.5 (D) 28.2

119. What volume of 2N K2Cr2O7 solution is required to oxidise 0.81 g of H2S in acid medium?
(A) 47.8 ml (B) 23.8 ml (C) 40 ml (D) 72 ml

120. How many gram of KMnO4 are contained in 4 litres of 0.05 N solution. The KMnO4 is to be used as an oxidant
in acid medium?
(A) 1.58 g (B) 15.8 g (C) 6.32 g (D) 31.6 g

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1. B 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. D 7. A

8. A, D 9. B 10. B, C 11. B 12. D 13. A, B 14. A, C

15. D 16. A 17. B 18. B, D 19. A 20. C 21. B, D

22. D 23. B 24. A 25. B 26. D 27. A 28. B

29. D 30. A 31. A 32. B 33. D 34. D 35. C

36. B 37. A 38. C 39. D 40. A 41. D 42. B

43. D 44. A, C 45. D 46. B 47. C 48. A 49. A

50. B 51. D 52. C 53. C 54. A 55. D 56. D

57. B 58. C 59. C 60. C 61. D 62. A 63. A

64. A 65. B 66. D 67. A 68. C, D 69. B 70. A

71. A 72. A 73. D 74. B 75. D 76. A 77. B

78. B 79. D 80. A 81. D 82. B 83. C 84. B

85. A 86. A 87. C 88. B 89. B 90. A 91. D

92. C 93. A 94. B 95. B 96. B 97. A 98. D

99. A 100. C 101. D 102. A 103. D 104. C 105. B

106. D 107. A 108. A 109. B 110. B 111. C 112. A

113. A 114. C 115. C 116. A 117. B 118. A 119. B

120. C

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Q.1 Which gas will be adsorbed on a solid to greater extent.

(A) A gas having non polar molecule
(B) A gas having highest critical temperature (Tc)
(C) A gas having lowest critical temperature.
(D) A gas having highest critical pressure.

Q.2 Which of the following factors affects the adsorption of a gas on solid?
(A) Tc (B) Temperature of gas (C) Pressure of gas (D) All of them

Q.3 The volume of gases NH3, CO2 and CH4 adsorbed by one gram of charcoal at 298 K are in
(A) CH4 > CO2 > NH3 (B) NH3 > CH4 > CO2
(C) NH3 > CO2 > CH4 (D) CO2 > NH3 > CH4

Q.4 The heat of physisorption lie in the range of

(A) 1 – 10 kJ mol–1 (B) 20 to 40 kJ mol–1 (C) 40 to 200 kJ mol–1 (D) 200 to 400 kJ mol–1

Q.5 Which of the following will show maximum hydrophobic behaviour?

(A) Glycine (B) Stearic acid (C) Glucose (D) Adenine

Q.6 Which of the following is best protective colloid

(A) Gelatin (B) Albumin (C) Starch (D) Gum Arabic

Q.7 On addition of one mL of solution of 10% NaCl to 10 mL of red gold sol in presence of 0.025 g of
starch, the coagulation is just prevented. The gold number of starch is
(A) 0.025 (B) 0.25 (C) 2.5 (D) 25

Q.8 Which of the following are colloid

(A) Smoke (B) Ruby glass (C) Pumic Stone (D) Chlorophyll

Q.9 Which of the following are correct statements

(A) Hardy Schulz rule id related to coagulation
(B) Brownian movement and Tyndall effect are shown by colloids
(C) When liquid is dispersed in liquid, it is called gel.
(D) Gold number is a measure of protective power of lyophillic colloid.

Q.10 Colloidal solution can be purified by

(A) Dialysis (B) Electrodialysis (C) Electrophoresis (D) Ultrafiltration

Q.11 Which of the following is correct for lyophillic sols?

(A) Its surface tension is lower than that of H2O
(B) Its velocity is higher than that of water
(C) Its surface tension is higher than that of water
(D) Its viscosity is equal to that of water

Q.12 Coagulation of colloids can be achieved by

(A) Centrifugation (B) Adding electrolyte (C) Change in pH (D) Adding water

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Q.13 When –vely charged colloid like As2S3 sol is added to + vely charged Fe(OH)3 sol in suitable amounts
(A) Both the sols are precipitated simultaneously
(B) This process is called mutual coagulation
(C) They becomes + vely charged colloid
(D) They become – vely charged colloid

Q.14 Which of the following are based on Tyndall effect

(A) Ultramicroscope (B) Deltas (C) Blue colour of sky (D) Coagulation

Q.15 The origin of charge on colloidal solution is

(A) Frictional rubbing
(B) Electron capture during Bredig’s are method
(C) Selective adsorption of ion on their surface
(D) It is due to addition of protective colloids

Q.16 Which of the following is not lyophillic

(A) Gelatin sol (B) Silver sol (C) Sulphur sol (D) As2S3 sol

Q.17 Which of the following are multimolecular colloids

(A) Sulphur sol (B) Egg albumin in water
(C) Gold sol (D) Soap solution

Q.18 Colloidion
(A) It is cellulose nitrate dispersed in alcohol
(B) Used to decrease pore size of filter paper
(C) is not a colloidal solution
(D) is lyophobic sol

Q.19 Colloidal Gold can be prepared by

(A) Bredig’s are method (B) Reduction of AuCl3
(C) Hydrolysis (D) Peptization

Q.20 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct

(A) Higher the gold number, more protective power of colloid
(B) Lower the gold number, more the protective power
(C) Higher the coagulation value, more the coagulation power
(D) Lower the coagulation value, higher the coagulation power

Question No. 21 & 25 (5 questions)

These questions consist of two statements each, printed as assertion and reason, while answering these
questions you are required to choose any one of the following responses.
(A) If assertion is true but the reason is false.
(B) If assertion is false but the reason is true.
(C) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(D) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
Q.21 Assertion : Isoelectric point is pH at which colloidal can move towards either of electrode
Reason : At isoelectric point, colloidal solution become electrically neutral.

Q.22 Assertion : When AgNO3 is treated with excess of potassium iodide, colloidal particles gets
attracted towards anode.
Reason : Colloidal particles adsorb common ions and thus become charged.
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Q.23 Assertion : For adsorption DG, DH, DS all have –ve values
Reason : Adsorption is a spontaneous exothermic process in which randomness decreases
due to force of attraction between adsorbent and adsorbate.

Q.24 Assertion : A gas with higher critical temperature gets adsorbed to more extent than a gas
with lower critical temperature.
Reason : The easily liquifiable gases get adsorbed to more extent which have higher critical
temperature.

Q.25 Assertion : Fluorescein is an adsorption indicator.

Reason : Fluorescein is a dye.

Question No. 26 to 30 (5 questions)

Many lyophilic sols and a few lyophobic sols when coagulated under some special conditions, change
into semi rigid mass, enclosing whole amount of liquid within itself, it is called Gel process is called
gelation. Gelatin Agar-Agar, gum-Arabic can be converted into gels by cooling them under moderate
concentration conditions. Hydrophobic sols like silicic acid, Al(OH)3 are prepared by double
decomposition and exchange of solvent method.
Q.26 Which of the following is not a gel?
(A) Cheese (B) Jellies (C) Curd (D) Milk

Q.27 When liquid is dispersed in solid, it is called

(A) Sol (B) Emulsion (C) Gel (D) Aerosols

Q.28 Which of the following is used to adsorb water

(A) Silica gel (B) Calcium acetate (C) Hair gel (D) Cheese

Q.29 The process of imbibing water when elastic gels are placed in water is called
(A) Imbibation (B) Sybneresis (C) Coagulation (D) Thioxotropy

Q.30 Some types of gels like gelatin and silica liquify on shaking thereby changing into sols. The sols on
standing change back into gels. This process is known as:
(A) Syneresis (B) Thixotropy
(C) Double decomposition (D) Peptization
Question No. 31 to 35 (5 questions)
Whenever a mixture of gases is allowed to come in contact with a particular adsorbent under the same conditions,
the more strong adsorbate adsorbate is adsorbed to greater extent irrespective of its amount present, e.g. H2O
is adsorbed to more extent on silica gel than N2 and O2. This shows that some adsorbates are preferentially
adsorbed. It is also observed that preferentially adsorbable adsorbents can displace a weakly adsorbed substance
from the surface of an adsorbent.
Q.31 Which of the following gases is adsorbed to maximum extent:
(A) He (B) Ne (C) Ar (D) Xe

Q.32 Which of the gas can displace remaining all the gases
(A) O2 (B) N2 (C) CO (D) H2

Q.33 When temperature is increased

(A) extent of adsorption increases
(B) extent of adsorption decreases
(C) no effect on adsorption
(D) extent of adsorption first decreases, then increases
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Q.34 Chromatogarphic separations are based on

(A) differential solubility (B) differential adsorption
(C) differential adsorption (D) None of these

Q.35 Activated charcoal is prepared by

(A) heated charcoal with steam so that it becomes more porous
(B) adding Ca3(PO4)2 to charcoal
(C) adding impurity to charcoal
(D) reacted with conc. HNO3

Question No. 36 to 40 (5 questions)

The clouds consist of charged particles of water dispersed in air. Some of them are + vely charged,
others are negatively charged. When + vely charged clouds come closer they have cause lightening and
thundering whereas when + ve and –ve charged colloids come closer they cause heavy rain by aggregation
of minute particles. It is possible to cause artificial rain by throwing electrified sand or silver iodide from
an aeroplane and thus coagulation the mist hanging in air.

Q.36 When excess of AgNO3 is treated with KI solution, AgI forms

(A) +ve charged sol (B) –vely charged sol (C) neutral sol (D) true solution

Q.37 Clouds are colloidol solution of

(A) liquid in gas (B) gas in liquid (C) liquid in liquid (D) solid in liquid

Q.38 AgI helps in artificial rain because

(A) It helps in condensation process (B) It helps in dispersion process
(C) It helps in coagulation (D) All of them

Q.39 Electrical chimneys are made on the principle of

(A) Electroosmosis (B) Electrophoresis (C) Coagulation (D) All of these

Q.40 Smoke screens consist of

(A) Fine particles of TiO2 dispersed in air by aeroplanes
(B) Fine particle of AgI dispersed in air by aeroplanes
(C) Fine particle of Al2O3 dispersed in air by aeroplanes
(D) None of these
Question No. 41 to 45 (5 questions)
In macromolecular type of colloids, the dispersed particles are themselves large molecules (usually polymers).
Since these molecules have dimensions comparable to those of colloidal particles, their dispersions are called
macromolecular colloids. Most lyophilic sols belong to this category. There are certain colloids which behave as
normal strong electrolytes at low concentrations, but exhibit colloidal properties at higher concentrations due to
the formation of aggregated particles. These are known as micelles or associated colloids. Surface active agents
like soaps and synthetic detergents belong to this class.

· Critical micelle concentration (CMC) is the lowest concentration at which micelle formation
appears. CMC increases with the total surfactant concentration. At concentration higher than
CMC, they form extended parallel sheets known as lamellar micelles which resemble biological
membranes. With two molecules thick, the individual molecule is perpendicular to the sheets
such that hydrophilic groups are on the outside in aqueous solution and on the inside is a non-polar
medium.

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· In concentrated solutions, micelles take the form of long cylinders packed in hexagonal arrays
and are called lytotropic mesomorphs.
· In an aqueous solution (polar medium), the polar group points towards the periphery and the
hydrophobic hydrocarbon chains point towards the centre forming the core of the micelle.
· Micelles from the ionic surfactants can be formed only above a certain temperature called the
Kraft temperature.
· They are capable of forming ions
· Molecules of soaps and detergents consist of lyophilic as well as lyophilic parts which associate
together to form micelles.
· Micelles may contain as many as 100 molecules or more.

Q.41 Select incorrect statement(s):

(A) Surface active agent like soaps and synthetic detergents are micelles
(B) Soaps are emulsifying agents
(C) C17H35 (hydrocarbon part) and –COO– (carboxylate) part of stearate ion (C17H35COO–) both
are hydrophobic
(D) All are incorrect statements

Q.42 Which part of the soap (RCOO–) dissolves grease and forms micelle?

(A) R part (called tail of the anion) (B) –COO– part (called head of the anion)
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these

Q.43 In multimolecular colloidal sols, atoms or molecules are held together by:
(A) H-bonding (B) van der Waals forces
(C) ionic bonding (D) polar covalent bonding

Q.44 Select correct statement(s) about phospholipids:

(A) In aqueous solution, they form micelles
(B) They form bilayers
(C) They are principal components of cell membranes
(D) All of the above are correct statements

Q.45 Cleansing action of soap occurs because:

(A) oil and grease can be absorbed into the hydrophobic centres of soap micelles and washed away
(B) oil and grease can be absorbed into hydrophilic centres of soap micelles acid washed away
(C) oil and grease can be absorbed into both hydrophilic and hydrophobic centres but not washed away
(D) cleansing action is not related to micelles

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Q.1 B Q.2 D Q.3 C Q.4 B

Q.5 B Q.6 A Q.7 D Q.8 A,B

Q.9 A,B,D Q.10 A,B,D Q.11 A,B Q.12 A,B,C

Q.13 A,B Q.14 A,C Q.15 A,B,C Q.16 B,C,D

Q.17 A,C Q.18 A,B Q.19 A,B Q.20 B,D

Q.21 B Q.22 D Q.23 A Q.24 A

Q.25 B Q.26 D Q.27 C Q.28 A

Q.29 A Q.30 B Q.31 D Q.32 C

Q.33 B Q.34 B Q.35 A Q.36 A

Q.37 A Q.38 A Q.39 B Q.40 A

Q.41 C Q.42 C Q.43 B Q.44 D

Q.45 A

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