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GS Test 17 Question Paper - Prelims 2020

1. The document is a sample question paper that contains 23 multiple choice questions covering topics related to history, politics, science, and current affairs. 2. The questions are about topics like characteristics of Nath panthis, Siddhas and Yogis, organization of State Legislatures in India, causes of hunger crises, bacteria that fix atmospheric nitrogen, status of tiger populations in India, location of Pandrethan temple, provisions of reservation under the 73rd Amendment Act, meaning of tax buoyancy, gene pool centres, Escherichia coli, cotton production in India, classification of Humayun's Tomb, citizenship acquisition in India, taxation of NRIs, Glanders disease, classification of planets

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
154 views19 pages

GS Test 17 Question Paper - Prelims 2020

1. The document is a sample question paper that contains 23 multiple choice questions covering topics related to history, politics, science, and current affairs. 2. The questions are about topics like characteristics of Nath panthis, Siddhas and Yogis, organization of State Legislatures in India, causes of hunger crises, bacteria that fix atmospheric nitrogen, status of tiger populations in India, location of Pandrethan temple, provisions of reservation under the 73rd Amendment Act, meaning of tax buoyancy, gene pool centres, Escherichia coli, cotton production in India, classification of Humayun's Tomb, citizenship acquisition in India, taxation of NRIs, Glanders disease, classification of planets

Uploaded by

Ash
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

GS Test-17 (12th April 2020)

Question Paper
1. Which of the following characteristics were common among Nath panthis, Siddhas and
Yogis?
1. They advocated renunciation of the material world.
2. They advocated practice of yogasanas, breathing exercises and meditation for
salvation.
3. They were popular particularly among upper castes and affluent classes.
4. They insisted that the crux of bhakti lays in sharing other’s pain.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 3 and 4 only

2. Consider the following statements with reference to the State Legislatures:


1. There exists no uniformity in organisation of State Legislatures in India.
2. Creation/abolition of a State Legislative Council is not deemed as a constitutional
amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. Which of the following are causes that accentuate hunger crises in India?
1) Poverty
2) Low sanitation
3) Low women empowerment
4) Dietary issues
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

4. Consider the following pairs:


Bacteria Fixes/Changes
1) Anabaena : Ammonia into nitrite
2) Nitrosomonas : Atmospheric nitrogen into ammonium ions
3) Nitrobacter : Nitrite into nitrate
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

5. Consider the following statements regarding tigers in India:


1) There has been a substantial increase in the tiger population in the last 5 years.
2) Amrabad Tiger Reserve is the largest tiger reserve in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020)
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. From the locations given below, where would you find the remains of the famous ancient
temple of Pandrethan?
a) Sindh
b) Balochistan
c) Kumaon
d) Kashmir

7. In the context of reservation of seats under the 73rd Amendment Act, consider the following
statements:
1. Not less than 1/3rd of the total number of seats are reserved for women.
2. Not less than 1/3rd of the total number of seats are reserved for Scheduled
Castes/Scheduled Tribes.
3. Not less than 1/3rd of the total number of seats reserved for Scheduled
Castes/Scheduled Tribes shall be reserved for women among them.
4. Not less than 1/3rd of the seats of chairpersons at each level is reserved for women.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

8. Consider the following statements regarding Tax Buoyancy:


1) It is the responsiveness of tax revenue with a change in the tax rate.
2) Tax buoyancy for the financial year 2020 was lowest in the last decade.
3) In general, it is high for indirect taxes than direct taxes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 only

9. Which of the following best describes the term “gene pool centres”?
(a) Seed banks to store the germplasm of wild plants at low temperatures.
(b) Artificial habitats where specific tree and shrub species are cultivated.
(c) Areas on the Earth where important crop plants and domestic animals originated.
(d) Special category of protected areas where people are an integral part of the system.

10. With reference to Escherichia coli (E coli), consider the following statements:
1) It is commonly found in the gut of humans and cold-blooded animals.
2) It spreads through the consumption of undercooked meat products and raw milk.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

11. Consider the following statements regarding cotton production in India:


1) India’s cotton productivity is much lower than that of the other major cotton-producing
countries.
2) India is the world’s largest producer of organic cotton.

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020)


Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

12. Consider the following statements with reference to Humayun’s Tomb:


1. It is the first garden-tomb built in India.
2. It is a memorial erected by Akbar in the memory of his father.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. A child can acquire citizenship by birth in India in which of the following cases?
(1) Child born in India and one parent is a citizen while the other parent is a citizen by
registration.
(2) Child born in India and one parent is a citizen while the other parent is an immigrant.
(3) Child born in India and one parent is a citizen while the other parent is a naturalized
citizen.
(4) Children of foreign diplomats posted in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

14. Consider the following statements with reference to Non-Resident Indians (NRIs):
1) NRIs need to file tax returns in India if their taxable income exceeds Rs. 2.5 lakh.
2) Currently, a person staying out of the country for 183 days in a year is classified as an
NRI.
3) The income of an NRI generated in India, will be taxed in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

15. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Glanders’:


1) It is a contagious and fatal disease prevalent among equines.
2) The World Health Organization declared India free from Glanders in 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

16. Consider the following statements regarding the classification of planets:


1. Gas giants are planets composed of heavier elements like oxygen, carbon, nitrogen and
sulphur.
2. All the planets of the solar system are classified as either Gas giants or Ice giants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020)


(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

17. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?


a) Kuchipudi - Andhra Pradesh
b) Kathak - Kerala
c) Bharatanatyam -Tamil Nadu
d) Sattriya - Assam

18. Which of the following are the core functions of the United Nations multidimensional
peacekeeping operations?
1. Stabilization of Polity
2. Peace consolidation
3. Support the organization of elections
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only

19. Consider the following statements regarding 'Enhancing Coastal and Ocean Resource
Efficiency (ENCORE) Project':
(1) It aims to strengthen integrated coastal zone management in all coastal States and
Union Territories of India.
(2) It is being implemented in India with the support of the United Nations Environment
Program (UNEP).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

20. Match the List I and List II


A. Ashvaghosh 1. Ratnavali
B. Kalidasa 2. Mahaviracharitra
C. Bhavabhuti 3. Shakuntalam
D. Harshavardhan 4. Sariputraprakarana
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A-B-C-D
a) 1-3-4-2
b) 4-2-3-1
c) 4-3-2-1
d) 3-2-1-4

21. Consider the following statements with reference to the Presiding Officers of the Parliament:
1. Unlike the Speaker of Lok Sabha, the Chairman is not a member of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Like the Speaker, the Chairman of Rajya Sabha can vote in the first instance when a
resolution for his removal is under consideration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020)


22. Consider the following statements regarding the indices measuring Economic Freedom:
1. The Fraser Institute issues the Index of Economic Freedom.
2. The Heritage Foundation issues Global Economic Freedom Index.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

23. With reference to the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE) consider
the following pairs:
Initiatives Purpose
1. Perform Achieve and Trade Accelerating the shift to energy-efficient appliances in the
(PAT) specific application through innovative measures.
2. Market Transformation for Market assisted compliance mechanism in accelerating
Energy Efficiency (MTEE) the implementation of cost-effective improvements.
3. Energy Efficiency Financing Facilitating Financial Institutions to invest in Energy
Platform (EEFP) Efficiency Projects and Programmes
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

24. Consider the following statements regarding a river basin in India:


1) It is almost perennial and provides year-round water for irrigation and power generation.
2) It is one of the most exploited river basins with 90-95% of its irrigation and hydropower
potential already harnessed.
3) It forms some of the most fertile deltas in India and is known to be the granary of the
region.
Which of the following river basins is best described in the statements given above?
(a) Godavari river basin
(b) Ganga river basin
(c) Kaveri river basin
(d) Mahanadi river basin

25. Match the following List I and List II.


List-I (Subject Matter) List-II (Book)
A. Spheres 1. Lilavati
B. Mathematics of planets 2. Beejganita
C. Arithmetic 3. Goladhyaya
D. Algebra 4. Grahaganita
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A-B-C-D
a. 1-3-2-4
b. 3-4-1-2
c. 3-4-2-1
d. 4-3-2-1

26. Consider the following statements regarding the Motions tabled in the Parliament:
1. Censure Motion need not state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020)


2. No-Confidence Motion can be moved against the entire Council of Ministers only.
3. Adjournment Motion can be introduced in either House of the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

27. Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Deadweight Loss’, mentioned in
the Economic Survey 2019-20?
(a) A loss either in consumer surplus or producer surplus or both on account of adequate
output not being produced in the economy.
(b) A loss in ad valorem tax revenue with respect to weight losing goods like sugarcane.
(c) It refers to a loss in the value of tangible good on account of its wear and tear over a
period of time.
(d) It refers to the losses incurred by the firms on account of shrink in its value amidst
competition in the market.

28. Match List-I with List-II:


Biotic interactions Examples
A. Parasitism 1. Lichens
B. Mutualism 2. Lice on humans
C. Commensalism 3. Allelopathic secretions
D. Amensalism 4. Epiphytes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 1 2 4 3

29. With reference to the Indian Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio (ISEER), consider the
following statements:
1) ISEER is a rating methodology of Bureau of Energy Efficiency for air conditioners only.
2) According to the ISEER, both split and window air conditioners have the same
standards.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

30. Which of the following factors make ratooning technique popular among the Indian farmers?
1) It reduces the cost of production.
2) It reduces the maturity time of the crop.
3) It increases the yield with each successive crop.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

31. With reference to Peshwa Bajirao, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020)


(1) In the Battle of Palkhed, Bajirao defeated the Nizam leading to recognition of Maratha
monarch with rights to chauth and sardeshmukhi.
(2) The treaty of Bhopal led to ceding to the Peshwa the sovereignty over all lands between
the rivers Narmada and Tapi.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

32. Consider the following statements with reference to Grants:


1. Supplementary Grant is when the amount authorised by the Parliament is found to be
insufficient for that year.
2. Exceptional Grant is when a need has arisen during the current financial year not
contemplated in the Budget.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither nor 2

33. Consider the following statements in reference to Bharat Bond Exchange Traded Fund
(ETF):
1. It is India’s first corporate bond ETF which will invest in a basket of bonds issued by
CPSEs.
2. It will have two investment options with different maturity periods of 5 years and 10
years, respectively.
3. Units of this ETF will be relatively safer than other debt mutual funds.
4. There will be Bharat Bond fund of fund for investors not having Demat accounts.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

34. Consider the following pairs:


Cell Organelle Functions
1. Mitochondria : Synthesis of energy packets called ATP
2. Ribosome : sites of carbohydrate manufacture
3. Golgi bodies : involved in the manufacture of lysosomes
4. Plastids : provide green colour to the leaves
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

35. Which of the following regions in India face very high damage risk from seismic activities?
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Terai region of Bihar
3. Kathiawar Peninsula
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020)


(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

36. Consider the following statements regarding secondary succession:


1) It occurs after the complete or partial destruction of the existing community.
2) It is relatively slower as compared to primary succession.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

37. Consider the following statements with reference to Nadir Shah’s invasion of India:
(1) The Battle of Karnal was important in Nadir Shah’s invasion of India.
(2) Nadir Shah defeated the Marathas in Delhi during his campaign.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

38. Which of the following is/are ensured under Right to equality stated in Article 14 of the
Indian Constitution?
(1) Absence of special privileges in favour of any person.
(2) Equality of treatment under all circumstances.
(3) Forbids the classification of persons for legislative purposes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

39. Which of the following arrangements of the order of inflation is in ascending order?
(a) Trotting < creeping < galloping < hyperinflation
(b) Creeping < galloping < trotting < hyperinflation
(c) Creeping < trotting < galloping < hyperinflation
(d) Trotting < creeping < hyperinflation < galloping

40. What is RaIDer-X, recently in the news?


(a) It is the first Indigenous High-Temperature Fuel Cell System developed by CSIR.
(b) It is a methane-powered rocket engine developed by ISRO.
(c) It is a new bomb detection device developed by DRDO and IISc, Bangalore.
(d) It is a two-dimensional mobile surveillance radar for high-level target detection.

41. In India, which of the following regions exhibits succession from tropical evergreen forests to
temperate forests?
1) Purvanchal Himalayas
2) Nilgiri Hills
3) Ladakh Range
4) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 4 only

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020)


(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

42. Which of the following battles of British in India saw “The Black Hole Tragedy” as a prelude
to the battle?
(a) Battle of Wandiwash
(b) Battle of Saragarhi
(c) Battle of Chillianwala
(d) Battle of Plassey

43. With reference to “Writ of Habeas Corpus”, consider the following statements:
1. It is considered as the bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention.
2. It cannot be issued against private individuals.
3. It cannot be issued if the detention is outside the jurisdiction of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

44. Consider the following statements with respect to payment of compensation to the States
under Goods and Services Tax (GST):
1) The GST Council recommends the compensation to States, which is finalized by the
Parliament.
2) As per the Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to States) Act, 2017 compensation
will be paid to the States for five years only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

45. Consider the following statements regarding water hyacinth:


1. It produces carbon nanoparticles which can be used for detecting herbicide pollution.
2. It is a free-floating aquatic plant native to South America.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

46. Which of the following best describes ‘Waymo’ and ‘Apolong’, recently in the news?
(a) Autonomous vehicles
(b) Hyperloop Systems
(c) Water planes
(d) Passenger submarines

47. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?


Schemes Implementing states
1. Mukhya Mantri Krishi Ashirwad Yojana Madhya Pradesh
2. KALIA Scheme Odisha
3. Rythu Bandhu Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020)


(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

48. Which of the following statements are the most likely advantages of successful
implementation of Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana?
1) Reclamation of degraded land and check on soil degradation.
2) Reduction in cost of agricultural inputs.
3) Drastic increase in yield of crop per hectare of farmland.
4) Value realization of farm produce through improved marketing infrastructure.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

49. They were a community that specialised in the craft of iron smelting who had stopped their
work and deserted their villages due to a series of famines in the dry tracts of India in the
19th century. They were concentrated mostly in Central India. Some of them were helpful to
Tatas, in finding the Iron ore reserves for their factory in Chhattisgarh in the early 20th
century.
Which of the following tribe/community in the British period best fits into the description
given above?
(a) Ramoshis
(b) Tantis
(c) Kaikollars
(d) Agarias

50. Consider the following statements with reference to amendments to the Constitution:
1. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment abolished the Right to Property as a Fundamental
Right.
2. The 86th Constitutional Amendment makes only elementary education as a Fundamental
Right.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

51. Consider the following pairs:


Terms Definition/ Characteristics
1) Reserve : The proportion of the total
Deposit Ratio deposits of commercial banks
kept as reserves.
2) Currency : Reflects people’s preference for
Deposit Ratio liquidity.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

52. With reference to the marine organisms, consider the following pairs:
Marine Organisms Characteristics

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020)


1. Sea Grass : Are not actually plants or animals, but Protists.
2. Kelp : A type of seaweed.
3. Sea Weed : Possess specialized tissues like roots, stems and leaves.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

53. The Western Dedicated Freight Corridor of Indian Railways, currently under construction,
does not pass through which of the following States?
1) Haryana
2) Uttar Pradesh
3) Punjab
4) Madhya Pradesh
5) Rajasthan
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 3 and 4 only
(b) 3 and 5 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

54. Which of the following invasive alien species are found in India?
1) Amazon sailfin catfish
2) Papaya Mealy Bug
3) Senna spectabilis
4) Orange Cup-Coral
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

55. With reference to the Charter Act of 1813, which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The constitutional position of the British territories in India was explicitly defined for the
first time.
(b) The Company’s monopoly over trade in all commodities was ended.
(c) Christian missionaries were permitted to come to India to preach.
(d) Separate accounts were to be kept by the Company regarding commercial transactions
and territorial revenues.

56. Which of the following educational institutions completely prohibits imparting of religious
instruction?
(a) Institutions recognised by the State.
(b) Institutions wholly maintained by the State.
(c) Institutions receiving aid from the State.
(d) Institutions administered by State but established under any endowment or trust.

57. Consider the following statements regarding the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
1) They were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’.
2) There are 17 SDGs with 169 targets as given by UNDP.

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020)


3) The Division for Sustainable Development Goals (DSDG) in the United Nations
Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UNDESA) acts as the Secretariat for the
SDGs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

58. In the term ‘Die Shrink’ associated with nanotechnology, what does ‘Die’ mean?
(a) 3D Printer
(b) Drug delivering biomolecules
(c) Self-destructible nanochips
(d) The functional block of a semiconductor

59. Consider the following pairs:


Plate Boundary interaction Landform formed
1) South American- Caribbean Lesser Antilles
2) Pacific- Eurasia Japan island arc
3) Scotia-South American Peru-Chile trench
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

60. Arrange the following rebellions in chronological order:


(1) Bastar rebellion
(2) Warli rebellion
(3) Kol rebellion
(4) Santhal rebellion
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2-1-3-4
(b) 1-3-4-2
(c) 4-1-3-2
(d) 3-4-1-2

61. The appointment of District judges in a State are made by the Governor in consultation with
the
(a) Chief Minister
(b) State Council of Ministers
(c) State Public Service Commission
(d) High Court of the State

62. Which of the following is/are the instruments of secondary capital market?
1) Initial Public Offering
2) Bonds
3) Preference shares
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020)


63. Consider the following statements regarding the SuM4All Initiative:
1) It is a global coalition that aims to support a transition towards equitable, efficient, green
and safe mobility.
2) The Initiative has been set up by the World Bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

64. The Standard Model of particle physics theory does not include which of the following
fundamental forces?
(a) Electromagnetic force
(b) Gravitational force
(c) Weak nuclear force
(d) Strong nuclear force

65. With reference to Sir Syed Ahmed Khan, which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) He was a loyalist member of the judicial service of the British government and was later
given a knighthood.
(b) He believed that religion should be adaptable with time or else it would become
fossilised.
(c) His progressive social ideas were propagated through his magazine Tahzeeb-ul-Akhlaq.
(d) He encouraged political activity by Muslims and in his later years, actively supported
Congress.

66. Which of the following are the key dimensions of the National Mission for Sustainable
Agriculture (NMSA)?
1) Water use efficiency
2) Nutrient Management
3) Livelihood diversification
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

67. Consider the following statements with reference to Lok Adalats:


1) System of Lok Adalats is based on Gandhian principles.
2) It is one of the mechanisms of the Alternative Dispute Resolution.
3) It deals with the cases that are at a pre-litigation stage as well as which are pending in
the courts.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

68. Money supply refers to the total stock of money held by the ‘Public’. Which of the following
are parts of the term ‘Public’ in this context?
1) Non-Banking Financial Companies
2) Households
3) Reserves of IMF in Indian currency kept with RBI
4) Commercial Banks

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020)


Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

69. The terms ‘Bibha’ and ‘Santamasa’, recently in the news are related to
(a) the names of celestial bodies in the honour of an Indian Scientist.
(b) Two newly discovered massive glaciers in Antarctica.
(c) Names of recently discovered binary stars in the honour of Incas.
(d) Two new species of freshwater fishes discovered in the Western Ghats.

70. Which of the following factors contribute to the flourishing fishing industry in Japan?
1) Scarcity of natural resources like fertile land.
2) Scarcity of meat from livestock sector as a source of protein.
3) Abundance of planktons on continental shelves.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

71. India Cooling Action Plan (ICAP) will have a bearing on which of the following?
1) Doubling Farmers Income
2) Research and development in alternative cooling technologies.
3) Skilled workforce for better livelihoods
4) Thermal comfort of economically weaker section.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

72. With reference to the differences between Gandhiji and Subhash Chandra Bose, consider
the following statements:
1. Gandhiji believed in democracy, whereas Bose preferred a state with authoritarian
character.
2. Gandhiji dismissed both capitalism and socialism while Bose was in favour of
modernization.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

73. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution did not come into effect on 26th
November 1949?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Citizenship
(c) Elections
(d) Provisional Parliament

74. Which of the following factors affect the Balance of Payments (BoP) position negatively?
1) Rising short-term external debt

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020)


2) Correcting an inverted duty structure
3) Rising fiscal deficit
4) Increasing foreign portfolio investments
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

75. With reference to Human Papilloma Virus (HPV), consider the following statements:
1. It is the most common sexually transmitted infection (STI).
2. It is the most common cause of cervical cancer worldwide.
3. Its vaccine is included in the Intensified Mission Indradhanush 2.0.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

76. An ideal source region of air mass must possess which of the following essential conditions?
1. Extensive and homogeneous Earth’s surface
2. Convergence of air
3. Stable atmospheric conditions for a considerably long period
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

77. With respect to the Indian National Congress (INC), which of the following pairs is/are
correct?
INC Sessions INC President
1. The first President of : S. N. Banerjee
INC
2. First woman President : Annie Besant
of the INC
3. First English President : A.O. Hume
of INC
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

78. Which of the following statements regarding the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
is/are correct?
1) The powers of the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities in India have not been defined
under any statute except under the Constitution.
2) The post falls under the administrative functioning of the Union Ministry of Minority
Affairs.
3) He can enforce the Scheme of Safeguards for Linguistic Minorities and punish the erring
States if they do not comply.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020)


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

79. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India is prohibited in which of the following sectors?
1) Private Security Agencies
2) Multi Brand Retail Trading
3) Construction of Farm Houses
4) Nidhi Company
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

80. With reference to the Hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC)-141b, consider the following


statements:
1) India is yet to phase out Hydro chlorofluorocarbon (HCFC)-141b completely.
2) It is one of the most potent ozone-depleting chemicals after Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
3) It is used by foam manufacturing enterprises, mainly as a blowing agent.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

81. Which of the following factor is a major determinant of water-retention properties of soil?
(a) Soil Colour
(b) Soil Texture
(c) Soil Structure
(d) Soil pH

82. Which of the following reasons led to the formation of "Indian National Liberal Federation"?
a) Divide in Congress over the acceptance of Montagu Report of 1918.
b) Divide in Congress over the formation of a government after the elections in 1923.
c) The difference among Congress leaders over the Public Safety Bill in 1928.
d) Differences over resignation from the legislature after the call of Congress to do so.

83. Consider the following constitutional bodies:


1) National Commission for Scheduled Castes
2) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
3) Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
4) Attorney General of India
Which of the constitutional bodies given above were not parts of the original Constitution
adopted on 26th January 1950?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

84. Which of the following could be the possible impacts of US-China trade war?
1) India’s exports to the US could rise.
2) India’s FDI inflows might increase.
3) It may lower the world Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020)


4) The tariff war may turn into a currency war.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

85. Consider the following statements regarding RESPOND (Sponsored Research) programme,
sometimes in the news:
1. Under it, ISRO will set up five Space Technology Cells at premier institutes.
2. Under it, the rich talent of Academia/Faculty is being harnessed to support the Nation’s
Space programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

86. Consider the following pairs:


Banks Location
2) Grand Bank : Newfoundland
3) Dogger Bank : North Sea
4) Georges Bank : Philippines
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

87. Which of the following newspapers advocated revolutionary activities during the Indian
Freedom Struggle?
1. Bande Mataram
2. Sandhya
3. Yugantar
4. Kal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only

88. In the context of limitations of the institution of Lokpal, consider the following statements:
1) It cannot suo-motu proceed against any action committed by any public servant.
2) It cannot take up anonymous complaints; as such it requires the necessary details of the
complainant.
3) It cannot take up any case that is older than one year from the date it was committed.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

89. Which of the following statements most appropriately describes the purpose of the World
Economic Forum’s Re-skilling Initiative?

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020)


(a) It aims to provide new skills to the elderly to re-engage them in productive employment.
(b) It aims to help economies by providing new skills for the Fourth Industrial Revolution.
(c) It aims to re-skill individuals so that they can do their current jobs better.
(d) It aims to provide a formal certification to the people already having the required skills.

90. Consider the following statements regarding the [Link] initiative:


1. It is a World Economic Forum initiative to grow, restore and conserve 1 Trillion trees
across the world.
2. The initiative plans to unite governments, non-governmental organisations, businesses
and individuals.
3. It will support the UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration 2021-2030, led by UNEP and
FAO.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

91. Consider the following statements about ‘Praja Mandal’ during India’s freedom struggle:
1. It was a conglomeration of political movements in the princely states mobilized by its
rulers.
2. Initially, the Indian National Congress (INC) was reluctant to provide support to the Praja
Mandals.
3. It was established to encourage political dialogue between the princely class of India,
and the British Raj.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

92. Consider the following statements with reference to the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution:
1) In the state of Assam, Acts of both Parliament and State legislature apply as per the
Governor’s direction.
2) In case of presence of multiple tribes in a district, the Governor is empowered to divide
the district into several autonomous regions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

93. Autoclaving and Microwaving are the waste disposal methods related to which of the
following types of wastes?
(a) Plastic wastes
(b) Kitchen wastes
(c) Electronic wastes
(d) Biomedical wastes

94. Which of the following is not a factor that resulted in India’s decision of not joining the
Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)?
(a) Huge trade deficit with RCEP members.
(b) Indian investors are investing in RCEP countries instead of India.
(c) Concerns of dairy farmers.

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020)


(d) Data localisation rules.

95. Which of the following statements highlights the purpose of Muddiman Committee appointed
during the Indian freedom struggle?
a) To investigate the working of the Constitution as set up in 1921 under the India Act of
1919.
b) To make recommendations for reforms of Universities of India.
c) To enquire the income and expenditure of the Government of India.
d) To examine the currency situation in India.

96. Which of the following statements best describes VATAVARAN-2019, recently in the news?
(a) Short Film Competition and Festival on Environment.
(b) A Naval exercise in the Indian Ocean.
(c) A proposed Indian Mission for removal of plastics from the Indian Ocean.
(d) ISRO’s nanosatellite competition for college and university students in India.

97. Which of the following statements is not a restriction placed on the functions of the Attorney
General?
(a) He shall not defend an accused person in a criminal prosecution, without the permission
of the Government of India.
(b) He shall not be allowed to take up civil cases involving a sum of Rs 1 crore or more.
(c) He shall not accept appointment to any office in any company without the permission of
the Government of India.
(d) He shall not advise any Ministry or Department unless there is a proposal received from
the Ministry of Law and Justice in this regard.

98. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Biorock, recently in the news?
(a) Substance formed by electro-accumulation of minerals dissolved in seawater.
(b) Trademark name used for a modern water purification technology.
(c) Man-made rocks with the help of plant and animal wastes in laboratory.
(d) Sustainable material which replaces the use of the conventional quarried rocks.

99. ‘Confidence Building Measures’, ‘development of preventive diplomacy’ and ‘elaboration of


approaches to conflicts’ are related to which of the following organisation?
a) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
b) ASEAN Regional Forum
c) SAARC
d) European Union

100. Consider the following events with reference to the work of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar:
1. He formed Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha for removing difficulties of the untouchables.
2. He founded All India Anti Untouchability League, to remove untouchability in the society.
3. He led the temple entry movement at Kalaram Temple.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020)

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