1. An amplifier operating over a 2 MHz bandwidth has a 80 ohms input resistance. It is operating at 27 10. Convert noise factor of 4.

of 4.02 to equivalent noise temperature. Use 300 k for environmental

degree Celsius, has a voltage gain of 200 and input signal of 6 microvolts rms. Calculate the output temperature
rms noise. a. 876 K
a. 325.6 millivolts b. 900 K
b. 0.326 millivolts c. 906 K
c. 32.55 microvolts d. 875 K
d. d. 0.3255 microvolts 11. Atmospheric noise is less severe at frequencies above
2. Man-made noise is caused by a. 10 GHz
a. Lightning discharge b. 30 MHz
b. Solar eruptions c. 1 GHz
c. Distant stars d. Audio level
d. Arc discharges in electrical machines 12. The most common unit of noise measurement in white noise voltage testing
3. Cosmic noise is produced by a. NPR
a. Lightning discharge b. dBrn
b. Solar eruption c. dBW
c. Distant stars d. dBm
d. Industrial electrical discharges 13. What is the major cause of atmospheric or static noise?
4. One of the following type of noise becomes of great importance in high frequencies. It is the a. Meteor showers
a. Shot noise b. Sunspots
b. Random noise c. Airplanes
c. Impulse noise d. Thunderstorms
d. Transit-time noise 14. Background noise is the same as the following EXCEPT
5. Indicate the false statement a. Impulse noise
a. HF mixers are generally noisier than HF amplifiers b. Thermal noise
b. Impulse noise voltage is independent of bandwidth c. White noise
c. Thermal noise is independent of the frequency at which it is measured d. Gaussian noise
d. Industrial noise is usually of the impulse type 15. Noise is caused by the thermal agitation of electrons in resistance
6. The value of a resistor creating noise is doubled. The noise power generated is therefore a. All of these
a. Halved b. Thermal noise
b. Quadrupled c. Johnson’s noise
c. Doubled d. White noise
d. Unchanged 16. The unit of noise power of psophometer
7. One of the following is not useful for comparing the noise performance of receivers a. dBa
a. Input noise voltage b. pWp
b. Equivalent noise resistance c. dBm
c. Noise temperature d. dBm0
d. Noise figure 17. Extra-terrestrial noise is observable at frequencies from
8. Indicate the noise whose source is in a category different from that a. 0 to 20 KHz
a. Solar noise b. Above 2 GHz
b. Cosmic noise c. 8 MHz to 1.43 GHz
c. Atmospheric noise d. 5 to 8 GHz
d. Galactic noise 18. What signal-to-noise ratio is required for satisfactory telephone services?
9. Considered as the main source of an internal noise a. 50 dB
a. Flicker b. 30 dB
b. Thermal agitation c. 40 dB
c. Device imperfection d. 20 dB
d. Temperature change
19. A diode generator is required to produce 12 micro V of noise in a receiver with an input 27. Two resistors rated 5 ohms and 10 ohms are connected in series and are at 27 degrees Celsius.
impedance of 75 ohms and a noise power bandwidth of 200 KHz. Determine the current Calculate their combined thermal noise voltage for a 10 KHz bandwidth.
through the diode in milliamperes. a. 0.05 millivolts
a. 0.4 A b. 0.5 millivolts
b. 298 mA c. 0.05 microvolts
c. 0.35 A d. 0.005 microvolts
d. 300 mA 28. What is the reference frequency of CCITT psophometric noise measurement?
20. The equivalent noise temperature of the amplifier is 25 K. What is the noise figure? a. 800 Hz
a. 0.4 A b. 1500 Hz
b. 298 mA c. 3400 Hz
c. 0.35 A d. 1000 Hz
d. 300 mA 29. A three-stage amplifier is to have an overall noise temperature no greater than 70 K. The overall
21. The resistor R1 and R2 are connected in series at 300 K and 400 K temperature respectively. If R1 gain of the amplifier is to be at least 45 dB. The amplifier is to be built by adding a low-noise
is 200 ohms and R2 is 300 ohms, find the power produced at the load (RL = 500 ohms) over a first stage with existing characteristics as follows: stage 2 has 20 dB power gain and 3 dB noise
bandwidth of 100 KHz. figure. Stage 3 has 15 dB power gain and 6 dB noise figure. Calculate the maximum noise figure
a. 0.05 nanowatts (in dB) that the first stage can have.
b. 0.2 nanowatts a. 0.267 dB
c. 0.5 femtowatts b. 0.56 dB
d. 2.0 femtowatts c. 1.235 dB
22. The random unpredictable electric signals from natural causes, both internal and external to the d. 0.985 dB
system is known as 30. A transistor has measured S/N power of 60 at its input and 19 at its output. Determine the noise
a. Distortion figure of the transistor.
b. Noise a. 5 dB
c. Distortion b. 10 dB
d. Interference c. 2.5 dB
23. Given a factor of 10, what is the noise figure in dB? d. 7.5 dB
a. 20 dB 31. Which does not affect noise in a channel?
b. 10 dB a. None of these
c. 50 dB b. Bandwidth
d. 40 dB c. Temperature
24. The signal in a channel is measured to be 23 dBm while noise in the same channel is measured to be d. Quantizing level
23 dBm while noise in the same channel is measured to be 9dBm. The signal to noise ratio therefore 32. Reference noise temperature
is a. 70 deg F
a. 32 dB b. 30 deg C
b. 5 dB c. 290 Kelvin
c. -14 dB d. 25 deg C
d. 14 dB 33. Industrial noise frequency is between
25. If voltage is equal to twice its original value, what is its corresponding change in dB? a. 200 to 3000 MHz
a. 3 dB b. 15 to 160 MHz
b. 6 dB c. 0 to 10 kHz
c. 9 dB d. 20 GHz
d. 12 dB 34. Noise from random acoustic or electric noise that has equal per cycle over a specified total
26. NIF stand for frequency band
a. Non-intrinsic noise figure a. Thermal noise
b. Narrow interference figure b. White noise
c. Noise improvement factor c. Gaussian noise
d. Noise interference figure d. All of these
35. A transistor amplifier has a measured S/N power of 100 at its input and 20 at its output. 43. An amplifier with an overall gain of 20 dB is impressed with a signal whose power level is 1 watt.
Determine the noise figure of the transistor. Calculate the output power in dBm.
a. 14 dB a. 50 dBm
b. 7 dB b. 150 dB
c. -6 dB c. 80 dBm
d. -3 dB d. 100 dBm
36. What does the noise weighing curve show? 44. What is the effect on the signal to noise ratio of a system (in dB) if the bandwidth is doubled
a. Noise signals measured with a 144 handsets considering all other parameters to remain unchanged except the normal thermal noise only. The
b. Power levels of noise found in carrier systems S/N will be
c. The interfering effect of other frequencies in a voice channel compared with a a. Increased by a factor of 2
reference frequency of one kilohertz b. Decreased by ½ its value
d. Interfering effects of signals compared with a 3-KHz tone c. Increased by a factor of 4
37. The signal power of the input to an amplifier 100 microW and the noise power is 1 microW. At the d. Decreased to ¼ its value
output, the signal power is 1 W and the noise power is 40 mW. What is the amplifier noise figure? 45. Express the ratio in decibels of noise power ratio 50 is to 10 watts.
a. -6 dB a. 7 dB
b. 9 dB b. 21 dB
c. 6 dB c. 14 dB
d. -3 dB d. 3.5 dB
38. In measuring noise in a voice channel at a -4 dB test point level, the meter reads -70 dBm (F1A 46. What do you call the noise coming from the sun and stars?
weighted), convert the reading into pWp. a. Black-body noise
a. 53 b. Space noise
b. 93 c. Galactic noise
c. 63 d. All of these
d. 83 47. A satellite has a noise figure of 1.6 dB. Find its equivalent noise temperature.
39. An amplifier with 20 dB gain is connected to another with 10 dB gain by means of a transmission a. 139 K
line with a loss of 4 dB. If a signal with a power level of -14 dBm were applied to the system, b. 192 K
calculate the power output.
c. 291 K
a. 14 dBm
d. 129 K
b. -12 dB
48. What is the primary cause of atmospheric noise?
c. -20 dB
a. Thunderstorm
d. 12 dBm
b. Lightning
40. Two resistors, R1 and R2 have temperatures of 300 K and 400 K, respectively. What is the noise c. Thunderstorm and lightning
power if the two resistors are connected in series at 10 MHz bandwidth?
d. Weather condition
a. 96.6 fW
49. In a microwave communications system, determine the noise power in dBm for an equivalent noise
b. 55.2 fW
bandwidth of 10 MHz.
c. 41.4 fW
a. -104 dBm
d. 88.36 fW
b. -114 dBm
41. Determine the shot noise for a diode with a forward bias of 1.40 mA over an 80 kHz
c. -94 dBm
bandwidht. (q = 1.6x10 raised to minus 9 C)
d. -174 dBm
a. 6 nA
50. The solar cycle repeats the period if great electrical disturbance approximately every
b. 3 mA
a. 11 years
c. 12 nA
b. 10 years
d. 15 nA
c. 9 years
42. The total noise power present in a 1 – Hz bandwidth
d. 8 years
a. Noise density
51. One of the following refers to an output of a balanced modulator
b. Noise figure
a. SSB
c. Noise limit
d. Noise intensity b. ISB
 c. AM b. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
d. DSB c. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
52. Which of the following components is used to produce AM at very high frequencies? d. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
a. Cavity resonator 61. How can a DSB phone signal be generated?
b. PIN diode a. By feeding a phase modulated signal into a low pass filter
c. Varactor b. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
d. Thermistor c. By detuning a Hartley oscillator
53. A third symbol emission which represent data transmission including telemetry, and d. By modulating the plate voltage of a class C amplifier
telecommand 62. First symbol in the designation of radio signals emission which refers to use of an
a. B unmodulated carrier.
b. D a. J
c. C b. N
d. N c. H
54. In an AM wave, useful power is carried by d. A
a. None of these 63. One of the following is a communications filter generally used in the transceiver of a single
b. Sidebands sideband generator.
c. Both the sidebands and the carrier a. Lowpass filter
d. Carrier b. Crystal filter
55. Determine the modulation index of an standard FM broadcast having a hypothetical maximum c. Bandpass filter
carrier frequency deviation of ±12 kHz and a maximum modulating frequency pf 4kHz. d. Mechanical filter
a. 9 64. What is the modulation index for an AM signal having Vmax and Vmin of 2.6 and 0.29,
b. 6 respectively?
c. 3 a. 0.799
d. 4 b. 0.111
56. The process by which the intelligence signals normally at lower frequency are removed from the c. 0.894
transmission frequency after it is received in the receiver station. d. 0.639
a. Detection 65. What is the bandwidth of an AM signal modulated by a 15-kHz intelligence signal?
b. Demodulation a. 7.5 kHz
c. Amplification b. 15 kHz
d. Modulation c. 30 kHz
57. What is meant by the term modulation? d. 60 kHz
a. The squelching of a signal until a critical signal-to-noise ratio is reached 66. If a transmitter supplies 10 kW to the antenna when it is unmodulated, determine the total
b. Carrier rejection through phase nulling radiated power when it is modulated at 30%
c. A linear amplification mode a. 10.45 watts
d. A mixing process whereby information is imposed upon a carrier b. 10750 watts
58. What is a balanced modulator? c. 11.5 kilowatts
a. An FM modulator that produces balance deviation d. 10450 watts
b. A modulator that produces a DSBSC signal 67. Which of the following waveform characteristics determines the wavelength of a sine wave?
c. A modulator that produces a SSBSC signal a. Phase
d. A modulator that produces a full carrier signal b. Amplitude
59. What is a reactance modulator? c. Period
a. A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to produce FM signals d. Phase angle
b. A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to produce AM signals 68. In the F3E signal, what is the term for the ratio between the deviation of a frequency
c. A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to produce FM signals modulated signal and the modulating frequency?
d. A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to produce AM signals a. FM compressibility
60. How can an SSB phone signal be generated? b. Quieting index
a. By dividing product detector with a DSB signal c. Modulation index
 d. Percentage of modulation b. Nature of signals
69. Which frequency band is the standard AM radio broadcast? c. Type of information to be transmitted
a. HF d. Nature of multiplexing
b. UHF 78. An AM transmission of 3 kW is 100% modulated. If it is transmitted as an SSB signal, what would
c. MF be the total power transmitted?
d. VHF a. 500 W
70. The letter-designation B8E is a form of modulation also known as b. 1000 W
a. Pilot carrier system c. 1500 W
b. Independent sideband emission d. 2000 W
c. Lincompex 79. This circuit has the function of demodulating the frequency-modulated signal. It is a
d. Vestigial sideband transmission a. Automatic gain control
71. What are the two general categories of methods for generating emission F3E? b. Automatic frequency control
a. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with reactance modulator on the c. Envelope detector
oscillator d. Foster-Seeley discriminator
b. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a balanced modulator on the 80. Calculate the power in one sideband of an AM signal whose carrier power is 50 watts. The
oscillator unmodulated current is 2 A while the modulated current is 2.4 A.
c. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a balanced modulator on the a. 22 W
audio amplifier b. 33 W
d. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a reactance modulator on the c. 11 W
final amplifier d. 44 W
72. 100% modulation in AM means a corresponding increase in total power by ____. 81. The method of generating FM used by broadcasting station is
a. 25% a. Direct
b. 75% b. All of these
c. 100% c. Indirect
d. 50% d. Insertion
73. How does the SSB transmitter output power normally expressed? 82. Deviation ratio of an FM transmitter is the ratio of the
a. Average power a. Maximum frequency swing to the highest modulating frequency
b. In terms of peak envelope power b. Operating frequency of the assigned frequency
c. In terms of peak-to-peak power c. Frequency swing to the modulating frequency
d. Peak power d. Highest modulating frequency to the minimum frequency
74. Determine from the following the common use of DSB in broadcast and telecommunications 83. An AM transmitter is modulated by two sine waves at 1.5 kHz and 2.5 kHz with modulations of 20
a. Satellite communication percent and 80 percent respectively. Calculate the effective modulation index.
b. FM/TV stereo a. 0.7776
c. Two-way communications b. 0.6
d. Telephone systems c. 0.8246
75. What is the source of sidebands in frequency modulation? d. 1.0
a. Oscillator 84. A DSBSC system must suppress the carrier by 50 dB for its original value of 10 W. To what value
b. Baseband frequency must the carrier be reduced?
c. Mixer a. 1 milliwatt
d. Carrier harmonics b. 10 microwatts
76. What is the source of sidebands in frequency modulated voice? c. 0.10 milliwatts
a. A3F d. 0.01 microwatts
b. A3J 85. Which circuit in the AM transmitter does the frequency translation?
c. F3E a. Synthesizer
d. J3E b. Modulator
77. The third symbol in the designation of radio emission under the ITU refers to c. Mixer
a. Type of modulation of the main carrier d. Booster
86. A phase modulator has Kp= 2 rad/V. What RMS voltage of a sine wave would cause a peak phase c. AGC circuit
deviation of 30 degrees? d. FM demodulator
a. 0.158 V 95. A particular synthesizer which contains only a single crystal is
b. 0.185 V a. Direct
c. 0.518 V b. Crystal-modulated
d. 0.815 V c. Indirect
87. In a phase-locked loop, VCO stands for d. Exact
a. Variable capacitor oscillator 96. Type of emission most affected by selective fading
b. Varactor-capacitor oscillator a. FM and DSB AM
c. Voltage-controlled oscillator b. SSB and TV
d. VHF control oscillator c. CCTV and CW
88. Diagonal clipping in envelope detection will result in d. CW and SSB
a. Distortion 97. Which major element will not be found in every superheterodyne receiver?
b. Diagonal clipping a. RF amplifier
c. Phase reversal b. IF amplifier
d. Amplitude damage c. LO
89. An AM transmitter supplies a 10 kW of carrier power to a 50 ohm load. It operates at a carrier d. Mixer
frequency of 1.2 MHz and is 85% modulated by a 3 MHz sine wave. Calculate the RMS voltage of 98. A system uses a deviation of 100 kHz and a modulating frequency of 15 kHz. What is the
the signal. approximate bandwidth?
a. 825 W a. 115 kHz
b. 262. 61 V b. 230 kHz
c. 1166.7 V c. 170 kHz
d. 825 V d. 340 kHz
90. What will be the total sideband power of the AM transmitting station whose carrier power is 99. A quadrature detector requires that
1200W and a modulation of 95%? a. The inputs are coherent
a. 270.75 W b. Four gates are provided
b. 900 watts c. The inputs are in phase
c. 1.8 kW d. The inputs are similar
d. 542 W 100. What is the power in one sideband of an AM signal whose carrier power is 300 W, with 80
91. Which among the following is capable of generating frequency conversion? percent modulation?
a. Balanced modulator a. 396 W
b. Low-Q LC Circuit b. Zero
c. Transmitter c. 48 W
d. Circulator d. 96 W
92. The most commonly used AM demodulator 101. Determine the resonant frequency of a series combination of a 0.001 microfarad capacitor and
a. Envelope detector a 2 – milihenry inductor
b. PLL a. 112.5 kHz
c. Mixer b. 35.59 kHz
d. Balanced modulator c. 1125.4 MHz
93. Which is a disadvantage of direct FM generation? d. 3.26 MHz
a. The need for an AFC circuit 102. Which of the following is not a typical part of every radio transmitter?
b. The need for an AGC circuit a. Carrier oscillator
c. Two balanced modulators are used b. Driver amplifier
d. The use of Class A amplifier which is very inefficient c. Mixer
94. Frequency division is useful in the implementation of a/an d. Final power amplifier
a. AM demodulator 103. What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?
b. Frequency synthesizer a. Approximately equal to the circuit resistance
 b. Approximately equal to XL c. It is stable
c. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance d. It has high output power
d. Approximately equal to XC 114. How is the efficiency of a power amplifier determined?
104. What are the three major oscillator circuits often used in radio equipment? a. Efficiency = (RF power out / dc power in) x 100%
a. Taft, Pierce, and negative feedback
b. Efficiency = (RF power in / RF power out) x 100%
b. Colpitts, Hartley, and Taft c. Efficiency = (RF power in / dc power in) x 100%
c. Taft, Hartley, and Pierce d. Efficiency = (dc power in / RF power in) x 100%
d. Colpitts, Hartley, and Pierce 115. For reasonably efficient operation of a transistor amplifier, what should be the load resistance be
105. How is a positive feedback coupled to the input in a Hartley oscillator? with 12 volts at the collector and a 5 watts power output?
a. Through a neutralizing capacitor a. 100.3 ohms
b. Through a capacitive divider b. 14.4 ohms
c. Through a link coupling c. 10.3 ohms
d. Through a tapped coil d. 144 ohms
106. How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Colpitts oscillator? 116. What order of Q is required by a tank circuit sufficient to reduce harmonics to an acceptable
a. Through a tapped coil level?
b. Trough link coupling a. Approximately 120
c. Through a capacitive divider b. Approximately 12
d. Through a neutralizing capacitor c. Approximately 1200
107. How is a positive feedback coupled to the input in a Pierce oscillator? d. Approximately 1.2
a. Through a tapped coil 117. What is the flywheel effect?
b. Trough link coupling a. The continued motion of a radio wave through space when the transmitter is turned off
c. Through a capacitive divider b. The back and forth oscillation of electrons in an LC circuit
d. Through a neutralizing capacitor c. The use of a capacitor in a power supply to filter rectified AC
108. Which of the three major oscillator circuits used in radio equipment utilizes a quartz d. The transmission of a radio signal to a distant station by several hops through the
109. crystal? ionosphere
a. Negative feedback 118. How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated from a power amplifier?
b. Hartley a. By tuning for maximum SWR
c. Colpitts b. By tuning for maximum power output
d. Pierce c. By neutralization
110. What is the piezoelectric effect? d. By tuning the output
a. Mechanical vibration of a crystal by the application of a voltage 119. If the spectrum is shifted in frequency with no other changes, this is known as
b. Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field a. Frequency multiplication
c. The generation of electrical energy by the application of light b. Sideband movement
d. Reversed conduction states when pn-junction is exposed to light c. Baseband orientation
111. What is the major advantage of a Pierce oscillator? d. Frequency translation
a. It is easy to neutralize 120. A device which is capable of causing frequency translation
b. It doesn’t require an LC tank circuit a. High-Q tank circuit
c. It can be tuned over a wide range b. Balanced modulator
d. It has high output power c. Low-Q tank circuit
112. Which type of oscillator circuit is commonly used in a VFO? d. IF strip
a. Pierce 121. If the frequency of each component in a signal spectrum is increased by the same fixed amount,
b. Colpitts this is known as
c. Hartley a. Up conversion
d. Negative feedback b. Demodulation
113. Why is the Colpitts oscillator circuit commonly used in a VFO? c. Frequency translation
a. The frequency is a linear function of the load impedance d. Both a and c
b. It can be used with or without crystal lock-in
122. A particular amplifier is designed to be a frequency doubler. If the input signal frequency is d. Both a and b
15.4 MHz, a circuit in the output will be tuned to 131. In a broadcast station, the AGC is referred to as
a. 7.7 MHz a. Automatic gain control limiter
b. 15.4 MHz b. Compression amplifier
c. 30.8 MHz c. Loudness controller
d. 61.6 MHz d. All of the above
123. Any device to be used as a frequency multiplier must be 132. Class C amplifiers are not used in which type of transmitter?
a. Active a. AM
b. Passive b. SSB
c. Linear c. CW
d. Nonlinear d. FM
124. A particular amplifier circuit used for frequency coupling is known as 133. A circuit that isolates the carrier oscillator from load changes is called a
a. Push-push a. Final amplifier
b. Push-pull b. Driver amplifier
c. Pull-push c. Linear amplifier
d. Pull-pull d. Buffer amplifier
125. Frequency division is useful in the implementation of a 134. Bias for class c amplifier produced by an input RC network is known as
a. AM demodulation a. Signal bias
b. Frequency synthesizer b. Self-bias
c. FM demodulator c. Fixed external bias
d. AGC circuit d. Threshold bias
126. Indirect frequency synthesizers will include 135. Collector current in a class C amplifier is
a. phase-locked loop a. Sine wave
b. voltage-controlled oscillators b. Half-sine wave
c. multiple bank crystals c. Pulse
d. both A and B d. Square wave
127. A particular frequency synthesizer contains only a single crystal. What words describe this 136. Neutralizing is the process of
synthesizer? a. Cancelling the effect of internal device capacitance
a. Crystal modulated b. Bypassing undesired alternating current
b. Inexact c. Reducing gain
c. Indirect d. Eliminating harmonics
d. Deficient 137. In an AM transmitter, a clipper circuit eliminates
128. A recognizable feature of a CW transmitter is a. Harmonics
a. Keyed transmitter b. Splatter
b. Power amplification c. Over-deviation
c. Frequency generation d. Excessive gain
d. All of the above 138. The final power amplifier in an FM transmitter usually operates class
129. The term “pulling” refers to a. A
a. The change of the crystal oscillator frequency by loading b. B
b. One-half cycle operation of a push-pull amplifier c. C
c. Loading on the transmitter caused by the antenna connection d. D
d. Reduction of the power supply terminal voltage as the transmitter is keyed 139. A transistor RF power amplifier can be tuned for
130. An AM broadcast transmitter in the multikilowatt operating range will have what form of final a. Minimum IC in the next stage
amplifier? b. Zero signal in the next stage
a. Solid-state devices c. Minimum IC in the same stage
d. Maximum IC in the same stage
b. Vacuum tubes
140. The purpose of a balanced modulator circuit is to eliminate the
c. Travelling wave tubes
a. Carrier
 b. Upper sideband 148. A transmitter has a carrier power output of 10 W at an efficiency of 80%. How much power must be
c. Lower sideband supplied by the modulating amplifier for 100% modulation?
d. Baseband signal a. 6.25 W
141. A frequency multiplier circuit b. 7.14 W
a. Operates class A c. 12.5 W
b. Is tuned to a harmonic of the input signal d. 14.3 W
c. Needs parasitic oscillations 149. A transmitter operates from a 16 V supply, with a collector current of 2 A. The modulation
d. Is usually pulse modulated transformer has a turns ratio of 4:1. What is the load impedance seen by the audio amplifier?
142. An IF transformer of a radio receiver operates at 456 kHz. The primary circuit has a Q of 50 and a. 96 ohms
the secondary has a Q of 40. Find the bandwidth using the optimum coupling factor. b. 128 ohms
a. 10.192 kHz c. 6 ohms
b. 15.288 kHz d. 8 ohms
c. 152.88 kHz 150. A collector-modulated class C amplifier has a carrier output power of 150 W and an efficiency of
d. 101.92 kHz 80%. Calculate the transistor power dissipation with 100% modulation.
143. A varactor has a maximum capacitance of 80pF and is used in a tuned circuit with a 100 microhenry a. 93. 75 W
inductor. Find the tuning voltage necessary for the circuit to resonate at twice its resonant frequency b. 120 W
with no tuning voltage applied. c. 64 W
a. 5V d. 56. 25 W
b. 2.5 V 151. An AM transmitter is required to produce 20 W of carrier power when operating from a 25 V supply.
c. 7.5 V What is the required load impedance as seen from the collector?
d. 4.25 V a. 15.625 ohms
144. A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free-running frequency of 14 MHz. As the frequency of the b. 22.5 ohms
reference input is gradually raised from zero, the loop locks at 12 MHz and comes out of lock again c. 11.25 ohms
at 18 MHz. Calculate the capture range. d. 31.25 ohms
a. 4 MHz 152. What is receiver desensitizing?
b. 2 MHz a. A burst of noise when the squelch is set to low
c. 12 MHz b. A burst of noise when the squelch is set to high
d. 8 MHz c. A reduction in receiver sensitivity because of a strong signal on a nearby
145. If the frequency fed to the pre-amplifier of a basic transmitter with multipliers is composed of a pair frequency
of triplers and a doubler is 198 MHz, what frequency should the oscillator operate? d. A reduction in receiver sensitivity is turned down
a. 11 MHz 153. What is the term used to refer to the reduction of receiver gain caused by the signals of a nearby
b. 33 MHz station transmitting in the same frequency band?
c. 22 MHz a. Desensitizing
d. 66 MHz b. Quieting
146. A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free running frequency of 14 MHz. As the frequency of the c. Cross-modulation interference
reference input is gradually raised from zero, the loop locks at 12 MHZ and comes out of lock again d. Squelch gain roll back
at 18 MHz. Calculate the lock range. 154. What is the term used to refer to a reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by unwanted
a. 4 MHz high-level adjacent channel signals?
b. 2 MHz a. Intermodulation distortion
c. 12 MHz b. Quieting
d. 8 MHz c. Desensitizing
147. A crystal oscillator is accurate within 0.0005%. How far off frequency could its output be at d. Overloading
37 MHz? 155. How can receiver desensitizing be reduced?
a. 135 Hz a. Ensure good RF shielding between the transmitter and receiver
b. 150 Hz b. Increase the transmitter audio gain
c. 185 Hz c. Decrease the receiver squelch gain
d. 224 Hz d. Increase the receiver bandwidth
156. What is cross-modulation interference?
 a. Interference between two transmitters of different modulation types a. By a balanced modulator
b. Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver preamp b. By a frequency discriminator
c. Decrease the receiver squelch gain c. By a product detector
d. Modulation from an unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal d. By a phase splitter
157. What is the term used to refer to the condition where the signals from a very strong station are 166. What is the mixing process?
super imposed on the other signals being received? a. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase comparison
a. Intermodulation distortion b. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase differentiation
b. Cross-modulation interference c. Distortion caused by aural propagation
c. Receiver quieting d. The combination of the two signals to produce sum and difference frequencies
d. Capture effect 167. What is a frequency discriminator?
158. How can cross-modulation in a receiver be reduced? a. A circuit for detecting FM signals
a. By installing a filter at the receiver b. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
b. By using a better antenna c. An automatic band switching circuit
c. By increasing the receiver’s RF gain while decreasing the AF gain d. An FM generator
d. By adjusting the passband tuning 168. What are the principal frequencies which appear at the output of a mixer circuit?
159. What is the result of cross-modulation? a. Two and four times the original frequency
a. Decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals b. The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
b. Receiver quieting c. The original frequencies and the sum and difference frequencies
c. The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired signal d. 1.414 and 0.707 times the frequency
d. Inverted sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier 169. What occurs in a receiver when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches the mixer circuit?
160. What is the capture effect? a. Spurious mixer products are generated
a. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM receiver b. Mixer blanking occurs
b. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM receiver c. Automatic limiting occurs
c. The loudest signal received is the only demodulated signal d. A beat frequency is generated
d. The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal 170. How much gain should be used in the RF amplifier stage of a receiver?
161. What is a product detector? a. As much as possible short of self oscillation
a. A detector that provides local oscillator for input to the mixer b. Sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated in the first
b. A detector that amplifies and narrows the bandpass frequencies mixer
c. A detector that uses mixing process with a locally generated carrier c. Sufficient gain to keep weak signals below the noise of the first mixer stage
d. A detector used to detect cross-modulation products d. It depends on the amplification factor of the first IF stage
162. What is the term used to refer to the reception blockage of one FM-phone signal? 171. Why should the RF amplifier stage of a receiver only have sufficient gain to allow weak signals
a. Desensitization to overcome noise generated in the first mixer stage?
b. Cross-modulation interference a. To prevent the sum and difference frequencies from being generated
c. Capture effect b. To prevent bleed-through of the desired signal
d. Frequency discrimination c. To prevent generation of spurious mixer products
163. What is the process of detection? d. To prevent bleed-trough of the local oscillator
a. The process of masking out the intelligence on a received carrier to make an S-meter 172. What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a receiver?
operational a. To provide most of the receiver gain
b. The recovery of intelligence from the modulated RF signal b. To vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC
c. The modulation of a carrier c. To improve the receiver’s noise figure
d. The mixing of noise with the received signal d. To develop the AGC voltage
164. What is the principle of detection in a diode detector? 173. What is an IF amplifier stage?
a. Rectification and filtering of RF a. A fixed-tuned passband amplifier
b. Breakdown of the Zener voltage b. A receiver demodulator
c. Mixing with the noise in the transition region of the diode c. A receiver filter
d. The change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency d. A buffer oscillator
165. How are FM phone signals detected? 174. What factors should be considered when selecting an intermediate frequency?
 a. A cross-modulation distortion and interference a. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
b. Interference to other services b. Output-offset overshoot
c. Image rejection and selectivity c. Cross-modulation distortion
d. Noise figure and distortion d. Filter ringing
175. What is the primary purpose of the first IF amplifier stage in a receiver? 183. How can selectivity be achieved in the front and circuitry of a communications receiver?
a. A noise figure performance a. By using an audio filter
b. Tune out cross-modulation distortion b. By using a preselector
c. Dynamic response c. By using an additional RF amplifier stage
d. Selectivity d. By using an additional IF amplifier stage
176. What is the primary purpose of the final IF amplifier stage in a receiver? 184. How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF section compare with the bandwidth of a received
a. Dynamic response signal?
b. Gain a. Filter bandwidth should be slightly greater than the received signal bandwidth
c. Noise figure performance b. Filter bandwidth should be approximately half the received signal bandwidth
d. Bypass undesired signals c. Filter bandwidth should be approximately two times the received signal bandwidth
177. Which stage of a receiver primarily establishes its noise figure? d. Filter bandwidth should be approximately four times the received signal bandwidth
a. The audio stage 185. How can receiver selectivity be achieved in the IF circuitry of a communications receiver?
b. The IF stage a. Incorporate a means of varying the supply voltage to the local oscillator circuitry
c. The RF stage b. Replace the standard JFET mixer with a bipolar transistor followed by a capacitor of the
d. The local oscillator proper value
178. What is meant by the term noise figure in a communications receiver? c. Remove AGC action from the IF stage and confine it to the audio stage only
a. The level of noise entering the receiver from the antenna d. Incorporate a high-Q filter
b. The relative strength of a strength of a received signal 3 kHz removed from the 186. A receiver has a sensitivity of 0.6 microvolts and a blocking dynamic range of 60 dB. What is the
carrier frequency strongest signal that can be present along with a 0.6 microvolt signal without blocking taking place
c. The level of noise generated in the front end and succeeding stages of a receiver a. 600 millivolts
d. The ability of a receiver to reject unwanted signals at frequencies close to the desired one b. 600 microvolts
179. The ability of a communications receiver to perform well in the presence of strong signals c. 300 millivolts
outside the band of interest is indicated by what parameter? d. 300 mircovolts
a. Noise figure 187. An AM receiver is tuned to broadcast station at 600 kHz. Calculate the image rejection in dB
b. Blocking dynamic range assuming that the input filter consists of one tuned circuit with a Q of 40?
c. Signal-to-noise ratio a. 19.28 dB
d. Audio output b. 39.65 dB
180. What type problems are caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver? c. 38.57 dB
a. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong adjacent d. 19.83 dB
signals 188. A receiver has two uncoupled tuned circuits before the mixer, each with a Q of 75. The signal
b. Oscillator instability requiring frequent returning, and loss of ability to recover the frequency is 100.1 MHz. The IF is 10.7 Mhz. The local oscillator uses high-side injection.
opposite sideband should it be transmitted Calculate the image rejection ratio.
c. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the a. 23.69 dB
speaker b. 58.66 dB
d. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest signal c. 29.33 dB
received signals d. 11.84 dB
181. What is the term for the ratio between the largest tolerable receiver input signal and the minimum 189. What oscillator frequency is needed to heterodyne 626 kHz up to 3.58 MHz?
discernible signal? a. 2.954 MHz
a. Intermodulation distortion b. 4.832 MHz
b. Noise floor c. 4.210 MHz
c. Noise figure d. 2.328 MHz
d. Dynamic range 190. What is the undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?
182. What occurs during CW reception if too narrow a filter bandwidth is used in the IF stage of a a. Output-offset overshoot
receiver? b. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
 c. Thermal noise distortion d. Double conversion
d. Filter ringing 199. A receiver has poor IF selectivity. It will therefore also have poor
191. What is the limiting condition for sensitivity in a communications receiver? a. Blocking
a. the noise floor of the receiver b. Double-spotting
b. the power supply output ripple c. Diversity reception
c. the two-tone intermodulation distortin d. Sensitivity
d. the input impedance to the detector 200. If a FET is used as the first AF amplifier in a transistor receiver, this will have the effect of
192. What parameter must be selected when designing an audio filter using an op-amp? a. Gain variation over the frequency coverage range
a. Bandwidth characteristics b. Insufficient gain and selectivity
b. Desired current gain c. Inadequate selectivity at high frequencies
c. Temperature coefficient d. Instability
d. Output-offset overshoot 201. The image frequency of a superheterodyne receiver
193. What two factors determine the sensitivity of a receiver? a. Is created within the receiver itself
a. Dynamic range and third-order intercept b. Is due to insufficient adjacent channel rejection
b. Cost and availability c. Is not rejected by the IF tuned circuits
c. Intermodulation distortion and dynamic range d. Is independent of the frequency to which receiver is tuned
d. Bandwidth and noise figure 202. ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples of _________ encoding.
194. How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multisection op-amp RC audio a. Digital-to-digital
filter circuit? b. Digital-to-analog
a. Restrict both gain and Q c. Analog-to –analog
b. Restrict gain, but increase Q d. Analog-to-digital
c. Restrict Q but increase gain 203. Unipolar, bipolar, and polar encoding are types of ___________ encoding.
d. Increase both gain and Q a. Digital-to-digital
195. What is meant by the dynamic range of a communications receiver? b. Digital-to-analog
a. The number of kHz between the lowest and the highest frequency to which the c. Analog-to-analog
receiver can be tuned d. Analog-to-digital
b. The maximum possible undistorted audio output of the receiver referenced to one 204. PCM is an example of __________ encoding.
milliwatt a. Digital-to-digital
c. The ratio between the minimum discernible signal and the largest tolerable b. Digital-to-analog
signal without causing audible distortion products c. Analog-to –analog
d. The difference between the lowest frequency signal detectable without moving the d. Analog-to-digital
tuning knob 205. AM and FM are examples of ________ encoding.
196. Where is the noise which primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a VHF (150 MHz) a. Digital-to-digital
marine band receiver generated? b. Digital-to-analog
a. In the receiver front end c. Analog-to –analog
b. Man-made noise d. Analog-to-digital
c. In the atmosphere 206. In QAM, both phase and ________ of a carrier frequency are varied.
d. In the ionosphere a. Ampliftued
197. An AM receiver uses a diode detector for demodulation. This enables it satisfactorily to receive b. Frequency
a. Single-sideband, suppressed carrier (J3E) c. Bit rate
b. Single-sideband, reduced carrier (R3E) d. Baud rate
c. ISB(B8E) 207. Which of the following is most affected by noise?
d. Single-sideband, full carrier (H3E) a. PSK
198. Three-point tracking is achieved with b. ASK
a. Variable selectivity c. FSK
b. The padder capacitor d. QAM
c. Double spotting
208. If the frequency spectrum of a signal has a bandwidth of 500 Hz with the highest frequency at c. 8 bits/cycle
600 Hz, what should be the sampling rate according to the Nyquist theorem? d. 2 bits/cycle
a. 200 samples/sec 217. In _________ transmission, bits are transmitted simultaneously, each across its own channel .
b. 500 samples/sec a. Asynchronous serial
c. 1000 samples/sec b. Synchronous serial
d. 1200 samples/sec c. Parallel
209. If the baud rate is 400 for a 4-PSK, the bit rate is ______ bps. d. A and B
a. 100 218. Data are sent over pin ________ of the EIA-RS-232 interface.
b. 400 a. 2
c. 800 b. 3
d. 1600 c. 4
210. Determine the channel capacity of a 4 kHz channel with S/N = 10 dB. d. All of the above
a. 8.02 kbps 219. In the EIA-RS-232 standard what does -12V on a data pin represent?
b. 4.17 kbps a. 1
c. 13.74 kbps b. 0
d. 26.58 kbps c. Undefined
211. If the bit rate for an ASK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is d. Either 1 or 0 depending on the coding scheme
a. 300 220. The majority of the pins f the EIA-RS-232 interface are used for _____ purpose.
b. 400 a. Control
c. 600 b. Timing
d. 1200 c. Data
212. Which encoding method uses alternating positive and negative values for 1’s? d. Testing
a. NRZ-I 221. X-21 uses a _____ connector.
b. RZ a. DB-15
c. Manchester b. DB-25
d. AMI c. DB37
213. If the maximum value of a PCM signal is 31 and the minimum value is -31, how many bits d. DB-9
were used for coding? 222. If you have two close, compatible DTEs that can communicate data that do not need to be
a. 4 modulated. A good interface would be ________.
b. 5 a. A null modem
c. 6 b. An EIA-RS-232 modem
d. 7 c. A DB-45 connector
214. Deliberate violations of alternate mark inversion are used in which type of digital-to-digital d. A transceiver
encoding? 223. What is the object of trellis coding??
a. AMI a. To narrow bandwidth
b. B8ZS b. To simplify encoding
c. RZ c. To increase data rate
d. Manchester d. To reduce the error rate
215. RZ encoding involves _______ levels of signal amplitude. 224. In trellis coding. The number of the data bits is _____ the number of transmitted bits.
a. 1 a. Equal to
b. 3 b. Less than
c. 4 c. More than
d. 5 d. Double that of
216. If the transmission rate of a digital communication system of 10 Mbps modulation scheme used 225. Which ITU-T modem uses trellis coding?
in 16-QAM, determined the bandwidth efficiency. a. V.33
a. 16 bits/cycle b. V.34
b. 4 bits/cycle c. V.39
 d. V.37 a. EIA-RS-449
226. The signal between two modems is always b. EIA-RS-232
a. Digital c. EIA-RS-423
b. Analog d. RS-422
c. PSK 235. A cable range of 40 to _____ feet is possible according to the EIA-RS-449 standard.
d. QAM a. 50
227. For digital communications, determine the signal to noise ratio in dB which would be required for an b. 400
ideal channel with a bandwidth of 2500 Hz. c. 500
a. 5 d. 4000
b. 9.54 dB 236. What is the bandwidth required to transmit at a rate of 10Mbits/sec in the presence of a 28 dB S/N
c. 4.77 dB ratio?
d. 3.4 a. 107.5 kHz
228. For a PCM system with a maximum decoded voltage at the receiver of ±2.55 V and minimum b. 3.57 MHz
dynamic range of 46 dB, determine the maximum quantization error. c. 357.14 kHz
a. 5.0 V d. 1.075 MHz
b. 0.5 V 237. The maximum data rate for RS-442 is ________ times that of the maximum RS-423 data rate.
c. 0.005 V a. 0.1
d. 0.05 V b. 10
229. Determine the bandwidth efficiency for QPSK modulation scheme at a transmission rate of 10 c. 100
Mbps. d. 500
a. 2 bits/cycle 238. For an Ethernet bus that is 500 meters in length using a cable with a velocity factor of 0.66, and a
b. 4 bits/cycle communication rate of 10 Mb/s, calculate the total number of bits that would be sent by each station
c. 8 bits/cycle before it detects a collision, if both stations begin to transmit at the same time.
d. 16 bits/cycle a. 25 bits
230. A modulator converts a (an) ______ signal to a (an) __________ signal. b. 30 bits
a. Digital, analog c. 19 bits
b. Analog, digital d. 41 bits
c. PSK, FSK 239. A ______ is a device that is a source of or a destination for binary digital data.
d. FSK, PSK a. Data terminal equipment
231. Which of the following modulation techniques are used by modems? b. Data transmission equipment
a. 16-QAM c. Digital terminal encoder
b. FSK d. Data-circuit terminating equipment
c. 8-PSK 240. An asynchronous communications system uses ASCII at 9600 bps with eight bits, one start bit, one
d. All of the above stop bit and no parity bit. Express the data rate in words per minute. (Assume a word has five
232. A broadcast TV channel has a bandwidth of 6 MHz. Ignoring noise, calculate the maximum data rate characters and one space).
that could be carried in a TV channel using a 16-level code and determine the minimum possible a. 9600 wpm
signal-to-noise ratio in dB for the calculated data rate. b. 57600 wpm
a. 24 Mbps, 48 dB c. 160 wpm
b. 48 Mbps, 24 dB d. 11520 wpm
c. 24 Mbps, 24 dB 241. A telephone line has a bandwidth of 3.2 kHz and a signal-to-noise ratio of 34 dB. A signal is
d. 48 Mbps, 48 dB transmitted down this line using a four-level code. What is the maximum theoretical data rate ?
233. Which of the following modems uses FSK modulation? a. 12.8 kbps
a. Bell 103 b. 6.4 kbps
b. Bell 201 c. 36.144 kbps
c. Bell 212 d. 18.072 kbps
d. All of the above 242. For a binary phase shift keying (BPSK) modulation with a carrier frequency of 80 MHz and an
234. A maximum length of 50 feet is specified in standard __________. input bit rate of 10 Mbps. Determine the minimum Nyquist bandwidth.
 a. 40 MHz b. Electrical
b. 10 MHz c. Function
c. 20 MHz d. All of the above
d. 50 MHz 252. For sample rate of 30 kHz in a PCM system, determine the maximum analog input frequency .
243. The EIA standard specified in the EIA-232 standard is ______ volts. a. 30 kHz
a. Greater than -15 b. 15 kHz
b. Less than -15 c. 60 kHz
c. Between -3 and -15 d. 45 kHz.
d. Between 3 and 15 253. Two-state (binary) communications systems are better because
a. They can interface directly with the analog telephone network
244. 1 b. The components are simpler, less costly, and more reliable
c. People think better in binary
245. For a quarternary phase shift keying (QPSK) modulation, data with a carrier frequency of d. Interstate calls are less costly
70 MHz, and input bit rate of 10 Mbps, determine the minimum Nyquist bandwidth.
254. Codes are always
a. 10 MHz
a. Eight bits per character
b. 5 MHz
b. Either seven or eight bits per character
c. 20 MHz
c. Agreed upon in advance between sender receiver
d. 40 MHz
d. The same in all modern computers
246. 12 voice channels are sampled at 8000 sampling rate and encoded into 8-bit PCM word.
255. DCE and DTE
Determine the rate of the data stream.
a. Means “digital communications equipment” and “digital termination equipment”
a. 768 kbps
b. Are connected by either two or four wires
b. 12 kbps
c. Refer to the modem and the computer or terminal, respectively
c. 12.8 kbps
d. Any one of the above
d. 46.08 kbps
256. The correctness and the accuracy of the transmitted message content is
247. The encoding method specified in the EIA-232 standard is _________.
a. Verified by the modem
a. NRZ-I
b. Determined by the sender and receiver, not by the communications system
b. NRZ-L
c. Ensured by use of digital techniques
c. Manchester
d. None of the above
d. Differential Manchester
257. Serial printers
248. A binary digital signal is to be transmitted at 10 kbits/s , what absolute minimum bandwidth is
a. Are used to transmit grain prices
required to pass the fastest information change undistorted?
b. Are faster than CRT terminals, and offer more flexibility
a. 5 kHz
c. Print one character at a time
b. 10 kHz
d. Usually use serial interfaces
c. 20 kHz
258. Ergonomics
d. 2.5 kHz
a. Involves the interface between people and machines, such as terminals
249. A coherent binary phase shift keyed (BPSK) transmitter operates at a bit rate of Mbps with a carrier
b. Is the application of ergo-economics to communications
to noise ratio C/N of 8.8 dB. Find Eb/No.
c. Utilizes three-level ergo-coding for transmission over certain channels
a. 8.8 dB
b. 16.16 dB d. All of the above
c. 21.81 dB 259. Serial and parallel transmission
d. 18.8 dB a. Differ in how many bits are transferred per character
250. The EIA-RS-232 interface has _______ pins. b. Are used in synchronous and asynchronous systems, respectively
a. 20 c. Both a and b
b. 36 d. Differ in whether the bits are on separate wires or on one
260. Asynchronous transmission
c. 25
a. Is less efficient than synchronous, but simpler
d. 19
251. The EIA-RS-232 standard defines _________ characteristics of the DTE-DCE interface. b. Is much faster than synchronous transmission
a. Mechanical c. Is another name for isochronous transmission
261. The amount of uncertainty in a system of symbols is also called a. Modulator
a. Bandwidth b. Transmission line
b. Loss c. Terminal
c. Entropy d. Equalizer
d. Quantum 271. The transmission signal coding method for T1 carrier is called
262. Redundancy measures a. Binary
a. Transmission rate of a system b. NRZ
b. How likely symbols are to be repeated c. Bipolar
c. Time between failures d. Manchester
d. System cost 272. The receiver equalizer in a synchronous modem is called
263. Loading refers to the addition of a. A compromise equalizer
a. Resistors b. A statistical equalizer
b. Capacitors c. An adaptive equalizer
c. Bullets d. An impairment equalizer
d. Inductance 273. Communications protocols always have a
264. Transmission of binary signals requires a. Set of symbols
a. Less bandwidth than analog b. Start of header
b. More bandwidth than analog c. Special flag symbol
c. The same bandwidth as analog d. BCC
d. Cannot be compared with the transmission of analog signals 274. The Baudot code uses how many bits per symbol?
265. RS-232, RS-449, RS-530, V.24, and X.21 are examples of a. 9
a. Standard for various types of transmission channels b. 7
b. Standard for interfaces between terminal and modems c. 5
c. Standards for between modems and transmission facilities d. 8
d. Standards for end-to-end performance of data communications system 275. How many messages may be acknowledged on a BiSync link?
266. What is one principal difference between synchronous and asynchronous a. 1
transmission? b. 2
a. The bandwidth required is different c. 4
b. The pulse heights are different d. 8
c. The clocking is mixed with the data in asynchronous 276. Which code set is used to BiSync when using VRC/LRC but not operating in
d. The clocking is derived from the data in synchronous transmission transparency mode
267. Synchronous modems cost more than asynchronous modems because a. EBCDIC
a. They are larger b. ASCII
b. They must contain clock recovery circuits c. SBT
c. The production volume is larger d. Fieldata
d. They must operate on a larger bandwidth 277. One primary difference between Digital Data Communications Message Protocol (DDCMP)
268. The scrambler in a synchronous modem is in the and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC) is
a. Control section a. DDCMP does not have a transparent mode
b. Receiver section b. SDLC does not use a CRC
c. Transmitter section c. DDCMP has a message header
d. Terminal section d. DDCMP does not require special hardware to find the beginning of a message
269. Binary codes are sometimes transformed in modems into 278. Which of the following transmission systems provides the highest data rate to an individual
a. Hexadecimal device?
b. Huffman codes a. Voiceband modem
c. Gray code b. Local area network
d. Complementary codes c. Computer bus
270. The digital-to-analog converter in a synchronous modem sends signals to the d. Digital PBX
279. Which of the following systems provides the longest digital transmission distances? 289. Which of the following LAN architectures can be expanded to the greatest total system
a. Voiceband modem bandwidth?
b. Local area network a. Digital PBX
c. Computer bus b. CSMA/CD baseband system
d. Digital PBX c. Token-passing network
280. Which of the following is a characteristic of a LAN? d. Broadband cable system
a. Parallel transmission 290. Which of the following systems is the most capable of servicing a wide range of applications?
b. Unlimited expansion a. Digital PBX
c. Low cost access for low bandwidth channels b. CSMA/CD baseband system
d. Application independent interfaces c. Token-passing network
281. Which of the following transmission media is not readily suitable to CSMA operation? d. Broadband cable system
a. Radio 291. Which of the following cannot be provided in a broadband LAN?
b. Optical fibers a. Frequency agile modems
c. Coaxial cable b. Closed-circuit TV
d. Twisted pair c. Voice circuits
282. Which of the following functions is not provided as part of the basic Ethernet design? d. Fiber optics transmission
a. Access control 292. Which of the following is not possible in a digital PBX using twisted pair
b. Addressing transmission?
c. Automatic retransmission of a message a. Computer port concentration
d. Multiple virtual networks b. 64-kbps data circuits
283. Which of the following is not a useful property of a Manchester line code for an Ethernet? c. High-speed file transfers
a. Continuous energy d. Transmission up to several thousand feet
b. Continuous clock transmissions 293. Which of the following is not a motivation in digitizing a voice signal in the telephones
c. No dc component of a digital PBX?
d. No signal change at a 1 to 0 transition a. Simplified control signalling
284. Which of the following data communications functions is generally provided for in a b. Lower cost telephones
285. LAN? c. Fewer wire pairs
a. Data link control d. Multiplexed voice and data channels
b. Applications processing 294. The electrical state of the control leads in a serial interface is a concern of
c. Flow control a. The physical layer protocol
d. Routing b. The data link-layer protocol
286. The purpose of a preamble in an Ethernet is c. The network-layer protocol
a. Clock synchronization d. None of the above
b. Error checking 295. The X.25 standard specifies a
c. Collision avoidance a. Technique for dial access
d. Broadcast b. Technique for start-stop data
287. Which of the following is possible in a token-passing bus network? c. Data bit rate
a. Unlimited number of stations d. DTE/DCE interface
b. Unlimited distances 296. The X.25 standard is
c. Multiple time division channels a. Required for all packet switching networks
d. In-service expansion b. A recommendation of the CCITT
288. Which of the following is not possible in a token-passing loop network? c. A complete description of a public data network
a. Unlimited number of stations d. Used by all packet terminals
b. Unlimited distances 297. A protocol is a set of rules governing a time sequence of events that must take place
c. Multiple time division channels a. Between peers
d. In-service expansion b. Between nonpeers
c. Across an interface
 d. None of the above b. 4.244
298. The X.25 standard for packet networks is analogous to c. 5.904
a. PBX standards for a telephone network d. 16.974
b. Handset standards for a telephone 307. A quarter-wave line is connected to an RF generator and is shorted out at the far end. What is the
c. Local loop standards for a telephone network input impedance to the line at the generator?
d. Switching standards for a telephone network a. A low value of resistance
299. The OSI reference model defines the functions for seven layers of protocols b. A high value of resistance
a. Including the user and communications medium c. A capacitive reactance which is equal in value to the line’s surge impedance
b. Not including the user or communications medium d. A value of resistance equal to the characteristic impedance of the line
c. Including the communications medium but not the user 308. A coaxial cable has a capacitance of 90pF/m and a characteristic impedance of 75 ohms. Find
d. Including the user but not the communications medium the inductance of a 2m length.
300. The X.25 standard covers how many OSI layers? a. 1.013 uH
a. Three b. 450 nH
b. Four c. 506.25 nH
c. Seven d. 225 nH
d. None 309. If the SWR on a transmission line has high value, the reason could be
301. A data packet is a packet header together with a. An impedance mismatch between the line and the load
a. A network layer b. That the line is nonresonant
b. An administrative layer c. A reflection coefficient of zero at the load
c. User data d. A high degree of attenuation between the load and the position where the SWR is
d. A packet switch measured
302. The X.25 standard specifies how many separate protocol layers at the serial interface gateway? 310. Calculate the velocity factor of a coaxial cable used as a transmission line with the characteristic
a. 8 impedance of 50 ohms; capacitance is 40 pF/m and an inductance equal t 50 microH/m.
b. 2 a. 0.7450
c. 4 b. 0.7504
d. 3 c. 0.0745
303. In X.25 network layer protocol, the data packets normally contain d. 0.0475
a. One octet of header plus data 311. If a quarter-wave transmission line is shorted at one end
b. Two octets of header plus data a. There is minimum current at the shorted end
c. Three octets of header plus data b. The line behaves as a parallel-tuned circuit in relation to the generator
d. Four octets of header plus data c. The line behaves as a series tuned circuit in relation to the generator
304. What is the characteristic impedance of a single wire with diameter d=0.25mm placed at the center d. There is a maximum voltage at the shorted end
between parallel planes separated by 1mm apart? The wire is held by a material with a velocity factor 312. What is the velocity factor for a cable with a Teflon dielectric (relative permittivity =
of 0.75? 313. 2.1)?
a. 75 ohms a. 0.69
b. 120 ohms b. 0.476
c. 100 ohms c. 2.1
d. 300 ohms d. 1.449
305. There is an improper impedance match between a 30 W transmitter and the antenna and 5 W is 314. A 50-ohm transmission line is feeding an antenna which represents a 50-ohm resistive
reflected. How much power is actually transmitted? load. To shorten the line, the length must be
a. 35 W a. Any convenient value
b. 25 W b. An odd-multiple of three-quarters of a wavelength
c. 30 W c. An even multiple of a quarter of a wavelength
d. 20 W d. An odd multiple of an eight of a wavelength
306. What is the actual length in feet of a one quarter-wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor of 0.69 315. A feature of an infinite transmission line is that
at 40 MHz? a. Its input impedance at the generator is equal to the line’s surge impedance
a. 6.15 b. Its phase velocity is greater than the velocity of light
 c. The impedance varies at different positions on the line 324. Nitrogen is placed in transmission lines to
d. The input impedance is equivalent to a short circuit a. Improve the skin-effect of microwaves
316. The outer conductor of the coaxial cable is usually grounded b. Reduce arcing in the line
a. At the beginning and at the end of the cable c. Reduce the standing wave ratio of the line
b. Only at the beginning of the cable d. Prevent moisture from entering the line
c. Only at the end of the cable 325. Referred to the fundamental frequency, a shorted stub line attached to the
d. The outer conductor must never be grounded transmission line to absorb even harmonics could have a wavelength of
317. What is the impedance of a balance 4-wire with a diameter of 0.25 cm and spaced 2.5 cm apart using a. 1.41 wavelength
an insulator with a dielectric constant of 2.56? b. ½ wavelength
a. 100 ohms c. ¼ wavelength
b. 160.5 ohms d. 1/6 wavelength
c. 88.93 ohms 326. Nitrogen gas in concentric RF transmission lines is used to
d. 25.8 ohms a. Keep moisture out
318. An attenuator has a loss of 26 dB. If a power of 3 W is applied to the attenuator, find the output b. Prevent oxidation
power. c. Act as insulator
a. 1.65 watts d. Both A and B
b. 7.54 milliwatts 327. If a transmission line has a power loss of 6 dB per 100 feet, what is the power at the feed point to
c. 1194 watts the antenna at the end of a 200 foot-transmission line fed by a 100 watt transmitter?
d. 5.459 watts a. 70 watts
319. When surge impedance of a line is matched to a load, the line will b. 50 watts
a. Transfer maximum current to the load c. 25 watts
b. Transfer maximum voltage to the load d. 6 watts
c. Transfer maximum power to the load 328. Two adjacent minima on a slotted line are 20 cm apart. Find the wavelength assuming a velocity
d. Have a VSWR equal to zero factor of 95 %.
320. A lossless line is terminated by a resistive load which is not equal to the surge impedance. a. 38 m
If the value of the reflection coefficient is 0.5, the VSWR is b. 43.7 m
a. 2 c. 46 cm
b. 3 d. 40 cm
c. 1.5 329. What would be the approximate series impedance of a quarter-wave matching line used to match
d. 5 a 600 ohm-feed to 70 ohm-antenna?
321. The best insulation at UHF is a. 205 ohms
a. Black rubber b. 210 ohms
b. Bakelite c. 25.88 ohms
c. Paper d. 102.5 ohms
d. Mica 330. Which of the following represents the best SWR?
322. Neglecting line losses, the RMS voltage along an RF transmission line having no standing a. 1:1
waves b. 1:2
a. Is equal to the impedance c. 1:15
b. Is one-half of the surge impedance d. 2:1
c. Is the product of the surge impedance and the lien current 331. An optical domain reflectometer display shows a discontinuity 1.4 microsecond s from the start.
d. Varies sinusoidally along the line If the line has a velocity factor of 0.92, how far is the fault from the reflecto meter?
323. What length of standard RG-8/U coaxial cable would be required to obtain a 30 degree-phase a. 168 m
shift at 250 MHz? b. 193.2 m
a. 0.792 m c. 210 m
b. 0.99 m d. 386 m
c. 0.066 m 332. A high SWR creates losses in a transmission line. A high standing wave ratio might be caused by
d. 0.124 m a. Improper turns ratio between primary and secondary in the plate tank transformer
 b. Screen grid current flow 342. At very high frequencies, transmission lines are used as
c. An antenna electrically too long for its frequency a. Tuned circuits
d. An impedance mismatch b. Antennas
333. A properly connected transmission line c. Insulators
a. Is grounded at the transmitter end d. Resistors
b. Is cut to a harmonic of the carrier frequency 343. Transmission line shielding is grounded
c. Is cut to an even harmonic of the carrier frequency a. At the input only
d. Has a standing wave ratio as near as 1:1 as possible b. At both the input and output
334. If a ¾ wavelength transmission is shorted at one end, the impedance at the open will c. At the output only
335. be d. If the antenna is a Marconi design
a. Zero 344. A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a(an)
b. Infinite a. Series resonant circuit
c. Decreased b. Parallel resonant circuit
d. Increased c. Capacitor
336. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its d. Inductor
a. Length 345. A transmitter is required to deliver 100 W to an antenna through 5 m of coaxial cable with a loss of 3
b. Conductor diameter dB / 100 m. What must be the output power of the transmitter, assuming the line is matched?
c. Conductor spacing a. 136 W
d. None of the above b. 153 W
337. Which of the following is not a common transmission line impedance? c. 151 W
a. 50 ohms d. 116.815 W
b. 75 ohms 346. A generator sends 50 mW down a 50 ohm line. The generator is matched to the line but the load is
c. 120 ohms not. If the coefficient of reflection is 0.25, how much power is dissipated in the load?
d. 300 ohms a. 46.9 mW
338. A ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a transmission line is known as b. 37.5 mW
the c. 3.125 mW
a. Velocity factor d. 12.5 mW
b. Standing wave ratio 347. Determine the Q of an antenna if it has a bandwidth of 0.06 MHz and is cut to a frequency of
c. Reflection coefficient 30 MHz.
d. Line efficiency a. 50
339. A series tuned circuit operating at a frequency of 1 GHz is to be constructed from a shorted b. 100
section of Teflon-dielectric coaxial cable. What length should be used? ( relative dielectric = 2.1) c. 150
a. 0.325m d. 250
b. 0.10 m 348. The main disadvantage of the two-hole directional coupler is
c. 0.217 m a. Low directional coupling
d. 0.143 m b. Poor directivity
340. A 75 ohm line is terminated in a 30 ohm resistance. Find the SWR. c. High SWR
a. 0.6 d. Narrow bandwidth
b. 0.429 349. A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a(an)
c. 2.5 a. Capacitor
d. 0.4 b. Inductor
341. A generator sends 50 mW down a 50 ohm line. The generator is matched to the line but the load is c. Series resonant circuit
not. If the coefficient of reflection is 0.6, how much power is reflected? d. Parallel resonant circuit
a. 18 mW 350. A load impedance of 100+j25 ohms is normalized on a 100 ohm-line. The normalized
b. 20 mW 351. value is
c. 30 mW a. 2+j0.5 ohms
d. 32 mW b. 0.25-j1 ohms
 c. 0.94-j24 ohms a. Biconical
d. 1+0.25 ohms b. Horn
352. A pattern of voltage and current variations along a transmission line not terminated in its c. Helical discone
characteristic impedance is called 361. Indicate which of the following reasons for using a counterpoise with antennas is
a. Electric field 362. false:
b. Radio waves a. Impossibility of a good ground connection
c. Standing waves b. Protection of personnel working underneath
d. Magnetic field c. Provision of an earth for the antenna
353. A 75-j50 ohms is connected to a coaxial transmission line of ZO = 75 ohms, at 10 GHz. The
d. Rockiness of the ground itself
best method of matching consists in connecting
363. One of the following is not a reason for the use of an antenna coupler
a. A short-circuited stub at the load
a. To make the antenna look resistive
b. An inductance at the load
b. To provide the output amplifier with the correct load impedance
c. A capacitance at some specific distance from the load
c. To discriminate against harmonics
d. A short-circuited stub at some specific distance from the load
d. To prevent reradiation of the local oscillator
354. Calculate the impedance seen looking into a 75 ohm line 1 m long terminated in a load
364. Indicate the antenna that is not wideband:
impedance of 100 ohms, if the line has a velocity factor 0f 0.8 and operates at a frequency of 30
a. Discone
MHz.
b. Folded dipole
a. 72-j21 ohms
b. 75-j25 ohms c. Helical
c. 40-j30 ohms d. Marconi
d. 50-j25 ohms 365. Indicates which of the following reasons for the use of an earth mat with antennas is
355. The velocity factor of a transmission line 366. false.
a. Depends on the dielectric of the material used a. Impossibility of a good ground connection
b. Increases the velocity along the transmission line b. Provision of an earth for the antenna
c. Is governed by the skin effect c. Protection of personnel working underneath
d. Is higher for a solid dielectric than for air d. Improvement f the radiation pattern of the antenna
356. A transmitter supplies 50 W to a load through a line with an SWR of 4:1. Find the power 367. Which of the following terms does not apply to the Yagi-Uda array?
absorbed by the load. a. Good bandwidth
a. 32 W b. Parasitic elements
b. 5.6 W c. Folded dipole
c. 44.4 W d. High gain
d. 18 W 368. An antenna that is circularly polarized is the
357. An ungrounded antenna near the ground a. Helical
a. Acts as a single antenna of twice the height b. Small circular loop
b. Is unlikely to need an earth mat c. Parabolic reflector
c. Acts as an antenna array d. Yagi-Uda
d. Must be horizontally polarized 369. The standard reference antenna for the directive gain is the
358. One of the following consists of nonresonant antennas a. Infinitesimal dipole
a. Rhombic antenna b. Isotropic antenna
b. Folded dipole c. Elementary doublet
c. End-fire array d. Half-wave dipole
d. Broadside array 370. Top loading is sometimes used with an antenna in order to increase its
359. One of the following is very useful as a multiband HF receiving antenna. This is the: a. Effective height
a. Conical horn b. Bandwidth
b. Folded dipole c. Beamwidth
c. Log-periodic d. Input capacitance
d. Square loop 371. Cassegrain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to
360. Which of the following antennas is best excited from a waveguide? a. Increase the gain of the system
 b. Increase the beamwidth of the system c. Give the antenna unidirectional properties
c. Reduce the size of teh main reflector d. Both B and C
d. Allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point 381. If the length of the antenna is changed from 2.5 meters to 2.8 meters, its resonant frequency
372. Zoning is used with a dielectric antenna in order to will
a. Reduce the bulk of the lens a. Increase
b. Increase the bandwidth of the lens b. Decrease
c. Permit pin-point focusing c. Depend on the velocity factor so the resonant frequency can either be increased or
d. Correct the curvature if the wavefront from a horn that is too short decreased
373. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of its d. Will be unchanged
a. Circular polarization 382. What is the effect of adding a capacitor in series with an antenna?
b. Manoeuvrability a. The antenna’s resonant frequency will increase
c. Broad bandwidth b. The antenna’s resonant frequency will decrease
d. Good front-to-back ratio c. A capacitor is never added in series with an antenna
374. The discone antenna is d. The purpose is to block dc from being applied to the antenna
a. A useful direction-finding antenna 383. How does the electric field strength of a broadcast station vary with the distance from the antenna?
b. Used as a radar receiving antenna a. The field strength varies inversely proportional to the distance from the antenna
c. Circularly polarized like other circular antennas b. The field strength is directly proportional to the square of the distance from the
d. Useful as a HF receiving antenna antenna
375. One of the following is not an omnidirectional antenna: c. The field strength varies directly proportional to the square of the distance from the
a. Half-wave dipole antenna
b. Log-periodic d. The field strength varies inversely as the distance from the antenna
c. Discone 384. Stacking elements in a transmitting antenna system
d. Marconi a. Increases the field strength at the receiving antenna
376. How is it possible to lower the resonant frequency of a Hertz dipole antenna? b. Increases the directivity of the transmitter antenna
a. Reduce the frequency at the transmitter c. Decreases the size of the major lobe in the radiation pattern
b. Connect a capacitor in series with the antenna d. Both a and b
c. Connect an inductor in series with the antenna 385. The rhombic antenna is primarily used for
d. Reduce the length of the antenna a. Ground wave propagation
377. Which of the following antennas receives signals in the horizontal plane equally well from all b. Skywave propagation
directions? c. Space wave propagation
a. Horizontal Hertz antenna d. Tropospheric propagation
b. Vertical loop antenna 386. If the antenna current is doubled, the field strength at a particular position is
c. Vertical Yagi antenna a. Doubled
d. A vertical antenna which is a quarter-wavelength long b. Halved
378. A one-quarter-wavelength shut-fed vertical Marconi antenna: c. Multiplied by a factor of four
a. Has maximum radiation in a vertical direction d. Multiplied by a factor of 1.414
b. Must have a horizontal receiving antenna for the best reception 387. A vertical loop antenna has a
c. Must use a receiving antenna which has an electric field in a horizontal direction a. Unidirectional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane
d. Must have a vertical receiving antenna for the best reception b. Unidirectional radiation pattern in the vertical plane
379. A shunt-fed quarter-wavelength Marconi antenna: c. Bidirectional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane
a. Has maximum RF impedance to ground at its feedpoint d. Omnidirectional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane
b. Has a current null at its feedpoint 388. In order to get maximum radiation to all surrounding points in the horizontal plane, the antenna
c. Has zero dc resistance to ground used is a(an)
d. Uses balanced twin line as its feeder cable a. Vertical loop
380. The parasitic element of an antenna system will: b. Vertical quarter-wavelength rod
a. Decrease its directivity c. Array which includes parasitic elements
b. Increase its directivity d. Horizontal Hertz dipole
389. The physical length of a Hertz dipole resonant at a 100 MHz is b. An element dependent on the antenna structure for support
a. 9.84 ft c. An element that receives its excitation from mutual coupling rather than from a
b. 4.92 ft transmission line
c. 4.68 ft d. A transmission line that radiates radio-frequency energy
d. 2.46 ft 398. How does a parasitic element generate an electromagnetic field?
390. What is meant by the term antenna gain? a. By the RF current received from a connected transmission line
a. The numerical ration relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna to that of b. By interacting with the earth’s magnetic field
another antenna c. By altering the phase of the current on the driven element
b. The ratio if the signal in the forward direction to the signal in the back direction d. By currents induced into the element from a surrounding electric field
c. The ratio of the amount of power produced by the antenna compared to the output 399. How much power will an antenna having a radiation resistance of 50 Ω radiate when fed with a 20
power of the transmitter A current?
d. The final amplifier gain minus the transmission losses a. 20, 000 W
391. What is meant by the term antenna bandwidth? b. 1000 W
a. Antenna length divided by the number of elements c. 2 kW
b. The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to perform well d. 10 kW
c. The angle between the half-power radiation points 400. Determine the Q of an antenna if it has a bandwidth of 0.06 MHz and is cut to a frequency of
d. The angle formed between two imaginary-lines drawn through the ends of the 30 MHz.
elements a. 50
392. What is the wavelength of a shorted stub used to absorb even harmonics? b. 100
a. ½ λ c. 150
b. 1/3 λ d. 250
c. ¼λ 401. How does the length of the reflector element of a parasitic element beam antenna compare with
d. 1/8 λ that of the driven element?
393. What is a trap antenna? a. It is about 5% longer
a. An antenna for rejecting interfering signals b. It is about 5% shorter
b. A highly sensitive antenna with maximum gain in all directions c. It is twice as long
c. An antenna capable of being used on more than one band because of the d. It is one-half as long
presence of parallel LC networks 402. How does the length of the director element of a parasitic element beam antenna compare with
d. An antenna with a large capture area that of the driven element?
394. What is the disadvantage of using a trap antenna? a. It is about 5% longer
a. It has a high directivity in the high-frequency bands b. It is about 5% shorter
b. It has a high gain c. It is twice as long
c. It minimizes harmonic radiation pattern d. It is one-half as long
d. It may be used for multi-band operation 403. What is meant by the radiation resistance for an antenna?
395. What is the disadvantage of using a trap antenna? a. Losses in the antenna elements and feedline
a. It will radiate harmonics b. The specific impedance of the antenna
b. It can only be used for single band operation c. An equivalent resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that
c. It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies radiated from an antenna
d. It must be neutralized d. The resistance in the trap coils to received signals
396. What is the principle of a trap antenna? 404. What are the factors that determine the radiation resistance of an antenna?
a. Beamwidth may be controlled by nonlinear impedance a. Transmission line length and height of antenna
b. The traps form a high impedance to isolate parts of the antenna b. The locations of the antenna with respect to nearby objects and
c. The effective radiated power can be increased if the space around the antenna sees a the length/diameter ratio of the conductors
high impedance c. It is a constant for all antennas since it is a physical constant
d. The traps increase the antenna gain d. Sunspot activity and the time of day
397. What is a parasitic element of an antenna? 405. In a half-wave dipole, where are the current nodes?
a. An element polarized 90 degrees opposite the driven element a. At the ends
 b. At the feedpoint a. 0 to 4000 Hz
c. Three-quarters of the way from the feedpoint towards the end b. 300 to 3000 Hz
d. One-half of the way from the feedpoint toward the end c. 8140 to 8188 Hz
406. What is the advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna? d. None of the above
a. Lower Q 415. What is used to transmit more than one conversation over a path?
b. Greater structural strength a. Hybrid
c. Higher losses b. Tandem
d. Improved radiation efficiency c. Multiplexing
407. What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 30 dB as compared to d. All of the above
an isotropic radiator? 416. The common channel signaling method
a. 3.2 degrees a. Uses the same channel for signaling as for the related conversation
b. 6.4 degrees b. Uses a separate channel for signaling only
c. 37 degrees c. Carries the signaling for only one related conversation
d. 60.4 degrees d. Is used on local loops
408. A microwave communications uses plane reflectors as passive repeaters. The diameter of the 417. Telephone switching is accomplished by
parabolic antenna is 18 ft while the effective area is 310 sq ft. Determine the reflector coupling a. Manual switchboard
factor. b. Step-by-step switches
a. 0.76
c. Crossbar switches
b. 0.906
d. Any of the above
c. 0.92
418. The step-by-step switch
d. 0.706
a. Was invented by Strowger
409. The telephone was invented by
b. Generates much noise
a. Watson
c. Cannot operate directly from DTMF tones
b. Bell
d. All of the above
c. Strowger
419. Time division multiplexing is used for
d. Edison
a. Analog transmission
410. The central office detects a request for service from a telephone by
b. Digital transmission
a. A flow of loop current
c. Both of the above
b. No loop current
d. None of the above
c. A ringing signal
420. What type of transmitter is most commonly used in a conventional telephone handset?
d. Dial pulses
a. Carbon
411. Which office local is the local central office?
b. Electromagnetic
a. 2
c. Electret
b. 3
d. Ceramic
c. 4
421. Which component in the telephone set has the primary function of compensating
d. 5
for the local loop length?
412. Which exchange is used to connect between central offices when a direct trunk is not available? a. Resistor
a. Local
b. Varistor
b. Tandem c. Capacitor
c. Toll
d. Induction coil
d. Any of the above 422. What type of receiver is most commonly used in a conventional telephone handset?
413. Which of the following is a type of dc signaling? a. Carbon
a. Loop current b. Electromagnetic
b. Reverse battery c. Electret
c. E and M
d. Ceramic
d. All of the above
423. Which component in the telephone set has the primary function of interfacing the handset to the
414. The voice frequency channel pass band is local loop?
 a. Resistor 432. Memory is added to the telephone set to
b. Varistor a. Allow more digits to be dialed
c. Capacitor b. Allow faster dialing
d. Induction coil c. Allow automatic redialing of the last number dialed
424. How many unique tones are used for the 12-key dual-tone multi-frequency keypad? d. None of the above
a. 2 433. What is the function of the diode rectifier bridge in the line circuit?
b. 3 a. Lower the voltage to the telephone electronics
c. 7 b. Raise the voltage to the telephone electronics
d. 12 c. Short out the line when the set is on-hook
425. Which of the following are important for the proper interface of a DTMF generator to the d. Protect the set against polarity reversals on the line
telephone line? 434. What bad electrical effect happens when the switchhook is opened?
a. Impedance a. A high voltage transient is generated
b. Tone amplitude b. The line is shorted out
c. Loop current c. The line is opened
d. All of the above d. No bad effects happen
426. The anti-tinkle circuit 435. Pulse dialing occurs at the rate of
a. Prevents tampering with the telephone a. 20 pulses per minute
b. Prevents dial pulsing from ringing the bell b. 10 pulses per minute
c. Prevents speech signals from ringing the bell c. 10 pulses per second
d. All of the above d. 80 pulses per second
427. The sidetone is 436. How many different tones may be produced by a four-column DTMF keypad?
a. A type of feedback a. 2
b. Determined by the balancing network b. 8
c. Permits the talker to hear his/her own voice c. 4
d. All of the above d. 16
428. On-hook current must be kept low so that the 437. What is the advantage of electronic ringers?
a. Line relays in the central office will not mistake it for off-hook current a. Louder volume
b. Comparatively small wires in the cables will not overheat b. Smaller size
c. Ringer will not ring incorrectly c. Good directionality
d. Carbon microphone will not be damaged d. Greater weight
429. Overvoltage protection is 438. What function are provided in a multitone ringing generator?
a. Needed in the telephone set because of the high ringing voltage a. Anti-tinkle circuitry
b. Is nearly always incorporated in the IC chip b. Tone generation
c. Is primarily a central office function c. Output amplifier
d. Needed because of transients from dial pulsing, lightning, induction or short d. All of the above
circuit 439. The DTMF generator in an electronic phone produces tones using a(an)
430. A special rectifier bridge is used in electronic telephone because a. LC circuit
a. The ac power must be converted to dc to simulate a battery b. RC circuit
b. it is necessary to shunt the speech frequencies and keep them off of the loop c. Digital divider circuit
c. the voltage drop across conventional bridges leaves too little voltage to operate d. Digital multiplier circuit
the set 440. Which function is not required in an integrated telephone circuit?
d. All of the above
a. Regulator
431. Voltage and current regulation
b. Dialer
a. Is provided by the central office
c. Visual display
b. Is needed to ensure proper IC operation
d. Speech network
c. Can be performed by circuits built into the IC
441. Transient protection is provided for integrated telephone circuits is typically provided by
d. B and c above
 a. Bridge rectifiers a. Non-return-to-zero
b. Zener diodes b. Binary 3 zero-substitutions
c. Inductors c. Ternary
d. Capacitors d. Bipolar
442. Speakerphones operate in 451. Modems are required to connect to telephone lines because
a. Full-duplex mode a. The telephone network bandwidth is too high
b. Half-duplex mode b. The telephone network will not pass direct current
c. Open-duplex mode c. Telephone company rules require them
d. Computer mode d. None of the above
443. Sampling the analog wave produces 452. The most common technique for binary data transmission
a. Impulse noise a. Bisynchronous transmission
b. Phase distortion b. Synchronous transmission
c. Pulse amplitude modulation c. Asynchronous transmission
d. Frequency coherence d. Plesiochronous transmission
444. The simplest form of coding is 453. Asynchronous data transmission requires a clock
a. Diphase a. At the transmitter end
b. Hybrid b. At the receiver end
c. Compressed c. At neither end
d. Linear d. At both ends
445. In digital multiplexing systems, bit interleaving is used in 454. What kind of modulation is used in modems?
a. Lower level systems a. Phase modulation
b. Higher level systems b. Frequency modulation
c. To interleave a code word c. Amplitude modulation
d. All of the above d. All of the above
446. Synchronous multiplexed systems have the time placement of bits 455. The parameter that most affects transmission of the high speed modem data is
a. Dedicated a. Phase distortion
b. Unassigned b. Amplitude distortion
c. Random c. Frequency shift
d. As required d. Impulse noise
447. A synchronous multiplexed systems are used 456. Protocols may be
a. Mostly for voice transmission a. Bit oriented
b. Mostly for data transmission b. Byte oriented
c. To carry only speech information c. Character oriented
d. All of the above d. All of the above
448. Foldover distortion or aliasing is 457. The telephone network is being converted to digital operation primarily to
a. Eliminated by filtering out the frequencies below 300 Hz a. Carry digital computer data
b. Another name for crosstalk b. Reduce costs
c. The presence of spurious frequencies caused by having too high c. Improve speech quality
frequencies in the sampled signal d. Increase system capacity
d. None of the above 458. A code for a 64-interval must produce how many bits?
449. Multiplexer systems used in the public network are of the __ type. a. 2
a. Synchronous b. 10
b. Plesiochronous c. 8
c. Asynchronous d. 7
d. Isochronous 459. The MTSO searches the location of a mobile phone. This is called __
450. The line coding scheme used for the DS-1 signal is a. Handoff
 b. Hand on a. 1977
c. Paging b. 1956
d. Receiving c. 1983
460. Mobile cellular transmitter have a maximum output power of d. 1999
a. 1 mW 469. When calculating the data rates for LMDS, capacity is the number of cell sites multiplied by which
b. 10 W of the following?
c. 3W a. The capacity per cell site
d. 500 mW b. The number of cells
461. A province in the Philippines has an area of 2000 sq km. it has to be covered by cellular mobile c. The number of sectors in the cell site
telephone service using cells with a radius of 2 km. assuming hexagonal cells, find the number of d. The sector capacity
cellsites needed. 470. The name for an alternative form of cellular communication which operates in specialized mobile
a. 154 radio band just adjacent to the cellular frequency band. It is a blend of wireless interconnects and
b. 144 dispatch services which makes it very unique compared to existing cellular and PCS systems
c. 145 a. iDEN
d. 132 b. CDMA
462. IS-95 system uses direct sequence spread spectrum with a chipping rate of c. JTACS
a. 1.23 MHz d. PDC
b. 200 kHz 471. The MTSO is responsible for __
c. 500 MHz a. Connecting the cell with the telephone central office
d. 10.7 MHz b. Assigning channels for retransmission
463. Modulation scheme used by cellular CDMA system c. Billing function
a. BPSK d. All of the above
b. QPSK 472. The master control center for a cellular telephone system is the
c. QAM a. Cell site
d. GFSK b. Mobile telephone switching office
464. How often will hand-offs occur when vehicle travels through a CMTS at 100 km per hour speed if c. Central office
the distance between cellsites is 10 km? d. Branch office
a. 6 mins 473. The IS-54 system uses TDMA with three calls per 30 kHz channel. The modulation used is
b. 12 mins a. PSK
c. 395 sec b. FM
d. 10 hrs c. DQPSK
465. The TACS base station frequency range of operation d. QAM
a. 821-849 MHz and 869-894 MHz 474. Which of the following is used to estimate the distance that a subscriber can be located while still
b. 890-915 MHz and 935-960 MHz achieving acceptable reliability?
c. 870-885 MHz and 925-940 MHz a. Call-size selection
d. 825-890 MHz and 925-970 MHz b. Link budget
466. The antenna separation required in a cellular system when the antenna height at the base is 15 m is c. Capital cost model
a. 5.477 m d. Cell design
b. 1.364 m 475. It is a spread spectrum technology that relies on time-division duplexing
c. 4.869 m a. IS-661
d. 2.434 m b. IS-136
467. What type of modulation is used by a standard analog cordless telephone? c. PCS 1900
a. AM d. PDC
b. FM 476. Which of the following is not a 3G system?
c. PSK a. IMT-2000
d. WAM b. WCDMA
468. Cellular communication began in c. UMTS
 d. TDMA IS-136 b. Configuration management
477. The unlicensed national information infrastructure band c. Accounting management
a. 5 GHz d. Tower management
b. 54 GHz 486. A ___ is a computerized center that is responsible for connecting calls, recording call
c. 2.4 GHZ information and billing
d. 880MHz a. Base station
478. Cellular radios use FM with a maximum deviation of plus or minus __ b. Mobile switching center
a. 12 kHz c. Cell
b. 20 kHz d. Mobile station
c. 15 kHz 487. What determine the size of the cell?
d. 30 kHz a. The area terrain
479. IS-136, IS-95 and iDEN belong to b. The area population
a. 1G c. The number of MTSOs
d. All of the above
b. 2 G
488. LDMS is an acronym for which of the following?
c. 2.5 G
d. 3 G a. Link multipoint digital service
480. A wireless data communication service, standard or technology in which data packets are b. Local multipoint distribution service
transmitted c. Low-speed multiple data streams
a. EDGE d. Local multimedia distribution service
b. GPRS 489. In ___, a mobile station always communicates with just one base station.
c. CDMAOne a. Roaming
d. IS-136 b. A hard handoff
481. IEEE standard pertaining to wireless networks c. A soft handoff
a. 802.6 d. A roaming handoff
b. 802.11 490. LDMS optimizes frequency reuses by optimizing which of the following?
c. 802.11 a. Minimizing multipathing
d. 802.15 b. Cross polarization
482. Soft handoff is a flawless handoff which normally takes ___., which is imperceptible to c. Sectoring the distribution system
voice telephone users. d. All of the above
a. 300 ms 491. In cellular telephony, a service area is divided into small regions called ___.
b. 600 ms a. Cells
c. 200 ms b. Cell offices
d. 500 ms c. MTSOs
483. A Bluetooth network can have ___ master(s). d. Relay sites
a. One 492. ____ is a first generation cellular phone system
b. Two a. AMPS
c. Three b. D-AMPS
d. Eight c. GSM
484. The GSM system uses the 890- to 915- and 935- to 960-MHz frequency range. There are 124 25 kHz d. IS-95
channels spaced 200 kHz intervals. The modulation is ___. 493. ___ is a cellular telephone system popular in Europe.
a. GMSK a. AMPS
b. QPSK b. D-AMPS
c. MSK c. GSM
d. GFSK d. IS-95
485. Which of the following is not included in the LMDS network management? 494. IS-95 has a frequency reuse factor of
a. Fault management a. 1
 b. 5 b. Half-duplex
c. 7 c. Full-duplex
d. 95 d. Triplex
495. ____ base stations use GPS for synchronization. 504. In a cellular radio, the duplexer is a
a. AMPS a. Ferrite isolator
b. D-AMPS b. Waveguide assemble
c. GSM c. Pair of TR/ATR tubes
d. IS-95 d. Pair of sharp bandpass filters
496. NMT is a cellular standard developed by the Nordic countries of Sweden. Denmark, Finland, 505. The output of a cellular radio is controlled by the
and Norway in ___. a. User or caller
a. 1983 b. Cell site
b. 1989 c. AMPS
c. 1981 d. MTSO
d. 1980 506. What is the system used by Personal Communications Network?
497. Cellular receiver sensitivity a. PCS 1900
a. 50 dB b. Modified GSM
b. 40 dB c. AMPS
c. 20 dB d. DCS 1800
d. 35 dB 507. Multiple access scheme used by DECT
498. When a single cell is subdivided into smaller cells, the process is called a. CDMA
a. Cell division b. FDMA/CDMA
b. Cell sharing c. TDMA
c. Cell splitting d. FDMA
d. Cell reuse 508. Voted cellular digital standard at TIA
499. What modulation technique uses digital modulation technique? a. IS-136
a. BPSK b. AMPS
b. QPSK c. PCS 1900
c. GFSK d. PDC
d. GMSK 509. Attenuator is used in the travelling wave tube to
500. Supervisor audio tone frequency a. Help bunching
a. 6000 Hz b. Prevent oscillations
b. 6010 Hz c. Prevent saturation
c. 5960 Hz d. Increase gain
d. 6040 Hz 510. The multicavity klystron
501. Spacing between the simultaneously used transmit and receive frequencies is a. Is not a good low-level amplifier because of noise
a. 45 MHz b. Has a high repeller voltage to ensure a rapid transmit time
b. 30 kHz c. Is not suitable for pulsed operation
c. 12kHz d. Needs a long transit time through the buncher cavity to ensure current
d. 200 kHz modulation
502. Each cell site contains a 511. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 450 W transmitting power output, 4 dB
a. Repeater feedline loss, 6dB duplexer loss, and 7 dB circulator and feedline loss and antenna gain of 25 dB?
b. Control computer a. 2893.31 W
c. Direct link to a branch exchange b. 2523.83 W
d. Touch-tone processor c. 2839.31 W
503. Cellular telephones use what type of operation? d. 2425.38 W
a. Simplex 512. Magnetron oscillator are used for
a. Generating SHF signals
 b. Multiplexing 521. A line-of-sight radio link operating at a frequency of 6GHz has a separation of $0 km between
c. Generating rich harmonics antennas. An obstacle in the path is located 10 km from the transmitting antenna. By how much must
d. FM demodulation the beam clear the obstacle?
513. A microwave tube which has the advantage of having a high efficiency a. 11.6 m
b. 13.4 m
a. Cross-field amplifier
b. Helix traveling wave tube c. 19.34 m
c. Klystron d. 22.33 m
d. Gridded tube 522. AM isolator
514. What term is used to describe the variation in a microwave oscillator frequency caused a. Acts a buffer between microwave oscillators coupled to a waveguide
by power supply voltage or current changes? b. Acts as a buffer to protect a microwave oscillator form variations in the load changes
a. Frequency pulling c. Shields UHF circuits from RF transmitter
b. Frequency pushing d. Both a and b
c. Post-tuning drift 523. What is the effective earth’s radius when Ns=300?
d. Tuning sensitivity a. 8500 km
515. A rectangular waveguide has a width of 1.2 in and a height of 0.7 in. the waveguide will b. 9320 km
pass all signals above __ GHz. c. 5600 km
a. 4 GHz d. 4850 km
b. 8.44 GHz 524. What is the power level of the largest signal that will still be in the square-law range of a Schottky
c. 10 GHz diode?
d. 4.92 GHz a. -20 dBm
516. Waveguides are b. 0 dBm
a. A hollow tube that carries HF c. -60 dBm
b. Solid conductors of RF d. -100 dBm
c. Coaxial cables 525. A component that combines microwave signals from separate transmission lines into one common
d. Copper wire transmission line and allows no coupling between the separate lines
517. A TWT is sometimes preferred to the multicavity klystron amplifier because the former a. Isolator
a. Is more efficient b. Circulator
b. Has a greater bandwidth c. Directional coupler
c. Has a higher number of modes d. Combiner
d. Produces a higher output power 526. Telemetry is a microwave communications system which operates at
518. Variation in oscillator frequency with changes in load SWR a. 600 MHz
a. Frequency pulling b. 3.9 GHz
b. Frequency pushing c. 4 GHz
c. Post-tuning drift d. 2 GHz
d. Tuning sensitivity 527. What is the maximum power that can be obtained from a microwave semiconductor?
519. It is the frequency change of an electronically tuned oscillator at a specified time after it has a. 1W
reached its desired frequency b. 500 mW
a. Frequency pulling c. 10 W
b. Frequency pushing d. 4 W
c. Post-tuning drift 528. The cavity magnetron uses strapping to
d. Tuning sensitivity a. Prevent mode-jumping
520. What is the power level of the smallest signal that can be detected above the noise by a Schottky b. Prevent cathode back-heating
diode? c. Ensure bunching
a. -20 dBm d. Improve the phase-focusing effect
b. 0 dBm 529. As a result of reflections from a plane conducting wall, electromagnetic waves acquire an apparent
c. -60 dBm velocity greater that the velocity of light in space. This is called the
d. -100 dBm a. Velocity of propagation
 b. Normal velocity a. 205 K
c. Group velocity b. 233.33 K
d. Phase velocity c. 182 K
530. Which of the following is a method of modulating digital signals onto a microwave carrier? d. 210 K
a. FSK 539. A choke flange may be used to couple two waveguides
b. Biphase a. To help in the alignment of the waveguides
c. Quadraphase b. Because it is simpler than any other join
d. All of the above c. To compensate for discontinuities at the join
531. Suppose that the transmitter and receiver towers have equal height. How high would they have to be d. To increase the bandwidth of the system
to communicate over a distance of 34 km? 540. A PIN diode is
a. 23.5 m a. A metal semiconductor point-contact diode
b. 28.47 m b. A microwave mixer diode
c. 17m c. Often used a microwave detector
d. 8.47 m d. Suitable for use as a microwave switch
532. In microwave communications system, for a carrier frequency of 6 GHz and a distance of 40 km, 541. For some applications, circular waveguides may be used preferred to rectangular ones
determine the free-space path loss in dB. because
a. 80 dB a. The smaller cross section needed at any frequency
b. 84.2 dB b. Lower attenuation
c. 140 dB c. Freedom from spurious modes
d. 144.2 dB d. Rotation of polarization
533. A microwave relay repeater that receives the modulated microwave carrier and obtains the baseband 542. A circulator
signal from it, and them modulates the baseband signal onto another carries and retransmit the new a. Cools dc motors during heavy loads
carrier with the baseband modulated onto it b. Allows two or more antennas to feed one transmitter
a. Heterodyne repeater c. Allows one antenna to feed two separate microwave transmitters and
b. Baseband repeater receivers at the same time
c. RF repeater d. Insulates UHF frequencies on transmission lines
d. Regenerative repeater 543. What is the free-space loss in dB between two microwave parabolic antennas 38 km apart operating
534. Which is the frequency range of the most common industrial microwave relay at 7 GHz?
535. band? a. 85.10 dB
a. 6.575-6.875 GHz b. 80.90 dB
b. 3.7-4.2 GHz c. 140.90 dB
c. 5.925-6.425 GHz d. 145.10 dB
d. 10.7-11.7 GHz\ 544. A ruby maser amplifier must be cooled
536. When a particular mode is excited in a waveguide, there appears an extra electric component, a. Because the maser amplification generates a lot of heat
in the direction of propagation. The resulting mode is b. To increase bandwidth
a. Transverse-electric c. Because it cannot operate at room temperature
b. Transverse-magnetic d. To improve the noise performance
c. Longitudinal 545. The glass tube of a TWT may be coated with aquadag to
d. Transverse-electromagnetic a. Help focusing
537. Waveguide construction b. Provide attenuation
a. Should not use silver plating c. Improve bunching
b. Should not use copper d. Increase gain
c. Should not have short vertical runs 546. An antenna covering that the transmitted or receives microwave power can pass through, used to
d. Should not have long horizontal runs protect the antenna and the antenna feed from weather
538. In a microwave system, the antenna sees a sky temperature of 120 K, and the antenna feedline has a. Shroud
a loss of 3 dB. Calculate the noise temperature of the antenna/feedline system, referenced to the b. Sub-reflector
receiver input. c. Radome
 d. Offset antenna 555. Indicate the false statement. Klystron amplifiers may use intermediate cavities
547. Waveguide are 556. to
a. Used exclusively in high frequency power supplies i. Prevent the oscillations that occurs in two-cavity klystrons
b. Ceramic couplers attached to the antenna terminals ii. Increase the bandwidth of the device
c. High-pass filters used at low radio frequencies iii. Improve power gain
d. Hollow metal conductors used to carry high-frequency current iv. Increase the efficiency of the klystron
548. A microwave device which is unlikely to be used a pulsed device. It is based on the principle of 557. The primary purpose of the helix in a traveling wave tube is to
operation of a traveling wave tube. i. Prevent the electron beam from spreading in the long tube
a. Multicavity klyston ii. Reduce the axial velocity of the RF field
b. Cross-field amplifier (CFA) iii. Ensure broadband operation
c. Backward wave oscillator (BWO) iv. Reduce the noise figure
d. Coaxial magnetron 558. A microwave device which allows RF energy to pass through in one direction with very little loss,
549. A magnetic field is used in the cavity magnetron to but absorbs RF power in the opposite direction
a. Prevent anode current in the absence of oscillations i. Circulator
b. Ensure that the oscillations are pulsed ii. Wave trap
c. Help in focusing the electron beam thus preventing spreading iii. Multiplexer
d. Ensure that the electors will orbit around the cathode iv. Isolator
550. In a micro wave communications system, if the minimum carrier-to-noise (C/N) requirements for 559. A parametric amplifier must be cooled
a receiver with a 10MHz bandwidth is 22 dB, the minimum receive carrier power is… i. Because parametric amplification generates a lot of heat
a. -82 dB ii. To increase bandwidth
b. 76 dBm iii. Because it cannot operate at room temperature
c. 84 dB iv. To improve the noise performance
d. -82 dBm 560. For low attenuation, the best transmission medium is
551. A rectangular waveguide used for microwave transmission has a width of 1.4 inches and a height of i. Flexible waveguide
0.8 inches. All signals above __ GHz will be passed by the waveguide. ii. Ridged waveguide
a. 4.3 GHz b. Rectangular waveguide
b. 2 GHz c. Coaxial line
c. 4.2 GHz 561. What propagation condition is usually indicated when a VHF signal is received from a
i. 5 GHz station 500 miles away?
552. A pyramidal horn has an aperture (opening) of 58 mm in the E plane and 78 mm in the H plane. a. D-layer absorption
It operates at 14 GHz. Calculate the gain in dBi. b. Faraday rotation
i. 19.29 c. Tropospheric ducting
ii. 24.14 d. Moonbounce
iii. 15.8 562. How does the bandwidth of the transmitted signal affect selective fading?
iv. 19.31 a. It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths
553. A magnetron whose oscillating frequency is electronically adjustable over a wide range is called b. It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths
a c. It is equally pronounced in both narrow and wide bandwidth
i. Coaxial magnetron d. The receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading effect
ii. Dither-tuned magnetron 563. How much farther does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
iii. Frequency agile magnetron a. By approximately 15% of the distance
iv. VTM b. By approximately twice the distance
554. Conductance takes place in a waveguide c. By approximately one-half the distance
i. By inter-electron delay d. By approximately four times the distance
ii. Through electrostatic field reluctance 564. Determine the dB gain of a receiving antenna which delivers a microvolt signal to a transmission
iii. In the same manner as a transmission line line over that of an antenna that delivers a 2 microvolt signal under identical circumstances.
iv. Through electromagnetic and electrostatic fields in the walls of a. -6
the waveguide b. -3
 c. 6 573. Calculate the electric field intensity in millivolts per meter at 30 kW from a 5 km source.
d. 3 a. 190 mV/m
565. What is transequatorial propagation b. 95.49 uV/m
a. Propagation between two points at approximately the same distance north c. 0.189 W/m
and south of the magnetic equator d. 13.416 V/m
b. Propagation between two points on the magnetic equator 574. What is the index of refraction of a certain substance if light travels through the substance at 100
c. Propagation between two continent by way of ducts along the magnetic equator meters at a time it is 140 meter to air?
d. Propagation between any two station at the same latitude a. 1.183
566. Knife edge diffraction: b. 1.4
a. Is the bending of UHF frequency radio waves around a building, mountain or c. 0.714
obstruction d. 0.845
b. Causes the velocity of wave propagation to be different than the original wave 575. What s selective fading?
a. A fading effect caused by small changes in beam heading at the receiving station
c. Both a and b above
d. Attenuate UHF signal b. A fading caused by phase difference between radio wave components of the same
transmission as experienced at the receiving station
567. The average range for VHF communications is
c. A fading caused by large changes in the height of the ionosphere as
a. 5 miles
experienced at the receiving station
b. 15 miles
d. A fading effect caused by the time difference between the receiving and
c. 30 miles transmitting stations
d. 100 miles 576. To what distance is VHF propagation ordinarily limited?
568. A 500 kHz radiates 500 W of power. The same antenna produces a field strength equal 10 1.5 mV/, If
a. Approximately 100 miles
the power delivered by the antenna is increased to 1 kW, what would be the expected field intensity?
a. 3 mV/m b. Approximately 500 miles
b. 1.732 mV/m c. Approximately 1500 miles
d. Approximately 2000 miles
c. 2.12 mV/m
577. Why does the radio path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
d. 1.456 mV/m
a. E-layer skip
569. The earth’s layer is struck by a meteor; a cylindrical region of free electron is formed at what layer
of the ionosphere? b. D-layer skip
a. F1 layer c. Auroral skip
b. E layer d. Radio waves may be bent
c. F2 layer 578. Determine the effective radiated power of 20kW TV broadcast transmitter whose antenna has a
d. D layer field gain of 2.
a. 40 kW
570. What happens to a radio wave as it travels in space and collides with other particles
b. 80 kW
a. Kinetic energy is given up by the radio wave
c. 20 kW
b. Kinetic energy is gained by the radio wave
d. 10 kW
c. Aurora is created
579. What is the major cause of selective fading?
d. Nothing happens since radio waves have no physical substance
a. Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station
571. Find the characteristic impedance of polyethylene, which has a dielectric constant of 2.4.
b. Large changes in the height of the ionosphere as experienced in the receiving station
a. 163.9 ohms
c. Time difference between the receiving and transmitting station
b. 377 ohms
c. 243 ohms d. Phase differences between the radio waves components of the same
transmission as experienced in the receiving station
d. 250 ohms
580. Determine the critical frequency value of an HF signal if its maximum usable frequency is 7050.50
572. What is the maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation
kHz at 35 degrees incidence.
a. About 1000 miles
a. 4936.8 kHz
b. About 2500 miles
b. 5775 kHz
c. About 5000 miles
c. 4044 kHz
d. About 7500 miles
d. 4908.75 kHz
581. What is the propagation effect called when phase difference between radio wave components of iv. -5.19 dB
the same transmission are experiences at the recovery station? 589. What is a wavefront?
a. Faraday’s rotation i. A voltage pulse in a conductor
b. Diversity reception ii. A current pulse in a conductor
c. Selective fading b. A voltage pulse across a resistor
d. Phase shift c. A fixed point in an electromagnetic wave
582. What is the best time for transequatorial propagation? 590. What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as having circular polarization?
i. Morning a. The electric field is bent into a circular shape
ii. Noon b. The electric field rotates
iii. Afternoon or early evening c. The electromagnetic wave continues to circle the earth
iv. Transequatorial propagation only works at night d. The electromagnetic wave has been generated by a quad antenna
583. The dielectric strength of a certain medium is about 2.85 MV/m. what is the maximum power 591. An automobile travels at 90 km/h, find the time between fades if the car uses a cellphone at 800 MHz
density of an electromagnetic wave in this medium? a. 11.2 ms
i. 23.9 GW/ sq. m b. 15 ms
ii. 67.7 GW/ sq. m c. 7.5 ms
iii. 21.5 GW/ sq. m d. 4.7 ms
iv. 6.86 GW/ sq. m 592. When the electric field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the
584. What is the knife edge diffraction? electromagnetic wave?
i. Allows normally line-of-sight signals to bend around sharp a. Vertical
edges, mountain ridges, building and other obstruction b. Horizontal
ii. Arching in sharp bends of conductors c. Circular
iii. Phase angle image rejection d. Elliptical
iv. Line-of-sight causing distortion to other signals 593. At what speed do electromagnetic waves travel in space?
585. The total power delivered to the radiator of an isotropic antenna is 200, 000 W. determine the a. Approximately 300 million meters per second
power density at a distance of 100 meters b. Approximately 468 million meters per second
i. 1.59 W/sq m c. Approximately 186, 300 feet per second
ii. 24.49 W/sq m d. Approximately 300 million miles per second
iii. 3.18 W/sq m 594. The maximum number of free electrons in a certain ionospheric layer is
iv. 244.95 W/sq m 595. 3.256x 10 ^ 13 per cu m. the critical frequency is
586. The bending of radio waves passing over the top of a mountain range disperse a weak portion of the a. 51.355 MHz
signal behind the mountain is b. 17.118 MHz
i. Eddy-current phase effect c. 34.237 MHz
ii. Knife-edge diffraction d. 5.706 MHz
iii. Shadowing 596. What are electromagnetic waves?
iv. Mirror refraction effect a. Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet
587. A radio wave moves from air (r=1) to glass (r=7.8). Its angle of incidence is 20 degrees. What is
b. A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each other
the angle of refraction?
i. 7 degrees c. A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field at right angles to each
other
ii. 29 degrees
d. A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other
iii. 10.3 degrees
597. When the electric field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the
iv. 72.79 degrees
electromagnetic wave?
588. A dipole antenna requires to be feed with 20 kW of power to produce a given signal strength
a. Circular
available with an input power of 11 kW. What is the dB gain obtained by the use of the reflector?
b. Vertical
(gain referred to this particular dipole)
c. Horizontal
i. -2.6 dB
d. Elliptical
ii. 2.6 dB
598. Determine the refractive index of an ionospheric layer with 1.567x10^6 free electrons per cu m.
iii. 5.19 dB The frequency of the radio wave is 32 kHz.
 a. 0.999 607. Frequencies most affected by knife-edge refraction are
b. 0.936 a. Low and medium frequencies
c. 0.956 b. High frequencies
d. 0.987 c. Very high and ultra high frequencies
599. What is meant by electromagnetic waves as horizontally polarized? d. 100 kHz to 3 MHz
a. The electric field is parallel to the earth 608. The ionosphere causes radio signals to be
b. The magnetic field is parallel to the earth a. Diffused
c. Both the electric and magnetic field are horizontal b. Absorbed
d. Both the electric and magnetic field are vertical c. Refracted
600. Why do electromagnetic waves not penetrate a good conductor to any great d. Reflected
601. extent? 609. To increase the transmission distance of a UHF signal, which of the following should be done?
a. The electromagnetic field induces currents in the insulator a. Increase antenna gain
b. The oxide on the conductor surface acts as a shield b. Increase antenna height
c. Because of eddy currents c. Increase transmitter power
d. The resistivity of the conductor dissipates the field d. Increase receiver sensitivity
602. A transmitter has a power output of 250 W at a carrier frequency of 325 MHz. it is connected to an 610. A receiver-transmitter station used to increase the communications range of VHF, UHF and
antenna with a gain of 12 dBi. The receiving antenna is 10 km away and has a gain of 5 dBi. microwave signals is called a(an)
Calculate the power delivered to the receiver, assuming free-space propagation. Assume that there a. Transceiver
are no losses or mismatches in the system. b. Remitter
a. 404 nW c. Repeater
b. 2.04 nW d. Amplifier
c. 960 nW 611. A taxi company uses a central dispatcher with an antenna at the top of a 25 m tower, to
d. 680 nW communicate with the taxicabs. The taxi antennas are on the roofs of the cars, approximately 1.5 m
603. What is the frequency to use for skywave propagation if the critical frequency is 15 MHZ and the above the ground. Calculate the maximum communication distance between the dispatcher and a
angle of radiation is 60 degrees? taxi.
a. 17.32 MHz a. 25.7 km
b. 30 MHz b. 8.8 km
c. 25.5 MHz c. 21 km
d. 14.722 MHz d. 10.1
604. When the magnetic field is parallel tot eh surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the 612. Microwave propagate by means of
electromagnetic field? a. Direct wave
a. Circular b. Sky wave
b. Horizontal c. Surface wave
c. Elliptical d. Standing wave
d. Vertical 613. What do you call the speed of sound in the study of acoustics?
605. What is the index of refraction of a certain medium if the velocity of propagation of a a. Rhythm
radio wave in this medium is 1.527x10^8 m/s? b. Tempo
a. 0.509 c. Pitch
b. 0.631 d. Frequency
c. 0.713 614. The term that describes the highness or lowness of a sound in the study of acoustics is called a
d. 1.965 a. Tempo
606. When the magnetic field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of b. Pitch
the electromagnetic field? c. Volume
a. Circular d. Bass
b. Horizontal 615. The method of measuring absorption coefficient of sound which considers all angles of incidence is
c. Elliptical called
d. Vertical a. Distance method
 b. Bounce back to back method a. Reverberation
c. Impedance method b. Refraction
d. Reverberation chamber method c. Flanking transmission
616. The tendency of a sound energy to spread d. Reflection
a. Rarefaction 625. The midrange frequency range of sound is from
b. Reflection a. 256 to 2048 Hz
c. Refraction b. 2048 to 4096 Hz
d. Diffraction c. 512 to 2048 Hz
617. _____ is the advantage rate of transmission of sound energy in a given direction through a d. 16 to 64 Hz
cross-sectional area of 1 sq m at right angles to the direction of propagation. 626. Designates the sensation of low or high in the sense of the bass and treble
a. Sound pressure a. Frequency
b. Sound intensity b. Intensity
c. Pressure variation c. Pitch
d. Loudness d. SPL
618. The unit of pitch 627. Speaker is a device that
a. Decibel a. Converts current variations into sound waves
b. Phon b. None of these
c. mel c. Converts electrical energy to mechanical energy
d. Sone d. Converts sound waves into current and voltage
619. a large speaker having a large diameter(15 cm and above) 628. One-hundred twenty microbars of pressure variation is equal to
a. coaxial speaker a. 120 dBSPL
b. woofer b. 115.56 dBSPL
c. tweeter c. 41.58 dBSPL
d. triaxial speaker d. 57.78 dBSPL
620. A method of expressing the amplitude of a complex non-periodic signal such as speech 629. An instrument for recording waveforms of audio frequency
a. Frequency a. Oscilloscope
b. Wavelength b. Phonoscope
c. Volume c. Radioscope
d. Pitch d. Audioscope
621. The lowest frequency produced by an instrument 630. In the study of acoustics, the velocity of sound is dependent to one of the following
a. Harmonic a. Temperature
b. Fundamental b. Loudness
c. Midrange c. Source of sound
d. 0 Hz d. Properties of the medium
622. Sound intensity is given as 631. How much bigger in storage capacity has digital video disk (DVD) have over the conventional
a. df/dp compact disk (CD)?
b. dE/dP a. Around triple
c. dA/dP b. Around 15 times
d. dP/dA c. Around twice
623. Which of the following is considered the most commonly used measurable components of d. Around 5 times
sound? 632. A sound intensity that could cause painful sensation in a human ear
a. its temperature a. Threshold of sense
b. particle displacement b. Threshold of pain
c. softness c. Hearing threshold
d. source d. Sensation intensity
624. _____ is the transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room thru common walls,
floors, or ceilings.
633. A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity of 90 dB at 10 ft away. At this distance, what is the b. Stephen and bate
sound power in watt? c. Norris-Eyring
a. 12 W d. Notch
b. 0.12 W 642. The minimum sound intensity that can be heard
c. 0.012 W a. Threshold of feeling
d. 1.2 W b. Threshold of pain
634. Noise reduction system for film sound in movie c. Threshold of sensation
a. Dolby d. Threshold of hearing
b. dBx 643. The ____ of a sound is a subjective effect which is a function of the ear and
c. dBa 644. brain.
d. dBk a. Pitch
635. Which type of microphone operates on the principle that the electrical resistance of b. Frequency
carbon granules varies as the pressure on the granules vary? c. Timbre
a. Dynamic d. Loudness
b. Crystal 645. A term which is subjective but independent mainly on frequency and also affected by
c. Carbon intensity
d. Ribbon-type a. Pitch
636. A unit of noisiness related to the perceived noise level b. Frequency
a. Noy c. Timbre
b. Sone d. Loudness
c. dB 646. A sound 0f 18 kHz frequency has a wavelength of
d. Mel a. 18.3 mm
637. Required time for and sound to decay to 60 dB b. 183mm
a. Echo time c. 250 mels
b. Delay time d. 1.86 mels
c. Reverberation time 647. At a sensation level of 40 dB 1000 Hz tone is
d. Transient time a. 1000 mels
638. If the distance between the listener and the source of the sound is doubled, the intensity is reduced to b. 10000 mels
a. 1/2 c. 250 mels
b. 1/3 d. 800 mels
c. 2/3 648. What is the velocity of sound in dry air for a temperature change of 45 degrees Celsius?
d. 1/4 a. 249.19 m/s
639. Positioning a loudspeaker near a wall can dramatically alter its frequency response in two b. 331.45 m/s
distinct ways namely c. 357.73 m/s
a. Gump and dump d. 358.77 m/s
b. Hump and notch 649. What us the resonant frequency of a Helmholtz resonator whose volume is 2.5 cu m with neck radius
c. Fade and gone of 8 cm?
d. Bad and worst a. 13 Hz
640. An effect that occurs in the ear where a louder sound can reduce or even stop the nerve voltage b. 11 Hz
generated by a weaker sound c. 15 Hz
a. Piezoelectric effect d. 14 Hz
b. Doppler effect 650. 40 phons is equivalent to how many sones?
c. Haas effect a. 0 sone
d. Masking b. 1 sone
641. When the average absorption is greater than 0.2, ____ formula is used to compute the actual c. 0.5 sone
reverberation time. d. 16 sones
a. Sabine 651. 80 phons + 80 phons =
 a. 83 phons b. 20 Hz -20 kHz
b. 160 phons c. 3 – 3 kHz
c. 90 phons d. 40 -40 kHz
d. 86 phons 661. A device that converts sound pressure into electrical energy
652. An early reflection of sound a. Microphone
a. Echo b. Headphone
b. Reverberation c. Headset
c. Pure sound d. Speaker
d. Jitter 662. An agreed set of empirical curves relating octave-band sound pressure level to the center frequency
653. An instrument designed to meaure a frequency weighted value of the sound pressure level of the octave bands
a. Sound level meter a. C-message weighting curve
b. Transducer b. Psophometric curve
c. Sound pressure meter c. Noise rating curve
d. Sound analyzer d. F1A weighting curves
654. The term used for the deafness of higher frequencies due to old age 663. Pure tone of sound used as standard on testing
a. 1 kHz
a. Ear deafness
b. 300-3400 Hz
b. Cortial deafness
c. Tinnitus c. 100 Hz
d. 800 Hz
d. Presbycusis
655. What is the dBSPL of an auditorium with contemporary music? 664. In the sawtooth waveform for linear scanning the
a. 95-100 dB a. Linear rise is for flyback
b. 40-50 dB b. Complete cycle includes trace and retrace
c. 50-60 dB c. Sharp reversal in amplitude produces trace
d. 70-80 dB d. Beam moves faster during trace than retrace
656. What principle is used by a carbon type micro phone? 665. With vertical retrace time of 635 us, the number of complete horizontal lines scanned during
vertical flyback is
a. Variable capacitance
a. 10
b. Variable resistance
b. 20
c. Variable inductance
c. 30
d. Piezoelectric effect
d. 63
657. Pressure is measured in term of Pascal, microbar or
a. Newtons 666. One-half line spacing between the start positions for scanning even and odd fields produces
a. Linear scanning
b. Newtons per meter
b. Linear pairing
c. Newtons per meter squared
c. Fishtailing
d. Pascal per meter squared
d. Exact interlacing
658. How much power can a human voice possible produce
a. 100 milliwatts 667. In facsimile transmission, if the drum diameter is 60 mm and scanning pitch is 0.1 mm, calculate the
index of cooperation using IEEE recommendation.
b. 1 watt
a. 1885
c. 10 watts
b. 600
d. 1 milliwatt
c. 1900
659. What is the increase in sound pressure level if the pressure is doubled?
d. 984
a. Increase by 6 dB
668. In the interlaced frame, alternate lines are skipped during vertical scanning because the
b. Increase by 3 dB
a. Trace is slower than retrace
c. Decrease by 6 dB
d. Decrease by 3 dB b. Vertical scanning frequency is doubled from the 30-Hz frame rate to the 60-Hz
field rate
660. The frequency limits of audio frequency is
c. Horizontal scanning is slower than vertical scanning
a. 300- 3000 Hz
d. Frame has the aspect ratio of 4:3
669. With ten percent for horizontal flyback, this time equals d. 67.25 MHz carrier and 69.25 MHz upper side frequency
a. 10 us 677. With 0.5 MHz video signal modulating the picture carrier,
b. 5 us a. Both upper and lower side frequencies are transmitted
c. 6.4 c. us4 b. Only the upper side frequency is transmitted
d. 83 us. c. Only the lower side frequency is transmitted
5 d. No side frequency are transmitted
670. Which of the 679. The difference
M between sound carrier frequencies in two adjacent channels 678. In all standard television broadcast channels he difference between
following is H picture and sound carrier frequencies is
not true? z a. 0,25 MHz
a. Line pairing indicates poor interlacing b. 1.25 MHz
d
b. People will look tall and thin on square
.
raster on the picture tube screen
c. A person
6 can appear to have one shoulder wider than the
other because of nonlinear horizontal scanning
d. The M
keystone effect produces a square raster
H
671. The width of a vertical
z sync pulse with its serrations includes the time of
a. 6 half lines or 3 lines
b. Three half lines
c. Five lines
d. Five half lines
672. Sawtooth generator circuits produce scanning raster, but the sync pulse are needed for
a. Linearity
b. Timing
c. Keystoning
d. Line pairing
673. Which of the following frequencies is wrong?
a. 15, 750 90 Hz for horizontal sync and scanning
b. 60 Hz for vertical sync and scanning
c. 31, 500 Hz for equalizing pulses and serrations in the vertical sync pulse
d. 31, 500 Hz for the vertical scanning frequency
674. The modulated picture carrier wave includes the composite video signal as the
a. Average carrier level
b. Symmetrical envelope of amplitude variations
c. Lower sideband without upper sideband
d. Upper envelope without the lower envelope
675. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Negative transmission means the carrier amplitude decrease for black
b. Negative transmission means the carrier amplitude decreases for white
c. Vestigial sideband transmission means both upper and lower sidebands are
transmitted for all modulating frequencies
d. Vestigial sideband transmission means the modulated picture carrier signal has only the
upper envelope
676. With 2 MHz video signal modulating the picture carrier for channel $ (66 to 72 MHz), which of
the following is transmitted?
a. 66- MHZ carrier and 68-MHz upper side frequency
b. 71.75 MHz carrier, with 69- and 73- MHz carrier
c. 67.25-MHz carrier, with 65.25- and 69.25- MHz side frequencies
 a. 4.5- MHz intercarrier sound
b. Picture carrier
c. Lower adjacent sound
680. 666. d. Upper adjacent picture
681. equals 691. The hue of color sync phase is
a. 0,25 MHz a. Red
b. 1.25 MHz b. Cyan
c. 4.5 MHz c. Blue
d. 6 MHz d. Yellow-green
682. With 7% black setup, maximum black in picture corresponds to what percent amplitude in the 692. Which signal has color information for 1.5 MHz bandwidth?
modulated carrier signal?
a. I
a. 5
b. Y
b. 68 c. R-Y
c. 75
d. B – Y
d. 95
693. Which of the following is false?
683. Line-of-sight transmission is a characteristic of propagation for the
a. I video hues are orange or cyan
a. VHF and UHF bands b. The transmitter matrix output includes Y, I and Q video
b. VHF bands but not the UHF band c. A three-gun picture tube can serve as a matrix
c. Low radio frequencies below a MHz
d. A full saturated color is mostly white
d. AM picture signal but not the FM sound signal
694. The color with the most luminance is
684. In channel 14, 3.58 MHz color signal is transmitted at the frequency of
a. Red
a. 471.25 MHz
b. Yellow
b. 473.25 MHz c. Green
c. 474.83 MHz d. Blue
d. 475. 25 MHz 695. What is the hue of the color 90 degrees leading sync burst phase?
685. The difference between the sound carrier and color subcarrier frequencies is
a. Yellow
a. 4.5 MHz
b. Cyan
b. 1.25 MHz
c. Blue
c. 0.92 MHz d. Orange
d. 0.25 MHz
696. The average voltage value of the 3.58 MHZ modulated chrominance signal is
686. Brightness variations of the picture information are in which signal?
a. Zero for most colors
a. I b. Close to black for yellow
b. Q
c. The brightness of the color
c. Y d. The saturation of the color
d. R-Y 697. The IF value for the color in receivers, for any station, is
687. The hue 1800 out of phase with red is
a. 0.5 MHz
a. Cyan b. 1.5 MHz
b. Yellow
c. 3.58 MHz
c. Green
d. 4.5 MHz
d. Blue
698. If the 3.58 MHz C amplifier in the receiver does not operate, the result will be
688. Greater peak-to-peak amplitude of the 3.58-MHz chrominance signal indicates
a. No color
689. more b. No red
a. White c. Too much blue
b. Yellow d. Too much yellow
c. Hue 699. Which of the following is not tuned to 3.58 MHz?
d. Saturation
a. Burst amplifier
690. The interesting beat frequency of 920 kHz is between the 3.58-MHz color subcarrier and
 b. Video preamplifier b. Sawtooth
c. Chroma amplifier c. Rectangle
d. Color demodulator input d. Square
700. When B – Y and Y signal are combined, the result is 710. An auto transformer in the vertical output circuit
a. Blue video a. Steps up voltage for the scanning coils
b. 3.58 MHz chroma b. Isolates the scanning coils for B+ voltage in the primary
c. Red video c. Isolates the oscillator and output stages
d. Green video d. Does not isolate the secondary from dc voltage in the primary
701. The phase angle between B – Y and R – Y is 711. Vertical flyback pulses at the plate of the vertical output tube are for retrace blanking at the
a. 180° picture tube
b. 57° a. Cathode
c. 0° b. Control grid
d. 90° c. Screen grid
702. Which of the following applies for a monochrome program? d. Anode
a. Chroma amplifier on 712. The top of the picture is stretched with too much height. To correct this
b. Y video amplifier off a. Vary the vertical hold control
c. Color killer on b. Reduce height with the vertical linearity control
d. Picture tube off c. Increase height with the size control
703. The manual color control is generally in which circuit? d. Replace the vertical oscillator tube
a. Red video output 713. Peak-to-peak sawtooth scanning current in the vertical coils can be
b. Y video output a. 0.7 mA
c. Chroma bandpass amplifier b. 0.7 A
d. R – Y demodulator c. 50 A
704. The contrast control is generally in which circuit d. 150 uA
a. Red video output 714. A push-pull amplifier in the vertical output circuit
b. Y video output a. Usually operates class C
c. Chroma bandpass amplifier b. Can use PNP and NPN transistor
d. R – Y demodulator c. Cannot be used
705. If the color oscillator does not operate, the result will be d. Generally uses two beam-power pentodes
a. No picture 715. Which stage is not necessary for producing horizontal output?
b. No color a. Horizontal oscillator
c. Incorrect hues b. Horizontal amplifier
d. No color sync c. Damper
706. The hue of the color sync burst phase is d. Horizontal AFC
a. Red 716. The frequency of the sawtooth current in the horizontal amplifier is
b. Blue a. 60 Hz
c. Magenta b. 10500 Hz
d. Yellow-green c. 15750 Hz
707. The balance for Y video signals to the three guns in the picture tube is set by d. 70 kHz
708. the 717. When the horizontal amplifier is conducting peak plate current, the electron scanning beam is at
a. Drive controls the
b. Contrast control a. Left edge of the raster
c. Screen control b. Right edge of the raster
d. Color control c. Center of trace
709. The voltage waveshape in the output of the vertical amplifier is a d. Center of flyback
a. Trapezoid 718. The minimum range of radar is primarily determined by
a. The pulse width and the TR cell recovery time
 b. The ATR cell recovery time a. Amplitude
c. The overall height of the antenna b. Decay time
d. The peak power output of the radar transmitter c. Rise time
719. Bearing resolution is d. Duration
a. The ability to distinguish two target of different distances 728. The minimum range of a radar is determined by
b. The ability to distinguish two target of different elevations a. The frequency of the radar transmitter
c. The ability to distinguish two adjacent targets of equal distances b. He pulse repetition rate
d. The ability to distinguish two targets of different sizes c. The transmitted pulse width
720. Find the distance in yards to an object if the display of a radar signal measures 4.4 microseconds. d. The pulse repetition frequency
a. 380 729. A circuit to develop AFC voltage in a radar receiver is called the
b. 328 a. Peak detector
c. 722 b. Crystal mixer
d. 656 c. Second detector
721. What device is located between the magnetron and the mixer and prevents received signals d. Discriminator
from entering the magnetron? 730. The echo box is used for
a. TR box a. Testing and tuning of the radar unit by providing artificial targets
b. ATR box b. Testing the wavelength of the incoming echo signal
c. RF attenuator c. Amplification of the echo signal
d. Resonant cavity d. Detection of the echo pulses
722. Where is RF attenuator used in a radar unit? 731. In a radar unit, the local oscillator is
a. Between the antenna and the receiver a. A hydrogen thyratron
b. Between the magnetron and the antenna b. A klystron
c. Between the magnetron and the AFC section of the receiver c. A pentagrid converter tube
d. Between the AFC section and klystron d. A reactance tube modulator
723. What radar circuit determines the pulse repetition rate? 732. What is the peak power of a radar pulse if the pulse width is 1.0 microsecond, PRR is 900 and the
a. Discriminator average plate power input is 45 watts?
b. Timer/ synchronizer circuit a. 50 kW
c. Artificial transmission line b. 45 kW
d. Pulse-rate indicator circuit c. 60 kW
d. 62.5 kW
724. Given the pulse width of 8 microseconds and a duty cycle of 8%, determine the pulse repetition
time of a radar system. 733. Radar uses what form of energy to detect planes, ships and land masses
a. 100 us a. Sound energy
b. 1 us b. Visible light
c. 1000 us c. Infrared radiation
d. 10 ms d. Electromagnetic energy
725. On runway, an ILS localizer shows 734. In a pulse radar system, what component controls the timing throughout the system?
a. Deviation left or right of runway center line a. Power supply
b. Deviation up or down from ground speed b. Synchronizer
c. Deviation percentage from authorized ground speed c. Indicator
d. Wind speed along runway d. Receiver
726. Range markers are determined by 735. What radar measurement of an object is referenced to true north?
a. CRT a. Height
b. Magnetron b. Surface angle
c. Timer c. Vertical angle
d. Video amplifier d. One-way distance
727. The characteristic of the magnetron output pulse that relates to accurate range measurement is its 736. Surface search radar normally scans how many degrees of azimuth?
 a. 30 degrees a. Transmitter
b. 90 degrees b. Echo box
c. 360 degrees c. Anti-transmit and receive box
d. 180 degrees d. Transmit and receive box
737. What limits the maximum range of a surface search radar? 746. In externally-synchronized radar, what determines the PRR of the transmitter?
a. Pulse width a. Synchronizer
b. Transmitter power b. Master oscillator
c. Frequency c. Blocking oscillator
d. Radar horizon d. Free-running multivibrator
738. What IF frequency (ies) is (are) normally used in radar receivers? 747. Transmitter power readings are most often referenced to what power level?
a. 30 or 60 MHz a. 1 watt
b. 455 kHz b. 1 milliwatt
c. 70 MHz c. 1 microwatt
d. 10.7 MHz d. 1 picowatt
739. What is the typical frequency range about the center frequency of a tunable magnetron? 748. What type of radiator normally drives a corner reflector?
a. Plus or minus 5 percent a. Half-wave
b. Plus or minus 10 percent b. Despun
c. Plus or minus 15 percent c. Isotropic
d. Plus or minus 8 percent d. Marconi
740. What type of radar provides continuous range, bearing and elevation data on an object? 749. A monopulse receiver has how many separate channels?
a. Track radar a. One
b. Search radar b. Two
c. Pulsed radar c. Three
d. Doppler shift d. Four
741. What radio navigation and determines the distance from a transponder beacon by measuring the 750. How many major lobes are produced by a paraboloid reflector?
length of time the radio signal took to travel to the receiver? a. One
a. Radar b. Two
b. Loran C c. Three
c. Distance marking d. Four
d. Distance measuring equipment 751. The Doppler variation is directly proportional to what radar contact characteristics?
742. Which of the following is a feature of an instrument landing system? a. Frequency
a. The localizer which shows aircraft deviation horizontally from center of runway b. Velocity
b. The glideslope or glide path which shows vertical altitude of an aircraft during landing c. Range
c. Provides communications to aircraft d. Travel time
d. Both a and b 752. What is the simplest type of scanning?
743. What transmission method does not depend on relative frequency or target motion? a. Single lobe scanning
a. Digital transmission b. Mechanical scanning
b. Frequency modulation c. Electronic scanning
c. Pulse modulation d. Electromechanical scanning
d. CW modulation 753. What term is used to describe the ability of a radar system to distinguish between targets
744. The beat frequency in a swept-frequency transmitter provides what contact information? that are close together?
a. Frequency a. Target resolution
b. Travel time b. Bearing resolution
c. Range c. Range resolution
d. Velocity d. Angular resolution
745. A self- synchronization radar system obtains timing trigger pulses from what source? 754. Radar altimeters use what type of transmission signal?
a. Amplitude modulated
 b. Frequency modulated 763. Continuous wave radar is frequency modulated with a 50-Hz sine wave. At the output of the receiver
c. Phase modulated phase detector, a phase delay of 36 degrees is measured. This indicates a target range of
d. Pulsed modulated a. 15 km
755. Tracking radar searches a small volume of space during which phase of operation? b. 75 km
a. Scanning c. 150 km
b. Tracking d. 300 km
764. A target pulse appears on the CRT 100 microseconds after the transmitted pulse. The target
c. Searching
slant range is
d. Acquisition a. 30 km
756. How many active elements are contained in a magnetron?
b. 93 miles
a. Two
c. 15 km
b. Three
d. 15, 000 yards
c. Four
765. A gated LC oscillator operating at 12.5 kHz is being used to develop range markers. If each is
d. Five
converted to a range, the range between markers will be
757. Transit time might be defined as the time required for
a. 120 km
a. RF energy to travel through the waveguide
b. 12 km
b. A pulse to travel a wavelength inside a waveguide
c. 1.2 km
c. One cycle of operation to be completed
d. 210 km
d. Electrons to travel from cathode to anode
766. What type of tube best meets the requirements of a modulator switching element?
758. On a basic synchro system, the angular information is carried on
a. Thyratron
a. Dc feedback signal
b. Magnetron
b. Stator lines
c. Klystron
c. Deflection coils
d. Phanotron
d. Rotor lines
767. What type of transmitter power is measured over a period of time?
759. What circuit element receives the drive voltage in a radar system’s fiber optic signal transmitter?
a. Peak
a. Filter capacitor
b. Return
b. Load-limiting capacitor
c. Average
c. Temperature sensor
d. Reciprocal
d. Transistor
768. One of the following processes or system best describe an example of a pilot tone system normally
760. For a range of 10 nautical miles, the radar pulse repetition frequency (PRF) should be
use in commercial broadcast FM stations.
a. Approximately 8.1 kHz or less a. Time division
b. 900 Hz
b. Frequency division
c. 18.1 kHz or more
c. Stereo multiplex
d. 120.3 microseconds d. QSK
761. If the operating radar frequency is 3000 MHz, what is the distance between the waveguide and the 769. What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station in beacon operation?
spark gaps in older radar units?
a. 10 W PEP output
a. 10 cm
b. 100 W PEP output
b. 5 cm
c. 500 W PEP output
c. 2.5 cm
d. 1500 W PEP output
d. 20 cm
770. What kind of emission would your FM transmitter produce if its microphone failed to work?
762. Ship raster scan radar has a CRT with the following characteristics: 70 pixels per character, 80
a. An unmodulated carrier
character per line, 25 lines per screen and it scans 100 screen per second. What is the minimum
b. A phase modulated carrier
required bandwidth for the electron beam control signal?
c. An amplitude-modulated carrier
a. 210 MHz
d. A frequency modulated carrier
b. 0.21 MHz
771. The main function of the RF amplifier in superheterodyne receiver is to
c. 2.1 MHz
a. Provide improved tracking
d. 21 MHz
b. Permits better adjacent channel rejection
 c. Improve the rejection of the image frequency a. 201
d. All of these b. 202
772. Local oscillator of a broadcast receiver always tunes to a frequency higher than the incoming c. 203
frequency in order d. 204
a. To help the image frequency rejection 781. If an FM station has an effective radiated power of 100 kW then it is under what class?
b. To allow easy tracking a. Class A
c. To allow adequate frequency coverage without switching b. Class B
d. All of these c. Class C
773. What is the first letter symbol for emission of unmodulated carrier? d. Class D
a. A 782. What is the range of an AM broadcast frequency tolerance above or below its assigned frequency?
b. N a. 25 kHz
c. H b. 20 Hz
d. F c. 60 kHz
774. International broadcasting (short wave) uses frequency between _____ in accordance with d. 120 kHz
international agreements. 783. What type of emission is produced when amplitude modulated transmitter is modulated by a
a. 7012 and 26100 kHz television signal?
b. 6409 and 26100 kHz a. A3F
c. 5950 and 26100 kHz b. F3C
d. 10950 and 26100 kHz c. F3F
775. Which of the class station below is a regional channel? d. A3C
a. Class I-A 784. How would you best describe an example of a pilot tone system used in commercial
b. Class II-D frequency modulation broadcast radio stations?
c. Class III-B a. Frequency simplex
d. Class IV b. Time division
776. The permissible power in kW of stations II-A during nighttime is c. Stereo multiplex
a. 0.25-50 d. QSK
b. 10-50 785. What type of emission is produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated by a
c. 1-5 facsimile signal?
d. None of these a. A3F
777. A term applied to third and higher order products, which can greatly degrade the performance of a b. F3F
system c. A3C
a. Composite triple beat d. F3C
b. Single dual mode 786. What is the highest assigned carrier frequency for standard AM broadcast?
c. Field strength a. 107 kHz
d. Noise b. 535 kHz
778. A station similar to a translator station in terms of equipment and service area, but is permitted to c. 540 kHz
originate programming from virtually any source d. 1600 kHz
a. DME 787. One of the following refers to the standard frequency band limits of AM broadcast band.
b. LPTV a. 30-300 MHz
c. HDTV b. 88-108 MHz
d. ITFS c. 3-30 MHz
779. MDS means d. 535-1605 kHz
a. Multipoint Distribution Service 788. What do you call the service area of a standard AM broadcast where fading is not allowed?
b. Multipoint Digital Service a. Secondary
c. Multipoint Data Standard b. Tertiary
d. Multipoint Drop Standards c. Primary
780. What is the channel number of an FM station with 88.1 MHz carrier? d. Experimental
789. In basic transmitter, ____ is a kind of transmitter that develops type B emission. d. Elliptical
a. Arc 798. Antenna current, as specified in KBP definitions, is defined as a condition of
b. Spark a. No modulation
c. Alexanderson b. 80% modulation
d. High end c. 85% modulation
790. High speed network as defined by the NTC memorandum circular are network in ICT that have a d. 100% modulation
capacity of at least _______. 799. ABS-CBN’s DXAB medium frequency broadcast station operates in …
a. 2.048 Mbps a. Luzon
b. 3.048 Mbps b. Visaya
c. 20.48 Mbps c. Mindanao
d. 5.05 Mbps d. Manila
791. Type of radio communication transmission utilizing frequency modulation technique 800. International broadcast stations…
a. Television a. Broadcast on shortwave frequencies between 5.95 MHz and 26.1 MHz
b. Broadcasting in 535-1606 kHz b. Can be operated by both government and private entities
c. Single side band HF transmission c. Has transmissions which are intended to be received directly by the general public in
d. Television Audio foreign countries
792. What frequency standard can be used to calibrate the tuning dial of the receiver? d. Is licensed by the NTC only when operated by private entities
a. A sweep generator 801. Two FM broadcast stations are in Quezon City and another in Manila proper may be authorized to
b. A deviation meter operate with a frequency separation less than 800 kHz.
c. A calibrated voltmeter a. True
d. Signals from WWV and WWVH b. False
c. Cannot tell
793. In stereo FM, a 38 kHz subcarrier is used for the L-R signal. It is derive from a pilot subcarrier of
a. 9.5 kHz d. Sometimes
b. 38 kHz 802. For Philippines AM broadcasting, according to standards, the maximum allowed
modulation for satisfactory operation
c. 19 kHz
a. 75%
d. 76 kHz
b. 85%
794. An area characterized to have no interference but with fading or intermittent variations in intensity c. 90%
is ___.
d. 100%
a. Primary service area
803. A third symbol radio emission represents telephone transmission including sound broadcasting.
b. Intermediate service area
a. W
c. Tertiary service area
b. F
d. Secondary service area
c. C
795. Where does the FM broadcast band located in the spectrum band?
a. ELF band d. E
b. UHF band 804. Which broadcast parameter of the primary FM station is allowed to be changed in the
operation of FM broadcast translator?
c. HF band
a. Frequency
d. WHF band
b. Power
796. What is the reason why Frequency modulation is used in the broadcast video recording on tape?
c. Information content
a. High capacity
d. A and b
b. Low noise
805. Input power, as defined by KBP, in the product of the voltage and current at the output of the last
c. Compressed bandwidth
radio stage, measured…
d. Faster recording
a. At 85 % modulation
797. As part of the KBP Technical Requirement for FM which polarization was not recommended for use?
b. Without modulation
a. Horizontal
c. At 90% modulation
b. Vertical
d. At 100% modulation
c. Circular
806. In determining an antenna’s height above average terrain (HAAT), how many radial directions from d. 30 kHz -53 kHz
the site are involved in the computation? 815. What is the maximum color TV bandwidth?
a. 4 a. 1.6 MHz
b. 8 b. 0.5 MHz
c. 12 c. 1.5 MHz
d. 16
d. 1.3 MHz
807. If DZFE 89.7’s antenna height above average terrain (HAAT) is 190 feet, what is the 816. A beam antenna has a height of 10 meters over a service area. Determine the beam tilt angle.
depression angle of the radio horizon?
a. 0.088°
a. 0.17°
b. 8.8°
b. 0.21°
c. 9.2°
c. 0.27°
d. 0.9°
d. 0.31°
817. Listing of the date and time of events, programs, equipment, test, malfunctions,
808. The method of generating FM used by broadcasting station is
and corrections in communication system.
a. Direct a. File
b. All of these b. Documentation
c. Indirect c. Reporting
d. Insertion d. Log
809. The maximum power suggested by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in Metro Manila
a. 10 kW
b. 20 kW
c. 15 kW
d. 5 kW
810. Production of radiation by transmitting station
a. Monitoring
b. Emission
c. Radiation
d. Transmission
811. A form of single emission where the degree of carrier suppression enables the carrier to be
reconstituted and be used for demodulation.
a. Half carrier single sideband emission
b. Full carrier single sideband emission
c. Reduced carrier single sideband emission
d. Double sideband emission
812. When does a broadcast station conduct an equipment test?
a. During day time
b. At any time
c. During night time
d. During experimental period
813. The lowest resistance grounding on earth.
a. Sand
b. Limestone
c. Surface loam soil
d. Clay
814. The frequency spectrum of the stereophonic FM signal.
a. 67 kHz
b. 59.5 kHz – 74.5 kHz
c. 19 kHz – 38 kHz