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ORTHO

The document contains a series of orthopedic questions and answers covering various fractures, nerve injuries, and conditions related to the musculoskeletal system. It includes topics such as march fractures, Hill Sach's lesions, and the management of cervical spine injuries, among others. The questions are formatted in a multiple-choice style, providing options for each query.

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Abhijith v s
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
284 views4 pages

ORTHO

The document contains a series of orthopedic questions and answers covering various fractures, nerve injuries, and conditions related to the musculoskeletal system. It includes topics such as march fractures, Hill Sach's lesions, and the management of cervical spine injuries, among others. The questions are formatted in a multiple-choice style, providing options for each query.

Uploaded by

Abhijith v s
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

DAMS PST: ORTHO QUESTIONS 25/08/2019

1. What is march fracture c. Posteromedial


a. Fracture of 2nd metatarsal d. Posterolateral
b. Fracture of cuboids
c. Fracture of tibia 8. Posada’s fracture is
d. Fracture of 4th metatarsal a. Transcondylar fracture of humerus
b. Fracture lateral condyle of humerus
2. Hill sach’s lesion is commonly seen in c. Fracture medial condyle of humerus
a. Shoulder dislocation d. Fracture anatomical neck of humerus
b. Knee dislocation
c. Pulled elbow 9. Fracture scaphoid is usually seen in
d. Anterior dislocation of Hip a. Elderly male
b. Elderly postmenopausal female
3. Nerve commonly involved in fracture distal c. Young active adult
shaft of the humerus is d. Children
a. Radial nerve
b. Medial 10. Garden spade deformity is seen in
c. Ulnar a. Barton’s fracture
d. Circumflex brachial nerve b. Colle’s fracture
c. Smith’s fracture
4. Artery involved in volkmanns contracture d. Bennet’s fracture
a. Radial
b. Brachial 11. Avascular necrosis of femoral head is most
c. Ulnar common in
d. Interosseous a. Intracapsular fracture of neck of femur
b. Extracapsular fracture of neck of femur
5. Tardy ulnarnerve palsy is caused by which c. Subtrochanteric fracture
fracture d. Fracture shaft of humerus
a. Supracondylar
b. Olecranon fracture 12. Posterior dislocation of hip is characterized
c. olecranon dislocation by
d. Distal radioulnar a. Marked shortening of limb
b. Lengthening of limb
6. Pulled elbow means c. No change in limb length
a. Fracture head of radius d. Extension deformity
b. Subluxation of head of radius
c. Fracture dislocation of elbow 13. Unlocking of knee is caused by
d. Fracture of ulna a. Rectus femoris
b. Quadriceps
7. In extension type of supracondylar fracture, c. Hamstrings
the usual displacement is d. Popliteus
a. Anteromedial
b. Anterolateral 14. Tube cast is applied for the fracture of

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DAMS PST: ORTHO QUESTIONS 25/08/2019

a. Shoulder
b. Hip 21. Saturday night palsy is which type of nerve
c. Pelvis palsy
d. Knee a. Neurapraxia
b. Axonotemesis
15. Insal salvatti index is used for c. Neurotemesis
a. Olecranon d. Complete section
b. Patella
c. Talus 22. Pointing index sign is seen in ……. Palsy
d. Scaphoid a. Ulnar
b. Radial
16. Bohler’s angle is decreased in fracture of c. Median
a. Calcaneum d. Axillary
b. Talus
c. Navicular 23. Froments sign is characteristically seen in
d. Cuboid a. Ulnar nerve injury
b. Median nerve injury
17. Jafferson fracture is fracture of c. Radial nerve injury
a. Odontoid d. Intercostobrachialnerve injury
b. C1
c. C2 24. Phalen’s test is used in
d. C3 a. De quevain tenosynovitis
b. Carpal tunnel syndrome
18. Hangmann fracture is c. Trigger finger
a. Subluxation of C5 over C6 d. Ulnar nerve injury
b. Fracture dislocation of C2
c. Fracture dislocation of ankle joint 25. Thurston Holland sign is seen in
d. Fracture of odontoid a.Type I
b. Type II
19. On accident there is damage to cervical c. Type III
spine, first line of management is d. Type V
a. X-ray
b. Turn head to side 26. Perthe’s disease is
c. Maintain airway a. Fracture of femoral shaft
d. Stabilise the limbs b. Osteochondritis of femoral epiphysis
c. Infarction of femoral femoral head
20. In scoliosis the degree of deformity is d. Fracture dislocation of femoral neck
calculated by
a. Cobbs method 27. Provocative test for detecting congenital
b. Hamburger method dislocation of hip
c. Haldane method a. Peterson test
d. Milwaukee method b. Barlow test

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DAMS PST: ORTHO QUESTIONS 25/08/2019

c. Perkin’s test b. Scurvy


d. Von rosen’s test c. Cubitus varus
d. Ankylosing spondylitis
28. Primary pathology in Congenital
Displacement of Hip is 35. Which joint is spared in Rheumatoid
a. Large head of femur arthritis
b. Shallow acetabulum a. MP joints of hand
c. Excessive retroversion b. DIP joints of finger
d. Everted limbus c. PIP joints of finger
d. Atlanto axial joint
29. Green stick fracture is
a. Fracture in adults 36. Which of the following disease can cause
b. Complete fracture loose bodies in joint
c. Incomplete fracture a. Rheumatoid Arthritis
d. Fracture spine b. Ankylosing spondylitis
c. Osteoarthritis
30.Sprengels’s deformity is d. SLE
a. Absence of clavicle
b. Acromioclavicular dislocation 37. Tom smith arthritis involves
c. Congenital elevation of scapula a. Knee
d. Recurrent dislocation of shoulder b. Hip
c. Ankle
31. Fairbank triangle is seen in d. Wrist
a. CDH
b. Congenital coxa vera 38. Cloacae are present in
c. Perthe’s disease a. Sequestrum
d. SCFE b. Involucrum
c. Normal bone
32. Epiphyseal enlargement occurs in d. Myositis
a. Paget’s disease
b. Sheurmann’s disease 39. Apparent lengthening is seen in which stage
c. Epiphyseal dysplasia of TB hip
d. Hemophilia a. Stage I
b. Stage II
33. Wind swept deformity is seen in c. Stage III
a. Achondroplasia d. None
b. Ankylosing spondylitis
c. Rickets 40. Tumour with maximum bone matrix is
d. Scurvy a. Osteoid osteoma
b. Chondrosarcoma
34. Looser’s zones are seen in c. Enchondroma
a. Osteomalacia d. None

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DAMS PST: ORTHO QUESTIONS 25/08/2019

c. Weaver’s bottom
41. Painless effusion in joints in Congenital d. Student’s elbow
syphilis are called
a. Clutton’s joint 48. Aeroplane splint is used in
b. Charcots joint a. Radial nerve injury
c. Barton’s joint b. Ulnar nerve palsy
d. Chronic osteomyelitis c. Brachial plexus injury
d. Scoliosis
42. Triple deformity of knee is classically seen in
a. Fracture patella 49. Turn buckle cast is used for
b. Tuberculosis a. Fracture shaft of humerus
c. Reactive arthritis b. Fracture shaft of femur
d. Septic arthritis c. Scoliosis
d. Cervical spine injury
43. Soap bubble appearance on Xray is seen in
which bone tumour 50. Cock up splint is used in which nerve injury
a. Osteogenic sarcoma a. Radial
b. Giant cell tumour b. Median
c. Multiple myeloma c. Ulnar
d. Chondroblastoma d. Axilary

44. Osteogenic sarcoma arises from


a. Epiphysis
b. Metaphysis
c. Growth plate
d. Epiphyseal cortex

45. Fallen fragment sign is a feature of


a. Simple bone cyst
b. Aneurysmal bone cyst
c. Giant cell tumour
d. Fibrous dysplasia

46. Sudek’s dystrophy symptoms are all except


a. Pain
b. Increased bone density
c. Sweating
d. Stiffness

47. Ischial bursitis is also known as


a. Clergyman’s knee
b. House maid’s knee

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