EXAMINATION
Aircraft Maintenance Training Programme
1. In Accordance with CASR Part 47, Certificate of Registration (C of R) is valid for a period not to
exceed than:
a. Three years from the date of issue.
b. Unlimited, as long as the aircraft in airworthy condition.
c. One year from the date of issue.
d. Determine by DG, when all Airworthiness Directives comply with.
2. The provision of Airworthiness Directives prescribed in CASR, under:
a. Part 39
b. Part 43.
c. Part 65.
d. Part 145.
3. A repair means:
a. The upkeep and preservation of the airframe including the component parts there of.
b. The restoration of an aeronautical product to an airworthy condition to ensure that the
aircraft continues to comply with the design aspects of the appropriate airworthiness
requirements used for the issuance of the type certificate for the respective aircraft
type, after it has been damaged or subjected to wear
c. An appreciable change in the weight, balance, structural strength, performance, flight
characteristics, or other qualities affecting the airworthiness of the airframe.
d. Simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small standard parts
not involving complex assembly operations.
4. Any unscheduled maintenance resulting from unforeseen events; or Scheduled checks that
contain servicing and/or inspections that do not require specialized training, equipment, or
facilities, means:
a. Maintenance.
b. Preventive Maintenance.
c. Line Maintenance.
d. Aircraft Servicing.
5. In accordance with part 145.61 performance records and reports, the holder of an AMO
certificate shall keep each record for at least:
a. One years
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Four years
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EXAMINATION
Aircraft Maintenance Training Programme
6. In accordance with CASR 145. Certificates issued for Approved Maintenance Organization within
Indonesia will be valid for a period:
a. One year after the date on which it was issued.
b. Two years after the date on which it was issued.
c. Three years after the date on which it was issued.
d. Shall remain in force for such period as determined by Director.
7. CASR Part 147 is:
a. Aircraft maintenance Organization.
b. Aircraft Maintenance Training Organization.
c. Certification and Operating Requirements for Distributor of Aeronautical Product.
d. Aircraft Registratio
8. A major repair on an airframe means:
a. The upkeep and preservation of the airframe including the component parts there
of.
b. The restoration of the airframe to a condition for safe operation after damage or
deterioration.
c. That, if improperly done, might appreciably affect weight, balance, structural
strength, performance, powerplant operation, flight characteristics, or other
qualities affecting airworthiness;
d. Simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small standard
parts not involving complex assembly operations.
9. General Airworthiness Directives provides:
a. Mandatory procedures to prevent or correct an unsafe condition.
b. Mandatory procedures to prevent or correct serious aircraft problems.
c. Information about aircraft problems and suggested corrective actions.
d. Temporary emergency procedures until Maintenance Manual can be revised
10. An aircraft is airworthy if:
a. Conform to maintenance standard and safe for operation.
b. Conform to type design and safe for flight.
c. Conform to maintenance manual chapter 5 (aircraft component limitation).
d. Conform to maintenance specification and safe for operation.
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EXAMINATION
Aircraft Maintenance Training Programme
11. What is the area of trapezoid beside?
a. 114 inches2 10”
10”
b. 30 inches2
6”
c. 72 inches2
d. 74 inches2 14”
12. Multiplication of negative number will always ……..
a. Zero
b. Negative
c. Positive
d. Unknown
13. If aircraft burn 40 gallons for 400 miles, how much fuel will burn for 600 miles?
a. 100 gallons
b. 60 gallons
c. 45 gallons
d. 50 gallons
14. A cylinder of gas under pressure of 1800 psi at 530º R. is left out in the sun in the tropics and heats up to
a temperature of 590º R. What is new pressure within the cylinder?
a. 1800 psi
b. 2004 psi
c. 3342 psi
d. 6375 psi
15. Convert 120º F and 1520º K to Celsius unit!
a. 48.9º and 1247º
b. 84.9º and 2147º
c. 98.4º and 4147º
d. 88.9º and 1222º
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EXAMINATION
Aircraft Maintenance Training Programme
16. …… states that pressure set up in a fluid acts equally in all directions
a. Pascal’s law
b. Dalton’s law
c. Charles’s law
d. Boyle’s law
17. To represent an edge of apart that would not be visible in the view illustrated using
a.
b.
c.
d.
18. Locations fore and aft along the fuselage, measured from a datum are called
a. Station numbers
b. Terminal numbers
c. Point numbers
d. Location numbers
19. What is the line used to dividing shape to two shares with equal size?
a. Visible line
b. Hidden line
c. Center line
d. Cutting edge line
20. What does it call if the electron move from one atom to another ?
a. Electrons
b. Free electrons
c. Ion
d. Neutron
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EXAMINATION
Aircraft Maintenance Training Programme
21. Determine the total resistance if the following resistors (R1 = 20Ω, R2 = 20Ω and R3 = 40Ω) are
connected in parallel.
a. 1 Ω
b. 8 Ω
c. 80 Ω
d. 16000 Ω
22. Refer to no. 21 if connected in series, the total resistance ……..
a. a. 1 Ω
b. 8 Ω
c. 80 Ω
d. 16000 Ω
23. On the resistor, the third color band is used to :
a. Know the first significant digit
b. Know the resistor tolerance
c. Know the second significant value
d. Know the multiplier or number of zeros to add to the first and two value
24. The rules for using pliers are
1) Do not make pliers work beyond their capacity
2) Do not use pliers to turn nuts
3) Plastic coated handle or vinyl grips are not intended to act as insulation (cannot use on live
electric circuit)
4) Wear safety goggles or safety glasses when cutting wire or metal
5) When cutting wire, hold short end to prevent flying bits.
a. 1, 2, 3, 5
b. 1, 2, 4, 5
c. 1, 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
25. By referencing the thick vertical line on main and vernier scale of the fractional inches vernier
caliper (indicates in line), indicates a measurement at……
0 4 8
2 3
a. 2 13/128”
b. 2 13/64”
c. 2 13/32”
d. 2 13/16”
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EXAMINATION
Aircraft Maintenance Training Programme
26. Possibility of using adjustable spanner is
a. installation of bolt is proper
b. installation of bolt is safer
c. installation of bolt will become so hard
d. head of bolt it will become wearing or destroy
27. A flat screwdriver must fill at least.......from the slot width of screw.
a. 80 percent
b. 75 percent
c. 100 percent
d. 50 percent
28. The following are mark on head bolt not showing the material of the bolt.
a. cross (x)
b. Tri square (Δ)
c. No marking
d. Double dash ( - - )
29. What is the material not used for the machine screw material?
a. Nickel steel
b. Low carbon steel
c. Aluminum alloy
d. Corrosion resistance steel
30. Normally, If Bolt used to join will resist more than type of stress, these stresses in most cases
is…………
a. Torsion
b. Compression
c. Bending
d. Tension
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EXAMINATION
Aircraft Maintenance Training Programme
31. If a nut has code number AN310 DD 5 R, it means:
a. the nut is aircraft plain hex nut
b. the nut is aircraft castle nut
c. the nut is aircraft wing nut
d. the nut is aircrfat self locking nut
32. Difference of bolt with screw is ………..
a. The tip of bolt dull but the screw not always
b. Bolt always has the grip but the screw not always
c. Bolt always uses a nut but screw no always
d. Like all answer mentioned in the upper choice
33. Chrome Nickel Steel also called as :
a. Corrosion Resistance Steel
b. Stainless steel
c. “18-8” steel
d. A, B and C are correct
34. Manganese has characteristic :
a. To remove air bubble
b. To tic/to remove oxygen
c. To add strength
d. To reduce hardness
35. The SAE number code to shoe Molybdenum Steel with composition 1% molybdenum 0,25% -
0,30% carbon :
a. 6130
b. 4160
c. 4130
d. 1025
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EXAMINATION
Aircraft Maintenance Training Programme
36. The first number (digit) of the AA code is :
a. Kind of aluminum alloy from (shape)
b. Kind of aluminum alloy combination
c. The digit number of aluminum alloy
d. All mentioned in A, B and C
37. Titanium has characteristic :
a. Lighter than aluminum
b. Heavier than aluminum
c. Has than same mass/weight as aluminum
d. One of A, B and C
38. The main material of Monel is :
a. Magnesium
b. Nickel
c. Chromium
d. Manganese
39. What is the minimum edge distance for aircraft rivets?
a. Two times the diameter of the rivet shank.
b. Three times the diameter of the rivet shank.
c. Four times the diameter of the rivet shank.
d. Three times of the thickness sheet.
40. A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of 0.040-inch aluminum riveted together.
All rivet holes are drilled for 3/32-inch rivets. The length of the rivets to be used will be
a. 5/16 inch.
b. 1/8 inch.
c. 0.080 inch.
d. 0.221 inch.
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EXAMINATION
Aircraft Maintenance Training Programme
41. If two row round patch is used, the number of rivet to be used are 36 rivet. How can we start to
layout
a. first, determining of outer row with spacing 24 rivet
b. first, determining of outer row with spacing 12 rivet
c. first, determining of inner row with spacing 24 rivet
d. first, determining of inner row with spacing 12 rivet
42. If three row round patch is used, the number of rivet to be used are 36 rivet. How can we start
to layout
a. first, determining of outer row with spacing 24 rivet
b. first, determining of inner row with spacing 36 rivet
c. first, determining of inner row with spacing 24 rivet
d. first, determining of inner row with spacing 12 rivet
43. Which of the following statement are true regarding, bend allowance
1) The length of material required for a bend
2) The amount of material consumed in making a bend
3) The line formed by extending the outside surface of the lag and flange
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 3
d. all above are false
44. A piece of flat stock that is to be bent to a closed angle of 15° must be bent through an angle of
a. 85°.
b. 90°.
c. 105°.
d. 165°.
45. Cleco colour code are show
a. Size of cleco
b. Length of cleco
c. Press tightly of cleco spring
d. Diameter cleco plier
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EXAMINATION
Aircraft Maintenance Training Programme
46. The chord line is described as :
a. The straight line joining the leading edge and the trailing edge.
b. This line is used as an arbitrary reference line, when measuring the angular position of the
wing in relation to the airflow.
c. A and B are correct.
d. A and B are incorrect.
47. The term of wing loading is defined as :
a. The weight of the aircraft divided by the wing area.
b. The maximum weight allow to be carried out by the airplane.
c. The maximum take off weight minus the maximum landing weight.
d. None of the above statement is correct.
48. A wing slat is a movable airfoil attached to the leading edges of high performance airplane
wings. Their purpose is to.
a. Reduce stalling speed
b. Replace flaps.
c. Act as a dive brake or speed brake.
d. Increase speed on take off.
49. An airplane that has a tendency to gradually increase a pitching moment that has been set into
motion has.
a. Poor longitudinal stability.
b. Poor lateral stability.
c. Good lateral stability.
d. Good longitudinal.
50. Minimum speed of the aircraft is 100 knots, when it is turn and bank the load factor is 4. The
stalling speed is :
a. 50 knots TAS.
b. 200 knots TAS.
c. 250 knots TAS.
d. 150 knots TAS.
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EXAMINATION
Aircraft Maintenance Training Programme
51. The lift produced by the wing as result of the following :
a. Increasing the air velocity above the wing surfaces.
b. Increasing the air velocity under the wing surfaces.
c. Increasing the air pressure above the wing surfaces.
d. Decreasing of the air pressure under the wing surfaces.
52. The factor may affect directly to the lift generation are :
a. Angle of attack, speed of the aircraft, air density.
b. Location of center of pressure.
c. Aircraft handling quality.
d. The maximum take off weight.
53. The primary purpose of aircraft weight and balance is :
a. Safety.
b. Efficiency during flight.
c. Economics consideration
d. Maintenance consideration.
54. The secondary purpose of weight and balance is :
a. Safety.
b. Efficiency during flight.
c. Economics consideration
d. Maintenance consideration.
55. Points along an aircraft fuselage, wing or control are given in station location. In the case of
wing, station 0 is :
a. The wing root.
b. The center of the fuselage.
c. The inboard side of engine nacelle.
d. Outer edge of fuselage fairing.
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EXAMINATION
Aircraft Maintenance Training Programme
56. When an airplane being weighed the brakes should be :
a. Full off and wheel chocks should be used.
b. Full on so that wheel chocks will not have to be used the scales.
c. Set just enough with the pedal to retard any tendency of the aircraft to move.
d. Set to “Parking”
57. That part of the total weight of an airplane made of fuel, oil, crew, baggage and passenger is
called :
a. Pay load.
b. Fluid load.
c. Useful load.
d. Expendable load.
58. In weight and balance computation, MAC refers to :
a. The location of the center of airfoil pressure during flight.
b. The wing chord on which center of gravity movement is measured.
c. The wing chord from wing root to wing tip.
d. Maximum aircraft center of gravity.
59. The distance through which a weight acts around an axis is called the :
a. Arm.
b. Fulcrum.
c. Moment.
d. Weight axis.
60. The valve used in a hydraulic system that directs pressurized fluid to one an actuating cylinder
and simultaneously directs return fluid to the reservoir from the other end, For example to
move landing gear up and down is…….
a. Sequence value.
b. Shuttle value.
c. Selector value
d. Relief value.
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EXAMINATION
Aircraft Maintenance Training Programme
61. Pneumatic system use………
a. Return lines.
b. Out flow values
c. Diluter valves.
d. Relief valves.
62. Which characteristic apply to aircraft hydraulic system ?
1) Minimum maintenance requirement
2) Lightweight
3) About 80 percent operating efficiency (20 percent lose due to fluid friction)
4) Simple to inspect.
a. 1, 2, 3, 4.
b. 1, 3, 4.
c. 1, 2, 4.
d. 2, 3, 4.
63. The internal resistance of a fluid to flow is called.
a. Volatility.
b. Acidity.
c. Viscosity.
d. Vapour pressure
64. Which is a characteristics of petroleum base hydraulic fluid (MIL - H 5606)?
a. blue colored
b. Flammable under normal conditions.
c. Compatible to natural rubber seals and packings.
d. Nonflammable under all conditions.
65. Following is operation of pressurization system on aircraft
a. Pressurized air is pumped into sealed fuselage with constant pressure of air
b. Air is released from the fuselage by a device called an outflow Valve
c. Outflow valve, used to dump air from cabin when fire condition.
d. All are correct
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EXAMINATION
Aircraft Maintenance Training Programme
66. source of compressed air for pressurized aircraft cannot be aqcuired from:
a. Bleed air from compressor of Gas turbine Engine
b. Supercharger or Turbocharger of reciprocating engine
c. Independent supercharger
d. Directly take the ram air to the cabin
67. Supercharger control used on pressurization system for:
a. To regulate air pressure from supercharger to cabin
b. To maintain air temperature of supercharger out put.
c. To maintain a fairly constant volume of air output from the supercharger
d. To regulate air temperature of supercharger output
68. Basic Principle of vapor cycle air conditioning:
a. A cooling agent changes its state from liquid to gas. When it changes temperature of
cooling agent is cool, it absorbs heat from the cabin
b. Ram air ducts installed in leading, lower or upper surfaces of aircraft to allow cold ram air
flow into the cabin.
c. Change of pressure and temperature of air caused by transformation energy.
d. Air vapor which conditioned before entered into aircraft.
69. To reduce the temperature engine bleed air or supercharger discharge air and to maintain
temperature before enter to compressor are functions of:
a. Compressor Cooler
b. Secondary Heat Exchanger
c. Heat Exchanger
d. Primary Heat Exchanger
70. Complete blockage of pitot tube (static vent still open) in flight will cause :
a. The ASI reads zero
b. The ASI to over read
c. The ASI to under read
d. The ASI stuck read moment blockage, then read less and more according to altitude
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EXAMINATION
Aircraft Maintenance Training Programme
71. Mach number is the ratio :
a. Speed of sound /true air speed
b. Speed of sound / speed of flight
c. True air speed /speed of flight
d. True air speed / speed of sound
72. The function of air jet of the gyro instrument is:
a. Is to correct for drift
b. Is to correct for topple
c. To drive the rotor
d. There isnot.
73. In the electrical tachometer indicator the rotation of motor indicator is brought to pointer
indication via :
a. Moving magnet and spring to pointer
b. Moving magnet and drag disc to pointer
c. Moving magnet via gears to pointer
d. Moving magnet between which the drag disc having hair spring located the pointer
74. Fuel flow systems that transmit measurements electrically to the indicator do which of the
following?
a. Reduce mechanical failures
b. Neither A nor C
c. And the need for a direct fuel-filled line from the engine to the instrument panel
d. Both A and C
75. When setting the Barometric counters of an Altimeter to the pressure prevailing at a particular
airport, the corresponding “ Q “ code is known as:
a. QFE and the Altimeter will read zero
b. QFE and the Altimeter will read the airport height above sae-level
c. QNH and the Altimeter will read zero
d. QNE and the Altimeter will read zero
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EXAMINATION
Aircraft Maintenance Training Programme
76. When a forced is acted upon the axis of a spinning body such as gyroscope, the change in
direction of the axis is known as :
a. Rigidity
b. Swirl
c. Precession
d. Hysteresis
77. Sub sonic speed would represented by :
a. Much Number less than 1.0
b. Much Number more than 1.0
c. Much Number between 0.75 to 1.2
d. Flying above 10,000 ft
78. The force applied to the spin axis of the gyroscope and tend to change the direction of the spin
axis , will :
a. Be transferred 90 ⁰ against the direction of rotation
b. Be transferred 90 ⁰ in the direction of rotation
c. Cause the gyro axis to shift in the direction of the force
d. Cause the gyro axis to shift against the direction of the force
79. A bourdon tube instrument may be used to indicate :
a. Pressure
b. Position
c. Quantity
d. Fuel flow
80. When the control wheel is moved to the extreme left position?
a. The left aileron will be full down and the right aileron full up
b. The right aileron will be full down and the left aileron full up
c. Both ailerons will be full up
d. Both ailerons will be full down
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EXAMINATION
Aircraft Maintenance Training Programme
81. A pilot complained that this airplane had a tendency to yaw to the left. The mechanic can
correct this condition by?
a. Washing in the left wing
b. Washing in the both wings
c. Bending the rudder tab to the left
d. Bending the rudder tab to the right
82. The degree of aileron movement is usually limited by?
a. Adjusting screws in the wings or on the control wheel
b. Limit switches on the aileron
c. Mechanical stops clamped on the control cables
d. Tightening or loosening turnbuckles
83. In fuselage construction, the primary loads are on the?
a. Formers
b. Stringers
c. Longerons
d. Bulkheads
84. A wing having no external bracing is known as a?
a. Cantilever wing
b. Truss wing
c. Suspended wing
d. Web wing
85. Propeller torque can be corrected by?
a. Washing – in right wing
b. Washing – in right and left wings
c. Washing – in left wing
d. Washing – out left wing
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EXAMINATION
Aircraft Maintenance Training Programme
86. The elevator of a conventional aircraft are used to provide rotation about the?
a. Longitudinal axis
b. Directional axis
c. Lateral axis
d. Vertical axis
87. Where is fuselage station number 137 located?
a. Aft of the buttock line
b. 137 inches aft of zero or fixed reference line
c. 137 frames forward of the empennage
d. 137 feet aft of the nose or fixed reference line
88. When the control wheel is moved to the extreme left position?
a. The left aileron will be full down and the right aileron full up
b. The right aileron will be full down and the left aileron full up
c. Both ailerons will be full up
d. Both ailerons will be full down
89. Why should a control surface with counterweights be statically balanced?
a. Hold the surface streamlined when on the ground
b. Reduce the possibility of control surface flutter
c. Make a control surface tab unnecessary
d. Make a installation and rigging easier
90. The reason for dihedral is?
a. More stability along longitudinal axis
b. More stability along the lateral axis
c. More stability along vertical axis
d. Produces pendulum stability
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EXAMINATION
Aircraft Maintenance Training Programme
91. When two or more batteries are utilize in aircraft they are usually connected in parallel . The
net voltage will be the same as when a single battery is used the capacity in ampere hour is –
a. Also be the same for a single battery
b. Be less than for a single battery
c. Be the sum of capacity of each separate battery utilize
d. Remain constant regardless of how many battery utilize in parallel
92. After the bonding jumper is installed, it is good practice to coat the junction with ………………… to
prevent the entrance of moisture which could produce corrotion.
a. a painting
b. a greasing
c. a waxing
d. a sealing
93. What is a cause of generator brush arcing?
a. Low spring tension.
b. New brush installed
c. Carbon dust particles.
d. Seating brushes with No. 000 sandpaper.
94. In a generator, what eliminates any possible sparking to the brush guides caused by the
movement of the brushes within the holder?
a. Undercutting the mica on the commutator.
b. The brush pigtail.
c. Brush spring tension.
d. Lubricating the brush side
95. Armature reaction is distortion of the magnetic field. Armarture reaction are coused by
a. Increase load
b. Decrease load
c. Shifting of brush
d. Interpole
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EXAMINATION
Aircraft Maintenance Training Programme
96. A voltage regulator controls generator output by
a. shorting out field coil in the event of overload.
b. introducing a resistance in generator-to-battery lead in the event of overload.
c. varying current flow to generator field coil.
d. motorizing generator to oppose its action
97. Aircraft which operate only ac generators (alternators) as a primary source of electrical power
normally provide current suitable for battery charging through the use of
a. a stepdown transformer and a rectifier.
b. a dynamotor with a half wave dc output.
c. an inverter and a voltage dropping resistor.
d. a reverse current relay or reverse current cut-out.
98. How can the direction of rotation of a dc electric motor be changed?
a. Rotate the positive brush one commutator segment.
b. Interchange the wires which connect the motor to the external power source.
c. Reverse the electrical connections to either the field or armature windings.
d. Rotate the brush assembly 90
99. If an ohmmeter is used to check the continity of circuit, which of the following would cause the
ohmmeter to read invinity
a. The resistance in the circuit has become practically zero
b. A sparation in the wire has caused a short circuit
c. The circuit is shorted to ground
d. The circuit is open
100. A Battery 17-AH will supply a current of approximately ………………… ampere for a period of 5
hour
a. 2.4
b. 85
c. 3.4
d. 22
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