SR N40+LT N40(PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-3 Date : 23-04-2018

NARAYANA MEDICAL ACADEMY

INDIA
SR N40+LT N40(PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-3 Date : 23-04-2018
Time : 3 Hours Max.Marks : 720
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS :
 Pattern of the Entrance Examination:-Paper containing 180 objective type questions from Biology, Physics
and Chemistry.
 Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only to darken the appropriate circle. Answers marked with pencil would not
be evaluated.
 Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response 1 mark will be deducted from the total score.
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PHYSICS
1. The position x of a particle at time t is given 6. A rough ramp is constructed with a parabolic
V shape such that the height y at any point on
by x  0 1  e  at  , where V0 is constant and its surface is given in terms of its horizontal
a
a > 0. The dimensions of V0 and ‘a’ are distance x from the bottom of the ramp
x2
1) M 0 LT 1 and T 1 2) M 0 LT 0 and T 1  x  y  0  by y  . The maximum height
20
3) M 0 LT 1 and LT 2 4) M 0 LT 1 and T from the bottom level at which a block can
2. The velocity of a moving particle is given by be kept on the ramp without sliding is
the equation v   5  t 2  ms 1 . The average (Between ramp and block  K  0.5 )
acceleration of the particle between the 2nd
and 3rd seconds is:
1) 5ms 2 2) 2ms 2
3) 4ms 2 4) 4ms 2
3. If a particle takes ‘t’ second less and acquires
a velocity of V m/s more in falling through
the same distance on two planets where the
accelerations due to gravity are 2g and 8 g
then 1) 2.5 m 2) 5 m
1) V = 4gt 2) V = 5 gt 3) 1.25 m 4) 2.75 m
3) V = 2gt 4) V = 16 gt
  7. The average work done by a human heart
4. The angle between A  i  j and B  i  j is while it beats once is 0.5 J. What is the
1) 450 2) 900 power used by heart if it beats 72 hours in a
3) 450 4) 1800 minute
5. The maximum value of ‘F’ for which both 1) 0.2 W 2) 0.4 W
3) 0.6
 W 4) 0.8 W
the blocks move together is  g  10 m / sec 2 
8. Let F be the force acting on a particle having
 
position vector r and  be the torque of this
force about the origin. Then
  
1) r.  0 and F .  0
  
2) r.  0 and F.r  0
  
3) r.  0 and F .  0
1) 95N 2) 100N   
3) 105 N 4) 110N 4) r.  0 and F.  0
SR N40+LT N40(PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-3 Date : 23-04-2018
9. A ring of mass m and radius ‘R’ has three 4
a g a4  g
particles rigidly attached to the ring as shown 3) 4)
8 16
in the figure. If the ring is moving with 14. A candle of diameter d is floating on a liquid
centre of the ring has a speed V0 , the kinetic in a cylindrical container of diameter
energy of the system in case of no slipping is D(D>>d) as shown in figure. If it is burning
at the rate of 2 cm/ hour then the length of
the candle above liquid will

1) 6mV02 2) 12mV02
3) 4mV02 4) 0.4mV02
10. A particle performs uniform circular motion 1) Remain at the same height
with angular momentum L. If the angular 2) Fall at the rate of l cm/ hour
frequency of the particle is doubled and 3) Fall at the rate of 2 cm /hour
kinetic energy is halved, its angular 4) Go up at the rate of 1 cm/ hour
momentum becomes 15. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a process
1) 4 L 2) 2 L 1
L L   2V0  2 
3) 4) P  P0 1     where P0 , V0 are
2 4   V  
11. A particle of a mass M is placed at the centre constants. The change in temperature of the
of a uniform spherical shell of equal mass gas when volume is changed from V  V0 to
and radius a . The gravitational potential at a
point P at a distance a /2 from the centre. V  2V0 is
GM 2GM 4 PV 3 PV
1) 2) 1) 0 0 2) 0 0

3a 3a 5nR 4 nR
3GM GM 2 PV
0 0 9 PV
0 0
3) 4) 3) 4)
a a 3 nR 7 nR
12. The length of a metal wire is l1 when the 16. Consider two containers A and B containing
identical gases at the same pressure, volume
tension in it is T1 and is l2 when the tension
and temperature. The gas in container A is
is T2 . Then the actual length of the wire is compressed to half of its original volume
lT l T lT l T isothermally while the gas in container B is
1) 1 1 2 2 2) 1 2 2 1
T1  T2 T1  T2 compressed to half of its original value
adiabatically. The ratio of final pressure of
lT l T lT l T
3) 1 2 2 1 4) 1 2 2 1 gas in B to that of gas in A is
T1  T2 T2  T1  1
 1 1
13. A cube of edge ' a ' is floating in water of 1) 2 2)  
density '  ' with half of its volume 2
2 2
submerged. The work to be done to slowly  1   1 
3)   4)  
push it in so as to completely submerge is 1     1 
a4  g a4  g
1) 2)
2 4
SR N40+LT N40(PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-3 Date : 23-04-2018
17. An ideal gas is taken through the cycle A  m m
B  C  A, as shown in fig. If the net heat 1) 2 2) 
 2
supplied to the gas in the cycle is 5 J, the
work done by the gas in the process C  A 2m m
3)  4) 2
is  2
22. A police car morning at 22 m /sec is chasing a
motor – cyclist. The police man sounds his
horn at 176 Hz, while both of them move
towards a stationary siren of frequency 165
Hz. Calculate the speed of the motor cyclist
if the motor cyclist does not observe any
beats ( velocity of sound = 330 m/sec)
1) 33 m/sec 2) 22 m /sec
3) zero 4) 11 m/sec
1) – 5 J 2) – 10 J 23. An open pipe is suddenly closed at one end.
3) – 15 J 4) – 20 J As a result of which the frequency of the
18. Two particles A and B of masses m and 2 m third harmonic of the closed pipe is found to
are moving along the X – axis and Y – axis be higher by 100 Hz than the fundamental
respectively with the same speed  . They frequency of the open pipe. The fundamental
collide, at the origin and coalesce into one frequency of the open pipe is
body after the collision. Then the loss of 1) 200 Hz 2) 300 Hz
energy during this collision is 3) 240 Hz 4) 480 Hz
1 3 24. Six charges are placed at the vertices of a
1) m 2 2) m 2 regular hexagon as shown in the figure. The
2 2
2 2 electric field on the line passing through
3) m 2 4) m 2 point O and perpendicular to the plane of the
5 3 figure at a distance of x(>>a) from O is:
19. A gas is found to obey the law P 2V 
constant. The initial temperature and volume
are T0 and V0 . If the gas expands to a volume
3V 0 , its final temperature becomes
T T
1) 0 2) 0
3 3
3) 3T0 4) 3T0
20. A disc of radius R and mass M is pivoted at
the rim and is set in small oscillation. If
simple pendulum have the same time period
as that of the disc, the length of the simple Qa 2Qa
pendulum should be: 1) 2)
 0 x3  0 x3
5R 2R
1) 2)
4 3 3Qa
3) 4) Zero
3R 3R  0 x 3
3) 4)
4 2
21. A particle of mass m oscillates with a
potential energy U  U 0   x 2 , where U 0
and  are constants and x is the
displacement of particle from equilibrium
position. The time period of oscillation is
SR N40+LT N40(PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-3 Date : 23-04-2018
25. The equivalent capacity between A and B in 30. A long string with a charge of  per unit
the given circuit is length passes through an imaginary cube of
edge, l. The maximum possible flux of the
electric field through the cube will be
1) l /  0 2) 2l /  0
3) 6l 2 /  0 4) 3l /  0
31. A paramagnetic sample shows a net
magnetization of 8 A/m when placed in an
1) 4 F 2) 22  F external field of 0.6 T at a temperature of 4
3) 16  F 4) 6  F K. When the same sample is placed in an
external magnetic field of 0.2 T at a
26. ‘n’ identical cells are joined in series with two
temperature of 16 K, the magnetization will
cells A and B with reversed polarities. EMF
be
of each cells is  and internal resistance is r.
32 2
Potential difference across cell A or B is 1) A/m 2) A / m
( n> 4 ) 2 3
2 4 3) 6 A / m 4) 2.4 A / m
 1  2
1) 2) 2  1   3) 4) 2  1   32. A small square loop of wire of side l is placed
n  n n  n a large loop of side L. (L>>l). The loops are
27. The three resistances A,B and C values 3R, coplanar and their centers coincide. The
6R and R respectively. When some potential mutual induction of the system is
difference is applied across the network, the proportional to
thermal powers dissipated by A,B and C are
l l2
in the ratio 1) 2)
L L
L L2
3) 4)
l l
33. The phase difference between alternating

voltage and alternating current is and
6
1) 2 : 3 : 4 2) 2 : 4 : 3
resistance of circuit is 300 . Then
3) 4 : 2 : 3 4) 3 : 2 : 4
impedance of circuit is
28. A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a
1) 10 2) 20
constant potential difference is maintained
across it. Two cells A and B are connected in 3) 30 4) 40
series first and then in opposition. The 34. Out of the following options which one can
balance points were obtained at 50 cm and be used to produce a propagating
30 cm respectively. Find the ratio of the electromagnetic wave ?
e.m.f of the two cells 1) A charge moving at constant velocity
1) 1 : 2 2) 3 : 2 2) A stationary charge
3) 4 : 1 4) 3 : 5 3) A charge less particle
29. Magnetic field at the centre of a circular loop 4) An accelerating charge
of area A is B. Then magnetic moment of the 35. A point object is placed at a distance 12 cm
loop will be an the axis of a convex lens of focal length
10cm. On the other side of the lens, a convex
BA2 BA2 mirror is placed at a distance of 10 cm from
1) 2) A
 0 0 the lens such that the image formed by
BA A 2BA A combination coincides with the object itself.
3) 4) Then the focal length of convex mirror is
0 0  1) 25 cm 2) 20 cm
3) 50 cm 4) 60 cm
SR N40+LT N40(PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-3 Date : 23-04-2018
36. A bi-convex lens made of glass of refractive the electron from the same surface to 2 E, the
index  is in air and has a focal length f. incident wave length must be
When it is completely immersed in a liquid, 
1) 2 2)
the focal length is found to be –f. The 2
refractive index of the liquid is hc 2hc
 2  3) 4)
 E   hc E   hc
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2   2 42. In the third orbit of hydrogen atom, de
Broglie wavelength of an electron is  then
37. The refractive angle of a prism is A, and radius of third orbit is
refractive index of the material of the prism 1) 3 2) 
 A 3 
is cot   . The angle of minimum deviation 3) 4)
2 2 2
is, 43. A sample of radioactive material has mass m,
1) 900  A 2) 1800  2 A decay constant  , and molecular weight M.
3) 1800  3A 4) 1800  2 A Avogadro constant  N A . The initial activity
38. The intensity ratio of the two interfering of the sample is
I I m
beams of light is  max min  1)  m 2)
I max  I min M
 mN A
2  3) 4) mN A e 
1) 2  2) M
1  44. For a transistor, the current gain of common –
2 1  base configuration is 0.8. If the transistor is
3) 4)
1  2  in common – emitter configuration and the
39. Two slits are made one milli meter a part and base current changes by 5mA, then the
the screen is placed 1 m away. What should change in collector current is
the width of each slit to obtain tenth maxima 1) 4 mA 2) 20 mA
of the double slit pattern with in the central 3) 1 mA 4) 10 mA
maximum of the single slit pattern 45. The Boolean expression of the out pat Y of in
1) 0.5 mm 2) 0.2 mm puts A and B for the circuit
3) 0.4 mm 4) 0.1 mm
40. The wave length of de – Broglie wave
associated with a thermal neutron of mass m
at absolute temperature T is given by ( K =
Boltzmam constant)
h h
1) 2)
2mKT mKT
h h 1) AB  AB 2) AB  AB
3) 4)
3mKT 2 mKT 3) A.B 4) A  B
41. The kinetic energy of an electron from a
metal surface is E when the incident wave
length is  . To increase the kinetic energy of
SR N40+LT N40(PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-3 Date : 23-04-2018
CHEMISTRY
-14 52. The formation of oxide ion from oxygen atom
46. K sp of Al (OH )3 is 4.32x10 . pH of its
saturated solution is about requires first an exothermic and then an
endothermic step as shown below
1) 5.2
2) 4.2 O( g )  e   O(g ) H 0  141KJ / mole
3) 10.77 O  ( g )  e   O(2g) H 0  780 KJ / mole
4) 11.77
47. For the following equilibrium Thus process of formation of O 2 in gas phase
H 2  2 H ( g ) . There is 0.1% is unfavorable even though O 2 is
(g) isoelectronic with neon. It is due to the fact
dissociation at equilibrium pressure of 1atm. that
If pressure is 4atm, % dissociation will be 1) Oxygen is more electronegative
1) 0.4% 2) O 2 is larger than O
2) 0.05% 3) electron repulsions outweighs the stability
3) 0.025% gained by achieving noble gas configuration
4) 0.2% 4) all the above
48. Specific heat of water is 1cal/g0C. If 25g 53. Conjugate base of which compound is most
water absorbs 100cal of heat, final stable
temperature becomes 440C. Thus initial 1) CH 3CH 2 NO2
temperature is
1) 480C 2) CH 3 NO2
2) 400C 3) CH 3CH 2Cl
3) 360C 4) CH3CH 2 Br
4) 250C
49. What percent of a sample of nitrogen must be 54. Which of the following are aromatic in
allowed to escape if its temperature pressure character
and volume are to be changed as given

a) b)
1) 16.67%
2) 75%
3) 25%
4) 83.3%

50. Number of  and  bonds in naphthalene

respectively c) d)
1) 6,19 1) only b 2) a and b
2) 4,20 3) c and d 4) a,b,c,d
3) 5,19 55.
4) 5,20
51. The hybridization of ‘S’ in SO2 , SO3 and
SO42 respectively
1) sp, sp 2 , sp 3
2) sp 2 , sp 2 , sp 2 H O / H SO
3) sp, sp, sp 2

2 g
40% H 2 SO4
4
 X ( main ) , here ’X’ is
4) sp 2 , sp 2 , sp 3
SR N40+LT N40(PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-3 Date : 23-04-2018

1)
4)
57. CH 3  CH  CH 2 is reacted with some
reagents. Results are accordingly shown
2) below. Match these from List-I to List-II

List-I List-II

P. KMnO4 / H  I. Propane-1,2-diol
3)
Q. KMnO4 / OH  II. Propan-1-ol

R. O3 /( H 2O / Zn) III. Propan-2-ol

4) S. IV. CH 3COOH  CO2

B2 H 6 / NaOH / H 2O2
T. H 2O / H  V. CH 3CHO  HCHO

O||
AlCl3
CH3  CH2  C Cl  A P Q R S T
56) + 1) I IV V III II
NH2 NH2 2) I IV V II III
KOH

B
glycol 3) IV I V II III
The product ‘B’ is 4) IV I II III IV
58. The correct decreasing order of dipole
moments of o-, p- and m- dichlorobenzenes is
1) o>p>m
2) m>o>p
3) o>m>p
4) p>o>m
1) 59.
CH 3 CH 2 Cl
| |
A
CH 3  C  CH 2   CH 3  C  CH 2
here A may be
1) Cl2 / 770 K
2)
2) SO2Cl2 / 475K
3) Cl2 / CCl4
4) both ‘a’ and ‘b’

3)
SR N40+LT N40(PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-3 Date : 23-04-2018
CH 3 1) CH 2  CH  CH 2 OH
|
( i ) H 2 SO4 2) CH 3  CH 2  CH 2OH
60. CH 3  C|  CH  CH 2 ( ii ) H 2O
 ......
CH 3 3) CH 3  CH 2  CHO
The main product is 4) CH 3  CH 2  COOH
1) 2,3-Dimethylbutane-2-ol
64.
2) 3,3-Dimethylbutan-2-ol Br2 / H 2O NaNO2 / HCl
3) 3,3-Dimethylbutan-1-ol A   B 
050 C
 C
4) 4,4-Dimethylpentan-1-ol H 3 PO2 / H 2O
61. Which of the following shows the correct  
1,3,5,  tribromobenzene
order of acid strength of the following ? What is ‘A’ ?

1)

2)

3)

1) C>D>B>A>E 4)
2) B>D>A>C>E 65. Orlon is polymer of :
3) D>E>C>B>A
1) CH 2  CH  C6 H 5
4) E>D>C>B>A
62. Consider the following reaction 2) CH 2  CH  CN
3) CF2  CF2
4) CH 3  CH  CH 2
66. RNA and DNA are chiral molecules. Their
H 2 / Pd  BaSO4 chirality is due to :
    ' A ' 1) L-sugar component
The product ‘A’is :
2) chiral base
1) C6 H 5Cl 3) chiral phosphate unit
2) C6 H 5CHO 4) D-sugar component
3) C6 H 5OH 67. The formula of Mohr’s salt is
1) ( NH 4 )2 SO4 .Fe2 ( SO4 )3 .6 H 2O
4) C6 H 5COCH 3
2) ( NH 4 ) 2 SO4 .FeSO4 .24 H 2O
63. When CH 2  CH  COOH is reduced with
3) ( NH 4 ) 2 SO4 .FeSO4 .6 H 2 O
LiAlH 4 , the compound obtained will be:
4) ( NH 4 )2 SO4 .Fe2 ( SO4 )3 .24 H 2O
SR N40+LT N40(PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-3 Date : 23-04-2018
68. In the Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of 3) 4,8 4) 8,10
nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia 74. Which of the following is the electronic
evolved from 0.75g of sample required 10mL configuration of Yb(Z=70) ?
of 1M H 2 SO4 . The percentage of nitrogen in 1) ( Xe)4 f 14 5d 1 6 s 2
the soil is 2) ( Rn)5 f 14 6d 1 7 s 2
1) 35.33 2) 43.33
3) 37.33 4) 45.33 3) ( Xe)4 f 14 6 s 2
69. Green chemistry deals with 4) ( Rn)5 f 14 7 s 2
1) growing more trees 75. Hydrolysis of XeF2 cannot produce
2) producing chemicals of daily need by using 1) O2 2) XeOF2
green house gases
3) Xe 4) HF
3) use of non toxic reagents to produce
76. Chlorine gas reacts with SO2 gas in the
environmental friendly products
4) using green plants as major food presence of charcoal to give product ‘R’. ‘R’
70. Which of the following is considered to be an reacts with white phosphorus to give
anticancer species compound ‘S’. On hydrolysis, ‘S’ gives an
oxo acid of phosphorus ‘T’.’R’, ’S’ and ‘T’
respectively are :
1) SO2Cl2 , PCl5 & H3 PO4
2) SO2Cl2 , PCl5 & H3 PO3
3) SOCl2 , PCl3 & H 3 PO3
4) SOCl2 , PCl5 & H 3 PO4
77. The mixture of HCl and HNO3 made in 3:1
ratio contains :
1) ClO2 2) NOCl
3) NCl3 4) N 2O4

2
78. Statement (S-1) : Li2CO3 decomposes easily
71. The complex  M ( NH 3 ) 6  absorbs energy on heating to form Li2 O and CO2
corresponding to ’ x ’ nm. Which wavelength Statement (S-2) : Li  is very small in size
2
in nm is  M ( NH 3 ) 4  (tetrahedral) likely to and applies very high polarizing power on
absorb CO32 ion leading to the decomposition of
4 9 Li2CO3
1) x 2) x
9 4 1) S-1 is true but S-2 is false
5 4
3) x 4) x 2) Both S-1 and S-2 are false
4 5
72. How many moles of KMnO4 are required to 3) S-1 is true, S-2 is also true and
oxidize one mole of ferrous oxalate  FeC2 O4  S-1 is the cause of S-2
in acidic medium ? 4) S-1 is true, S-2 is also true but the
2 1 statements are independent
1) 2)
5 5 79. Half litre of each of three samples of 10
5 3 volume, 15 volume and 20 volume H 2O2 are
3) 4)
4 5 mixed and equal volume of water is added.
2 X 2
73. 
Cr O 
2 7  CrO ;
pH
pH Y 4 X
The volume strength of the resulting solution
is
and Y are respectively : 1) 1.04 2) 2.08
1) 2 and 10 2) 8,4 3) 6.5 4) 7.5
SR N40+LT N40(PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-3 Date : 23-04-2018
80. Which of the following is not correct 86. Which of the following are correct
matching coefficients for this equation ?
1) sphalerite : ZnS MnO4  C2O42  H   Mn 2  CO2  H 2O
2) Haematite : Fe2O3 MnO4 C2O42 H
3) Chalcopyrites : CuFeS 2 1) 2 16 5
4) Bauxite : Al2O3 2) 2 5 16
81. Bredig’s method cannot be used to prepare 3) 5 2 16
colloidal solution of : 4) 5 16 2
1) Pt 2) Fe 0 0
87. If E 2  /  x1V , E 3 2   x2V ,
3) Ag 4) Au Fe Fe Fe / Fe
82. 75% completion of a first order reaction takes 0
What is the E 3
2.38hours. How much time will it take for Fe / Fe
99.9% completion 2 x 1  x2 2x  x
1) 2) 1 2
1) 1.39 hours 2) 7.14 hours 4 3
3) 11.9 hours 4) 15.85 hours 2x  x
3) 1 2 4) 2x1  x2
83. Select the correct statement of the following 2
1) In a zero order reaction, the rate of reaction
remains the same for any concentration of the 88. CH 3 (CH 2 )10 CH 2OH  H2 SO4 aqNaOH
 A   B,
reactant
2) Activation energy of a reaction can be here ‘B’is
calculated by calculating the rate constants at 1) cationic detergent
two different temperatures 2) anionic detergent
3) Acidic hydrolysis of an ester is a pseudo first 3) non-ionic detergent
order reaction 4) soft soap
4) All are correct 89. The ratio of ionization energies of Li 2 and
84. Of the following 0.1m aqueous solutions, Be3 is
which one exhibits the largest freezing point 2 3
1) 2)
depression 3 2
1) Al2 (SO4 )3 2) K 2 SO4 9 16
3) 4)
3) KCl 4) C6 H12O6 16 9
85. The number of atoms in 270g of an element 90. When an electron jumps from 5th excited state
present in bcc system with edge 300pm and to 2nd excited state in H-atom, the number of
density 6g cm3 is : lines produced in Balmer series is
1) 3.33x10 22
2) 3.33x10 24 1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 0
26 21
3) 3.33x10 4) 3.33x10
BOTANY
91. Study the following and choose the answer 4) Volvox, Spirogyra, Chara, Ectocarpus,
which corresponds in the same order, to the Porphyra
description given below: 92. The epidermal tissue system in plants has
Coenobium, Air bladders, Pyrenoid, many important roles. Choose the incorrect
Carpogonium, Pear shaped gamete function not displayed by this tissue system
1) Volvox, Laminaria, Chara, Porphyra, 1) Storage of water
Ectocarpus 2) Healing of wounds
2) Volvox, Chara, Ectocarpus, Porphyra, 3) Maintenance of root pressure
Chlamydomonas 4) Rolling and unrolling of leaves
3) Volvox, Chlamydomonas, Chara, Ulothrix, 93. Underground storage part is not seen in
Spirogyra 1) Asparagus 2) Allium
3) Soyabean 4) Solanum
SR N40+LT N40(PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-3 Date : 23-04-2018
94. Select the activities associated with phase, then the amount of DNA present in
gibberellins metaphase – I plate and in a single
A) Apical dominance B) Good herbicides metaphase – II plate of meiocyte of that plant
C) Promotes bolting D) Delay senescence respectively is
E) Stimulates closure of stomata 1) 2C and 2C 2) 2C and 1C
1) A and B only 2) B and C only 3) 4C and 2C 4) 2C and 4C
3) B and D only 4) C and D only 102. Despite high level of heterozygosity, the
95. Double fertilization occurs in progeny derived from seed of a cross
1) Anthoceros 2) Pteris pollinated plant was found to be completely
3) Cycas 4) Capsella uniform. One reason for this may be the
96. How many of the given features are phenomenon of
associated with keys? 1) Parthenocarpy 2) Induced mutation
Couplet, Quick referral system, Ex-situ
conservation, Analytics, Preservation of 3) Apomixis 4) PolyploY 4idy
specimen, Lead 103. ‘Vascular cryptogams’ are not the first group
1) Four 2) Three 3) Five 4) Six to exhibit
97. A freshly synthesized polypeptide chain has 1) Heterospory 2) Root system
the following sequence of amino acids, 3) Complex tissues 4) Homospory
104. A pure pea plant having yellow pods and
yellow cotyledons is crossed with another
pure pea plant having green pods and green
cotyledons. What will be the phenotypic ratio
Then predict the sequence of nucleotides in a of recombinants and non-recombinants in F2
DNA template that is involved in generation?
transcription 1) 5 : 3 2) 9 : 7 3) 9 : 4 : 3 4) 3 : 5
1) TAC GGG CUU AGG 105. Which of the following scientist is not
2) TAC GGA GCA AGC concerned with experiments involving O2
3) TAC CCT CAC TCG release from water during photosynthesis?
4) TAC GGC CAA TCA 1) Julius von Sachs 2) Van Neil
98. Statins used for lowering blood – cholesterol 3) Robert Hill 4) T.W. Engelman
level are extracted from 106. How many of the following statements are
1) algae 2) bacteria correct
3) viruses 4) yeast A. Yellow mosaic resistance mung bean was
99. K+pump theory of Levitt explains, which of developed by hybridisation
the following B. Yellow mosaic resistant bhindi was
1) Photoactive stomatal functioning produced by mutation breeding
2) Scotoactive stomatal functioning C. White rust resistant mustard was developed
by hybridisation
3) Active uptake of mineral ions by roots
D. Pomato was developed by somatic
4) Active movement of sucrose through hybridisation
pholem E. Golden rice variety was produced by
transgenics
100. Light wavelength absorbed by Pr and Pfr 1) Four 2) Three
state of phytochrome are respectively 3) Two 4) One
1) 660nm and 730 nm 107. Chromatin is constituted with
I.DNA II.Histones
2) 730 nm and 660 nm III. Non-histone proteins IV. RNA
3) 640 nm and 700 nm 1) I & II only 2) I,II & III only
4) 700 nm and 640 nm 3) I,II & IV only 4) I,II,III & IV
101. If a pollen mother cell of an angiospermic
plant is having 1C amount of DNA in G1
SR N40+LT N40(PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-3 Date : 23-04-2018
108. Consider the following statements and select IV. The energy difference between average
the number of correct statements : energy content of ‘S’ and transition state of
1. Replication of DNA is carried out by semi- reaction is called activation energy
conservative method in prokaryotes only 1) I and II 2) II and IV
2. Hershey and Chase conducted 3) II and III 4) II and IV
transformation experiments to confirm the 114. In lac operon, which of the following gene
genetic nature of DNA functions as constitutive gene and its product is
3. Three types of RNA polymerases are found available continuously?
in the nucleus of eukaryotes 1) Lac z gene 2) Lac i gene
4) After transcription also gene regulation is 3) Promotor gene 4) Operator gene
possible in eukaryotes 115. In Drosophila, the following crossing over
1) One 2) Four 3) Three 4) Two percentages were found between the given
109. Which of the following is regulating service genes
Gene Gene C.O %
1) Nutrient cycling 2) Water purification a b 2.8
3) Recreation 4) O2 Production a c 7.8
110. Select the incorrect option about splicing? d b 8.0
1) It takes place within the nucleus in d c 3.0
eukaryotes
What is the order of these genes?
2) In this process introns are joined
1) a-b-d-c 2) b-a-c-d
3) It takes place in the cytoplasm of
3) b-a-d-c 4) a-b-c-d
prokaryotes
116. Below diagram showing the transport of
4) Both 2 and 3
molecules across the cell membrane. Choose
111. How many of the following possess
the correct combination of labeling for A, B,
hypogynous flowers – Rose, Plum, Peach,
C and D from the following
Mustard, Brinjal, China Rose, Guava, Apple
and Cucumber.
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
112. Triose phosphates produced in the following
diagram are :-

1)3-PGA & 2-PGA 2)3-PGAL & 3-PGA

3)3-PGAL & DHAP 4)3-PGA & DHAP A B C D
113. Pick up incorrect statement (s) about enzymes
1 Active Facilitate Osmosis Simple
:
I. All enzymes are made up of proteins except Transport Transport diffusion
lysozyme 2 Simple Active Facilitate Osmosis
II. H 2CO3 molecules are formed from CO2 and diffusion Transport Transport
H 2O in the absence of enzyme carbonic 3 Facilitate Osmosis Simple Facilitate
anhydrase dramatically raises to 10 million Transport diffusion Transport
times 4 Facilitate Simple Active Osmosis
III. Formation of Enzyme substrate complex is Transport diffusion Transport
transient phenomenon
SR N40+LT N40(PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-3 Date : 23-04-2018
117. Which bonds are created during the
formation of primary structure of protein
(1) A – p, B – q, C – r, D – s
and maintain secondary structure of protein?
1) Peptide and hydrogen bonds (2) A – p, B – q, C – s, D – r
2) Hydrogen and peptide bonds (3) A – q, B – p, C – s, D – r
3) Peptide and glycosidic bonds
4) Glycosidic and peptide bonds (4) A – q, B – s, C – p, D – r
118. Ornamental plant with maximum number of 122. The deficiency of micronutrients, not only
floral leaves in its reproductive shoot is
affects growth of plants, but also vital
1) Cestrum 2) Tulip functions such as photosynthetic and
3) Petunia 4) Lupine respiratory electron flow. Among the list
119. Identify incorrect match : given below which group of three elements
shall effect most, photosynthetic, respiratory
1) Perisperm - Nucellus – Nourishment
electron transport
2) Coleorhiza - Radicle – Protection 1) Co, Ni, Mo 2) Ca, K, Na
3) Micropyle - Pore of seed –Absorption of 3) Ca, Mg, Fe 4) Cu, Mn, Fe
water 123. Monosaccharide with least number of carbons
4) Hilum - Scar of seed - Dispersal formed during regeneration phase of Calvin
Cycle is
120. Identify incorrect statement among the
following: 1) Sedoheptulose phosphate

1) Water ascends in the form of unbroken water 2) Xylulose phosphate

column through xylem elements 3) Erythrose phosphate

2) The process of plasmolysis is reversible 4) 1, 3 bis PGA

3) Plasmolysed cell retains water loss soon after 124. There are four DNA fragments as shown below
(only one strand is shown in each)
placing in isotonic solution
A) CCCGGGGAA B) GGCGCCGCA
4) Ascent of sap is directly proportional to rate
of transpiration. C) AAATATCCC D) ATTTTAAAA.

121. Match the column-I with column-II and What is the increasing order of denaturation at
high temperature
choose correct option on the basis of codes
1) B A C D 2) D C A B
given in Column-I & II :-
3) D C B A 4) C D B A
Column-I Column-II
125. Bulk of the seed in caryopsis fruit is formed of
A) Tracheids p) perforated end 1) Endocarp 2) Scutellum
wall 3) Embryo 4) Endosperm
126. Transgenic papaya is resistant to disease caused
B) Vessels q) chisel like end by
C) Ray r)obliterated 1) A prokaryote 2) A unicellular Eukaryote
parenchymatous central lumen 3) An infectious acellular particle
cells 4) A protozoan
D) Xylem fibres s)radial
conduction of
water
SR N40+LT N40(PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-3 Date : 23-04-2018
127. Synthesis of human insulin in E.coli cells is 132. Stirred tank bioreactors have been designed
the best evidence for for
1) Ambiguity of genetic code 1) obtaining pure product
2) Universality of genetic code 2) addition of preservatives to the product
3) Non cognate genetic code 3) the non requirement of any quality control
4) Genetic code is not degenerate test
128. Inner most layer of the extrastelar ground 4) ensuring aerobic conditions in the culture
tissue system of roots, is characterised by vessel
1) Casparian bands 133. Find out the incorrect match :
2) Starch grains 1) Mycoplasma - can survive without oxygen
3) Complementary cells 2) Dinoflagellates - soap box like cell walls
4) Intercellular spaces 3) Euglenoids - Majority of them are fresh
129. Mitochondria are the sites of water organisms
1) Oxidative phosphorylation 4) Diatoms - float passively in water currents
2) Decarboxylation 134. The selectable markers of pBR322 can
become inactive if desired genes are inserted
3) Dehydrogenation
into them. How many kinds of restriction
4) More than one option is correct sites are present in each of the selectable
130. Fuel of photosynthetic carbon oxidation markers of pBR322
pathway is 1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 8
1) Glycerate 2) Glycolate
135. Identify the dioecious gametophytes from the
3) Glyceride 4) Glyoxylate
following belonging to cryptogams
131. Which of the following statement is true :
1) Microbe resistant plant material is 1) Marchantia and Funaria
sporopollenin 2) Pinus and Marchantia
2) Each internode is a propagule in Opuntia 3) Cycas and Pinus
3) Bryophyllum reproduces through bulbils 4) Selaginella and Marchantia
4) Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise from
zygote

ZOOLOGY
136. Which of the following hormone is secreted 1) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D - v
by gastric gland and hypothalamus as well as 2) A – v, B – i, C – ii, D – iv
pancreas 3) A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – ii
1) Gastrin 2) Somatostatin 4) A – v, B – iii, C – i, D - iv
3) Somato tropin 4) Enterogastrone 138. Study the given flow chart carefully & select
137. Match the following and choose the correct the correct option for A,B,C and D
set

Contraceptive Feature
A) Barriers i) most preferred in India
B) IUDS ii) prevent ovulation
C) OCPS iii) Inserted into female
reproductive tract to
cover cervix
D) Natural iv) Higher risk of failure
v) Protection against
STDs
The correct option
SR N40+LT N40(PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-3 Date : 23-04-2018
3) the disease is caused by the mutation of a
single gene
A B C D 4) a single base substitution at the sixth codon
of the beta globin chain results disease
1 Gnatho Agnatha Tetrapoda Cyclosto
144. Which one of the following process in the
stomata mata
2 Agnatha Gnatho Cyclosto Tetrapoda bodies of living organisms is a digestive
stomata mata process?
3 Cyclostomata Tetrapoda Placodermi Agnatha 1) breakdown of proteins in to amino acids
2) breakdown of glucose into CO2 and H2O
4 Agnatha Gnathost Tetrapoda Cyclosto
omata mata 3) Conversion of glucose into glycogen
4) Conversion of Amino acids into proteins
139. Which of the following set is a bacterial 145. Which of the following is not involved in
diseases ? knee-jerk reflex?
1) Diphtheria, Leprosy and Plague 1) muscle spindle 2) motor neuron
2) Tetanus, Tuberculosis and Measles 3) brain 4) interneuron
3) Cholera, Typhoid and Mumps 146. Originating in bone marrow, circulating in
4) Malaria, Mumps, and Polio blood for 1-2 days, migrating to connective
140. Why do all copulations not lead to tissue and forming macrophages is a
fertilization and pregnancy? The root cause characteristic of
is…… 1) basophils 2) lymphocytes
1) Due to numerous sperms and one ovum 3) monocytes 4) eosinophils
2) Due to less progesterone 147. All mammals without any exception are
3) Ovum and sperms are not transported characterized by
simultaneously to the ampullary –isthmic 1) extra abdominal testes and 4 chambered
junction heart
4) Due to non – formation of corpus luteum 2) Viviparity and biconcave RBC’s
141. Which of the following statement is not true? 3) A muscular diaphragm and milk producing
1) Contractile unit of muscle fibre is glands
sarcomere 4) 4 pairs of salivary glands and 12 pairs of
2) Membrane of Krause is associated with ‘z’ cranial nerves
line of sarcomere 148. A colour blind man whose father was normal,
3) Cardiac muscles are striped muscles with marries a normal women whose father was
fibres being syncytial and voluntary colourblind. What percentage of children are
4) Erector pili muscles are smooth muscles likely to be colour blind?
142. Choose the correct the match 1) 0% 2) 25%
3) 50% 4) 75%
National park State Protected 149. Read the following statements:
animal I. The cyclical changes in the ovary and
1) Gir National West Bengal Asiatic lion uterus during menstrual cycle are induced by
park changes in the levels of Pituitary and Ovarian
2) Jim Corbett Karnataka Elephants hormones
national park II. Trophoblast is the outer layer of Blastocyst
3) Kazirangi Assam One horn that is formed by blastomeres
national park rhinoceros III. The first moments of the foetus and
4) Ranthambore Andhra Tigers appearance of hair on the head are usually
national park Pradesh observed during 5th month of pregnancy
143. Find out the incorrect statement related to The correct statement(s) is/are:
1) I, II and III 2) II and III only
Sickle cell anaemia
1) it is an autosomal recessive trait 3) III only 4) I only
2) the defect is caused by the substitution of
glutamic acid by proline
SR N40+LT N40(PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-3 Date : 23-04-2018
150. Which one of the following endocrine glands 154. An overdose of intravenous insulin may lead
is made up of cells, which are under the direct to death of an individual due to
control of the sympathetic nervous system? 1) an excessive increase of blood glucose
1) Adrenal medulla 2) Thymus 2) an excessive decrease of blood glucose
3) Adrenal cortex 4) Hypophysis 3) an inhibition of glucagon secretion
151. Person with blood group AB is considered as 4) an over production of histamines
universal recipient because he has 155. Statement - I: Inbreeding increases
1) Both A and B antigens on RBC, but no homozygosity thus help in developing a
antibodies pureline in any animal.
2) Presence of both A and B antibodies in the Statement - II: Continued inbreeding leads to
plasma heterogygosity.
3) No antigen on RBC and no antibodies in 1) Statement –I & Statement –II are true
the plasma 2) Statement –I & Statement –II are false
4) Both A and B antigens in the plasma, but 3) Statement –I is true but Statement –II is
no antibodies false
152. Which of the following pair is incorrectly 4) Statement –I is false but Statement –II is
matched with respect to convergent evolution true
1) Flying squirrel - Flying phalanger 156. Unidirectional transmission of a nerve
2) Lemur – Spotted cuscus impulse through nerve fibre is due to fact that
3) Anteater – Marsupial mouse 1) sodium pump starts operating only at the
4) Bobcat – Tasmanian tiger cat cyton and then continue into the nerve fibre
153. In the diagram of human heart shown below 2) nerve fibre is insulated by a medullary
different parts are indicated by alphabets. sheath
Choose the answer in which these alphabets 3) neuro transmitters are released by the axon
have been correctly matched with their endings and not by dendrites
parts__ 4) neuro transmitters are released by dendrites
and not by axon endings
157. Protostomes and deuterostomes are
taxonomically best distinguished based on
1) segmentation pattern
2) presence or absence of coelom
3) embryonic development pattern
4) body symmetry
158. Study the following table
Feature Class Example
A)Placoid Chondrichthy Exocoetus
scales s
1) A = Inferior vena cava, B = right atrium, B)Jacobson’s Reptilia Calotes
C= right ventricle, D=pulmonary artery, organs
E=left atrium, F=left ventricle, G=superior C) Metagenesis Arthropoda Periplanata
vena cava
D)Homeotherm Aves Aptenodytes
2) A = pulmonary artery, B= left atrium, C=
y
left ventricle,D=aorta, E= right atrium,F=
Among the above the correct combinations
right ventricle,G= superior vena cava
are
3) A=aorta, B= right atrium,C= right
1) A-D 2) B-D
ventricle,D= pulmonary artery,E= left
3) B-C 4) A-C
atrium,F= left ventricle,G= Inferior vena cava
4) A= superior vena cava, B= left atrium,C=
left ventricle,D= pulmonary artery,E= right
atrium,F= right ventricle,G= aorta
SR N40+LT N40(PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-3 Date : 23-04-2018
159. Blood circulation takes the following course 165. Mark the pair of substances among the
in human heart following which is essential for coagulation
1) right atrium - right ventricle – left ventricle of blood
- left atrium 1) heparin and calcium ions
2) left atrium - left ventricle – lungs – right 2) oxalates and citrates
atrium – right ventricle 3) calcium ions and platelet factors
3) left atrium – left ventricle - body parts – 4) platelet factors and heparin
right atrium- right ventricle 166. SAN is located at
4) right atrium – right ventricle – body parts- 1) left ventricle 2) left atrium
left atrium- left ventricle 3) right atrium 4) right ventricle
160. Read the following statements 167. Match the following epithelial tissues and
A) Cerebellum has very convoluted surface to their location & choose the correct option:
provide additional space for more neurons List-I List-II
B) Two olfactory lobes and two optic lobes
collectively termed as corpora quadrigemina A) Squamous I) Intestinal mucosa
C)Amygdala, hippocampus are the inner B) Cuboidal II)Trachea
deeper parts of cerebral hemispheres
D) Corpus callosum connects the two halves C)Columnar III)Ovary
of cerebellar hemispheres D) Ciliated IV)Blood vessels
Among them, the correct combinations are
1)A-B 2) C-D E)Pseudo stratified V)Bronchioles
3) A-C 4) A-D
161. Number of testes present in Pheretima is 1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-V, E-II
1) Two pairs 2) Three pairs 2) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-II, E-III
3) One pairs 4) Four pairs 3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III, E-V
162. Which of the following muscle help in 4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II, E-V
changing the position of testis to keep them at 168. What is common to Lantana, Eichhornia and
proper temperature? African catfish?
1) Detrusor and cremaster 1) All are mammals found in India
2) Dartos and cremaster 2) All are endangered species of India
3) Gubernaculum and cremaster 3) All are keystone species
4) Detrusor and Gubernaculum 4) All the species are neither threatened nor
163. Study the following about muscle contraction indigenous species of India.
A) Binding of Ca2+ to Tn-C 169. Match the following related to control
B) Release of acetylcholine pollution & choose the correct option :
C) Hydrolysis of ATP Column-I Column-II
D) Release of Ca2+
E) Pulling of thin filaments A) Electrostatic I) Remove gases like
F) Formation of cross bridges precipitator SO2
Correct sequence of the above events B) Scrubber II) Reduce
occurrence is automobile
1) B,D,A,C,F,E 2) B,A,D,F,C,E emission of
3) B,D,A,F,C,E 4) B,A,F,D,C,E poisonous gases
164. First evidence of ceremonial burial of dead C) Catalytic III) Remove
have been found with fossil of converter particulate
1) Java ape man matter
2) Neanderthal man
3) Pecking man 1) A-II, B-III, C-I 2) A-I, B-II, C-III
4) Cromagnon man 3) A-III, B-II, C-I 4) A-III, B-I, C-II
SR N40+LT N40(PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-3 Date : 23-04-2018
170. Which one of the following is correct? 177. Select the correct labeling in the given
1) Cochlea- ear ossicle diagram
2) Semicircular canal- hearing
3) Retina-vascular tunic
4) Cornea-fibrous tunic
171. Which one of the following groups of animals
is correctly matched with its one
characteristic feature without even a single
exception?
1) Chordata – possess a mouth provided with
Jaws
2) Mammalia – give birth to young ones
3) Reptilia –posses 3 chambered heart with
one incompletely divided ventricle
4) Aves – posses complete double blood
circulation 1) A- Sphenoid bone, B-Ethmoid bone, C-
172. Choose the wrongly matched pair : Zygomatic bone, D-Temporal bone
1) Pivot joint –between atlas & axis 2) A- Temporal bone, B- Ethmoid bone, C-
2) Fibrous joint – between humerus and radio- Zygomatic bone,D- Sphenoid bone
ulna 3) A- Temporal bone, B- Zygomatic bone,C-
3) Hinge joint-between femur and tibio-fibula Ethmoid bone,D- Sphenoid bone
4) Gliding joint – between tarsals 4) A- Ethmoid bone,B- Temporal bone,C-
173. The disease in which the immune system fails Zygomatic bone,D- Sphenoid bone
to recognize the own body proteins and 178. With reference to cockroach, the correct
attacks own tissues is statements :-
1) Rheumatoid arthritis 1) Cockroach has a 13 paired chambered heart
2) Asthama and aorta
3) Hepatitis 4) HIV 2) Brain of cockroach chiefly motor and
174. Number of true ribs in human is endocrine in function
1) 12 pairs 2) 9 pairs 3) Collaterial gland secretion help in the
3) 7 pairs 4) 8 pairs formation of spermatophore
175. Find out wrong statement : 4) Nymph undergoes 13 moults to become
1) Neurotransmitters are site specific adult.
2) Neurotransmitter sites has permanently 179. Common character to both flatworm and
destroyed after the transmission of nerve Roundworm is
impulse has taken 1) Acoelomate condition
3) Neurotransmitters cannot be released by 2) Absence of tissues
dendrites 3) Triploblastic body wall
4) Neurotransmitters are either excitory or 4) Pseudocoelomate condition
inhibitory in function. 180. Human insulin is being commercially
176. In which of the following set, all are produced from a transgenic species of
enzymes? 1) Rhizobium 2) Saccharomyces
1) Rennin, Pepsin and Gastrin 3) Escherichia 4) Mycobacterium
2) Pepsin, Trypsin, Steapsin
3) Trypsin, Ptyalin, Pancreozymin
4) Enterokinase, Secretin, Aminopeptidase