The following is not included in title block of drawing sheet. (a) Sheet No (b) Scale (c) Method of Projection (d) Size of sheet Which of the following is not a pictorial drawing? (a) isometric (b) multiview (c) perspective (d) axonometric Which of the following represent reduc- ing scale? (a) 1:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 2:1 (d) 10:1 Which of the following projection meth- ods does not use projectors perpendicular to the projection plane? (a) isometric (b) orthographic (c) oblique (d) axonometric In first angle projection method, object is assumed to be placed in (a) First quadrant (b) Second quadrant (c) Third Quadrant (d) Fourth quadrant Acircle will appear on an isometric drawing as a(n) (a) ellipse (b) cycloid (c) circle (d) parabola The following line is used for visibleoutlines (a) Continuous thick (b) Continuous thin (c) Chain thin line (d) Short zigzag thin 8. Anaxonometric drawing which has two axes divided by equal angles is: (a) dimetric (b) trimetric (c) orthographic (d) isometric 9. The dotted lines represents (a) Hidden edges (b) Projection line (c) Centre line (d) Hatching line 10. When you want to make the letters of a line of text narrower, you would set its: (a) aspect (b) scale (c) alignment (d) font 11. Inaligned system of dimensioning, the dimensions may be read from (a) Bottom or right hand edges (b) Bottom or left hand edges (c) Only from bottom (d) Only from left side 12. Inanaxonometric drawing, the projec- tion rays are drawn to each other and ____ to the plane of projection. (a) Parallel...oblique (b)_ oblique...parallel (c) parallel...perpendicular (d) parallel...parallel 13. The Length: Width in case of an arrow head is (a) 1:1b) 2:1 (c) 3:1 (d) 4:1 14. Which tool can be used to draw a 90 de- gree angle? (a) 30/60triangle (b) protractor (c) drafting machine (d) allofthese 15- The internal angle of regular pentagon is ___ degree. (a) 72 (b) 108 (c) 120 (d) 150 16. Inan oblique sketch of a cube: (a) the frontal face appears in its true shape (b) both receding axes are at 30 degrees to the horizontal (c) all faces are equally distorted (d) the depth distances must be reduced 17. The following line is used for dimension line (a) Continuous thick (b) Continuous thin (c) Chain thin line (d) Short zigzag thin 18. What is the major difference(s) between perspective and parallel projection? (a) Parallel projection can only be used with objects containing parallel edges. (b) Perspective projection gives a more realistic representation of an object. (c) Parallel projection is equivalent to a perspective projection where the viewer is standing infinitely far away. (d) Both Bandc 19. Aline of 1 meter is shown by lcmona scale. Its Representative fraction (RF) is(a) 1 (b) 100 (©) 1/100 (ad) 1/50 20. Which statement(s) is true about the precedence of lines? (a) ahidden line has precedence over a center line (b) acenter line has precedence over a visible line (c) a visible line has precedence over a miter line (d) allofthe above 21. The side view of an object is drawn in (a) Vertical plane (b) Horizontal plane (c) Profile plane (d) Any of the above 22. Which type of line has precedence over all other types of lines? (a) ahidden line (b) acenter line (c) avisible line (d) none of the above 23. The following is the method for develop- ment of a right regular prism. (a) Parallel line method (b) Radial line method (c) Triangulation method (d) Approximate method 24. Inan oblique drawing, all of the follow- ing angles are commonly used for drawing the depth axis, except: (a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90° 25. The following method(s) is used to find the true length and true inclination of a line when its front view and top view aregiven. (a) Rotation method (b) Trapezoidal method (c) Auxiliary plane method (d) Allofthe above 26. Which set of lead grades has a grade out of sequence? (a) H,HB,B, 3B (b) 7B,H,F, 3H (c) 6B,B,H,4H (d) 9H, HB, B, 2B 27. Hatching lines are drawn at ___ degree to reference line (a) 30 (b) 45 (c) 60 (d) 90 28. What type of sketch shows the front in true shape? (a) isometric (b) perspective (c) oblique (d) axonometric 29. When the line is parallel to VP and per- pendicular to HP, we can get its true length in (a) Front view (b) Side view (c) Both'a'and'b' (d) Top view 30. Which type of line is part of a dimen- sion? (a) break lines (b) phantom lines (c) extension lines (d) cutting plane lines 31. The following are the Polyhedron except (a) Prism (b) Pyramid (c) Cube(d) Cylinder 32. What type of sketch incorporates convergence? (a) isometric (b) perspective (c) oblique (d) multiview 33. When the line is parallel to both Hori- zontal Plane (HP) and Vertical Plane (VP), we can get its true length in (a) Front view (b) Top view (c) Both 'a'and'b' (d) Side view 34. Which line type is thin and light? (a) Visible lines (b) center lines (c) construction lines (d) allofthe above 35. The internal angle of regular hexagon is ___ degree. (a) 72 (b) 108 (c) 120 (d) 150 36. What type of sketch uses a miter line? (a) atwo-view multiview (b) anisometric pictorial (c) athree-point perspective pictorial (d) athree-view multiview 37. The front view of a rectangle, when its plane is parallel to HP and perpendicular to VP, is (a) Rectangle (b) Square (c) Line (d) Point 38. Which type of line is particular to sec- tion drawings? (a) break lines(b) phantom lines (c) extension lines (d) cutting plane lines 39. Which of the following position is not possible for a plane? (a) Perpendicular to both HP and VP (b) Parallel to both HP and VP (c) Perpendicular to HP and parallel to VP (d) Perpendicular to VP and parallel to HP 40. Inan oblique drawing, the projection rays are drawn ___toeach other and___ to the plane of projection. (a) oblique.....oblique (b) oblique.....parallel (c) parallel.....oblique (d) parallel....parallel 41. The following are the Solids of revolu- tion except (a) Prism (b) Sphere (c) Cone (d) Cylinder 42. Which design process involves re- sponding to the emotional needs of the consumer? (a) aesthetic design (b) functional design (c) systems design (d) e-business 43. Ifasolid is cut by a cutting plane parallel to the base of the solid and top part is re- moved, the remaining part is called (a) Frustum of a solid (b) Truncated solid (c) Oblique solid (d) None of the above 44. Which line type is thick and black? (a) Visible lines(b) center lines (c) construction lines (d) allofthe above 45. Aright regular hexagonal prism in rest- ing on HP on its base, its top view is a (a) Square (b) Rectangle (c) Hexagon (d) Pentagon 46. Inanisometric sketch of a cube: (a) the frontal face appears in its true shape (b) the receding axes are at 45 degrees to the horizontal (c) all faces are equally distorted (d) only the depth distances must be reduced. 47. Which of the following position is not possible for a right solid? (a) Axis perpendicular to HP and parallel to VP (b) Axis parallel to VP and perpendicular to HP (c) Axis parallel to both VP and HP (d) Axis perpendicular to both VP and HP 48. Where do the projection lines converge in a perspective sketch? (a) the vanishing point (b) the ground line (c) the horizon line (d) the eye point 49. The top view of a right cylinder resting on HP on its base rim is (a) Ellipse (b) Circle (c) Rectangle (d) Square50. Inisometric drawings: (a) Two axes are perpendicular (b) True measurements can be made only along or parallel to the isometric axes (c) All faces are unequally distorted (d) None of the above wl 2 fe stem] +lols fol o sf] fo] of@ Blol sol sale 23 [| 2 | | 2s [ew | 2 x{w[2[@| s[o] [oss [mx x[w[»[| fo afelelelslol#|ol[slol« sfo] elm] fo4. Young’s modulus of a material has the same unit as (a) pressure (b) strain (c) compressibility (d) force Unit of magnetic moment is (a) ampere—metre’ (b) ampere-metre (c) weber-metre? (d) weber/metre Unit of moment of inertia in MKS system is (a) kg = cm? (b) kg/cm? (c) kg xm? (d) joule x m The nuclear cross-section is measured in barn, it is equal to (a) 10°°° m? (b) 10°° m? (c) 10° m? (d) 10° m? Universal time is based on (a) rotation of the earth on its axis (b) earth’s orbital motion around the sun (c) vibrations of cesium atom (d) oscillations of quartz crystal Which relation is wrong? (a) 1 calorie = 4.18 joule (b) 1A= 107m (c) 1MeV = 1.6 x 10°? joule (d) 1newton = 10° dyne Number of fundamental units in SI sys- tem is(a) 4 (b) 7 (c) 3 (d) 5 Unit of surface tension is (a) Nm” (b) Nm? (c) Nem? (d) Nm* One second is defined to be equal to (a) 1650763.73 periods of the Krypton clock (b) 652189.63 periods of the Krypton clock (c) 1650763.73 periods of the Cesium clock (d) 9192631770 periods of the Cesium clock 10. One Wb/m’ is equal to 11. 12. 13. (a) 10* gauss (Bb) 4x x 1073 gauss (c) 10? gauss (d) 10“ gauss The dimensions of electric potential are : (a) [ML°T’Q™] (b) [MLT’Q7] (©) [ML?T“Q] (d) [ML°T*Q] The dimensions of electrical permittiv- ity are (a) [aeM IL Ty (b) [a?m L$ 7°y (©) [AML 14] (@) [aL S74] The dimensions of Reynold’s constant are (a) [M°L°T°](b) [ML"T"'] (c) [ML"T?] (a) [ML?T?] 14. The dimensional formula for angular momentum is (a) [M°L’T*] (b) [ML’T"'] (c) [MLT*] (d) [ML?T?] 15. The dimensional formula of torque is (a) [ML?T*] (b) [MLT?] (c) [ML"T?] (d) [ML?*T*] 16. The dimensional formula of pressure is (a) [MLT*] (b) [ML"T?] (c) [ML"T?] (d) [MLT?] 17. The dimensional formula for permeabil- ity pis given by (a) [MLT?A®] (b) [M°L'T] (c) [M°L2T"*A2] (d) None of these 18. The dimensions of gravitational con- stant G are (a) [MLT?] (b) [ML?T?] (c) [M"L?T?] (a) [M*LT?] 19. Which of the following is a dimensional constant? (a) Refractive index (b) Poissons ratio (c) Strain (d) Gravitational constant 20. The force F ona sphere of radius a mov- ing ina medium with velocity vis given byF = 6mnav. The dimensions of n are (a) [ML”] (b) [ML*] (c) [ML*] (d) [ML'T"] 21. The dimensions of Planck’s constant are same as (a) energy (b) power (c) momentum (d) angular momentum 22. If L denotes the inductance of an induc- tor through which a current i is flowing, the dimensions of L i’ are (a) [ML? T°] (b) [MLT?] (c) [M?L?T?] (d) Not expressible in M, L, T 23. The dimensions of potential energy are (a) [MLT"] (b) [ML?T~*] (c) [ML“T*] (ad) [ML"T*] 24. The dimensions of shear modulus are (a) [MLT*] (b) [ML?T*] (c) [ML"T*] (d) [MLT?] 25. Dimensions of , where symbols Hof have their usual meaning, are (a) [M°L"T] (b) [M°L?T?] (c) [M°L?T?] (d) [M°LT"] 26. Ifthe dimensions of a physical quantity are given by M* L? T°, then the physical quantity will be (a) velocity ifa=1,b=0,c=-127. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. (b) acceleration ifa=1,b=1,c=-2 (c) force ifa=0,b=-1,c= (d) pressure ifa=1,b=-1,c=-2 The unit of the Stefan-Boltzmann's con- stant is (a) W/m?K* (b) W/m? (c) W/m’K (d) W/m’K* The unit of permittivity of free space, €, is (a) coulomb?/(newton-metre)* (b) coulomb/newton-metre (c) newton-meter?/coulomb* (d) coulomb?/newton-metre’ Unit of Stefan’s constant is (a) Js? (b) Jm?’s'!K* (c) Jm* (d) Js Unit of self inductance is (a) newton — second coulomb x ampere joule/coulomb x second ampere (b) (c volt x metre coulomb yton x (a) newton x metre ampere The unit of absolute permittivity is (a) Fm (farad-metre) (b) Fm" (farad/metre) (c) Em (farad/metre’) (d) F (farad) The dimensional formula for magnetic flux is (a) [mv?T? a7! ] (b) [MLiT*Aa?](c) (d) ML2T2A~2] ML2T!A?] 33. Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit, in terms of dimension of mass M, length L, time T and current I, would be (a) [ML’T?] (b) [ML2T? 17] (c) [ML?T?I?] (d) [ML?T°*T"] 34. The dimensions of k in the equation We ; kx? is (a) [ML°T?] (b) [M°LT*] (c) [MLT®] (d) [ML°T"] 35. Dimensions of capacitance are (a) [M'L*?T*a?] (b) [MLT*A"] () [MU>T*A"] @ [Mm L?raTt] 36. IfL,C, and R denote the inductance, ca- pacitance and resistance respectively, the dimensional formula for C*LR is (a) (b) (c) (d) ML’T"1°] MPL°T?1°] M'L?TT?] M°L°T?1°] 37. Inthe relation x = cos (wt + kx), the di- mension(s) of w is/are (a) (b) (c) (d) 38. The M° LT] op") M°L°T ] M°LT?] dimensions of coefficient of self in- ductance are (a) ML?T?A7](b) [ML?T?*A™] (c) [MLT?A*] (ad) [MLT?A7] 39. Which one of the following represents the correct dimensions of the coefficient of viscosity? (a) [ML“T*] (b) [MLT*] (c) [ML°T*] (d) [ML°T*] 40. Out of the following pair , which one does not have identical dimensions? (a) Impulse and momentum (b) Angular momentum and _ planck’s constant (c) Work and torque (d) Moment of inertia and moment of a force (towards north-west) 41. The dimensions of magnetic field in M, L, T and C (coulomb) is given as (a) [MLT*c"] (b) [MT* c*] (c) [MT*C*] (d) [MT?c*] 42. If L, C and R represent inductance, ca- pacitance and resistance respectively, then which of the following does not represent dimensions of frequency? 1 (a) — RC (by & L 1 © Te (a © L43. The dimensions of (3) e9E* (€9 : permit- tivity of free space, E electric field) are (a) [MLT"] (b) [ML’T*] (c) [ML“T*] (d) [ML’T"] 44. Acube has a side of length 1.2 x 10’m. Calculate its volume (a) 1.7 10° m?’ (b) 1.73 x 10° m? (c) 1.70 x 10% m? (d) 1.732 10% m? 45. Let [<,] denote the dimensional formula of the permittivity of vacuum. If M = mass, L= length, T = time and A = electric current, then: (a), =[M?L?T?A] (b) «, =[M'L’ T* A’) (c) ¢,=[M'L?T' A?] (da) ¢, =[M'L’T’ A] 46. If length of pendulum is increased by 2%. The time period will (a) Increases by 1% (b) Decreases by 1% (c) Increases by 2% (d) Decreases by 2% 47. The S.I. unit of universal gas constant is (a) Watt K-1lmol-1 (b) NK-1mol-1 (c) JK-1mol-1 (d) erg K-1mol-1 48. Which of the following is a possible di- mensionless quantity? (a) Velocity gradient (b) Pressure gradient (c) Displacement gradient (d) Force gradient49. The dimensional formula of couple (a) ML?T? (b) MLT* (c) ML'T? (da) M1L1T? 50. On the basis of dimensional equation, the maximum number of unknown that can be found, is (a) one (b) two (c) three (d) fourtlelele| slo! «lm, slo] elo] 7l@) slo) »la|»la alo] 2[w) fo] fo)slo| || 7|@|*|o| [| »|o afolelo|slol#[o|s|m| «[@| 7folslol*la| oleDensity of 5 liter of water having mass 5 kgis: (a) 100kgm* (b) 1000 kgm? (c) 250kgm”? (d) 7500kgm* Mass of an object can be measured easily by using (a) screw gauge (b) physical balance (c) beam balance or calibrated electronic balance (d)_ spring balance/compression balance If the mass of a ball is 5 kg on earth, then what would be its mass on Jupiter? (a) 5kg (b) 5000kg (c) 40000 kg (d) 50kg . Mass is property of a body that cannot be changed by its (a) location (b) speed (c) shape (d) allof above Greek alphabet for density is (a) 11 (b) rho (c) Ohms (d) mho6. 10. 11. What is the mass of an object whose weight on earth is 196 N? (a) 20kg (b) 0.20 kg (c) 1960kg (d) 2kg If acceleration of a free fall on Moon is 1.6 ms~ and on Earth is 10 ms”. A rock has a mass of 10 kg on Earth. Its weight on Earth will be (a) 16N (b) 100N (c) 32N (d) 50N How much would a man, whose mass is 60 kg weight on the moon? (a) 9.8N (b) 600N (c) 60N (d) 98N Mass of oil is 11040 kg and volume is 12 m?, its density would be (a) 92kgm* (b) 920kgm* (c) 9.2kgm? (d) 1.08 x 10° Newton is unit of (a) Weight (b) Mass (c) Energy (d) Power Force due to pull of gravity is called (a) Weight (b) Force(c) Mass (d) Tension 12. Beam balance or calibrated electronic bal- ance is used to measure (a) Mass (b) Time (c) Weight (d) acceleration 13. Due to Earth's gravitational pull, 1 kg mass experiences force of (a) 5N (b) 100N (c) 50N (d) 10N 14. Difference between mass and weight is (a) mass is a force and weight is a quantity (b) mass and weight both are force (c) mass and weight both are quantities (d) mass is quantity and weight is force 15. Foran object of mass 4 kg, incorrect state- ment is (a) Weight of object on earth = 10 x Mass of object on earth (b) Mass of object on earth = Mass of object on moon (c) Weight of object on earth = 1/6 = Weight of object on moon (d) Weight of object on moon = 1/6 x Weight of object on earth 16. As we gain altitude density of air (a) increases(b) decreases (c) remains constant (d) none of above 17. What is volume? (a) The amount of space an object takes up (b) The amount of matter in an object (c) The pull of gravity on an object (d) Mass divided by volume 18. Whatis Mass? (a) The amount of space an object takes up (b) The amount of matter in an object (c) The pull of gravity on an object (d) Mass divided by volume 19. What is weight? (a) The amount of space an object takes up (b) The amount of matter in an object (c) The pull of gravity on an object (d) Mass divided by volume 20. Regular volume is measured in (a) Pounds (Ibs) (b) Grams (g) (c) Milliliters (mL) (d) Cubic centimeters (cm‘3) 21. Mass and weight (a) Both measure the same thing. (b) Are exactly equal. (c) Are two different quantities. (d) Are both measured in kilograms. 22. The law of of mass states thatthe mass of a closed system must remain constant over time. (a) Weight (b) Density (c) Consistency (d) Conservation 23. What is the weight of a 1kg mass object on planet Earth? (a) 9.8 pounds (b) 1Newton (c) 5 Newtons (d) 9.8 Newtons 24. Which method of determining mass in- volves measuring how much an object re- sists acceleration? (a) Inertial mass (b) Atomic mass (c) Gravitational mass (d) Newton mass 25. Weight is the measure of the force of ______ on an object. (a) Density (b) Mass (c) Matter (d) Gravity 26. Ifthe density of planet is doubled with- out any change in its radius, how does g change on the planet? (a) Itremains the same (b) Itis tripled (c) Itreduces(d) Itis doubled. 27. The mass of the moon is nearly 10% of the mass of the earth. What will be the gravi- tational force of the earth on the moon, in comparison to the gravitational force of the moon on the earth? (a) Both of the force will be equal (b) Gravitational force of the earth on the moon is much lesser (c) Gravitational force of the moon on the earth is much lesser (d) There is no effect 28. If earth loses its gravity, then for a body (a) A weight becomes zero, but not the mass (b) Mass becomes zero but not weight (c) Neither mass nor weight becomes zero (d) Both mass and weight are zero 29. A ball is dropped from a spacecraft re- volving around the earth at a height of 120km. What will happen to the ball? (a) It will go very far in space (b) It will move with the same speed tangentially to the spacecraft (c) It will fall down to the earth gradually (d) It will continue to move with the same speed along the original orbit of spacecraft 30. A man waves his arm, while walking. This is(a) (b) (c) (d) To keep constant velocity To ease the tension To increase the velocity To balance the effect of earth's gravity. 31. Kepler's second law is based on (a) (b) (c) (d) Newton's first law Newton's second law Special theory of relativity Conservation of angular momentum. 32. The density of aluminium is 2.7 g/cm’. Its density in kg/m’ is (a) (c) (c) (d) 27 kg/m’ 2700 kg/m? 270 kg/m? 27000 kg/m? 33. When water is heated, it expands and (a) (b) (c) (d) rises upward moves downward remain at the same place None of these 34. When air is cooled, its density (a) (b) (c) (d) increases decreses remains same None of these 35. The density of wood is 0.65 gem™ in CGS system. Its density in SI system is (a) (b) (c) (d) 65 kgm”? 6.5 kgm? 650 kgm? 0.65 kgm?36. To determine the density of a Solid, we have to determine its (a) mass and area (b) weight and area (c) mass and volume (d) weight and volume 37. Which of these has the lowest density? (a) cork (b) glass (c) water (d) aluminum 38. The density of water at room tempera- ture is about (a) 10g/cm?’ (b) 1 g/cm? (c) 0.1 g/cm? (d) 0.01 g/cm? 39. Analloyhasa relative density of 10. If the density of water is 1000 kg/m3, the density of the alloy is: (a) 100 kg/m? (b) 0.01 kg/m? (c) 10,000 kg/m? (d) 1010 kg/m? 40. The size, mass & density of which of the planets is very near to those of Earth? (a) Venus (b) Mercury (c) Jupiter (d) Saturn 41. The ratio of specific weight of liquid to specific weight of water is42. 43 44, 45. 46. 47 (a) specific gravity (b) specific weight (c) specific volume (d) allthe above Specific weight of water at 200C is (a) 9810kg/m?* (b) 9810N/m? (c) 9.81kg/m? (d) allthe above . Itis a product of mass density and gravi- tational acceleration (a) mass density (b) specific weight (c) specific volume (d) specific gravity Specific weight of mercury is (a) 13.6kg/m? (b) 13600 kg/m? (c) 136kg/m? (d) allthe above Which has the most mass? (a) Pluto (b) A Pencil (c) Earth (d) The Moon . Sum of amount of matter in a substance is called its (a) mass (b) weight (c) length (d) volume . Which of the following statements are true of both weight and mass?(a) Mass depends on gravity, weight does not (b) Heavier objects weigh more than light objects. (c) Gravity is necessary to measure both weight and mass (d) Weight is a force, mass is a measure of inertia 48. In Newton's second law of motion, what is the relationship between acceleration and mass? Acceleration (a) Is directly proportional to mass. (b) Is inversely proportional to mass. (c) Does not depend on mass. (d) Itis dividing by mass. 49. The weight of an object of mass 15 kg at the centre oftheearthis__. (a) 147N (b) 147kg (c) zero (d) 150N 50. Massremains____ throughout the uni- verse. (a) varies (b) zero (c) constant (d) negativeWhich of the following is a one dimen- sional motion ? (a) Landing of an aircraft (b) Earth revolving around the sun (c) Motion of wheels of a moving train (d) Train running ona straight track Which of the following can be zero, when a particle is in motion for some time? (a) Distance (b) Displacement (c) Speed (d) None of these Speed is in general ____ in magnitude than that of the velocity. (a) equal (b) greater or equal (c) smaller (c) none of these Area under velocity-time curve over a given interval of time represents (a) acceleration (b) momentum (c) velocity (d) displacement The slope of velocity-time graph for mo- tion with uniform velocity is equal to (a) final velocity (b) initial velocity (c) zero (d) none of these The ratio of the numerical values of the average velocity and average speed of a body is (a) unity (b) unity or less(c) unity or more (d) less than unity 7. The slope of the tangent drawn on posi- tion-time graph at any instant is equal to the instantaneous (a) acceleration (b) force (c) velocity (d) momentum 8. Which of the following is the correct definition for Average speed? (a) Average speed = total dis; lacement total time (b) Average speed = total path length total time (©) Average speed = change in speed total time (d) Average speed = sum of all the speeds total time 9. What is the numerical ratio of velocity to speed of an object ? (a) Always equal to one (b) Always less than one (c) Always greater than one (d) Either less than or equal to one. 10. The acceleration of a moving body can be found from (a) area under velocity - time graph (b) area under distance -time graph (c) slope of the velocity- time graph (d)_ slope of distance-time graph 11. What determines the nature of the path followed by the particle? (a) Speed (b) Velocity(c) Acceleration (d) Both (b) and (c) 12. Acceleration of a particle changes when (a) direction of velocity changes (b) magnitude of velocity changes (c) speed changes (d) Both (a) and (b) 13. The area under acceleration time graph gives (a) distance travelled (b) change in acceleration (c) force acting (d) change in velocity 14. Acceleration is described as rate of change of (a) distance with time (b) velocity with distance (c) velocity with time (d) distance with velocity 15. Which of the following is the correct ex- pression of instantaneous acceleration ? (a) oo () “ (c) an oo 16. Ifa body travels with constant accelera- tion, which of the following quantities re- mains constant ? (a) Displacement (b) Velocity (c) Time (d) None of these.17. Velocity time curve for a body projected vertically upwards is (a) parabola (b) ellipse (c) hyperbola (d) straight line 18. A body is thrown upwards and reaches its maximum height. At that position (a) its acceleration is minimum (b) its velocity is zero and _ its acceleration is also zero (c) its velocity is zero but its acceleration is maximum (d) its velocity is zero and_ its acceleration is the acceleration due to gravity. 19. Stopping distance of a moving vehicle is directly proportional to (a) square of the initial velocity (b) square of the initial acceleration (c) the initial velocity (d) the initial acceleration 20. The path of a particle moving under the influence of a force fixed in magnitude and direction is (a) straight line (b) circle (c) parabola (d) ellipse 21. Velocity-time curve for a body projected vertically upwards is (a) parabola (b) ellipse (c) hyperbola (d) straight line 22. An object accelerated downward under the influence of force of gravity. The mo-tion of object is said to be (a) uniform motion (b) free fall (c) non uniformly accelerated motion (d) None of these 23. Choose the wrong statement from the following. (a) The motion of an object along a straight line is a rectilinear motion (b) The speed in general is less than the magnitude of the velocity (c) The slope of the displacement-time graph gives the velocity of the body (d) The area under the velocity-time graph gives the displacement of the body 24. Free fall of an object (in vacuum) is a case of motion with (a) uniform velocity (b) uniform acceleration (c) variable acceleration (d) constant momentum 25. If the displacement of a body varies as the square of elapsed time, then its (a) velocity is constant (b) velocity varies non-uniformly (c) acceleration is constant (d) acceleration changes continuously 26. Choose the correct equation to deter- mine distance in a straight line for a body with uniform motion. (a) s=* t (b) s=v’t lo c) s=ut+—gt* (c) 5(d) s=vxt? 27. Ifthe v-t graph is a straight line inclined to the time axis, then (a) a=0 (b) az0 (c) a=constant #0 (d) a# constant #0 28. Fora moving body at any instant of time (a) if the body is not moving, the acceleration is necessarily zero (b) if the body is slowing, the retardation is negative (c) ifthe body is slowing, the distance is negative (d) if displacement, velocity and acceleration at that instant are known, we can find the displacement at any given time in future. 29. A particle moves 2m east then 4m north then 5 m west. The distance is (a) 11m (b) 10m (c) -11m (ad) 5m 30. The ball is projected up from ground with speed 30 m/sec. What is the average velocity for time 0 to 4 sec? (a) 10 m/sec (b) 20 m/sec (c) 15 m/sec (d) zero 31. A body moves in straight line with veloc- ity v, for 1/3" time and for remaining time with v,. Find average velocity. vy, 2v2 (a) tS(b) “Ly ¥2 () 2ML 4 ¥2 3 3 (a) y+ 3 32. Aparticle moves in straight line with ve- locity v, and v, for time intervals which are in ratio 1:2. Find average velocity. (a) YL, 2¥2 3 3 @) ) @) y+ 33. Aparticle moves from (2,3) m to (4,1) m. The displacement vector is (a) 2i+2jm (b) -2i-2jm (c) 2i-2jm (d) -2i+ 2jm 34. Speed of a body in particular direction can be called (a) acceleration (b) displacement (c) velocity (d) distance 35. Speed of snail as compared to speed of a car will be in units (a) cms (b) ms? (c) kms? (d) kmh” 36. The speed at any instant of time is known as37. 38. 39. 40. 41. (a) average speed (b) velocity (c) given speed (d) instantaneous speed The average speed of a horse that gallops a distance of 10 km/hr ina time of 1 hour 1s (a) 10 km/hr (b) 20 km/hr (c) 30km/hr (d) More than 30 km/hr One possible unit of speed is (a) miles per hour (b) meters per second (c) yards per century (d) allofthe above When a rock thrown straight upward gets to the exact top of its path, its (a) velocity is 0 and its acceleration is about 10 m/s/s (b) velocity is about 10 m/s and its acceleration is 0 (c) velocity is about 10 m/s and its acceleration is about 10 m/s/s (d) velocity is 0 and so is acceleration. The part of the car that can change ve- locity without changing speed is (a) The steering wheel (b) The brake (c) The gas pedal (d) Nonsense, it is impossible to change velocity without changing speed. Average speed is (a) a measure of how fast something is moving (b) the distance covered per unit of time (c) always measured in terms of a unit of distance divided by a unit of time(d) allofthe above 42. When you look at the speedometer in a moving car, you can see the car's (a) instantaneous speed (b) Average speed (c) Instantaneous acceleration (d) Direction 43. The 2 measurements necessary for calcu- lating average acceleration are (a) instantaneous velocity & time (b) Change in velocity and time (c) Distance and speed (d) Velocity and distance 44. The of a distance versus time graph is speed. (a) slope (b) y-intercept (c) origin (d) none of the answers 45. Which of the following controls can change a car's velocity? (a) the gas pedal (b) the brake pedal (c) the steering wheel (d) allofthe above 46. Acar stops and then a start accelerating uniformly at rate of 3 m s”, speed of car after 20 seconds is (a) 40ms? (b) 60ms? (c) 100ms? (d) 30ms”? 47. What is the acceleration of a car that maintains a constant velocity of 100 km/ hr for 10 secs? (a) O (b) 10 km/hr(s)(c) 10 m/hr(s) (d) 1000 km/hr(s) 48. Which of the following controls can change a car's velocity? (a) The gas pedal (b) The brake pedal (c) The steering wheel (d) Allofthe above 49. A bird flies due east for 600 meters at a constant speed of 10 m/s. What is the bird's acceleration? (a) With no change in velocity, there is no acceleration. (b) 60 m/s (c) 6m/s/s (d) 60m/s/s 50. Suppose you are in a car going due east on a straight highway at a constant speed of 30 mph. Which of the following is NOT true? (a) You and the car's distance is constantly changing (b) Your speed is constant (c) Your velocity is constant (d) Your direction is constantly changing1. Inorder to do work, energy is (a) transferred or converted (b) used up (c) lost (d) lost or transferred 2. Potential energy and kinetic energy are types of (a) Electrical energy (b) Magnetic energy (c) Thermal energy (d) Mechanical energy 3. Pendulum bob stops moving when all its original gain in gravitational potential en- ergy has been converted to (a) Sound Energy (b) Thermal Energy (c) Light Energy (d) Kinetic Energy 4. Formula for gravitational potential en- ergy is (a) E, = mg/h, where m is mass, g is gravitational pull and is height (b) E, = m/gh, where m is mass, g is gravitational pull and is height (c) E, = mgh, where m is mass, g is gravitational pull and is height (d) E, = gh/m, where m is mass, g is gravitational pull and is height 5. Power is defined as (a) p = W/t, where W is work and t is time (b) p = t/W, where t is time and W is work(c) p = Wéd, where W is work and d is distance (d) p=d/W, where dis distance and W is work 6. Formula for efficiency is (a) (energy input / energy output) x 100 (b) (energy input / energy output) x 100 (c) (useful energy input / energy output) x 100 (d) (useful energy output / total energy input) x 100 7. Food we eat contains (a) Chemical Potential Energy (b) Elastic Potential Energy (c) Gravitational Potential Energy (d) Kinetic energy 8. A-constant force on an object given by product of force and distance moved by ob- ject in direction of force is termed as (a) Work done (b) Efficiency (c) Power (d) Energy 9. Pendulum bob cannot attain its initial height because (a) it continues to lose energy in thermal form (b) it continues to lose energy in sound form (c) it continues to lose energy in light form (d) it continues to lose energy in potential form 10. Wind and waves are used by turbines toconvert (a) Mechanical Energy into Electrical Energy (b) Kinetic Energy into Electrical Energy (c) Potential energy into Kinetic Energy (d) Potential Energy into Electrical Energy 11. Knocking a nail into a wooden block with a hammer involves conversion be- tween different forms of energy, which of following choices present this conversion in correct order. (a) chemical energy ~ gravitational potential energy > kinetic energy > (sound energy + heat energy) (b) chemical energy > kinetic energy > gravitational potential energy > (sound energy + heat energy) (c) chemical energy > (sound energy + heat energy) ~ kinetic energy > gravitational potential energy (d) (sound energy + heat energy) ~ chemical energy ~ kinetic energy > gravitational potential energy 12. An object of mass ‘m’ raised to a height ‘2h’ above ground level possesses a gravita- tional potential energy of (a) 1/2xmgh (b) mgh (c) 2mgh (dq) mxg/2h 13. A light and heavy body have equal mo- mentam. Which one has greater kinetic energy? (a) The light body (b) The heavy body (c) Both have same KE(d) None of the these 14. Acar stopped screeching to avoid crash with a van, change is involved in process is (a) Kinetic energy is converted into sound energy (b) Kinetic Energy is converted into sound and thermal energy (c) Potential energy is converted into sound, heat and kinetic energy (d) Kinetic and potential energy is converted into thermal and sound energy 15. Acompressed spring possesses (a) Kinetic Energy (b) Elastic Potential Energy (c) Gravitational Potential Energy (d) Sound Energy 16. If a bulb uses energy of 100 J and re- mains on for 25 s, power consumed by bulb will be (a) 125W (b) 4W (c) 2500W (c) 75W 17. For two objects A and B, if mass of A is same as mass of B and speed of A is twice as much as that of B, statement that is cor- rect is (a) Kinetic energy of A = kinetic energy of B; because, kinetic energy is independent of speed of object. (b) Since kinetic energy is inversely proportional to speed of object, kinetic energy of A < kinetic energy of B (c) Kinetic energy of A= 1D 4 « Kinetic energy of B (d) Kinetic energy of A = 4 ~ Kineticenergy of B 18. When spring or rubber band is released it converts potential energy into (a) Mechanical Energy (b) Electrical Energy (c) Thermal energy (d) Kinetic energy 19. When an object is raised to a certain height above ground, it possesses (a) Chemical Potential Energy (b) Elastic Potential Energy (c) Gravitational Potential Energy (d) Kinetic energy 20. The work done on an object does not de- pend upon the (a) Displacement (b) Force applied (c) Angle between force and displacement (d) Initial velocity of the object 21. Ifthe speed of an object is doubled then its kinetic energy is (a) doubled (b) quadrupled (c) halved (d) tripled 22. The type of energy possessed by a simple pendulum, when it is at the mean position is (a) kinetic energy (b) potential energy (c) potential energy + kinetic energy (d) sound energy 23. Power is a measure of the (a) rate of change of momentum (b) force which produces motion (c) change of energy(d) rate of change of energy 24. If air resistance is negligible, the sum total of potential and kinetic energies of a freely falling body (a) increases (b) decreases (c) becomes zero (d) remains the same 25. In case of negative work, the angle be- tween the force & displacement is: (a) of (b) 452 (b) 902 (d) 180° 26. The work done on an object does not de- pend on the: (a) Displacement (b) Angle between force and displacement (c) Force applied (d) Initial velocity of the object 27. Water stored in a dam possesses: (a) Noenergy (b) Electrical energy (c) Kinetic energy (d) Potential energy 28. A1kg block is lifted veritically 1 m bya boy. The work done by the boy is (a) WJ () oJ (c) 9.8] (d) oJ 29. During inter-conversion of energy from one form to other forms, total energy at any time remains (a) constant(b) zero (c) increasing (d) decreasing 30. When we raised up a hammer, energy possessed is called (a) kinetic energy (b) chemical energy (c) nuclear energy (d) potential energy 31. Sunlight and water power are sources of energy which are (a) renewable (b) very harmful (c) fossils (d) destroyable 32. A nuclear power plant uses energy re- leased in nuclear reactor to generate elec- tric power is called (a) fission (b) friction (c) hydrogen (d) mercury 33. By burning large amount of fuel, we get (a) petrol (b) heat (c) sound (d) chemicals 34. Ifa body works at rate of 1 joule per sec- ond, then power of that body will be (a) one watt (b) zero watt (c) half watt (d) two watts 35. Solar energy can also be converted di- rectly into electricity by (a) solar cars(b) mercury (c) plasma (d)_ solar cells 36. Anelectric lamp produces (a) light energy (b) heat energy (c) both AandB (d) electrical energy 37. If direction of motion of force is perpen- dicular to direction of motion of body, and then work done will be (a) minimum (b) zero (c) maximum (d) none of above 38. Anwuclear reactor generates electricity by using (a) thermal energy (b) nuclear energy (c) mechanical energy (d) chemical energy 39. Asystem which gives an output equal to total energy used by it is called (a) negative system (b) non-ideal system (c) ideal system (d) slow system 40. Kinetic energy with mass ‘m’ and veloc- ity ‘v’ is (a) 2mv? (b) 1/2 mv (c) 2mD v? (d) 1/2 mv? 41. Ratio of required form of energy ob- tained from a system as output to total en- ergy given to it as input is called it’s (a) efficiency(b) power (c) stress (d) strain 42. Whena body vibrates, it produces (a) sound (b) water (c) heat (d) electricity 43. Capacity of a body to do work is called (a) energy (b) workload (c) kinetic energy (d) potential energy 44. If some energy given to a system, then energy in required form obtained is always (a) less than the given energy (b) equal to the given energy (c) greater than the given energy (d) none of above 45. In process of rubbing hands, mechanical energy is converted into (a) sound energy (b) electrical energy (c) thermal energy (d) heat energy 46. Work done will be zero if the angle be- tween force and distance is (a) 30° (b) 90° (c) 180° (d) 60° 47. Electric generators convert mechanical energy into (a) light energy (b) sound energy (c) electrical energy (d) chemical energy48. If a box is pulled by a rope making an angle with surface then horizontal compo- nent of force is equal to (a) Fsiné (b) Fcosé (c) Ftané (d) None of above 49. Energy can be converted into some other forms but cannot be (a) destroyed (b) decrease (c) increase (d) none of above 50. Energy that causes water to evaporate from surface to form water vapors is known as (a) electrical energy (b) thermal energy (c) chemical energy (d) heat energy@!2f@l sols fol sm] «f@) sla] sla] [a] ole wl) elolsl@) slop slo pelo) ata fsl@ |} [alo ©] 2 [oslo *folstolsfao[alolsfeols |e [an wo ele) slo) sf@laslol elo) alo xlm|»] ol ol @/ eel slelsl@lslolelm|s/olslo] || x o1. Heatis associated with (a) kinetic energy of random motion of molecules (b) kinetic energy of orderly motion of molecules (c) total kinetic energy of random and orderly motion of molecules (d) None of these 2. Heat content of a body depends on (a) mass of the body (b) temperature of the body (c) specific heat capacity (d) allofthe above 3. Which of the following is not a unit of heat energy ? (a) joule (b) kelvin (c) calorie (d) None of these 4. Choose the correct equation for intercon- version of temperature scales. (a) Ze=0 - Te=32 100 180 (bo) e232. Te $273.15 180 100 (¢) 1232 2 Tx 273.15 180 180 (a) Tex 2 Te=32 180 100 5. Which of the following pairs may give equal numerical values of the temperature of a body?(a) Fahrenheit and Celsius (b) Celsius and Kelvin (c) Kelvin and Reaumur (d) None of these 6. Expansion during heating (a) occurs only in solids (b) increases the weight of a material (c) generally decreases the density of a material (d) occurs at the same rate for all liquids and solids 7. When water is heated from 0°C to 4°C, its volume (a) increases (b) decreases (c) does not change (d) first decreases and then increases 8. 4200J of work is required for (a) increasing the temperature of 10 g of water through 10°C (b) increasing the temperature of 100 g of water through 10°C (c) increasing the temperature of 1 kg of water through 10°C (d) increasing the temperature of 10 g of water through 10°C 9. Triple point of water is (a) 273.16°F (b) 273.16K (c) 273.16°C (d) 273.16R 10. Which of the following will expand the most for same rise in temperature? (a) Aluminium (b) Glass(c) Wood (d) All willexpand same 11. Which of the following is a poor conduc- tor of heat ? (a) Copper (b) Concrete (c) Mercury (d) Air 12. Which of the following is the unit of spe- cific heat (a) Jkgec* (b) J/kgec (c) kg°c/J () J/kgec? 13. The equation Te =32 a relates the 180 100 Fahrenheit and Celsius scale temperature. The T, versus T, graph will bea (a) straight line parallel to x-axis (b) straight line parallel to y-axis (c) straight line inclined to x-axis (d) parabolic curve 14. The value of molar heat capacity at con- stant temperature is (a) zero (b) infinity (c) unity (d) 4.2 15. The latent heat of vaporization of a sub- stance is always (a) greater than its latent heat of fusion (b) greater than its latent heat of sublimation (c) equal to its latent heat of sublimation (d) less than its latent heat of fusion16. ... (A).. and ...B... of heat energy required some material as a transport medium. Hear, A and B refer to (a) conduction, radiation (b) radiation, convection (c) conduction, convection (d) radiation, evaporation 17. Which law is obeyed when temperature difference between the body and the sur- roundings is small? (a) Stefan’s law (b) Newton’s law of cooling (c) Planck's law (d) Allofthese 18. Heat is transmitted from higher to lower temperature through actual mass motion of the molecules in (a) conduction (b) convection (c) radiation (d) None of these 19. Lamp black absorbs radiant heat which is near about (a) 90% (b) 98% (c) 100% (d) 50% 20. At temperature T, the emissive power and absorption power of a body for certain wavelength are e, and a, respectively, then (a) e=a (b) a> a (c) e [em | [om [ [oa [o | *[m[»[o[*[@] oo | of) sfm|~[e@fesf@|ofolas[m|[ole [afm] «fo1. Ina current carrying conductor the net charge is (a) 1.6 x 107° coulomb (b) 6.25 x 10°'* coulomb (c) zero (d) infinite 2. When no current is passed through a conductor, (a) the free electrons do not move (b) the average speed of a free electron over a large period of time is not zero (c) the average velocity of a free electron over a large period of time is zero (d) the average of the velocities of all the free electrons at an instant is non zero 3. Acurrent passes through a wire of non- uniform cross-section. Which of the fol- lowing quantities are independent of the cross-section? (a) The charge crossing (b) Drift velocity (c) Current density (d) Free-electron density 4. In the equation AB = C, A is the current density, C is the electric field, Then B is (a) resistivity (b) conductivity (c) potential difference (d) resistance 5. Thespeed at which the current travels, in conductor, is nearly equal to (a) 3x 10*m/s(b) 310° m/s (c) 4= 10° m/s (d) 3= 10° m/s When a potential difference V is applied across a conductor at a temperature T, the drift velocity of electrons is proportional to @ Ww (b) V (c) JT (d) T For which of the following dependence of drift velocity vy on electric field E, is Ohm's law obeyed? (a) vgecE? (b) va=EN? (c) vg = constant (d) va=E The current density (number of free elec- trons per m’) in metallic conductor is of the order of (a) 1077 (b) 10% (c) 1076 (d) 10° A metal wire is subjected to a constant potential difference. When the tempera- ture of the metal wire increases, the drift velocity of the electron in it (a) increases, thermal velocity of the electron increases (b) decreases, thermal velocity of the electron increases (c) increases, thermal velocity of the electron decreases(d) decreases, thermal velocity of the electron decreases 10. The electric field intensity E, current density J and specific resistance k are re- lated to each other through the relation (a) E=J/k (b) E=Jk (c) E=k/J (d) k=JE 11. The unit of specific resistance is (@) am! 0) ot! (c) Qh (d) 2.5Qm?* 12. The example of non-ohmic resistance is (a) diode (b) copper wire (c) filament lamp (d) carbon resistor 13. Constantan wire is used for making standard resistance, because it has (a) high melting point (b) low specific resistance (c) high specific resistance (d) negligible temperature coefficient of resistance 14. At temperature 0°K, the germanium be- haves as a/an (a) conductor (b) insulator (c) super-conductor (d) ferromagnetic 15. Which of the following is used for theformation of thermistor? (a) Copper oxide (b) Nickel oxide (c) Iron oxide (d) Allofthe above 16. What is the suitable material for electric fuse? (a) Cu (b) Constantan (c) Tin-lead alloy (d) Nichrome 17. The electric resistance of a certain wire ofironis R. If its length and radius are both doubled, then (a) the resistance and the specific resistance, will both remain unchanged (b) the resistance will be doubled and the specific resistance will be halved (c) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will remain unchanged (d) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will be doubled 18. Appliances based on heating effect of current work on (a) only a.c. (b) only dc. (c) both a.c. and d.c. (d) None of these 19. Inthe series combination of two or more than two resistances (a) the current through each resistance is same(b) the voltage through each resistance is same (c) neither current nor voltage through each resistance is same (d) both current and voltage through each resistance are same. 20. The energy of a charged capacitor resides in (a) the electric field only (b) the magnetic field only (c) Both the electric and magnetic fields (d) Neither in electric nor magnetic field 21, The capacity of a spherical conductor is 1 22. 23. 24, pF then its diameter would be (a) 1.8m (b) 1.8 10*m (c) 1.8 10?m (d) 1.8 10'°m Check the correct relation (a) Potential = Charge/Capacity (b) Charge = Potential/Capacity (c) Capacity = Potential x Charge (d) Potential = Capacity x Charge . Which of the following has negative tem- perature coefficient of resistance? (a) Tungsten (b) Carbon (c) Mercury (d) Dynamite . The temperature coefficient of resistance of conductors is (a) positive (b) negative (c) neutral(d) None of these 25. Inacircuit containing two unequal resis- tors connected in parallel, then (a) the current is same in both the resistors (b) the current is larger in larger resistance (c) the voltage drop is same across both the resistances (d) the voltage drop is larger across larger resistances 26. Which of the following is an ohmic con- ductor? (a) Copper (b) Silver (c) Gold (d) Allofthese 27. Reciprocal of specific resistance is (a) conductive resistance (b) specific conductance (c) specific reactance (d) plate resistance 28. The safe current for the fuse wire of ra- dius ris I, then (a) Tar’? (b) Tar (c) Tar’? (d) Tar? 29. The resistance of a straight conductor does not depend upon its (a) shape of cross-section (b) temperature (c) material (d) length30. The specfic resistance of all metals is most affected by (a) temperature (b) pressure (c) degree of illumination (d) charge carriers 31. The element in an electric stove is made of (a) copper (b) nichrome (c) platinum (d) tungsten 32. The example of non-ohmic resistance is (a) copper wire (b) nichrome wire (c) diode (d) tungsten wire 33. The conductivity of a superconductor is (a) infinite (b) very large (c) very small (d) zero 34. When the temperature of metallic con- ductor is increased, its resistance (a) always decreases (b) always increases (c) may increase or decrease (d) remains the same 35. Electric current is a quantity of (a) scalar (b) vector (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these36. The specific resistance of a wire depends upon (a) itslength (b) its cross-sectional area (c) its dimensions (d) its material 37. The temperature coefficient of resistance of some material is negative. The material is (a) silicon (b) aluminium (c) arsenide (d) germanium 38. What is converted into heat when cur- rent is set-up through a conductor? (a) Electric current (b) Electric potential (c) Electric energy (d) None of these 39. For which of the following substances the temperature coefficient of resistivity is positive? (a) Carbon (b) Germanium (c) Cadmium (d) Aluminium 40. The total capacitance of two capacitors C, and C, connected in series will be (a) less than smallest capacitor (b) more than the highest capacitance (c) equal to the highest capacitance (d) equaltoC, +C, 41. Which of the following is an active com-ponent? (a) Inductor (b) Capacitor (c) Resistor (d) Diode 42. What is The Basic Three Electrical Quan- tities? (a) Resistance, Capacitance, Inductance (b) Power, Voltage, Conductance (c) Voltage, Current, Resistance(Impedance) (d) Current , Reluctance, Inductance 43. In case of Short Circuit, Current will flow in the Circuit. (a) Zero (b) Very Low (c) Normal (d) Infinite 44. Siemens or Mho (()) is the unit of ? (a) Conductance (b) Admittance (c) Both1&2 (d) None of the above 45. Electric pressure is also called (a) Resistance (b) Power (c) Voltage (d) Energy 46. The dielectric material used in variable capacitor is generally (a) Mica (b) Air (c) Ceramic47. 48. 49. 50. (d) Electrolyte . Power consumed in a pure inductive cir- cuit is (a) Zero (b) Less (c) High (d) Infinity Frequency of direct current is (a) Zero (b) Unity (c) 50Hz (d) infinity Power factor of direct current is (a) Zero (b) Lagging (c) Unity (d) Leading . The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is called (a) Reluctance (b) Conductance (c) Admittance (d) Inductance1. Anexample ofa lever isa... (a) pulley (b) Bicycle (c) Scissors (d) Screw 2. Which of the following is an example of a screw? (a) Hammer (b) Spiral staircase (c) Axe (d) Knife 3. Ramps, a wedge, and a screw are all ex- amples of (a) Levers (b) Pulleys (c) Wheels and axles (d) Inclined plane 4. A force multiplier is a simple machine that multiplies you is... (a) Strength (b) Effort (c) Load (d) Speed 5. Fora lever to be a first class lever the ful- crum needs to be. (a) Between the load and the effort (b) Onone side and the load and effort on the other side (c) Onthe same side as the load arm. (d) None of these. 6. Which simple machine is an inclined plane wrapped around a cylinder? (a) Wedge (b) Screw (c) Wheel and axle(d) Lever 7. Levers are divided into classes based on the location of the fulcrum and of the input and output forces. (a) Four (b) three (c) five (d) two 8. Ifthe fulcrum is closer to the effort, it will take (a) More force to lift the load (b) Less force to lift the load (c) Equal force to the lift the load (d) No force to life the load 9. Effortis (a) An inclined plane wrapped around a rod (b) Aunit used for measuring force (c) How far an object moves in a certain amount of time (d) The force applied to a _ simple machine. 10. What are examples of simple machines? (a) Door knob and wheel barrow (b) Bike and car (c) Inclined plane and lever (d) Hammer and nail 11. Alever or pulley connected toa shaft (a) wheel and axle (b) block and tackle (c) wheelbarrow (d) screw 12. Third class levers give a speed advantage because they... (a) The move a load through a large distance than the effort moves the same time(b) Moves an effort a further distance than the load (c) Allow you to catch a fish quickly before you applied so much effort (d) Allow you to pick up a heavy load quickly 13. Which of the following is not an inclined plane? (a) Shovel (b) Screw (c) Ramp (d) Wedge 14. A Ferris wheel is an example of which kind of simple machine? (a) Fixed pulley (b) Movable pulley (c) Wheel and axle (d) Incline plane 15. Which of the following is NOT a simple machine? (a) ascrew (b) alever (c) apair of scissors (d) awheel and axle 16. Simple machines (crow bar, ramp, axe, screw, and crane) do which of the follow- ing? (a) Reduce the mass of an object that needs to be moved (b) Reduce the distance an object needs to be moved (c) Reduce the amount of time needed to move an object over a distance (d) Reduce the force needed to move an object over a distance 17. A ramp is a simple inclined plane that allows one to apply an input force(b) Moves an effort a further distance than the load (c) Allow you to catch a fish quickly before you applied so much effort (d) Allow you to pick up a heavy load quickly 13. Which of the following is not an inclined plane? (a) Shovel (b) Screw (c) Ramp (d) Wedge 14. A Ferris wheel is an example of which kind of simple machine? (a) Fixed pulley (b) Movable pulley (c) Wheel and axle (d) Incline plane 15. Which of the following is NOT a simple machine? (a) ascrew (b) alever (c) apair of scissors (d) awheel and axle 16. Simple machines (crow bar, ramp, axe, screw, and crane) do which of the follow- ing? (a) Reduce the mass of an object that needs to be moved. (b) Reduce the distance an object needs to be moved (c) Reduce the amount of time needed to move an object over a distance (d) Reduce the force needed to move an object over a distance 17. A ramp is a simple inclined plane that allows one to apply an input forcethe output force. (a) perpendicular to (b) less than (c) equal to (d) greater than 18. Which of the following is an example of a wheel and axle? (a) apulley (b) ascrewdriver (c) ablock and tackle (d) anutcracker 19. Which of the following is an example of a third-class lever? (a) anutcracker (b) ascrew (c) ahand-held boat paddle (d) acrow bar 20. A good example of a second class lever is the... (a) Can-opener (b) Wheelbarrow (c) Hammer (d) Tongs 21. Awedge is a modified (a) inclined plane. (b) wheel and axle. (c) lever. (d) pulley. 22. A pair of tweezers is (a) a compound machine made of two second-class levers. (b) a compound machine made of two third-class levers. (c) a first -class lever. (d) akind of wedge. 23. What are the two families of simple ma- chines?24. 25 26. 27. 28 (a) First class and second class (b) pulley and screw (c) inclined plane and lever (d) wedge and compound. A first-class lever has the (a) input force in the middle. (b) fulcrum in the middle. (c) fulcrum at one end and the input force between the fulcrum and the output force. (d) fulcrum at one end and the output force between the fulcrum and the input force. . A bottle opener belongs to which class of the levers. (a) Effort in the middle (b) Fulcrum in the middle (c) Resistance in the middle (d) None of the mentioned. Which of these is an example of a wedge? (a) skateboard (b) broom (c) stairs (d) butter knife . Which is an example of someone using a simple machine to do work? (a) aboyruns across a football field (b) abanker counts money (c) a mother pushes a stroller up a ramp into a building (d) agirleats a sandwich. . Which type of simple machine would be found on the bottom of a wagon? (a) apulley (b) ascrew (c) awedge (d) awheel and axle29. Which is a characteristic of simple ma- chines? (a) They run on electricity. (b) They take along time to make. (c) They have few or no moving parts. (d) They are not very large 30. A screw is made up of ___ wrapped around a post or rod. (a) tracks (b) springs (c) threads (d) strings 31. What two parts might make a pulley? (a) wheel and axle (b) wheel and wire (c) wheel and screw (d) wheel and fulcrum 32. This machine converts motion in one di- rection into splitting motion acting at right angles. (a) Screw (b) Wedge (c) Pulley (d) Wheeland Axle 33. A sloping surface that alters the force re- quired to move the load in a perpendicular direction. (a) Wedge (b) Inclined Plane (c) Wheel and Axle (d) Pulley 34. An arm that pivots on a point called a fulcrum. (a) Lever (b) Screw (c) Pulley (d) Bevel Gear35. When a rope or cable is wrapped over a grooved wheel it is called a: (a) Lever (b) Wheel and Axle (c) Pulley (d) Machine (e) Screw 36. Lifting a wheelbarrow best illustrates the use of which simple machine? (a) Lever (b) Wedge (c) Pulley (d) Screw 37. The use of a door stop best illustrates the use of which simple machine? (a) Lever (b) Screw (c) Wheel and Axle (d) Wedge 38. How many basic types of simple ma- chines are there? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6 39. What type of simple machine is an in- clined plane wrapped around a pole? (a) Lever (b) Wheel and Axle (c) Pulley and Wedge (d) Screw 40. An axe and a chisel are examples of what type of simple machine? (a) Lever and Inclined plane (b) Wheel and Axle (c) Wedge (d) Screw41. Which Greek philosopher is credited with first discovering and describing sim- ple machines? (a) Plato (b) Socrates (c) Archimedes (d) Aristotle 42. Asimple machine that is actually a kind on inclined plane is a (a) pulley (b) wedge (c) gear (d) balance 43. The mechanical advantage of a com- pound machine is determined by (a) Adding the mechanical advantage for each simple machine. (b) Finding the simple machine with the largest mechanical advantage. (c) Finding the average mechanical advantage for the simple machines. (d) multiplying the mechanical advantage for each simple machine 44. The mechanical advantage for a pulley system is determined by (a) Counting the number of strands holding the resistance force. (b) Counting the number of strands holding and not holding the resistance force. (c) Adding the radii of the pulleys. (d) Multiplying the radii of the pulleys. 45. Ascrewdriver can be used to openacanof paint. In this situation, the screwdriver is being used as a (a) Wheel and axle. (b) Screw.46 47. 48. 49. 50. (c) Lever. (d) inclined plane . Which type of lever always reduces the force applied? (a) Lever of the first order (b) Lever of the second order (c) Lever of the third order (d) Allofthese A wire cutter is an example of: (a) Lever of first order (b) Lever of second order (c) Lever of third order (d) None of these . Machines reqire proper care and mainte- nance: (a) to make them look good (b) for preserving them for future (c) for their efficient and longer use (d) None of these Wheelbarrrow is an example of: (a) Lever of the first order (b) Lever of the second order (c) Lever of the third order (d) Inclined plane A pulley is a simple machine used to: (a) multiply force (b) apply a force at a convenient point (c) apply a force in a convenient direction (d) None of these1. Workplace related injuries, illnesses and deaths impose costs upon? (a) Employers (b) Employees (c) The community (d) Allof these. Does an employer have to produce a health and safety statement outlining their policies? (a) Yes, but only if they employ over 5 people. (b) Yes, but only if they employ over 100 people. (c) No, there is no requirement to provide a health and safety statement. (d) Yes, but only if they employ over 500 people. Which of the following is not a source of the law on health and safety at work? (a) Guidance notes (b) Regulations. (c) Recent case law (d) Common law. The Occupational Safety and Health Act apply to all employees who work for an employer that is engaged in a business affecting: (a) internal security. (b) interstate commerce. (c) surrounding environment and natural ecosystems. (d) overall health and safety of civilians. What is an example of a personal factor that can lead to an accident? (a) Insufficient stress-resistance.(b) Insufficient preparation. (c) An incorrect working method. (d) None of these. 6. The Occupational Safety and Health Act created three federal agencies for adminis- tration and enforcement. Which of the fol- lowing is not one of them? (a) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) (b) The National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) (c) State Employee Health Commission (SEHC) (d) The Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission (OSHRC) 7. The Occupational Safety and Health Act applies to all employees who work for an employer that is engaged in a business affecting: (a) internal security. (b) interstate commerce. (c) surrounding environment and natural ecosystems. (d) overall health and safety of civilians. 8. The person or organization responsible for rehabilitation is: (a) an employee's doctor (b) the insurance company (c) the employer (d) the employee, when better 9. What requirementis a safety harness ex- pected to meet? (a) Asafety harness must fit well and be adjusted to the wearer. (b) A safety harness must be equipped with leather seat straps.(c) A safety harness must have double stitched shoulder belts. (d) None of these. 10. What is a hazard in the use of extension cables and multiple sockets? (a) Overloading of the cable, this can lead to fire. (b) Leakage currents with the attendant danger of electrocution. (c) Short-circuit when too many power cables and electrical plugs are use (d) None of these. 11. What increases the risk of accidents in- volving electricity at your workplace? (a) The use of chargeable tools. (b) The use of spark-free tools. (c) The use of un-insulated tools (d) None of these. 12. How can you prevent falling hazards at the edge of a work floor? (a) By placing warning signs at the edge of the work floor. (b) By giving the workers proper instruction at the start of the work. (c) By putting proper barriers at the edge of the work floor. (d) None of these. 13. Which of the following is a hazard in working with hoisting equipment? (a) The employee may become physically overburdened (b) The load may fall from the hook. (c) The worker may incur hearing loss. (d) None of these. 14. What is the purpose of general safetyrules? (a) They identify the correct barriers to be installed for work activities. (b) They govern reporting in and out at the work site. (c) They govern the use of safety harnesses for working at height. (d) None of these. 15. Which work accidents must be reported to the government's Health and Safety In- spection Service? (a) Only accidents involving a fatality. (b) Allserious accidents. (c) Allaccidents. (d) None of these. 16. Asa supervisor how can you ensure that unsafe behavior becomes less likely? (a) By planning the work differently. (b) By imposing sanctions on unsafe behavior. (c) By giving in to employees more quickly. (d) None of these. 17. What does the provision of security of people’s assets while at the workplace en- tail? (a) Having all assets under lock and key (b) Preventing theft, pilferage and damage of assets and being vigilant with the security of the assets. (c) Issuing security badges and identity cards to all people at the workplace. (d). None of these. 18. Programs that are designed to improve health problems of employee before they even arise are classified as (a) health promotion(b) safety promotion (c) wellness promotion (d) ergonomics 19. What is the role of the workplace’s health and safety representative? (a) To represent the workers’ views and concerns on the workplace’s OH&S practices to the employer (b) To document the workplace’s OH&S policies and practices (c) To check on whether all workers are complying with the workplace’s OH&S policies and practices (d) To train and assess all workers in their knowledge of the workplace’s OH&S policies and practices 20. What is the best safety rule? (a) Immediately sort the waste generated during the work by type. (b) Keep the workplace tidy and keep passages clear. (c) Mark all hazards at the workplace with red-white tape. (d) None of these. 21. What is an important area for attention if an on-site investigation is conducted after an accident? (a) That the documents present at the site are retrieved (b) That this investigation be conducted before the government’s Health and Safety Inspection Service is informed (c) That the areas for improvement are discussed with the site’s owner. (d) None of these. 22. What is important in an accident inves- tigation?(a) To clean up the site of the accident as quickly as possible in order to prevent new accidents. (b) To only interview the victim. (c) Tocollect all facts and information at the location of the accident. (d) None of these. 23. Protection of organizational facilities and employees is called (a) adverse situation (b) security (c) safety (d) health 24. What must a safety inspection or safety observation report contain? (a) Adescription of the time required to complete the identified actions. (b) A description of the progress of activities. (c) A description of the findings of the inspection or observation. (d) None of these. 25. Approach to encourage and facilitate employees to enhance healthy lifestyle is called (a) health promotion (b) safety promotion (c) wellness promotion (d) none of above 26. Whoshould report unsafe working prac- tices at work? (a) Your supervisor only (b) Your health and safety rep only (c) Anyone who notices it (d) Your line manager only 27. What is the cause of most accidents? (a) Poisoning(b) Slips, trips and falls (c) Electrocution (d) Suffocation Electrical fires are best tackled with a? (a) Water fire extinguisher (b) CO, fire extinguisher (c) Wet chemical fire extinguisher (d) Foam fire extinguisher 29. Which of the following is NOT a factor that influences health and safety? (a) Occupational factors e.g. work risks (b) Environmental factors eg. workplace noise (c) Superstition factors e.g. walking under ladders, black cats etc (d) Human factors e.g error or haste 30. Which of the following is not a type of health hazard? (a) Chemical (b) Biological (c) Magical (d) Ergonomic What is the best way to protect an em- ployee working at a noisy machine? (a) Allow the machine to only be used for short periods of time (b) Provide a pair of ear defenders (c) Reduce or eliminate noise from the machine (d) Shout really loudly at them when they do something wrong 32. Under the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974, an employer must: (a) Provide a bright, cheerful place to work (b) Safeguard the safety and health of all employees(c) Give everyone their very own copy of company safety policy (d) Provide personalized hard hats in a variety of colors 33. What is the best way to prevent injury at work? (a) Remove the hazard or redesign the task (b) Restrict access to the hazard (c) Provide gloves and a bobble hat (d) Send all employees home - they’ll much safer there 34. Check list for Job Safety Analysis (JSA) consists of (a) Work area, material, machine, tools (b) Men, machine, material, tools (c) Men, machine, work area, tools (d) Men, work area Material, tools 35. Ensuring the safety, health and welfare of the employees is the primary purpose of the (a) Factories Act, 1948 (b) Payment of Wages Act, 1936 (c) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 (d) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 36. Probability of the event that might occur X Severity of the event if it occurs (a) Accident (b) Hazard (c) Risk (d) None of the above 37. Way of protecting individuals’ well- being of health is classified as (a) safety (b) health (c) adverse situation(d) security 38. Protection of organizational facilities and employees is called (a) adverse situation (b) security (c) safety (d) health 39. The Occupational Safety and Health Re- view Commission is a: (a) neutral agency. (b) appellate body. (c) legislative body. (d) quasi-judicial agency. 40. Which of the following color is used for radiation hazard? (a) Red (b) Orange (c) Green (d) Purple 41. For household wiring and small units, the following should be used for safety measure (a) MCB (b) ACB (c) OcB (d) MCCB 42. Asafety programme consists of (a) Three E’s (b) Four E’s (c) Five E’s (d) Six E’s 43. If you think of an Environmental or Health & Safety related improvement for the business, or experience a “near miss” for either of these subjects, what shouldyou do? (a) Nothing, it probably won't get considered and nothing will be done about it (b) Raise it at the next meeting with your Manager (c) Submit the relevant details through the improvement request system on the Intranet homepage (d) None of these. 44. The following is/are physical hazard agent(s) (a) Falls (b) Electricity (c) Inhalation (d) Allofthe above 45. The following is indirect cost of accident (a) Money paid for treatment of worker (b) Compensation paid to worker (c) Cost of lost time of injured worker (d) Allofthe above 46. Industrial safety management if that branch of management which is con- cerned with hazards from the in- dustries. (a) Reducing (b) Controlling (c) Eliminating (d) All ofthe above 47. When the employee perceives threat in the environment even if there is no such threat existing in the environment, it is normally described as (a) Organizational stressor (b) Individual stressor (c) Extra-organizational stressor (d) None of these.48. The primary purpose of employee safety programme is to preserve the employees’ (a) mental health (b) physical health (c) emotional health (d) Allofthe above 49. The responsibility for maintenance of employee health and safety is with (a) employees (b) employers (c) government (d) Allof the above 50. Which of the following involves re- designing of equipment, machinery and material for the safe performance of the jobs? (a) Safety engineering (b) Safety campaigns (c) Safety training (d) Safety committeewl 2[w] sol 4 fo | ofa ofefol elm fslolislmfelm [alo] xfel oe] el] afm @|2/]o]>]|m]]e]2sl@] slo] afm] slo) »le) ope of 2m] sol st@lasf@] elo fafa] s[m| ela] ofa [elo] sfols[olsfol«[olelm] sol elal ola1. Environmental education is important only at (a) Primary school stage (b) Secondary school stage (c) Collage stage (d) Allstages 2. The objective of environmental studies is to (a) Create environmental ethics that foster awareness about the ecological inter - dependence of economic, social and political factors in a human community and the environment (b) Acquiring skills to help the concerned individuals in identifying and solving environmental problems (c) Raise consciousness about environmental conditions (d) Allofthe above 3. Which of the following is an example of impact of development activities on the Hydrosphere? (a) Air pollution (b) Soil pollution (c) Soilerosion (d) Water pollution 4. The science that deals with the relation- ship of various organisms with their envi- ronment is known as (a) anthropology (b) economics (c) ecology (d) geology 5. The largest reservoir of nitrogen on our planet is: (a) Ocean (b) Atmosphere (c) Biosphere(d) Fossil fuels. 6. Inthe world, the economy of the India is: (a) Largest (b) Third largest (c) Second largest (d) Fourth largest 7. The human activity, among the follow- ing, which causes maximum environmen- tal pollution having regional and global im- pact, is (a) Industrialization (b) Urbanization (c) Agriculture (d) Mining 8. Inafood chain, humans are (a) Secondary consumers (b) Primary consumer (c) Producers (d) Primary and secondary consumers both 9. The perfect equilibrium existing in the biosphere between the various organisms is known as (a) Ecological cycle (b) Ecological balance (c) Environmental balance (d) None of these 10. Facultative Bacteria existing in which type of Environmental condition? (a) Presence of oxygen (b) Absence of oxygen (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these. 11. Asimple detritus food chain starts with (a) green plant (b) wastes of organisms and dead organisms (c) both of the above (d) none of these 12. Word "Environment" is derived from:(a) Italy (b) French (c) German (d) English 13. World Environmental Day' is celebrated every year on: (a) 5th May (b) 5th June (c) 5th July (d) 18thJuly 14. The sequence of eating and being eaten in an ecosystem is called (a) food chain (b) carbon cycle (c) sulphur cycle (d) hydrological cycle 15. Organic farming is (a) enhancing biodiversity (b) promoting soil biological activity (c) farming without using pesticides and chemical fertilizers (d) allthe above 16. A food web consists of (a) Aportion of food chain (b) Aset of similar consumers (c) Interlocking of food chains (d) Producers, consumers and decomposers 17. Which atmospheric layer is closest to the Earth's surface? (a) Troposphere (b) Thermosphere (c) Stratosphere (d) Mesosphere 18. Amount of carbon dioxide present in at- mospheric air is (a) 0.318% (b) 0.383% (c) 21% (d) 78%19. The natural disastrous events like vol- canoes, earthquakes, cyclones, bring about environmental changes which are (a) Reversible (b) Irreversible (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 20. Which of the following is/are major Envi- ronmental issues in Mining activities? (a) Water pollution (b) Soil Degradation (c) Air pollution and Dust (d) Allthe above 21. ELAis related to: (a) Environmental Impact Assessment (b) Environmental and Industrial Activities (c) Environmental Internal Activities (d) Environmental Impact Activities 22. Cow dung can be used (a) asmanure (b) for production of biogas (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these 23. ___ is the best environmental clean al- ternative fuel. (a) CNG (b) Coal (c) Petrol (d) Diesel 24. Hydro electricity is generated from (a) Forests (b) Coal plants (c) Lakes and ponds (d) Water reservoir of river dams 25. Which of the following is a natural source of environmental pollution? (a) Earthquake (b) Automobiles (c) Industries(d) Sewage 26. Water used for irrigation of food crops, fodder crops and medical herbs in known as (a) Auxiliary use (b) Productive use (c) Commercial use (d) Consumptive use 27. The fossil fuel which causes maximum environmental pollution due to its use in generation of thermal power is (a) Oil (b) Coal (c) Natural gas (d) None of these 28. Good example of renew able energy re- source is (a) Oil (b) Coal (c) Hydropower (d) Allthe above 29. The adverse effect of modern agriculture is (a) Soil pollution (b) Water pollution (c) Wastes logging (d) Allofthese. 30. Smog is combination of (a) Smoke and snow (b) Snow and fog (c) Smoke and fog (d) None of these. 31. Air pollution from automobiles can be controlled by fitting (a) wet scrubber (b) catalytic converter (c) electrostatic precipitator (d) allthe above 32. Which of the following is a natural source of Air pollution?(a) Storms (b) Acid rain (c) Precipitation (d) Volcanic eruptions 33. Hydro electricity is generated from (a) Forests (b) Coal plants (c) Lakes and ponds (d) Water reservoir of river dams 34. Which of the following is a major envi- ronmental issue in mining activities? (a) Water pollution (b) Soil Degradation (c) Air pollution and dust (d) Allofthese 35. Loss of water content through the plants into the atmosphere is called: (a) Evaporation (b) Vaporization (c) Hydraulic cycle (d) Transpiration 36. The primary reason for large scale decline in population death rate during 20th cen- tury was (a) Improved environmental conditions (b) Improved medical care and control of epidemics (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these. 37. Global warming means: (a) Increase in Earth's Body Temperature (b) Increase in solar radiation (c) Acid Rain (d) Allthe above 38. Global warming affects (a) Climate change (b) Food production (c) Melting of glaciers (d) Allofthese 39. Climate and global air circulations aremainly affected by the properties of (a) Temperature (b) Precipitation (c) Water and air (d) None of the above 40. The main impact of urbanization on plant and animal life is (a) Loss of species (b) Mutation in species (c) Increase in species (d) None of these 41. During green house effect, carbon dioxide and water vapours absorbs, (a) UV radiations (b) Solar radiation (c) Short wave radiations (d) Long wave radiations 42. Thickness of the Ozone layer is measured (a) Db(decibel) (b) DU(Dobson Unit) (c) PPB (d) PPM 43. The equivalent of one Dobson unit is (a) 0.1m (b) 0.01m (c) 0.1mm (d) 0.01 mm 44. Which of the following is the remedial measure for acid rain? (a) Use of coal, free from sulphur (b) Use of electrostatic precipitator and catalytic converters (c) Reducing the release of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur into the atmosphere (d) Allofthese 45. The first major environmental protection law promulgated in India was46 47. 48. 49. 50. (a) Air Act (b) Water Act (c) Environmental Act (d) None of these . Environment Protection Act of 1986 is meant for (a) Waste management (b) Forest management (c) Desert management (d) Protection of human environment including human, plants, animals and property Expansion of the term WWF is (a) Worldwide forest (b) World wild life fund (c) Worldwide life force (d) Worldwide life forest Environmental education is targeted to (a) General public (b) Professional social groups (c) Technicians and scientists (d) Allof these The pH of acid rain is (a) Less than 1.7 (b) Less than 2.7 (c) Less than 4.7 (d) Less than 5.7 . The radiations absorbed by ozone layer are (a) Ultra-violet (b) Infra-red (c) Gamma rays (d) VisibleWhich of the following are computers that can be carried around easily ? (a) Minicomputers (b) Supercomputers (c) PCs (d) Laptops The basic goal of computer process is to convert data into (a) files (b) tables (c) information (d) graphs Which of the following refers to the fastest, biggest and most expensive com- puters ? (a) Personal Computers (b) Supercomputers (c) Laptops (d) Notebooks A is an electronic device that process data, converting it into informa- tion. (a) computer (b) processor (c) case (d)_ stylus Personal computers can be connected to- gether to forma (a) server (b) supercomputer (c) network (d) enterprise A personal computer is designed to meet the computing needs of a(n) (a) individual(b) department (c) company (d) city 7. Ctrl, shift and alt are called keys. (a) adjustment (b) function (c) modifier (d) alphanumeric 8. Super computer developed by Indian sci- entists (a) Param (b) Super30l (c) Compaq Presario (d) Cray YMP 9. Whena is deleted, the original ap- plication, folder, or file is not deleted. (a) Option (b) Task (c) Shortcut (d) Suite 10. How many generations of computers we have? (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 4 11. Integrated Chips or IC’s were started to be in use from which generation of Comput- ers? (a) 1st Generation (b) 2nd Generation (c) 3rd Generation (d) 4th Generation 12. BCC inthe Email refer to (a) Blind Carbon Copy (b) Black Carbon Copy (c) Blank Carbon Copy(d) Blue Carbon Copy 13. Which function key is used to refresh the current window? (a) Fl (b) F5 (c) F3 (d) F6 14. JPEG stands for — (a) Joint Photographic Expert group (b) Joint Photographic Expert graphics (c) Join Photographic Expert group (d) Join Photographic Expert graphics 15. Which of the following refers to the fastest, biggest and most, expensive com- puters? (a) Notebooks (b) Personal computers (c) Laptops (d) Super computers 16. General purpose computer are used for (a) Accounting (b) Creating a small database (c) Performs calculation (d) Allofthe above 17. Scanner scans (a) Picture (b) Text (c) Both Picture and Text (d) Neither Picture Nor Text 18. Holding the mouse button down while moving an object of text is known as — (a) moving (b) dragging (c) dropping (d) highlighting 19. Which of the following is part of the Sys- tem Unit? (a) Monitor(b) CPU (c) CD-ROM (d) Floppy Disk 20. Which of the following is not an output device? (a) Plotter (b) Printer (c) Scanner (d) Monitor 21. Which of the following is needed for sound recording? (a) Speaker (b) Microphone (c) Talker (d) Mouse 22. The physical components of a computer system. (a) Software (b) Hardware (c) ALU (d) Control Unit 23. Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym. (a) CD (b) DVD (c) ROM (d) RW 24. ADVD isan example of a(n) (a) hard disk (b) optical disc (c) output device (d)_ solid-state storage device 25. OnaCD-RW youcan (a) read and write information (b) only read information (c) only write information (d) read, write and rewrite information26. 27 28. 29. 30. 31. . Which of the following is the second largest measurement of RAM ? (a) Terabyte (b) Megabyte (c) Byte (d) Gigabyte . Whatis the difference between a CD-ROM anda CD-RW? (a) They are the same —just two different terms used by different manufacturers (b) ACD-ROMcan be written to anda CD- RW cannot (c) ACD-RW can be read & written to, but a CD-ROM can only be read from CD. (d) A CD-ROM holds more information than a CD-RW A hard disk drive is considered as a storage. (a) flash (b) non volatile (c) temporary (d) non-permanent This can be another word for program (a) software (b) disk (c) floppy (d) hardware An error is also known as (a) bug (b) debug (c) cursor (d) icon Linux is a type of software. (a) shareware (b) commercial (c) proprietary (d) open Source32. Which of the following not a software? (a) excel (b) operating system (c) printer driver (d) central processing unit(CPU) 33. Android is (a) Operating system (b) Application (c) Interface (d) Software 34. Apixelis (a) a computer program that draws picture (b) a picture stored in the secondary memory (c) the smallest resolvable part of a picture (d) avirus 35. are software which is used to do particular task. (a) Operating system (b) Program (c) Data (d) Software 36. Restarting a computer that is already on is referred to as (a) shut down (b) cold booting (c) warm booting (d) logging off 37. Which is the part of a computer that one can touch and feel? (a) Hardware (b) Software (c) Programs (d) Output 38. The disks stores information39. 40. 41. 42. 43 in (a) Tables (b) Rows and columns (c) Blocks (d) Tracks and sectors What is a backup? (a) Restoring the information backup (b) An exact copy of a system’s information (c) The ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure (d) Allofthese . Which of the following is not an example of a hardware? (a) Word (b) Printer (c) Monitor (d) Mouse What is a modem connected to ? (a) processor (b) motherboard (c) printer (d) phone line Computers connected to a LAN can. (a) run faster (b) goonline (c) share information and/or share peripheral equipment (d) E-mail . Acommunication network which is used by large organizations over regional, na- tional or global area is called: (a) LAN (b) WAN (c) MAN(d) VAN 44, What is the other name of LAN card? (a) Modem (b) Network connector (c) Internet card (d) NIC 45. Bluetooth is an example of (a) Personal area network (b) Local area network (b) Virtual private network (d) None of the above 46. Sending an e-mail is similar to (a) picturing an event (b) narrating a story (c) writing a letter (d) creating a drawing 47. A Web site’s main page is called its—— (a) Home Page (b) Browser page (c) Search Page (d) Bookmark 48. To reload a Web page, press the button. (a) Redo (b) Reload (c) Restore (d) Refresh 49. What is the full form of VoIP? (a) Voice of Internet Power (b) Voice over Internet Protocol (c) Voice on Internet Protocol (d) Very optimized Internet Protocol 50. Which of the following is the valid do- main name extension? (a) .edu(b) .org (c) .com (d) Allof theseeos fol 2fol stm] +[m] sfo] «fo! zo] s[o! > [o| ole nfolelel stm lee) slo efe. of [| [| 20 afm] 2m] axfw| fm astm] [wl 7[eol [em] »[ mw x[o[2[o|s[m[ 2] oll] «lo) salsa] »lal ofa