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Vision Ias

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VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in
ANSWERS & EXPLANATION
GENERAL STUIDES (P) ABHYAAS TEST-2 – 2880 (2019)

Q 1.B
 The state of Jammu & Kashmir (J&K) has its own Constitution, according to which it is administered.
Hence, Part VI of the Constitution of India (dealing with the state governments) is not applicable to
this state. The very definition of 'state' under this part does not include the state of J&K.
 On 26th January 1957, the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir 1957came into force. The
said Constitution does not contain any chapter dealing with fundamental rights of the permanent
residents of the State. However by the virtue of Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir)
Order 1954 dated 14th May 1954, Sections 2(3) and 2(4) of the Order made Part II of the
Constitution of India dealing with Citizenship and Part III of the Constitution of India dealing with
Fundamental Rights is applicable to the State of Jammu and Kashmir subject to certain
modifications and exceptions. The Fundamental Right to Property is still guaranteed in the state of J&K.
 Part IV (dealing with Directive Principles of State Policy) and Part IV-A (dealing with Fundamental
Duties) of the Indian Constitution are not applicable to the state.
 A National Emergency declared on the ground of internal disturbance will not have any effect in J&K,
except with the concurrence of the state government.
 The President has no power to declare a financial emergency in relation to the state.
 The President has no power to suspend the Constitution of the state on the ground of failure to comply
with the directions given by him.
 The Fifth Schedule (dealing with administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled
tribes) and the Sixth Schedule (dealing with the administration of the tribal areas in four North
Eastern states) the Indian Constitution does not apply to the state.

Q 2.B
 Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) is a Supreme Court mandated
body, which is tasked with the responsibility to protect and improve the quality of environment (and
prevent and control environmental pollution) in the National Capital Region (NCR). It was notified in
1998 by the Environment Ministry (now Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change) under the
Environment Protection Act, 1986. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
 It is also mandated to enforce the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) in the NCR. Hence, statement 2
is correct.
 In November 2017, EPCA took several measures, in the form of, putting a ban on brick kilns, closure of
Badarpur thermal power plant, hot mix plants and stone crushers, and construction activities in the NCR.
 It was reconstituted recently in 2018.

Q 3.D
 Permanent Account Number (PAN) is a ten-digit alphanumeric number, issued in the form of a
laminated card, by the Income Tax Department (Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance), to
any "person" who applies for it, or to whom the department allots the number without an
application. Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are not correct.
 PAN enables the department to link all transactions of the "person" with the department. These
transactions include tax payments, TDS/TCS credits, returns of income/wealth/gift/FBT, specified
transactions, correspondence, and so on. PAN, thus, acts as an identifier for the "person" with the tax
department.
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 PAN was introduced to facilitate linking of various documents, including payment of taxes, assessment,
tax demand, tax arrears etc. relating to an assessee, to facilitate easy retrieval of information and to
facilitate matching of information relating to investment, raising of loans and other business activities of
taxpayers collected through various sources, both internal as well as external, for detecting and combating
tax evasion and widening of tax base.
 All existing assesses or taxpayers or persons who are required to furnish a return of income, either on
behalf of self or others, must obtain PAN. Any person, who intends to enter into economic or financial
transactions where quoting PAN is mandatory, must also obtain PAN. All Indian citizens having the
source of income and valid proofs (as prescribed by the Income Tax Department) are eligible to apply for
PAN card. Obtaining a PAN card or Permanent Account Number is mandatory for every tax payer or the
person who needs to file an income tax return on behalf of self or others. Basically, any individual/non
individual (including the foreign citizens/entities) earning taxable income in India must have a PAN
card. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
 Section 160 of IT Act, 1961 provides that a non-resident, minor, lunatic, idiot and the court of
wards and such other persons may be represented through a Representative Assessee. In such cases,
application for PAN will be made by the Representative Assessee.

Q 4.D
 Lord Chelmsford, the Viceroy of India, appointed a Sedition Committee on December 10, 1917, to
suggest measures to deal effectively with the revolutionary movement in India. The committee was
chaired by Justice Sidney Rowlatt. The suggestions of the committee threw cold water on the hopes of the
people and enraged them beyond measure.
 The Sedition Committee submitted its report in April 1918, based on which the government introduced
two bills in the Central Assembly, known as the Rowlatt Bills (popularly dubbed as the Black Bills).
 On Baisakhi day, a large crowd of people mostly from neighbouring villages, unaware of the prohibitory
orders in the city, had gathered in the small park of Jallianwala Bagh to protest against the arrest of their
leaders, Saifuddin Kitchlew and Satyapal. Brigadier General Dyer arrived from Jullundur Cantt. on the
evening of April 11, 1919, to establish the martial law rule which was officially proclaimed later on April
15, 1919. Next day, he ordered indiscriminate arrests of persons to strike terror in the minds of the
agitators.
 It was during Michael Francis O'Dwyer's tenure as Lieutenant Governor of Punjab that the
Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred in Amritsar, on 13 April 1919. According to British estimates, 379
unarmed civilians were killed by troops under the command of Brigadier General Reginald
Dyer. Udham Singh (26 December 1899 – 31 July 1940), was a revolutionary belonging to the Ghadar
Party known for his assassination in London of Michael O' Dwyer, the former lieutenant governor of the
Punjab in India, on 13 March 1940. Hence option (d) is not correct.
 The Jallianwala Bagh massacre was followed by the establishment of a non-official enquiry committee by
the Congress. The British Government did not initiate any such inquiry till Congress had set up such a
committee. Later, the Government established a committee headed by Lord Hunter, a Senator of the
―College of justice of Scotland‖. This committee had 7 members, four British and three Indians.
 Mahatma Gandhi was awarded the Kaisar-i-Hind in 1915 for his work during the Boer war. He
returned the title in 1920 as part of the national campaign protesting the Jallianwala Bagh
massacre.

Q 5.A
 The Standard Time Meridian of India is 82.5° E longitude, which passes through the following states -:
o Uttar Pradesh
o Madhya Pradesh
o Chhattisgarh
o Odisha
o Andhra Pradesh

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Q 6.B
 The Great Living Chola Temples, part of the UNESCO World Heritage Site, were built by the kings
of the Chola Empire, which stretched over most of South India and the neighbouring islands.
 The site (collectively) includes three great 11th- and 12th-century Temples:
o Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur
o Brihadisvara Temple at Gangaikondacholisvaram(Gangaikondacholapuram)
o Airavatesvara Temple at Darasuram.
 Brihadishvara Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva located in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu. It is
called Dhakshina Meru and was built by Raja Raja Chola I between 1003 AD-1010 AD.
 The temple of Gangaikondacholisvaram, built by Rajendra I, was completed in 1035. Its 53-meter vimana
(sanctum tower) has recessed corners and a graceful upward curving movement, contrasting with the
straight and severe tower at Thanjavur.
 The Airavatesvara temple complex, built by Rajaraja II, at Darasuram features a 24-m vimana and a stone
image of Shiva. The temples testify to the brilliant achievements of the Chola in architecture, sculpture,
painting and bronze casting.
 Shore Temple located at Mahabalipuram. Shore Temple is a structural monument on the shores of
Bay of Bengal. Built in the 7th century, Shore Temple depicts the royal taste of Pallava dynasty. During
the reign of Rajasimha, the temple saw its construction when Pallava art was at its apex.

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Q 8.B
 Copyright- A copyright is a collection of rights automatically vested to an individual once he/she has
created an original work (cultural, artistic or literary). The painter in the context protects all his individual
paintings from being copied. Hence, option 1 is correct.
 Trade Secret- Broadly speaking, any confidential business information which provides an enterprise a
competitive edge may be considered a trade secret. Trade secrets encompass manufacturing or industrial
secrets and commercial secrets. The painter in the passage applies a technique that is not known to any
other painter, to stay ahead of his competitors. Hence, option 2 is correct.
 Patent- A patent protects inventions and innovative ideas. These inventions can include new and useful
processes, machines, manufactures, compositions of matter as well as improvements to these. The painter,
although successfully protects his company name, logo and his own paintings, fails to officially protect
the technique he uses. Thus, the technique is not patented. Hence, option 3 is not correct.
 Trade Secrets vs. Patents- Before reviewing the differences, it helps to understand what each type of
protection entails. Trade secrets protect information, processes, products or other concepts that are not
disclosed to the general public, while a product or invention must be fully disclosed to the patent granting
authority in order to be eligible for a patent.
This is the main factor that separates trade secrets and patents. If your business advantage or strategy is
dependent upon keeping the confidentiality of your information or processes, then a trade secret is
an appropriate type of protection.
But if you plan on distributing or selling your invention, a patent would offer the best level of
protection. Each inventor or business has a different strategy: Coca-Cola keeps their product
protected with a trade secret, while a business like Apple must patent their technology in order to
prevent competitors from duplicating their products.

Q 9.A
 The Santhals lived scattered in various districts of Cuttack, Dhalbhum, Manbhum,
Barabhum, Chotanagpur, Palamau, Hazaribagh, Midnapur, Bankura and Birbhum in eastern India. It was
a rebellion of Santhal people led by four brothers named Sindhu, Kanhu, Chand and Bhairav, in modern
Jharkhand (then Bengal Presidency) and other regions in eastern India. It was not related to
Maharashtra region. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
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 Colonialism transformed their relationship with the forest. They had depended on the forest for food, fuel
and cattle feed. They practised shifting cultivation (jhum, podu,etc.), taking recourse to fresh forest lands
when their existing lands showed signs of exhaustion. The colonial government changed all this. It
usurped the forest lands and placed restrictions on access to forest products, forest lands and village
common lands. It refused to let cultivation shift to new areas. Thus , insurrection spread rapidly and in a
wide region between Bhagalpur and Rajmahal the Company's rule virtually collapsed, spreading panic in
government circles. This invited brutal counter-insurgency measures. According to one calculation, out of
thirty to fifty thousand rebels, fifteen to twenty thousand were killed before the insurrection was finally
suppressed. So the revolt was violent. Khuntkatti were the traditions of joint ownership of property.
British administration eroded such traditions which sharpened tension within tribal society. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
 Santhals armed with bows and arrows started an open insurrection against the unholy trinity of their
oppressors - the zamindars, the mahajans and the British government. The outsiders were called dikus
which included moneylenders, land grabbers etc.
 After the Santhal Uprising subsided, the colonial government took some prohibitive measures to pacify
the Santhals like The territories called 'Santhal Paraganas' were created. It became illegal for a Santhal to
transfer land to a non-Santhal.

Q 10.D
 According to the Section 159 of the Representation of Peoples Act,1951 the following authorities, when
so requested by the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) of the state, shall make available to any Returning
Officer such staff as may be necessary for the performance of any duties in connection with an election:
o every local authority; Hence, option 1 is correct.
o every university established or incorporated by or under a Central, Provincial or State Act;
Hence, option 3 is correct.
o a Government company as defined in section 617 of the Companies Act,1956;
o any other institution, concern or undertaking which is established by or under a provincial or state
Act or which is controlled, or financed wholly or substantially by funds provided, directly or
indirectly, by the Central Government or a State Government. Hence, option 2 is correct.

Q 11.D
 The WTO‘s Agreement on Agriculture (AoA) classifies policies for agriculture into
three: tariff (market access), domestic support (domestic subsidies) and export subsidies. But the most
controversial as well as the important one is the set of domestic support measures for agriculture. These
domestic support measures are nothing but subsidies given by the member countries to their agricultural
sector. The Agreement on Agriculture classifies domestic subsidies into different types; under various
boxes with assigned colours – Green Box, Blue Box and AMS (Amber Box). (Hence, statement 1 is not
correct)
 This classification is based upon their effects on trade (whether they distort trade or not). The colour of
the boxes is quite symbolic as in traffic lights: green (permitted), amber (slow down — i.e. be reduced)
and a red box (prohibited). Colors symbolically indicate whether they are permissible or not. The AoA
signed at Uruguay has no red box. But subsidies above the reduction commitment levels in the AMS are
often expressed as red box. The amber box is directly linked to production and prices and hence is
considered to be trade distorting. Blue box is production limiting programs that may not distort trade.
The green box doesn‘t distort trade or may cause only minimum distortion. Out of these domestic support
measures, WTO agreement requires reduction (non-exempt/not permissible/reducible) only in AMS
(amber box), whereas, support under all other heads is exempted (permissible). Aggregate Measurement
of Support (AMS) or Amber box includes product specific and non-product specific support.
 In India, the price support given in the form of Minimum Support Prices is an example for AMS.
(Hence, statement 2 is not correct) De minimis support indicate the minimum level of trade distorting
(AMS) subsidies that can be given by a country to its agricultural sector. This de minimis subsidy is
expressed as percentage of the country‘s agricultural GDP. The de minimis level is 5 per cent of
agricultural GDP for developed countries whereas for the developing countries including India, the de
minimis ceiling is 10 per cent.
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Q 12.D
 Population data are collected through census operation held every 10 years in our country. The
responsibility of conducting the decennial Census (held every 10 years) rests with the Office of the
Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India under Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of
India.
 Statement 1 is correct: The first population census in India was conducted in 1872, but the first complete
census was conducted in 1881.
 Statement 2 is not correct: While the Indian population has shown an overall positive growth rate for
most of the decades since 1901, the 1921 census recorded a population growth rate of -0.31%. Thus,
the population in the decade 1911-1921 actually decreased.
 Statement 3 is correct: The decades 1951-1981 are referred to as the period of population explosion
in India, which was caused by a rapid fall in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate of population in the
country.

Q 13.D
 The Geneva Conventions and their Additional Protocols are at the core of international humanitarian law,
the body of international law that regulates the conduct of armed conflict and seeks to limit its effects.
 They specifically protect people who are not taking part in the hostilities (civilians, health workers
and aid workers) and those who are no longer participating in the hostilities, such as wounded, sick
and shipwrecked soldiers and prisoners of war.
 The Conventions and their Protocols call for measures to be taken to prevent or put an end to all breaches.
They contain stringent rules to deal with what are known as ""grave breaches"".
 The first Geneva Convention protects wounded and sick soldiers on land during war. The second Geneva
Convention protects wounded, sick and shipwrecked military personnel at sea during war. The third
Geneva Convention applies to prisoners of war. The fourth Geneva Convention affords protection to
civilians, including in occupied territory.
 In the two decades that followed the adoption of the Geneva Conventions, the world witnessed an increase
in the number of non-international armed conflicts and wars of national liberation. In response, two
Protocols Additional to the four 1949 Geneva Conventions were adopted in 1977. They strengthen the
protection of victims of international (Protocol I) and non-international (Protocol II) armed conflicts and
place limits on the way wars are fought. Protocol II was the first-ever international treaty devoted
exclusively to situations of non-international armed conflicts.

Q 14.A
 Arhat (Sanskrit: ―one who is worthy‖; Pali: arahant), in Buddhism, is a perfected person, one who
has gained insight into the true nature of existence and has achieved nirvana (spiritual
enlightenment). The arhat, having freed himself from the bonds of desire, will not be reborn. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
 The state of an arhat is considered in the Theravada tradition to be the proper goal of a Buddhist.
 Four stages of attainment are described in Pali texts:
o the state of the ―stream-enterer‖—i.e., a convert (sotapanna)—achieved by overcoming false beliefs
and doubts regarding the Buddha, the teaching (dhamma), and the order (sangha),
o the ―once-returner‖ (sakadagamin), who will be reborn only once in this realm, a state attained by
diminishing lust, hatred, and illusion
o the ―nonreturner‖ (anagamin), who, after death, will be reborn in a higher heaven, where he will
become an arhat, a state attained by overcoming sensuous desire and ill will, in addition to the
attainments of the first two stages, and
o the arhat; except under extraordinary circumstances, a man or woman can become an arhat only while
a monk or nun.
 Mahayana Buddhists criticize the arhat ideal on the grounds that the bodhisattva is a higher goal of
perfection, for the bodhisattva vows to become a buddha in order to work for the good of
others. This divergence of opinion continues to be one of the fundamental differences between the
Theravada and Mahayana traditions. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

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Q 16.C
 There are four types (or five types if tasar silk is sub-classified) of natural silk produced in India for
commercial purposes. These are known as:
o Mulberry silk
o Tasar silk - tropical tasar, oak tasar
o Muga silk
o Eri silk.
 Statement 1 is correct: India has the unique distinction of being the only country producing all known
commercial silks.
o India is the second largest producer of silk in the world.
o Among the four varieties of silk produced in 2015-16:
 Mulberry accounts for 71.8%,
 Tasar 9.9%
 Eri 17.8%
 Muga 0.6% of the total raw silk production.
 Statement 2 is correct: Among these four kinds, the mulberry silk contributes to more than 50% of the
silk produced in the country.
 Statement 3 is correct: Muga with its golden yellow glitter is unique and prerogative of India

Q 17.C
 Delhi first became the capital of a kingdom under the Tomara Rajputs, who were defeated in the middle
of the twelfth century by the Chauhans (also referred to as Chahamanas) of Ajmer. It was under the
Tomaras and Chauhans that Delhi became an important commercial centre. Many rich Jaina merchants
lived in the city and constructed several temples.
 Coins minted here, called dehliwal, had a wide circulation. Dehliwal coins were in use during the period
of Tomaras.

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Q 19.C
 White Label ATMs are ATMs set up, owned and operated by non-bank entities are called white
label ATMs. Cash in ATMs is provided by the sponsored bank while ATM machine does not have any
branding of Bank.
 The operators are entitled to receive a fee from the banks for the use of ATM resources by the bank‘s
customers and are not permitted to charge bank customer directly.
 Recently, RBI has eased business guidelines for White Label ATMs (WLAs) to enhance their viability.
 Brown label ATMs are ATMs which are owned by banks but operations and maintenance are
outsourced to a third party.

Q 20.A
 The Constitution provides for a three-fold distribution of legislative subjects between the Centre and the
states, viz., List-I (the Union List), List-II (the State List) and List-III (the Concurrent List) in the Seventh
Schedule. There is no separate list of residuary subjects. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
 The power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects (i.e., the matters which are not
enumerated in any of the three lists) is vested in the Parliament. This residuary power of legislation
includes the power to levy residuary taxes. Hence statement 1 is correct.
 In Government of India Act 1919, the spheres of the central and provincial governments were demarcated
by a division of subjects into ―central‖ and ―provincial‖. The central subjects included all subjects
directly administered by the Government of India or in which extra-provincial interests were
dominant. The provincial subjects included subjects in which the interests of the provinces essentially
predominated. Hence there is no separate list of residuary powers and effectively the power to
legislate on extra provincial and residual subjects lies with the Central Government. The
Government of India Act, 1935 divided the powers between the Centre and units in terms of three lists—
Federal List, Provincial List and the Concurrent List. Residuary powers were given to the Viceroy. Hence
statement 3 is not correct.

Q 21.B
 One of the most common divisions of Himalayas has been the regional division of Himalayas.
o The Punjab Himalayas - It is a 560 km long stretch of the Himalayas between the Indus and Satluj
rivers. Karakoram, Ladakh, Pir Panjal, Zaskar and Dhaola Dhar are the main ranges of this section.
o The Kumaon Himalayas - Between the Satluj and Kali rivers is the 320 km Kumaon
Himalayas. Nanda Devi, Kamet, Badrinath etc. are some of the important peaks here. Hence, pair 2
is correctly matched.

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Q 22.C
 The gel named Poly-Oxime has been prepared by researchers at the Institute for Stem Cell Science and
Regenerative Medicine (InStem), Bangalore from a nucleophilic polymer. The gel can be applied on the
skin and can break down toxic chemicals in pesticides, insecticides and fungicides including the
most hazardous and widely used organo phosphorous compounds. The gel deactivates these
chemicals, preventing them from going deep into the skin and organs like the brain and the lungs. Hence
option C is correct.
 It has been found to be effective in tests done in rats and researchers hope to soon test it in humans. Indian
farmers usually do not wear any protective gear while spraying chemicals in fields. This exposes them to
harmful toxics contained in pesticides, causing severe health impacts and even death in extreme cases.
This protective gel can help in addressing this problem.

Q 23.B
 Biofuels are liquid or gaseous fuels primarily produced from biomass, and can be used to replace or can
be used in addition to diesel, petrol or other fossil fuels for transport, stationary, portable and other
applications. Crops used to make biofuels are generally either high in sugar (such as sugarcane, sugarbeet,
and sweet sorghum), starch (such as maize and tapioca) or oils (such as soybean, rapeseed, coconut,
sunflower).
 Biofuels are often broken into three generations - 1st generation biofuels are also called conventional
biofuels. They are made from things like sugar, starch, or vegetable oil. These are all food products. Any
biofuel made from a feedstock that can also be consumed as human food is considered a first generation
biofuel.
 2nd generation biofuels are produced from sustainable feedstock. The sustainability of a feedstock is
defined by its availability, its impact on greenhouse gas emissions, its impact on land use, and by its
potential to threaten the food supply. No second generation biofuel is also a food crop, though certain
food products can become second generation fuels when they are no longer useful for consumption.
Second generation biofuels are often called ―advanced biofuels.‖
 Though not a traditional category of biofuel, some people refer to any category called 3rd generation
biofuels. In general, this term is applied to any biofuel derived from algae. These biofuels are given their
own separate class because of their unique production mechanism and their potential to mitigate most of
the drawbacks of 1st and 2nd generation biofuels.
 Jatropha curcas and Pongamia are non-food crops and are 2nd generation Biofuels. Jatropha is multi
purpose non edible oil yielding perennial shrub. This is a hardy and drought tolerant crop can be raised in
marginal lands with lesser input. The crop can be maintained for 30 years economically.Pongamia which
are non edible oil yielding trees that can be grown to produce biofuel. Karanja (Pongamia) is one of the
most suitable trees. It is widely grown in various parts of the country. Hence options 1 and 4 are correct.
 Sugarbeet and Sugarcane are food crops and are considered to be 1st generation biofuels. Sugarbeet
(Beta vulgaris Var. Saccharifera L.) is a biennial sugar producing tuber crop, grown in temperate
countries. Now tropical sugarbeet varieties are gaining momentum in tropical and sub tropical countries,
as a promising alternative energy crop for the production of ethanol. Sorghum (S. bicolor) is the most
important millet crop occupying largest area among the cereals next to rice. It is mainly grown for its
grain and fodder. Alternative uses of sorghum include commercial utilization of grain in food industry and
utilization of stalk for the production of value-added products like ethanol, syrup and jaggery and
bioenriched bagasse as a fodder and as a base material for cogeneration.
 Fourth generation biofuel (FGB) uses genetically modified (GM) algae to enhance biofuel production.
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Q 24.A
 The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to
51. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They
require the State:
o To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children (Article 39).
o To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
o To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43
A). Fundamental Duties do not have any provision related to this concern.
o To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article 48 A).
Under Article 51A (g) it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the
natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for
living creatures. Hence option 1 is correct.
 In addition, Under Article 51A Constitution also provides that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India
o to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India
transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices
derogatory to the dignity of women.
o to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
 DPSPs do not have provision which are directly related to the above two concerns. Hence options 2,
3 and 4 are not correct.

Q 25.C
 Gandikota is a small village in the Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh that is known for its
spectacular gorge formed by river Pennar that cuts through the Erramala hills. This piece of
Nature‘s architecture has come to be popularly known as the "Grand Canyon of India".
 Gandikota derives its name from the 1123 A.D. fort and a gorge or canyon through which flows the river
Pennar. In Telugu a gorge is called ‗Gandi‘ and the fort is ‗Kota‘.
 The fort was founded by the Western Chalukya kings in 1123 and constructed by the Kapa king during the
13th century. The fort complex has an imposing Jumma Masjid in addition to two temples (Madhavaraya
& Ranganatha Swamy) with carved pillars, a chaar minar, large granary and graceful pigeon tower.
 The Mylavaram Dam is situated about 7 k.m. from the fort and the backwaters of the dam come up to the
gorge making it one of the unique tourist places.

Q 26.A
 Bal Shastri Jambhekar worked for women‘s education, promotion of widow marriages, abolition of ‗sati‘
custom and enlightening the people against superstitions.
 Bal Shastri Jambhekar started the first Marathi newspaper, ‗Darpan‘ (mirror) on 6th January
1832.
o It was a bilingual paper. Marathi and English columns were printed side by side like mirror images.
o 6th January is observed as ‗Patrakar Din‘ or the ‗Journalist‘s day‘ in Maharashtra to mark respect to
Jambhekar for his invaluable contribution to the society.
o ‗Darpan‘ was published for about eight years.
 Further, realizing the importance of the books for spreading the knowledge among the public, he
established Bombay Native General Library in 1845 for the common people.
 He authored nearly one dozen books which included Neetishashtra, History of India, English Grammar,
History of British Rule in India.
 He brought out the first print version of one of the sacred books in Marathi - ‘Dnyaneshwari‘. It is a
poetic commentary on ‗Bhagwad Gita‘ composed in the regional language by Saint Dnyaneshwar in the
13th century for the propagation of ancient Indian knowledge among the masses.
 Hindoo Patriot a weekly newspaper, first published on 6 January 1853 under the proprietorship of one
Madhusudhan Roy in conjunction with Girish Chandra Ghosh as Managing Editor, changed ownership
around June 1855. Haran Chandra Mukherjee, elder brother of Harish Chandra Mukherjee of Bhawanipur
became the new proprietor.
 Indu Prakash was an Anglo - Marathi periodical published from Bombay in the late 1800s and early 1900s
established by Gopal Hari Deshmukh in 1861. It was published as a weekly bi-lingual periodical and often
contained articles supporting the Indian freedom movement and criticism of the British colonial rule.

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Q 28.C
 The Balfour Declaration was a public statement issued by the British government in 1917 during World
War I announcing support for the establishment of a "national home for the Jewish people" in Palestine,
which was then an Ottoman region with a small minority Jewish population. This eventually led to the
establishment of the state of Israel in 1948, despite Palestinian and Arab opposition.
 Recently, President Trump has stated that Israel's sovereignty over Golan Heights may be recognized.
Further, UN resolution against Israel's occupation of West Bank is opposed by the USA which is against
the two-state solution proposed by the UN.
 Important Declarations Meeting related to the Israel-Palestine-Arab Issue are:
 The Sykes-Picot Agreement officially known as the Asia Minor Agreement: It was a secret 1916
agreement between the United Kingdom and France, to which the Russian Empire assented. The
agreement defined their mutually agreed spheres of influence and control in West Asia. This agreement
was to serve the colonial interests of Britain, France and USSR and was in contradiction to the spirit of
The Balfour Declaration announce later.
 The Camp David Accords: These were signed by Egyptian President Anwar Sadat and Israeli Prime
Minister Menachem Begin on 17 September 1978, following twelve days of secret negotiations at Camp
David and were witnessed by United States President Jimmy Carter. This agreement led directly to the
1979 Egypt–Israel Peace Treaty. Due to the agreement, Sadat and Begin received the shared 1978 Nobel
Peace Prize. The first framework (A Framework for Peace in the Middle East), which dealt with the
Palestinian territories, was written without the participation of the Palestinians and was condemned by the
United Nations.

Q 29.C
 Every money bill, after it is passed by the state legislature (unicameral or bicameral), is presented to the
governor for his assent. He has three alternatives:
o He may give his assent to the bill, the bill then becomes an act.
o He may withhold his assent to the bill, the bill then ends and does not become an act.
o He may reserve the bill for the consideration of the president.

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Q 30.A
 Inflation can be defined as a persistent and appreciable rise in the general level of prices. The economic
survey of 2008-09 observes inflation as an upward movement in the general prices of goods and services
and is estimated as the percentage rate of change in the price index over the reference time period.
 It is measured with the help of indicators e.g. WPI (Wholesale Price Index) - It measures the change in the
price of commodities supplied to the wholesale market. Hence, option 2 is correct.
 General Price Index (GPI)- It measures the changes in the average prices of goods and services.
 Consumer Price Index (CPI) - It measures the change in the price of the commodity basket consumed by
the ultimate consumers. Hence, option 1 is correct.
 GDP Deflator- The GDP deflator, also called implicit price deflator, is a measure of inflation. It is the
ratio of the value of goods and services an economy produces in a particular year at current prices to that
of prices that prevailed during the base year. Hence, option 4 is correct.
 IIP (or Index of Industrial Production) is an index for India which details out the growth of various
sectors in an economy such as mineral mining, electricity and manufacturing. All India IIP is a
composite indicator that measures the short-term changes in the volume of production of a basket of
industrial products during a given period with respect to that in a chosen base period. Hence, option 3 is
not correct.

Q 31.A
 Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is an instant payment system developed by the National Payments
Corporation of India (NPCI), an RBI regulated entity. UPI is built over the IMPS infrastructure and allows
you to instantly transfer money between any two parties' bank accounts.
 Statement 1 is not correct: A customer needs to register with his/her Payment System Player (PSP)
before remitting funds using UPI and link his accounts. Registration of Beneficiary is not required for
transferring funds through UPI as the fund would be transferred on the basis of virtual ID/Account
+IFSC/Aadhaar Number.
 Statement 2 is correct: All payments are instant and 24/7, regardless of your bank's working hours.
 Statement 3 is not correct: Once the payment is initiated, it cannot be stopped.

Q 32.B
 A gig economy is a free market system in which temporary positions are common and organizations
contract with independent workers for short-term engagements.
 In a gig economy, temporary, flexible jobs are commonplace. A gig economy undermines the traditional
economy of full-time workers who rarely change positions and instead focus on a lifetime career. It is a
system where companies tend toward hiring independent contractors and freelancers instead of full-time
employees. In a gig economy, businesses save resources in terms of benefits, office space and training.
They also have the ability to contract with experts for specific projects who might be too high-priced to
maintain on staff. Employees benefit by having better work-life balance. Those who don't engage in using
technological services such as the Internet tend to be left behind by the benefits of the gig economy.
 The negative side of this economy is the lack of social security benefits to workers.
 In India, while start-ups were the early adopters, multinational companies, consulting firms and large
enterprises are embracing the concept.

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Q 34.D
 On November 1,1931, a large number of Dalits and upper caste Hindus assembled in Guruvayur to
demand that the avarnas(the backward classes and the untouchables) be allowed inside the temple.
 The 10-month-long protest, and fasting by K. Kelappan, popularly known as ‗Kerala Gandhi'
(which he dropped on Gandhiji's advice on October 2,1932), drew national attention to the temple
entry movement. The call to open temples for Dalits grew louder.
 Shortly afterwards, in November 1932, the Travancore Government appointed a Temple Entry Enquiry
Committee. The committee, which submitted its report after a year, did not recommend the opening of
temples, but suggested roads and tanks could be opened for all. The reformers rejected the report as it ―did
not meet the present need.‖ They insisted that appropriate action alone would meet ‗the test of the hour.'
 On May 9, 1936, an All Kerala Temple Entry conference was held in New Theatre Hall near the
Trivandrum Central Railway Station, and it resolved to step up the agitation. They decided to convert ―all
the passive good-will in the State‖ into an ―irresistible demand,‖ and simultaneously appointed a
committee to take up the issue with the Maharaja.
 Five months after the conference was held, on November 12, 1936, a ‗Gazette Extraordinary' was
published. In it, ―profoundly convinced of the truth,‖ the Maharaja proclaimed that the temples under his
administration would be opened to all Hindus and that no restrictions would be placed on those who
wanted to worship at the temple.
 The impact of this Temple Entry Proclamation was immediate and far-reaching. Not only were temples
under the control of the Travancore Maharaja thrown open, but even private temples heeded the call for
change. Outside of Travancore, temples in Malabar and the rest of the Madras Presidency felt the
cascading effects.

Q 35.C
 The Todas are one of the most well-known tribal peoples of Southern India. They live in
communities in the Nilgiri Hills, their lives revolving around the local grasslands called 'sholas' and the
herds of buffalo which they tend there. They live in small thatched houses known as Munds or Dogles,
which are built using bamboo, grass and cane.
 The Awvul grass is found only in wetlands located in the upper reaches of the Nilgiris district in Tamil
Nadu. It is considered sacred by the Todas. It is the tradition for Todas to collect them from the swamps
and wetlands.

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Q 36.A
 In the following matters, the powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are equal to that of the Lok Sabha:
o Introduction and passage of ordinary bills.
o Introduction and passage of Constitutional amendment bills. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Introduction and passage of financial bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.
o Election and impeachment of the president.
o Election and removal of the Vice-President. However, Rajya Sabha alone can initiate the removal of
the vice-president. He is removed by a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha by an effective majority
and agreed on to by the Lok Sabha by a simple majority.
o Making recommendation to the President for the removal of Chief Justice and judges of Supreme
Court and high courts, chief election commissioner and comptroller and auditor general.
o Approval of ordinances issued by the President.
o Approval of proclamation of all three types of emergencies by the President.
o Selection of ministers including the Prime Minister. Under the Constitution, the ministers including
the Prime Minister can be members of either House. However, irrespective of their membership, they
are responsible only to the Lok Sabha.
o Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like Finance Commission, Union Public
Service Commission, comptroller and auditor general, etc.
o Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the Union Public Service
Commission. Hence statement 2 is correct.
 Resolution for the discontinuance of the national emergency is exclusive power of Lok Sabha.
 Authorize Parliament to make a law on the state list is the exclusive power of Rajya Sabha Article (249).

Q 37.D
 Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs brought to the fore the National Common Mobility Card (NCMC)
to enable seamless travel by different metros and other transport systems across the country besides retail
shopping and purchases. The Indigenous Automatic Fare Collection System is based on One Nation One
Card Model i.e. National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) is the first of its kind in India.
 India‘s first indigenously developed Payment Eco-system for transport consisting of NCMC Card,
SWEEKAR (Swachalit Kiraya: Automatic Fare Collection System) and SWAGAT (Swachalit Gate) is
based on NCMC Standards.
 These are bank issued cards on Debit/Credit/Prepaid card product platform. The customer may use this
single card for payments across all segments including metro, bus, suburban railways, toll, parking,
smart city and retail. The stored value on card supports offline transaction across all travel needs with
minimal financial risk to involved stakeholders. The service area feature of this card supports operator
specific applications e.g. monthly passes, season tickets etc.

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Q 39.B
 Metropolitan Planning Committee: Every metropolitan area shall have a metropolitan planning committee
to prepare a draft development plan. Metropolitan area means an area having a population of 10 lakh or
more, in one or more districts and consisting of two or more municipalities or panchayats or other
contiguous areas. Hence statement 3 is correct.
 The state legislature may make provisions with respect to the following:
o The composition of such committees;
o The manner of election of members of such committees;
o The representation in such committees of the Central government, state government and other
organisations. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o The functions of such committees in relation to planning and coordination for the metropolitan area;
o The manner of election of chairpersons of such committees.
 The chairpersons of such committees shall forward the development plan to the state government.
Hence statement 1 is not correct. District Planning Committee consolidates the plans prepared by
panchayats and municipalities in the district, and prepares a draft development plan for the district as a
whole.

Q 40.A
 Micronutrients are essential elements that are used by plants in small quantities. For most micronutrients,
crop uptake is less than one pound per acre. In spite of this low requirement, critical plant functions are
limited if micronutrients are unavailable, resulting in plant abnormalities, reduced growth and
lower yield. In such cases, expensive, high requirement crop inputs such as nitrogen and water may
be wasted. Because of higher yields, higher commodity prices and higher costs of crop inputs, growers
are reviewing all potential barriers to top grain production, including micronutrient deficiencies.
 There are 16 elements essential to growth of crop plants:
o Supplied by air and water: carbon, hydrogen, oxygen;
o Macronutrients: nitrogen, phosphorous, potassium;
o Secondary Nutrients: calcium, magnesium, sulfur;
o Micronutrients: boron (B), chlorine (Cl), copper (Cu), iron (Fe), manganese (Mn), molybdenum
(Mo), and zinc (Zn).
Q 41.D
 Vinayak Damodar Savarkar (born May 28, 1883, and died Feb. 26, 1966), was an Indian nationalist and
leading figure in the Hindu Mahasabha, a Hindu nationalist organization.
 While a student of law in London (1906–10), Savarkar helped to instruct a group of Indian
revolutionaries in methods of sabotage and assassination that associates of his had learned from
expatriate Russian revolutionaries in Paris.

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Q 42.B
 Statement 1 is not correct: The ‗Star Rating‘ system has been instituted by the Ministry of Mines
through the Indian Bureau of Mines (IBM).
 Statement 2 is correct: The evaluation and assessment is based on the SDF implementation on
parameters that include management of impact by carrying out scientific and efficient mining, addressing
social impacts of resettlement and rehabilitation requirements for taking up mining activities, local
community engagements and welfare programmes.
 IBM would give a rating of one to five stars to the mines. Under this system, a provisional ‗Star Rating‘
would be awarded on self-certification basis of the evaluation template, filed by the lessee, which will be
validated by IBM and final rating will be awarded accordingly.

Q 43.C
 The reserve tranche is a portion of the required quota of currency that each International
Monetary Fund (IMF) member country must provide to the IMF that can be utilized for its own
purposes without a service fee.
 The reserve tranche portion of the quota can be accessed by the member nation at any time. This is not
true for the rest of a member‘s quota, of which the member can borrow over 100% but must pay back with
interest over a three-year period. Initially, member nations‘ reserve tranches are 25% of their quota, but
their reserve tranche position will change according to any lending that the IMF does with its holdings of
the member‘s currency.
 The reserve tranche is basically an emergency account that IMF members can access without agreeing to
conditions or paying a service fee. If the amount being sought by the member nation exceeds its reserve
tranche position (RTP), then it becomes a credit tranche that must be repaid in three years. Hence, option
(c) is the correct answer.

Q 44.A
 Statement 1 is not correct: The additional functions relating to the services of the Union can be
conferred on UPSC by the Parliament. It can also place the personnel system of any authority, corporate
body or public institution within the jurisdiction of the UPSC. Hence the jurisdiction of UPSC can be
extended by an act made by the Parliament.
 Statement 2 is correct: Article-319 prohibits as to the holding of offices by members of the Commission
on ceasing to be such members. On ceasing to hold office-
o the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission shall be ineligible for further
employment either under the Government of India or under the Government of a State;
o the Chairman of a State Public Service Commission shall be eligible for appointment as the Chairman
or any other member of the Union Public Service Commission or as the Chairman of any other State
Public Service Commission, but not for any other employment either under the Government of India
or under the Government of a State;

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Q 45.B
 The west to east arrangement of the given Biosphere Reserves is - Kachchh (Gujarat) - Nanda Devi
(Uttarakhand) - Similipal (Odisha) - Nokrek (Meghalaya)

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Q 46.A
 Statement 1 is correct: The Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) is an inter-governmental
organization with a membership of 57 states spread over four continents. The Organization is the
collective voice of the Muslim world. It endeavors to safeguard and protect the interests of the Muslim
world in the spirit of promoting international peace and harmony among various people of the world. The
Organization was established upon a decision of the summit which took place in Rabat, Kingdom of
Morocco on 25 September 1969.
 Statement 2 is not correct: It has its permanent secretariat in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia.
 The recent invitation was the first ever invitation for India to address a ministerial gathering of the
Islamic nations and was an important breakthrough in independent India‘s diplomacy. India was invited
to participate in the founding conference of the OIC at Rabat, Morocco in 1969, but Pakistan compelled
the Conference to ―disinvite‖ India. Since then, Pakistan has repeatedly used the forum to target India on
Kashmir.

Q 47.A
 Following tribal areas have been mentioned under the Sixth schedule of Constitution:
States Tribal Areas
The North Cachar Hills District, The Karbi Anglong
Assam
District, The Bodoland Territorial Areas District
Khasi Hills District, Jaintia Hills District, The Garo Hills
Meghalaya
District
Tripura Tripura Tribal Areas District
The Chakma District, The Mara District, The Lai
Mizoram
District

Q 48.B
 Indian Rhinoceros: Known by the scientific name of Rhinoceros unicornis, these animals are mega-
herbivores, part of a small and disappearing group that weigh over 1,000 kilograms and include the
elephant and the hippopotamus. These large herbivores are shapers of their landscape and environment,
and the rhino may well be a keystone species - known to have a disproportionately large impact on its
environment relative to its population - according to research conducted in South Africa‘s Kruger
National Park in 2014. By eating only certain kinds of grass - and trampling upon dense vegetation -
rhinos indirectly affect smaller herbivores in their area, creating a cascade of effects that, in turn, affects
other species as well. The Indian rhinoceros is also known to help in seed dispersion, moving large tree
seeds from forested areas to grasslands through excreta.
 The habitat of the Indian rhino once extended from Pakistan into northern India and modern-day
Myanmar, reaching into Nepal, Bangladesh and Bhutan. However, loss of large tracts of habitat and
extensive poaching for its horn - believed to have medicinal and aphrodisiacal properties - led to its
extinction in all these countries, except in India and Nepal.
 In India, rhinos can now be found in parts of Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal and Assam. In 2012, more than
91 per cent of Indian rhinos lived in Assam, according to WWF-India data. Within Assam, rhinos are
concentrated within Kaziranga national park, with a few in Pobitara wildlife sanctuary. Kaziranga is home
to more than 91 per cent of Assam‘s rhinos - and more than 80 per cent of India‘s count — with a 2015
population census by Kaziranga park authorities revealing 2,401 rhinos within the park.
 Indian Rhino Vision 2020: The programme was launched by the Assam Forest Department in
partnership with WWF-India, the International Rhino Foundation and US Fish & Wildlife
Service in 2005. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

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Q 49.C
 The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India (CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
 CAG has been created as an independent constitutional authority under the Constitution. He/She is,
therefore, neither an officer of Parliament, unlike his US and UK counterparts nor is he an executive
authority. Hence option a is not correct.
 The Constitution (Article 149) authorizes the Parliament to prescribe the duties and powers of the
CAG in relation to the accounts of the Union and of the states and of any other authority or body. Hence
option b is not correct.
 The CAG (or his senior-most officer) attends the meetings of the Public Account Committee by
invitation where the CAG‘s task is to brief the Committee on the relevant paragraphs of the report which
the Committee wants to discuss and take evidence from the Ministry‘s officers.
 He is provided with the security of tenure. He can be removed by the President only in accordance
with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution. Thus, he does not hold his office till the pleasure of
the President, though he is appointed by him. Hence option c is correct.
 He/She submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the Centre to President, who shall, in
turn, place them before both the Houses of Parliament. Hence option d is not correct.

Q 50.C
 Great Indian Bustard is one of the heaviest flying birds. As of today, its population has been on a
continuous decline from an estimated 1,260 in 1969 to 300 in 2008 recording a decline of about 75
percent. At present, its population is estimated to be of less than 200 across Rajasthan, Gujarat,
Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
 Among these states, Rajasthan has the highest population with estimated 100-150 birds while in
Maharashtra and Gujarat, the numbers are significantly low. The biggest threat to their shrinking habitat is
industrialization, mining, and intensive agricultural practices.
 It has been listed in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, in the CMS Convention and in
Appendix I of CITES, as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List and the National Wildlife Action
Plan (2002-2016). It has also been identified as one of the species for the recovery programme under the
Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats of the Ministry of Environment and Forests, Government of
India. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 51.C
 Artificial intelligence (AI) refers to the ability of a digital computer or computer-controlled robot to
perform tasks commonly associated with intelligent beings. The following are related to AI.
 Deep learning: Deep learning is part of a broader family of machine learning methods based on learning
data representations, as opposed to task-specific algorithms. Deep learning architectures such as deep
neural networks, deep belief networks and recurrent neural networks have been applied to fields
including computer vision, speech recognition, natural language processing, audio recognition, social
network filtering, machine translation, bioinformatics, drug design, medical image analysis, material
inspection and board game programs, where they have produced results comparable to and in some cases
superior to human experts. Deep learning models are vaguely inspired by information processing and
communication patterns in biological nervous systems.

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Q 52.A
 A retrograde rotation refers to the direction of a planet‘s rotation, which is opposite to the direction of the
Sun's rotation. Hence, the retrograde direction for Earth‘s rotation would be from East to West instead of
the now West to East.
 Statement 1 is correct: Retrograde rotation of Earth would change the time calculations throughout the
world. Thus, while crossing the International Date Line from west to east, one would need to add a day,
and while crossing from east to west, one would need to subtract a day.
 Statement 2 is correct: Retrograde rotation will have an impact on the Coriolis force. Thus, in the
northern hemisphere, an object will be deflected to the left by the Coriolis force and in the southern
hemisphere to the right by the Coriolis force. The direction of rotation of the tropical Cyclones is an
outcome of the Coriolis force. Hence, the change in direction of deflection by the Coriolis force will lead
to change in the direction of rotation of Tropical Cyclones.
 Statement 3 is not correct: Retrograde rotation or prograde (normal) rotation will have no impact
on the reversal of geographical poles i.e. North-South poles. The magnetic field of the earth is an
outcome of Dynamo effect. On Earth, flowing of liquid metal in the outer core of the planet generates
electric currents. The rotation of Earth on its axis causes these electric currents to form a magnetic field
which extends around the planet. Thus, any reversal of rotation of earth will also reverse the magnetic
field of the earth.

Q 53.A
 Shadangas are the six limbs of the art of painting. These are described by Vatsyayana in the Kama
Sutra. A painting is created by using these six procedures :
o Rupabedha - variety of form
o Pramana - proportion and size
o Bhavayojana - the infusion of different emotions
o Lavanyayojana - creating the lustre and retaining the freshness of colours
o Sadrusya - bringing likeness in the form
o Varnikabhanga - creating colour effects to bring depth in the work.
 The ancient texts also give details on the ways of colouring a picture. There are three ways of applying
colours to the form drawn:
o Binduvartana - Vartana is shading, bindu is dot, so when the space is filled in dots of different colours
different shades are created.
o Raikhikavartana - rekha is line, filling the form with fine-line shading, this is known as silver point.
o Patravanana - applying different colours with wider brush work in cross-hatching manner.

Q 54.A
 Earthquake swarm - It is a series of low magnitude earthquakes that occur in a localized region and over
a period of time ranging from days, weeks to even months. But earthquake swarms are not limited to the
Peninsula. In 2016, a series of 58 earthquakes were recorded in the Rampur area of Himachal Pradesh.
This Himalayan swarm was attributed to the low strength of the earth‘s crust in the area which could not
hold the tectonic energy.

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Q 56.D
 UN is frequently involved in a number of consultations to determine the best response by the international
community. These consultations would likely involve:
o All relevant United Nations actors
o The potential host government and the parties on the ground
o Member States, including States that might contribute troops and police to a peace operation
o Regional and other intergovernmental organizations
o Other relevant key external partners
 If the Security Council determines that deploying a UN peace operation is the most appropriate step to
take, it will formally authorize this by adopting a resolution. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
 The resolution sets out the operation‘s mandate and size, and details the tasks it will be responsible for
performing. The budget and resources are then subject to General Assembly approval.
 The UN has no standing army or police force of its own, and the Member States are asked to contribute
military and police personnel required for each operation.
 There are three basic principles that continue to set UN peacekeeping operations apart as a tool for
maintaining international peace and security.These three principles are inter-related and mutually
reinforcing:
o Consent of the parties - UN peacekeeping operations are deployed with the consent of the main
parties to the conflict. This requires a commitment by the parties to a political process. Their
acceptance of a peacekeeping operation provides the UN with the necessary freedom of action, both
political and physical, to carry out its mandated tasks. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o Impartiality
o Non-use of force except in self-defense and defense of the mandate
 While decisions about establishing, maintaining or expanding a peacekeeping operation are taken by the
Security Council, the financing of UN Peacekeeping operations is the collective responsibility of all UN
Member States.
 Every Member State is legally obligated to pay their respective share towards peacekeeping. This is in
accordance with the provisions of Article 17 of the Charter of the United Nations. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.

Q 57.B
 The State of The World's Forests(SOFO)-2018 published by FAO shines a light on the profound
interlinkages that exist between forests and many other goals and targets of the 2030 Agenda, enabling
policymakers to strike the right balance in actions, investments and partnerships directed towards food
security, poverty alleviation, ecological conservation and, ultimately, to find pathways to sustainable
development.
 The corresponding global demand for food – estimated to grow by 50 percent during this period – is
placing enormous pressure on the way we use productive land, particularly in developing countries where
the overwhelming majority of the world‘s 800 million poor and hungry people are concentrated.

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Q 59.B
 Babur, the first Mughal ruler, arrived in 1526 and made his base at Agra to the southeast (in what is now
the state of Uttar Pradesh). His son Humayun ascended the throne in 1530 and in 1533 founded a new
city, Din Panah, on the bank of the Yamuna River. Shēr Shah, who overthrew Humāyūn in 1540, razed
Din Panah to the ground and built his new capital, the Sher Shahi, now known as Purana Qila fort, in
southeastern Delhi.

Q 60.B
 The Chagos Archipelago or Chagos Islands are a group of seven atolls comprising more than 60
individual tropical islands in the Indian Ocean about 500 km south of the Maldives archipelago. In
February 2019, the International Court of Justice (ICJ) ruled that the United Kingdom should
relinquish the archipelago. The British government rejected any jurisdiction of the court to
deliberate these matters.
 Reunion islands are a French overseas department and overseas region in the western Indian Ocean. It
is located about 680 km east of Madagascar and 180 km southwest of Mauritius.
 Cocos Islands, also called Keeling Islands, are an external territory of Australia in the eastern Indian
Ocean. The isolated territory is made up of two coral atolls, the southern comprising 26 islets and the
northern containing only North Keeling Island.
 Hence, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Q 61.B
 Credit Rating Agencies (CRA) assess the credit worthiness (credit record, integrity and capability) of a
prospective buyer to fulfill the debt obligations. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
 The Securities and Exchange Board of India Regulations, 1999 empower SEBI to regulate CRAs
operating in India. All the credit agencies need to be registered with SEBI in order to operate in
India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
 Credit rating agencies in India do not have a distant past. They came into existence in the second half of
the 1980s. As of now, there are six credit rating agencies registered under SEBI namely, CRISIL,
ICRA, CARE, SMERA, Fitch India and Brickwork Ratings. Ratings provided by these agencies
determine the nature and integrals of the loan. Higher the credit rating, lower is the rate of interest offered
to the organisation. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Q 62.D
 The Breathalyzer device contains a system to sample the breath of the suspect, two glass vials containing
the chemical reaction mixture and a system of photocells connected to a meter to measure the color
change associated with the chemical reaction. To measure alcohol, a suspect breathes into the device. The
breath sample is bubbled in one vial through a mixture of sulfuric acid, potassium dichromate, silver
nitrate and water. The chemical reaction inside the Breathalyzer includes both oxidation and
reduction. The Breathalyzer contains a chamber with several compounds to support these reactions.
When the potassium dichromate solution in the Breathalyzer reacts with ethanol, the potassium
dichromate loses an oxygen atom. This process is called reduction. The reduction converts orange
potassium dichromate into a solution containing chromium sulfate. At the same time dichromate ion gets
reduced to chromium ion, ethanol gets oxidized to acetic acid. Silver nitrate serves as a catalyst for the
reaction to increase the rate at which the dichromate gets reduced. Hence option (b) is not correct and
option (c) is correct.
 During this reaction, the reddish-orange dichromate ion changes color to the green chromium ion when it
reacts with the alcohol; the degree of the color change is directly related to the level of alcohol in the
expelled air. To determine the amount of alcohol in that air, the reacted mixture is compared to a vial of
unreacted mixture in the photocell system, which produces an electric current that causes the needle in the
meter to move from its resting place. The operator then rotates a knob to bring the needle back to the
resting place and reads the level of alcohol from the knob - the more the operator must turn the knob to
return it to rest, the greater the level of alcohol.
 Breath tests to determine Blood Alcohol Concentration (BAC) rely on the body‘s metabolism of
alcohol to assess the level of alcohol in the blood. About 92-98 percent of an alcoholic beverage moves
through the digestive system to be broken down by the liver, so 2-8 percent is lost through other
processes, including breathing. The amount of alcohol collected in the lungs correlates to the amount
of undigested alcohol in the bloodstream. Hence option (a) is correct.
 Metabolism is the body's process of converting ingested substances to other compounds. Metabolism
results in some substances becoming more, and some less, toxic than those originally ingested. When
alcohol is consumed, it passes from the stomach and intestines into the blood, a process referred to as
absorption. Alcohol is then metabolized by enzymes, which are body chemicals that break down other
chemicals. Alcohol is metabolized more slowly than it is absorbed.

Q 63.A
 Mahi, a unique herbal ink prepared with cow urine as extractant, was used for manuscript writing in early
Assam. ‗Mahi‘ was used in early and medieval Assam for writing on ‗sancipat‘ (folios made of the bark
of the sanci tree) manuscripts. Some folios were gifted by Kumar Bhaskar Barman, the then King of
Pragjyotishpura (ancient Assam) to Harshavardhana, an emperor who ruled north India from 606 to 647
C.E., a testimony to the period of use. Hence statement 1 is correct
 The endurance of the ink is proven by the stability of sancipat manuscripts. The key factor for this long-
lasting marriage between ‗mahi‘ and ‗sancipat‘ is the herbal concoction‘s resistance to aerial
oxidation and fungal attacks. Hence statement 2 is correct
 Mahi has not got GI tag Hence statement 3 is not correct. GI Tag from Assam: Muga Silk, Joha Rice
and Tezpur Litchi.

Q 64.D
 Targeted at the idea of paperless governance, DigiLocker is a platform for issuance and verification of
documents & certificates in a digital way, thus eliminating the use of physical documents. Indian
citizens who sign up for a DigiLocker account get a dedicated cloud storage space that is linked to their
Aadhaar (UIDAI) number. Organizations that are registered with Digital Locker can push electronic
copies of documents and certificates (e.g. driving license, Voter ID, School certificates) directly into
citizens lockers. Citizens can also upload scanned copies of their legacy documents in their accounts.
These legacy documents can be electronically signed using the eSign facility.

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Q 65.C
 Founded by Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan (Badshah Khan), the Khudai Khidmatgars was a powerful
non-violent movement among the Pathans of his province (North West Frontier Province: NWFP).
It was founded in November 1929 at Utmanzai, NWFP.
o Strongly inspired by Gandhi's strategy of nonviolence, Badshah Khan persuaded his countrymen to
lay down guns and vow to fight nonviolently against the British regime.
o The ideal of the Khudai Khidmatgars was to become true servants of God - in other words, to serve
God through service of humanity. They were regularly drilled and taught to take long marches in
military fashion. But they bore no arms, carried no weapons, not even a lathi or a stick. The
movement's strength was greatest in the villages. Women participated as active members.
 The Khudai Khidmatgars merged with the Congress during the Civil Disobedience Movement in
1930-31 but retained its identity as a volunteer force.
o During this movement, the Khudai Khidmatgars, also known as Red Shirts, owing to their distinctive
uniform, were able to carry through a satyagraha program to the extent of establishing a parallel
government, for a short period in the city of Peshawar. The soldiers of a Garhwal regiment of the
British army refused to fire upon the satyagrahis.
o The Khudai Khidmatgars made deep inroads into the NWFP, leading to formation of a Congress
government after the provincial elections of 1937. Such was its dominance that the Muslim League
could not even win one seat in the province.
 Badshah Khan was strongly opposed to the Partition of India. He criticised his Congress colleagues for
agreeing to the 1947 division. According to the 3rd June Mountbatten Plan, a referendum was to be
held in the NWFP, and another in the Muslim-majority Sylhet district of Assam (the rest of which
would remain in India). The Khudai Khidmatgars boycotted the polling and launched a movement
against it.
o In their campaign, they demanded that instead of having a referendum on two options of India or
Pakistan, it should be on Pukhtoonistan or Pakistan. However, the overwhelming majority of the
Pathans voted for Pakistan and the Red Shirts could not succeed in their mission.

Q 66.C
 The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has recently approved the "Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN (Jaiv
Indhan- Vatavaran Anukool fasal awashesh Nivaran) Yojana" for providing financial support to
Integrated Bioethanol Projects using lignocellulosic biomass and other renewable feedstock.
 Under this Yojana, 12 Commercial Scale and 10 demonstration scale Second Generation (2G) ethanol
Projects will be provided a Viability Gap Funding (VGF) support in two phases
 The scheme focuses to incentivise 2G Ethanol sector and support this nascent industry by creating a
suitable ecosystem for setting up commercial projects and increasing Research & Development in this
area.

Q 67.C
 There is a Speaker and a Deputy Speaker for the Lok Sabha. The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha
from amongst its members. It should be noted that, whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker
does not vacate his office and continues till the newly-elected Lok Sabha meets. Hence statement 1 is
not correct.

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Q 68.C
 Subsidiarity as ―a principle that a central authority should have a subsidiary function, performing only
those tasks which cannot be performed at a more local level.‖
 The Principle of Subsidiarity (PoS) stipulates: functions shall be carried out closest to citizens at the
smallest unit of governance possible and delegated upwards only when the local unit cannot
perform the task. The citizen delegates those functions he cannot perform, to the community, functions
that the community cannot discharge are passed on to local governments in the smallest tiers, and so on,
from smaller tiers to larger tiers, from local government to the State Governments, and from the States to
the Union. In this scheme, the citizen and the community are the centre of governance. In place of
traditional hierarchies, there will be ever-enlarging concentric circles of government and delegation is
outward depending on necessity.

Q 69.D
 Statement 1 is correct: NABL is a Constituent Board of Quality Council of India.NABL has been
established with the objective of providing Government, Industry Associations and Industry in general
with a scheme of Conformity Assessment Body‘s accreditation which involves third-party assessment of
the technical competence of testing including medical and calibration laboratories, proficiency testing
providers and reference material producers.
 Statement 2 is correct: NABL provides accreditation for medical testing laboratories. NABL
provides laboratory accreditation services to laboratories that are performing tests/calibrations in
accordance with ISO/IEC 17025:2005 and ISO 15189:2012 for medical laboratories. These services are
offered in a non-discriminatory manner and are accessible to all testing and calibration laboratories in
India and abroad, regardless of their ownership, legal status, size and degree of independence.
 NABL also provides accreditation in all major fields of Science and Engineering such as Biological,
Chemical, Electrical, Electronics, Mechanical, Fluid-Flow, Non-Destructive, Photometry, Radiological,
Thermal & Forensics under testing facilities and Electro-Technical, Mechanical, Fluid Flow, Thermal,
Optical & Radiological under Calibration facilities. In addition, NABL also offers accreditation for
Proficiency testing providers & Reference Material producers.It has Mutual Recognition
Arrangements(MRA) with Asia Pacific Laboratory Accreditation Cooperation (APLAC) and
International Laboratory Accreditation Cooperation (ILAC). Such international arrangements
facilitate acceptance of test / calibration results between countries to which MRA partners represent.This
effectively reduces costs for both the exporters and the importers, as it reduces or eliminates the need for
products to be re-tested in another country.
 Statement 3 is correct: In the current global scenario an essential pre -requisite of trade is that any
product or service accepted formally in one economy must also be free to circulate in other economies
without having to undergo extensive re-testing. WTO recognises that non acceptance of test results and
measurement data is a Technical Barrier to Trade (TBT). Global sourcing of components calls for
equivalence of measurement, which can be facilitated by a chain of accredited CABs. Accreditation is
considered as the first essential step for facilitating mutual acceptance of test results and measurement
data. Therefore, NABL helps in improving the compliance to WTO standards regarding TBT by
increasing acceptance of test results and measurement data.

Q 71.A
 Statement 1 is correct: A black hole is a region in space where the pulling force of gravity is so strong
that light is not able to escape. The strong gravity occurs because matter has been pressed into a tiny
space. This compression can take place at the end of a star's life. Some black holes are a result of dying
stars. Because no light can escape, black holes are invisible. However, space telescopes with special
instruments can help find black holes. They can observe the behavior of material and stars that are very
close to black holes.
 Statement 2 is not correct: Only stars with very large masses can become black holes. Sun, for example,
is not massive enough to become a black hole. Stars of this type end their history as white dwarf stars.
When a massive star runs out of nuclear fuel it can no longer sustain its own weight and begins to
collapse. When this occurs the star heats up and some fraction of its outer layer, which often still contains
some fresh nuclear fuel, activates the nuclear reaction again and explodes in what is called a supernova.
The remaining innermost fraction of the star, the core, continues to collapse. Depending on how massive
the core is, it may become either a neutron star and stop the collapse or it may continue to collapse into a
black hole. The dividing mass of the core, which determines its fate, is about 2.5 solar masses. It is
thought that to produce a core of 2.5 solar masses the ancestral star should begin with over 20 solar
masses. A black hole formed from a star is called a stellar black hole.
 Statement 3 is not correct: Scientists have recently finally revealed the first-ever direct images of a black
hole's event horizon using the Event Horizon Telescope. Event Horizon Telescope used eight radio
observatories around the world to collect data. Scientists were able to capture silhouette of a black hole,
revealing its shape based on the glowing ring around it.

Q 72.B
 Statement 1 is not correct: In 2015, a new alliance of conservation organizations (the Asian Elephant
Alliance) was launched to stem the crisis facing the world‘s remaining Asian elephants. The member
organizations of this alliance are Elephant Family, International Fund for Animal Welfare (IFAW), IUCN
Netherlands, Wildlife Trust of India and World Land Trust.
 The key aim of the alliance is to build 100 habitat corridors across India over the next 10 years, linking up
fragmented areas of elephant home ranges and allowing safe passage for India‘s elephants. Around half of
the world‘s wild Asian elephant population is found in India.
 Statement 2 is correct: The Asian Elephant Alliance is aiming at raising £20 million (₹187.16 crore) to
secure the 96 elephant corridors, old and new, in the next ten years.

Q 73.B
 The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act was enacted in 1958 to bring under control what the government
of India considered ‗disturbed‘ areas.
 Statement 2 is not correct: A disturbed area is one which is declared by notification under Section 3 of
the AFSPA. An area can be disturbed due to differences or disputes between members of different
religious, racial, language or regional groups or castes or communities. The Central Government or the
Governor of the State or administrator of the Union Territory can declare the whole or part of the
State or Union Territory as a disturbed area. A suitable notification would have to be made in the
Official Gazette. As per Section 3, it can be invoked in places where ―the use of armed forces in aid of the
civil power is necessary‖.

Q 74.B
 Around 1750, India was the world‘s largest producer of cotton textiles. From the 16th-century European
trading companies began buying Indian textiles for sale in Europe. Indian textile was famous in the
western market under different names such as muslin, calico, etc. Printing cotton cloths were called
chintz, cossaes or khassa and bandanna.
 From the 1680s there started a craze for printed Indian cotton textiles in England and Europe mainly for
their exquisite floral designs, fine texture and relative cheapness. Many cloth centers were there like
Kasimbazar, Patna, Calcutta, Orissa, Charpoore. In 1720, the British government enacted legislation
banning the use of printed cotton textiles – chintz – in England. This Act was known as the Calico
Act. Unable to compete with Indian textiles, English producers wanted a secure market within the country
by preventing the entry of Indian textiles

Q 75.B
 Statement 1 is not correct: Alliance to End Plastic Waste (AEPW) is a not-for-profit organization
partnering with the finance community, government and civil society, including environmental and
economic development NGOs. It has been launched by an alliance of global companies from the plastics
and consumer goods value chain with an aim to advance solutions to eliminate plastic waste in the
environment, especially in the ocean. It is currently made up of nearly thirty member companies and has
committed over $1.0 billion with the goal of investing $1.5 billion over the next five years to help end
plastic waste in the environment. The Alliance will develop and bring to scale solutions that will minimize
and manage plastic waste and promote solutions for used plastics by helping to enable a circular economy.
The Alliance membership represents global companies located throughout North and South America,
Europe, Asia, Southeast Asia, Africa, and the Middle East.
 Statement 2 is correct: The alliance is a not-for-profit organisation that includes companies that make,
use, sell, process, collect and recycle plastics. This includes chemical and plastic manufacturers, consumer
goods companies, retailers, converters, and waste management companies, also known as the plastics
value chain. The alliance has been working with the World Business Council for Sustainable
Development as a founding strategic partner.

Q 76.B
 As per the National Sample Survey (NSS) 73rd round, conducted by National Sample Survey Office,
Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation during the period 2015-16, there were 633.88 lakh
unincorporated non-agriculture MSMEs in the country engaged in different economic activities (196.64
lakh in Manufacturing, 230.35 lakh in Trade and 206.84 lakh in Other Services and 0.03 lakh in Non-
captive Electricity Generation and Transmission).

Q 77.C
 Corporation Tax popularly known as Corporate Tax is a direct tax levied on the net income or profit that
corporate enterprises make from their businesses. The tax is imposed at a specific rate as per the
provisions of the Income Tax Act, 1961. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.
 Corporate entities that are liable to pay corporate tax in India are as follows:
o Incorporated corporations in India.
o Corporations that acquire revenues from India and do business on those earned incomes.
o Other foreign enterprises that have permanently established themselves in India. Hence, statement 2
is correct.
o Corporations that have earned the title of being an Indian resident only for the purpose of tax
payment.

Q 78.B
 Article 22: No law providing for preventive detention shall authorise the detention of a person for a longer
period than three months unless (a) an Advisory Board consisting of persons who are, or have been, or are
qualified to be appointed as, Judges of a High Court has reported before the expiration of the said period
of three months that there is in its opinion sufficient cause for such detention. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
 The 24-hour clause is not true for preventive detention. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
 When any person is detained in pursuance of an order made under any law providing for preventive
detention, the authority making the order shall, as soon as may be, communicate to such person the
grounds on which the order has been made and shall afford him the earliest opportunity of making a
representation against the order.
 Nothing in the above clause shall require the authority to disclose facts which such authority considers to
be against the public interest to disclose.
 Parliament may by law prescribe:
o the circumstances under which, and the class or classes of cases in which, a person may be detained
for a period longer than three months under any law providing for preventive detention without
obtaining the opinion of an Advisory Board.
o the maximum period for which any person may in any class or classes of cases be detained under any
law providing for preventive detention; and
o the procedure to be followed by an Advisory Board in an inquiry.
 The Supreme Court ('Deepak Bajaj v/s State of Maharashtra and another' and various other cases) has
observed that the writ of habeas corpus is "great constitutional privilege of the citizen" or "the first
security of civil liberty". It provides a prompt and effective remedy against illegal detention under the Act
or any other enactment authorising preventive detention. Therefore, to examine the question whether the
detention is illegal, the writ of habeas corpus is an effective and prompt remedy. Hence statement 3 is
correct.

Q 80.C
 The corpus of transcribed forms of the Kannada language is called the Kannada literature. The following
three poets were recognized as the three gems of the Kannada literature:
o Pampa is well known as the Ādikavi, he was a court poet of the Chalukya king Arikesari II, written in
Champu styles, his epics Vikramārjuna Vijaya and the Ādi purāṇa made him popular.
o Ranna was one of the earliest and the greatest poet of Kannada language.
o Sri Ponna was also a noted poet of Kannada language; he was the court poet of king Krishna III of
the Rashtrakuta Dynasty.

Q 81.D
 The Vaigai river rises on the Eastern slopes of the Varusanadu hills at an elevation on 1,200m in the
Madurai district and flows in the Northerly and North-Easterly directions up to its confluence with the
Varahanadhi and then takes a turn towards the East and South-East to flow through Madurai, Sivagangai
and Ramanathapuram districts. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
 The Mahanadi river originates from Sihawa Mountain in Chhattisgarh. It is the largest river of
Odisha. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
 The river Kaveri originates in the Brahmagiri hills in Kodagu, in a place called Talakaveri (head of
Kaveri). It starts its journey from the small pond called as Kundike pond, later the two tributaries known
as Kanake and Sujyoti joins it. All these three rivers meets at the point called Bhagamandala. It lies at an
altitude of 1350 meters and generally flows from the south to eastward direction. The river is
approximately 760 km long. Its flows in the state of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and merges into Bay of
Bengal. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

Q 82.C
 The Elephanta Caves are located in Western India on Elephanta Island (otherwise known as the
Island of Gharapuri), which features two hillocks separated by a narrow valley. The rock-cut Elephanta
Caves were constructed about the mid-5th to 6th centuries AD. The most important among the caves is the
great Cave 1, which measures 39 metres from the front entrance to the back. In plan, this cave in the
western hill closely resembles Dumar Lena cave at Ellora, in India.
 The 7-metre-high masterpiece ―Sadashiva‖ dominates the entrance to Cave 1. The sculpture
represents three aspects of Shiva: the Creator, the Preserver, and the Destroyer, identified,
respectively, with Aghora or Bhairava (left half), Taptapurusha or Mahadeva (central full face),
and Vamadeva or Uma (right half). Representations of Nataraja, Yogishvara, Andhakasuravadha,
Ardhanarishwara, Kalyanasundaramurti, Gangadharamurti, and Ravanaanugrahamurti are also
noteworthy for their forms, dimensions, themes, representations, content, alignment and execution.

Q 83.D
 Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act 1992 provides for a five-year term of office to the panchayat at every
level. However, it can be dissolved before the completion of its term. Further, fresh elections to
constitute a Panchayat shall be completed (a) before the expiry of its duration of five years; or (b) in
case of dissolution, before the expiry of a period of six months from the date of its dissolution.
Hence statement 1 is not correct.
 But, where the remainder of the period (for which the dissolved Panchayat would have continued) is less
than six months, it shall not be necessary to hold any election for constituting the new panchayat for such
period. Moreover, a Panchayat constituted upon the dissolution of a Panchayat before the expiration of its
duration shall continue only for the remainder of the period for which the dissolved Panchayat would have
continued had it not been so dissolved. In other words, a panchayat reconstituted after premature
dissolution does not enjoy the full period of five years but remains in office only for the remainder
of the period. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q 84.A
 Statement 1 is correct: Both Adjournment and Prorogation terminates the sitting of the House.
Additionally, Prorogation also terminates the session of the House.
 Statement 2 is not correct: While Adjournment and Adjournment sine die are declared by presiding
officer of the House, Prorogation is declared by President few days after the presiding officer declares the
Adjournment sine die.
 Statement 3 is not correct: Both Adjournment and Prorogation have no effect on any bill or business
pending in the House and the same can be resumed when the House meets again.

Q 85.C
 During the Gupta period land taxes increased considerably. The land tax called bali varied from 1/4th to
1/6th of the total produce.
 Two new agricultural taxes that appear in Gupta inscriptions are uparikara and udranga. However,
their exact nature is not clear. In addition, the peasants had to meet the demands of the feudatories. They
also had to feed the royal army when it passed from the villages. The villagers were also subjected to
forced labour (vishti).

Q 86.A
 The events are discussed below in chronological order.
 Moplah rebellion - 1921
o It was also known as the Malabar rebellion. It was an armed uprising in 1921 against British authority
in the Malabar region of Southern India by Mappilas.
o It was an extended version of the Khilafat Movement in Kerala in 1921.
o It began as a reaction against a heavy-handed crackdown on the Khilafat Movement
o The most prominent leaders of the rebellion were Variankunnath Kunjahammad Haji, Sithi Koya
Thangal and Ali Musliya

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 Bardoli Satyagraha - 1928
o It was a movement in the independence struggle led by Sardar Vallabhai Patel for the farmers of
Bardoli against the unjust raising of taxes.
o It sparked off in January 1926 when the authorities decided to increase the land revenue by 30
percent.
o Bardoli Inquiry Committee was set up to go into the issue which found the revenue hike to be
unjustified.
o In February 1926, Vallabhbhai Patel was called to lead the movement, The women of Bardoli gave
him the title of "Sardar".
 Salt Satyagraha - 1930
o It was also called Dandi March or Salt Major.
o It was a major nonviolent protest action in India led by Gandhiji in March–April 1930.
o After the completion of historic 'Dandi March' from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi, he broke the salt law
by picking a handful of salt.
o It marked the formal launch of the Civil Disobedience Movement on April 6, 1930.

Q 87.D
 Statement 1 is correct: Technical textiles are textile material and products manufactured primarily for
technical performance and functional properties rather than aesthetic and decorative characteristics. They
find application not only in clothing but also in areas like agriculture, medical, infrastructure, automotive,
aerospace, sports, defense and packaging.
 Technical Textiles is a high technology sunrise sector which is steadily gaining ground in India.
 Statement 2 is correct: 100% FDI is allowed in the textile sector under the automatic route. And
Technical Textile is one of the segments under the category of textiles. Other segments are home textiles,
weaving, spinning, etc.
 Statement 3 is correct: Technical textiles have applications across various industries including
automobiles, civil engineering and construction, aerospace, agriculture, healthcare, industrial safety,
personal protection etc. Based on usage, there are 12 technical textile segments; Agrotech, Meditech,
Buildtech, Mobiltech, Clothtech, Oekotech, Geotech, Packtech, Hometech, Protech, Indutech and
Sportech.

Q 88.C
 Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct: The Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk
Reduction is a fifteen year, voluntary, non-binding agreement which recognizes that the State has the
primary role to reduce disaster risk but that responsibility should be shared with other stakeholders
including local government, the private sector and other stakeholders. The Sendai Framework is the
successor instrument to the Hyogo Framework for Action (HFA) 2005-2015: Building the Resilience of
Nations and Communities to Disasters. It aims for the following outcome:
o The substantial reduction of disaster risk and losses in lives, livelihoods and health and in the
economic, physical, social, cultural and environmental assets of persons, businesses, communities and
countries.
 Statement 3 is correct: The UN General Assembly adopted the International Strategy for Disaster
Reduction in 1999 and established the United Nations International Strategy for Disaster Reduction
(UNISDR), the secretariat to ensure its implementation. Its mandate was expanded in 2001 to serve as the
focal point in the United Nations system to ensure coordination and synergies among disaster risk
reduction activities of the United Nations system and regional organizations and activities in socio-
economic and humanitarian fields. UNISDR has been tasked to support the implementation, follow-up
and review of the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction.

Q 90.C
 Short-lived climate pollutants (SLCPs) are powerful climate forcers that remain in the atmosphere for a
much shorter period of time than longer-lived climate pollutants, such as carbon dioxide (CO2). They
include methane, fluorinated gases including hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), tropospheric ozone and
black carbon.
 Their relative potency, when measured in terms of how they heat the atmosphere, can be tens, hundreds,
or even thousands of times greater than that of CO2. SLCPs are harmful air pollutants and the impacts of
SLCPs are especially strong over the short term.

Q 91.C
 Statement 1 is correct: The Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 are made by the
President of India under Clause (3) of Article 77 of the Constitution.
 Statement 2 is not correct: The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for the administration of the
Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 and the Government of India (Allocation of
Business) Rules, 1961, facilitating smooth transaction of business in ministries/departments of the
government by ensuring adherence to these rules.
 Statement 3 is not correct: The ministries & departments of the Government are created by the President
on the advice of the Prime Minister under these rules.

Q 92.B
 The recommendation in the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms resulted in the creation of the
Chamber of Princes in 1921.
 Chamber of Princes (Narendra Mandal) was set up as a consultative and advisory body having no say
in the internal affairs of individual states and having no powers to discuss matters concerning existing
rights and freedoms. 'Chamber of Princes' was established to advise the Viceroy on all the questions
effecting the Indian States generally or which were of concern either to the Empire as a whole or to
British India and the States in common.
 Represented by only 120 states out of 565 states, it excluded many powerful states like Hyderabad,
Mysore, Baroda, etc.

Q 93.C
 CARTOSAT series: The Cartosat series of satellites are a type of earth observation
satellites indigenously built by India. The Cartosat series is a part of the Indian Remote Sensing
Programme. They were specifically launched for Earth‘s resource management and monitoring.
Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.

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 SCATSAT series: SCATSAT-1 satellite was successfully launched into the Polar Sun Synchronous
Orbit in its PSLV-C35 mission on September 26, 2016. The wind vector at sea surface information
facilitated by SCATSAT-1 which it carried, is used in weather prediction models and helps in accurate
prediction of cyclone track. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
 EMISAT : The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched the country‘s first electronic
surveillance satellite, EMISAT, from Sriharikota in coastal Andhra Pradesh on April 1, 2019. The
satellite was successfully placed in its intended sun-synchronous polar orbit. Hence, pair 3 is correctly
matched.

Q 94.D
 As per Article 263 – If at any time it appears to the President that the public interests would be served by
the establishment of a Council charged with the duty of –
o inquiring into and advising upon disputes which may have arisen between States; Hence statement 1
is not correct.
o investigating and discussing subjects in which some or all of the States, or the Union and one or more
of the States, have a common interest; or
o making recommendations upon any such subject and, in particular, recommendations for the better
co-ordination of policy and action with respect to that subject,
o It shall be lawful for the President by order to establish such a Council, and to define the nature of the
duties to be performed by it and its organization and procedure.‖ The Council consists of:- Prime
Minister – Chairman: Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o Chief Ministers of all States – Members Chief Ministers of Union Territories having a Legislative
Assembly and Administrators of UTs not having a Legislative Assembly – Members: Hence
statement 3 is not correct.

Q 95.D
 Due to changing climate, Arctic regions of North America are getting greener, with almost a third
of the land cover looking more like landscapes found in warmer ecosystems, according to a NASA
study.
 With 87,000 images taken from Landsat satellites, converted into data that reflects the amount of healthy
vegetation on the ground, the researchers found that western Alaska, Quebec and other regions became
greener between 1984 and 2012. The new Landsat study further supports previous work that has shown
changing vegetation in the Arctic and boreal North America. Landsat is a programme that provides the
longest continuous space-based record of Earth‘s land vegetation in existence.
 It shows the climate impact on vegetation in the high latitudes. Temperatures is increasing faster in
the Arctic than elsewhere, which has led to longer seasons for plants to grow in and changes to the
soils.
 Scientists have observed grassy tundras changing to shrublands, and shrubs growing bigger and denser —
changes that could have impacts on regional water, energy and carbon cycles.

Q 96.D
 Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme is
being implemented w.e.f. 2014-15 for holistic growth of the horticulture sector covering fruits,
vegetables, root and tuber crops, mushrooms, spices, flowers, aromatic plants, coconut, cashew, cocoa.
MIDH subsumed ongoing missions/schemes of the Ministry-
o National Horticulture Mission (NHM)
o Horticulture Mission for North East & Himalayan States (HMNEH)
o National Horticulture Board (NHB)
o Coconut Development Board (CDB) and
o Central Institute for Horticulture (CIH), Nagaland.
 All States including the North Eastern States and UTs are covered under MIDH.
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Q 97.D
 Epigenetics is the study of heritable changes in gene expression that do not involve changes to the
underlying DNA sequence - a change in phenotype without a change in genotype - which in turn affects
how cells read the genes. Epigenetic change is a regular and natural occurrence but can also be influenced
by several factors including age, the environment/lifestyle, and disease state.
 Epigenetic modifications can manifest as commonly as the manner in which cells terminally differentiate
to end up as skin cells, liver cells, brain cells, etc. Or, epigenetic change can have more damaging effects
that can result in diseases like cancer.
 New and ongoing research is continuously uncovering the role of epigenetics in a variety of human
disorders and fatal diseases. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 98.D
 A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State
Governments. It acknowledges the Government‘s debt obligation. Such securities are short term (usually
called treasury bills, with original maturities of less than one year) or long term (usually called
Government bonds or dated securities with original maturity of one year or more). Treasury bills or T-
bills, which are money market instruments, are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91 day, 182 day
and 364 day. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
 In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State
Governments issue only bonds or dated securities. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
 Treasury bills are zero coupon securities and pay no interest. They are issued at a discount and redeemed
at the face value at maturity. For example, a 91 day Treasury bill of Rs.100/- (face value) may be issued at
say Rs.98.20, that is, at a discount of say, Rs.1.80 and would be redeemed at the face value of Rs.100/-.
This means that you can get a hundred-rupee treasury bill at a lower price and can get Rupees hundred at
maturity.
 Investment in the following instruments which will be referred to as "Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
securities":
o Dated securities
o Treasury Bills of the Government of India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
o State Development Loans (SDLs) of the State Governments.

Q 99.A
 Sanskrit is the most ancient language of our country. It is one of the twenty-two languages listed in the
eigth schedule of the Indian Constitution.The literature in Sanskrit is vast, beginning with the most ancient
thought embodied in the Rig Veda. Some important Sanskrit writers are discussed below:
o Kalidas wrote many beautiful poems and plays. His works in Sanskrit, written during the Gupta
period, are considered the gems of literature. He wrote passionate plays and poems. His wonderful
skill is exhibited in his poem Meghaduta, Ritusambara. Kumar Sambhavam and Raghuvamsha. His
plays are Abhijan Shakuntalam, Vikramorvashi and Malvikaganimitram. Vikramorvashi's subject is
the love of a mortal for a divine maiden.
o Ashvaghosha wrote during the Kushana rule. The Kushana kings patronised Sanskrit scholars. He
wrote the Buddhacharitra which is the biography of the Buddha. He also wrote Saundarananda,
which is a fine example of Sanskrit poetry that recounts a well-known story of how the Buddha
converted his half-brother Nanda, who was deeply in love with his wife, Sundari, to the monastic life
of austerity.
o Kalhana wrote Rajatarangini, a historical chronicle of early India, in Sanskrit verse in the twelfth
century. It covers the entire span of history in the Kashmir region from the earliest times to the date of
its composition.
o Rajashekhara was a tenth century poet and theoretician who wrote the Kavyamimamsa. He placed
Prakrit, the language of the masses, on an equal footing with Sanskrit, showed mastery over different
provincial dialects and endeavoured to revise the popularity of the Sanskrit drama. His four major
dramas are the Balaramayana, the Balabharata, the Viddhasalabhanjika and the Karpuramanjari. The
Kavyamimamsa is a handbook of literary criticism and tradition.

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Q 100.B
 Bidri is an art of inlaying silver or gold on black metal. 'Bidri craft' is named after the place Bidar
in Karnataka, from where it originated in India. The unique artwork was originally gifted by
Persian artists. Skilled artisans from Persia were invited to Bidar by the Bahamani Sultans in the 14th
century and trained local artisans in metal inlay work. Mughal and other local motifs are artistically
etched and inlayed to create a range of vases, plates, hookahs and jewelry boxes.
 Influenced by Hindu, Muslim, Persian, Turkish and Iranian forms of art Bidari Ware forms an integral
part of Bidar‘s Heritage. ‗Bidari Ware‘ is a special style of work called ‗Damascening‘ in silver. The
craftsmen follow both traditional and modern designs to create this unique art form. Silver, gold, brass,
copper are used for inlaying. Lead, tin, copper, zink are used as base materials for preparing the articles.
 The Bidari articles created here were traditionally used by the nobility. Water jugs, wash basins, hookahs,
candlesticks, cosmetic boxes, dishes, flower vases are just some of these. Among the traditional designs
traced on Bidari articles the ‗Poppy flower‘, the Persian rose‘ and the ‗Phool Jari‘ are the most popular. In
order to suit modern tastes, new designs are also being incorporated by the artists.
 Tambat Craft: The legacy of the Tambat or handcrafted Copper's products dates to the 17th century
when Tambat craftspeople were invited to Pune by the Peshwas after Shivaji set up the city as the capital
city of the Maratha Empire. 'Matharkaam' or beaten work is the distinguishing feature of Tambat craft.
The hand-beaten indentations, made by profiled beating hammers, strengthen the object and enhance the
inherent rich surface by imparting a mirror-like appearance. It is a skill-intensive craft and needs strength,
dexterity and a keen hand-foot-eye coordination.
 Dhokra Metal Casting: Dhokra art is essentially stunning metal figurines fashioned from bronze and
copper-based alloys using ‗lost wax casting‘ known as ‗cire perdue‘ in French. This tribal art form is done
by the traditional metalsmiths of Bengal – the Dhokra Damar tribes. Most Dhokra artifacts are human or
animal figurines.
 Longpi Pottery or Stone pottery, traditionally known as Longpi Ham, is a traditional craft from
Manipur. Longpi derives its name from the village Longpi in Manipur, India. Thankul Naga tribes
practice this exceptional pottery style. A single village of 400 houses in the district Ukhrul of North - East
Manipur, with perhaps just 200 artisans plying the craft, is the nerve center of Longpi earthenware. The
material used in Longpi is made from a mixture of Black serpentite stone and weathered rock which are
mixed in a three to one ratio. Unlike most pottery, Longpi does not resort to the potter's wheel. All
shaping is done with the hand and with the help of moulds. The characteristic gray-black cooking pots, the
stout kettles, quaint bowls, mugs and nut trays, at times with a pacing of fine cane are trademarks of
Longpi.

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