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2019 English Mock Exam for THPT

- The document is a practice test for the Vietnamese national high school graduation exam. It contains 32 multiple choice questions testing English language skills like vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension. - The test covers topics like pronunciation, word stress, parts of speech, phrasal verbs, idioms, synonyms, opposites, and combining sentences. - It includes a reading passage about New Year's activities at zoos and amusement parks in Ho Chi Minh City, Vietnam.

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Chuong Vo
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
417 views5 pages

2019 English Mock Exam for THPT

- The document is a practice test for the Vietnamese national high school graduation exam. It contains 32 multiple choice questions testing English language skills like vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension. - The test covers topics like pronunciation, word stress, parts of speech, phrasal verbs, idioms, synonyms, opposites, and combining sentences. - It includes a reading passage about New Year's activities at zoos and amusement parks in Ho Chi Minh City, Vietnam.

Uploaded by

Chuong Vo
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HÀ TĨNH KÌ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019

TRƯỜNG THPT N.T.MINH KHAI Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
` ___________________________________
Họ, tên thí sinh:
.......................................................................
Số báo danh: ............................................................................ Mã đề: 101

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. needed B. stopped C. walked D. laughed
Question 2: A. status B. state C. station D. statue

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. refuse B. destroy C. admit D. standard
Question 4: A. survival B. commercial C. endangered D.industry

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.

Question 5:_______we invested in telecommunications industry, we would be rich now.


A. Were B. Had C. Will D. Should
Question 6: It _______ these questions that are difficult.
A. are B. was C. is D. has
Question 7: Nobody answered the door, _______?
A. weren’t they B. were they C. did they D. didn’t they
Question 8: The number of the months in a year _______twelve.
A. was B. were C. are D. is
Question 9: Peter was absent; he _________sick again.
A. must have been B. must be C. must being D. must be being
Question 10: It is recommened that he ________this course.
A. taking B. take C. took D. takes
Question 11: He _______a large sum of money when his father died.
A. came out B. came over C. came into D. came off
Question 12: There was a _________table in the kitchen.
A. wooden large beautiful round B. large beautiful round wooden
C. beautiful large round wooden D. beautiful round large wooden
Question 13: They had a ______ candlelit dinner last night and she accepted his proposal of marriage.
A. romance B. romantic C. romantically D. romanticize Question14: It is English
pronunciation and phrasal verbs that _______ me a lot of trouble.
A. cause B. make C. get D. have
Question 15: If you _______ money to mine, we shall have enough.
A. add B. combine C. unite D. bank
Question 16: Alice said: “That guy is_______gorgeous. I wish he would ask me out.”
A. dead-centre B. drop-shot C. jumped-up D. drop-dead
Question 17: _______, he was unharmed after being struck by lightning.
A. Consequently B. Finally C. Cautiously D. Miraculously
Question 18: He lost his _______ when the policeman stopped him.
A. temper B. language C. spirit D. character

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 19: Jenifer and Susan are talking about a book they have just read.
- Jennifer: “ The book is really interesting and it’s hard to put it down.”
- Susan: “_______”
A. Don’t mention it C. That’s nice of you to say so.
B. I couldn’t agree with you more. D. It’s alright.
Question 20: Andrew is talking to a waiter in a restaurant.
Andrew: "Can I have the bill, please?"
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Waiter: "______."
A. You are very kind B. Just a minute, please
C. My pleasure D. You're exactly right
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that is needed
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 21: Her application for a visa was turned down not only because it was incomplete and
A B C
incorrectly filled out but also because it was written in pencil.
D
Question 22: Quang Hai hardly never misses an opportunity to play in the football tournament.
A B C D
Question 23: Our understanding and use of non-verbal cues in facial expressions and gestures are familiar to us
A B C
nearly in birth.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Unfortunately, I had to tell off John for his poor performance.
A. criticize B. encourage C. praise D. congratulate
Question 25: Before the interview, you have to send a letter of application and your résumé to the company.
A. recommendation B. reference C. curriculum vitae D. photograph

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 26: After five days on trial, the court found him innocent of the crime and he was released
A. innovative B. naive C. guilty D. benevolent Question 27: ~ Man: "I heard you have a part
in the school play tonight."
~ Woman: "Yes, and I’m on pins and needles."
A. nervous B. angry C. calm D. happy

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 28 : Marry loved her stuffed animal when she was young. She couldn’t sleep without it.
A. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so as not to sleep with it.
B. As Marry couldn’t sleep without her stuffed animal when she was young, she loved it.
C. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so much that she couldn’t sleep without it.
D. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal though she couldn’t sleep without it.
Question 29 : Mrs Brown wants to buy the house. It was built two years ago.
A. The house Mrs Brown wants to buy built two years ago.
B. The house built two years ago will be bought by Mrs Brown.
C. Mrs Brown wants to buy the house which built two years ago.
D. Mrs Brown wants to buy the house built two years ago.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
sentence in italics.
Question 30: The children couldn't go swimming because the sea was too rough.
A. The children were not calm enough to swim in the sea.
B. The sea was too rough for the children to go swimming.
C. The sea was rough enough for the children to swim in.
D. The sea was too rough to the children's swimming.
Question 31: People believe that 13 is an unlucky number.
A. People are believed that 13 is an unlucky number.
B. 13 has been believed to be an unlucky number.
C. It’s believed that 13 is an unlucky number.
D. It’s believed 13 to be an unlucky number.
Question 32 : I have never seen this film before.
A. Never before have I seen this film. B. Never before I have seen this film.
C. Before have never I seen this film. D. Have I never before seen this film.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37.
Between December 30 and 31, thousands of parents brought their children to the zoo to enjoy many
green activities, (33)_______ to the managers at the (34)_______Garden. As many as 35,000 people arrived at
the garden during this period.
The Suối Tiên Cultural Amusement Park in District 9, (35) _______not located in the city centre, also
drew many visitors, mostly from neighbouring provinces such as Đồng Nai, Bình Dương, and Bình Phước.
Between December 29 and 30, the park (36) _______ an additional 20,000 arrivals. The number was
expected to rise on New Year’s Day, Huỳnh Hồng Tuấn, deputy general manager of the park, said.
To provide quality services during this (37) _______ period, Tuấn said the park had employed 1,500
people and collaborated with authorities to ensure safety and food hygiene.
Another popular site, Rin Rin Park in Hóc Môn District, which opened a few years ago, attracts visitors
who are interested in koi fish, the star attraction at this Japanese-style park, and bonsai art.
( Extracted from Vietnamnews.vn/amusement-parks.)

Question 33: A. according B. with a view C. with regard D. thanks


Question 34: A. Botanically B. Botanist C. Botany D. Botanical
Question 35: A. but B. though C. however D. therefore
Question 36: A. drew B. took C. welcomed D. celebrated
Question 37: A. top B. high C. great D. peak

Read the f ollowing passage and mark the letter A, B, C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
A report released by China shows that the country is facing a serious problem with drinking water.
According to the study about 80% of the country's shallow ground water is not clean enough to drink or bathe in.
It can only be used for industrial purposes.
Dirty drinking water exists especially in the countryside, where the population gets water from shallow
wells. This water has become more and more contaminated through farming, factories and household waste.

While air pollution has caught the attention of the country's politicians, the situation of underground
water has widely been ignored. China may be facing another big environmental problem.
According to the report large cities are not affected by water pollution because they get their water from
underground reservoirs that are often hundreds or thousands of feet deep . In addition, cities operate purification
plants that get rid of harmful substances before drinking water gets to the people.
On the other hand the use of shallow underground water in rural areas has grown considerably in the past
decade. The report states that nitrates and ammonia are the major pollutants. In some areas heavy metals were
also found in the water.
Authorities found out that while none of the 2000 investigated wells had a Class I water quality, over
70% were classified in the worst two categories, those unfit for drinking.
(Extracted from English Online – Articles in Easy Understandable English for learners)

Question 38: What is the passage mainly about?


A. Drinking water problems in the world B. Polluted drinking water in the countryside
C. Problems with dringking water in China D. Undergound water in China.
Question 39: According to the passage, The population doesn’t get water from all of the following EXCEPT
_______?
A. rivers B. reservoirs C. lakes D. deep wells
Question 40: The word “It” in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. shallow ground water B. the country C. the study D. ground water
Question 41: The residents in big cities are not affected by the contamination of water because_______.
A. their water is taken from the deep wells
B. they get water from the shallow reservoirs.
C. they have purification machines.
D. water is taken from the underground reservoirs and it is purified before use.
Question 42: The word “ ignored” in paragraph 3 is likely replaced by _______.
A. seen B. overlooked C. cared D. eliminated

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50 .
Trang 3/4- Mã đề thi 101 -
About 6% of the earth is covered by rainforests. The largest rainforest in the world is the Amazon Basin,
which stretches over 2.3 million square miles in nine different South American countries. The Amazon rainforest
is a type of wet broadleaf forest. Because of the high rainfall, the forest is very rich and green. This tropical
rainforest has more living species than the entire European continent. There are over 400 types of insects living
in one single rain forest tree for a total of 2.5 million species. One square kilometer of rainforest may contain
over 75,000 types of trees and approximately 438,000 different kinds of plants, which comes to a total of 90,000
tons of greenery overall. The Amazon rainforest is home to 2,000 birds and mammals.
Local farmers have lived off this rich and diverse land for thousands of years. They have been able to find
food and water here without destroying the land. The Kayapo people of Brazil farm in an environmentally-
friendly way. Instead of chemicals, they use burned wood to enrich the soil, and plant banana trees, which attract
wasps. These wasps then feed on leafcutter ants and get rid of these harmful insects. The rainforest also offers a
lot of tropical fruits, such as bananas and coconuts, as food. Cinnamon is made from the bark of a rainforest tree.
Amazonian Indians use the fruit and stem of the Buruti plant as a drink, to make bread and to build houses. Many
other plants are used as medicine.
But the Amazon rainforest is in very big danger of disappearing. 9,169 square miles of forest have been cut
down in 2003 in Brazil alone. Trees take in poisonous carbon dioxide from the air and give off oxygen. There is
more oxygen and less carbon dioxide around a rainforest. When trees are cut down, however, the amount of
carbon dioxide increases and the air gets warmer. This leads to global warming, which is extremely harmful to
the environment. It is estimated that the burning of Brazilian rainforests alone produces 200 million metric tons
of carbon dioxide a year.
Another danger connected with destroying the rainforest is the disappearance of plants and animals. When
trees are cut down, plants and animals have no more food left and slowly die out. Killing wild animals is illegal
in Brazil, but there is plenty of stealing going on. 38 million animals are stolen and sold illegally each year. The
most hunted animals are birds, especially parrots, followed by snakes and the jaguar.
(Adapted from Longman Essence Reading Series)
Question 43: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The preservation of Amazon forest B. Facts about Amazon rainforest
C. Destruction of Amazon rainforest D. Importance of Amazon rainforest
Question 44: Which of the following is true about the Amazon rainforest?
A. Its overall number of animal is 2.5 million.
B. It covers approximately six percent of the world.
C. The rainfall in the forest is low.
D. It is a habitat for many reptiles and plants.
Question 45: The word "basin" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______
A. water mouth B. water clock C. watershed D. water-bearer
Question 46 : Look at the end of paragraph 1. What does the author refer to when he says “rich and diverse
land” at the beginning of paragraph 2?
A. 400 types of insects in the Amazon rainforest
B. 2,000 birds and mammals in the Amazon rainforest
C. The many different kinds of plants growing in the Amazon
rainforest D.The large variety of Amazonian plants and animals
Question 47: Why does the author says that “people of Brazil farm in an environmentally friendly way” in
paragraph 3 ?

B. They use natural chemicals to make the soil rich.


C. They plant and don’t cut down banana trees.
D. They do not kill insects even if they are harmful.
Question 48 : Which rainforest plant has more than one use?
A. The banana B. The coconut C. Cinnamon D. The Buruti plant
Question 49: What does “This” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. the effect of deforestation B. the amount of oxygen in the area
C. the plantation of trees D. the burning of the rainforest
Question 50: What is the biggest problem related to the disappearance of the rainforest?
A. Global warming B. Poisoning the air C. Burning the field D. Cutting down trees

THE END

Trang 4/4- Mã đề thi 101


SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG LẦN 1 NĂM 2019
TRƯỜNG THPT N.T.MINH KHAI Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 12
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút;
(50 câu trắc nghiệm)

STT 101 102 103 104 STT 101 102 103 104
1 A C D C 26 C B C C
2 D A D B 27 C C A A
3 D B B D 28 C C D D
4 D C C A 29 D C C C
5 B A A B 30 B A A A
6 C D B A 31 C C D D
7 C A C D 32 A B A C
8 D B A B 33 A B B A
9 A B B C 34 D C D C
10 B C D C 35 B D C B
11 C A C D 36 C A B A
12 C A C B 37 D D D A
13 B D A A 38 C A C B
14 A D B C 39 B D C C
15 A C C B 40 A C A A
16 D A B B 41 D C C B
17 D B D C 42 B B B A
18 A C B B 43 B B D A
19 B A A A 44 A D A C
20 B B B B 45 C C B D
21 C A D C 46 D C D C
22 A B C C 47 B A B B
23 D C A D 48 D D C D
24 A A B A 49 A A A B
25 C A D C 50 A B D C

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