Algebra Assignment 2
November 20, 2015
Question 1
i) Question For sets H and K, we know what H ∩ K is, i.e. H ∩ K = x | x ∈ H and x ∈ K. Show
that if H ≤ G and K ≤ G, then H ∩ K ≤ G.
Proof
If x∈ H and x∈ K, for H≤G and K≤
then
RTS: H∩K ≤G
If
x ∈ H ∩ H, x ∈ K and x ∈ H
then
xnx−1 ∈ H ∩ K, so
−1
x (H ∩ K) x ⊂N ∩K
theref ore H ∩ K ∈ G
Hence H∩K ≤ G
ii) Question Let|H| =12 and |K|=35, find |H ∩ K| To find H ∩ K we need to find an element that
is common by both H and K.
By theorem proved in class, we know that both
|H| and |K| divides |G| and that h|H and k|K
This means that the element formed by |H ∩ K| is common to both H and K and that this element must
have the order that divides both 12 and 35. This implies that the element must be the gcd of (H,K)⇒
gcd|H ∩ K| = 1
Hence H ∩ K = 1
Question 2
0 0
a) Let G be a cyclic group with generator a and let G be a group to G. if φ : G → G is an isomor-
0
phism, show that for every x G, φ(x) is completely determined by the value φ(x),i.e if φ : G → G
1
0
and ψ : G → G are two isomorphisms such that φ(a) = ψ(a), then φ(x) = ψ(x) for all x G.
Proof
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Claim:G is a cyclic group with generator a and φ : G → G is an isomorphism.
Suppose φ and ψ are two isomorphisms such that φ(a) = ψ(a),
then we want to show that φ(x) = ψ(x), ∀ x G
Let G , G = h a i
Since G is a cyclic group generated by a then,
x = an , for n Z
φ(x) = φ(an )
= φ(a · a · a · · · a) multiplying a n times
n
= φ(a) · φ(a) · · · φ(a) = {φ(a)} property of homomorphism
ψ(x) = ψ(an )
= ψ(a · a · a · · · a) multiplying a n times
n
= ψ(a) · ψ(a) · · · ψ(a) = {ψ(a)} property of homomorphism
Since φ(a) = ψ(a), then
n n
{ψ(a)} = {ψ(a)}
but
n n
φ(x) = {φ(a)} and ψ(x) = {ψ(a)}
then
ψ(x) = ψ(an )
Hence
ψ(x) = ψ(an ) for all xG
b) An isomorphism of a group with itself is called an automorphism of the group. Use the result in
a) to determine the number of automorphisms of Z12 .
Solution
since we have proved that generators map to generators and Z12 has four generators, then the
number of automorphism is 4.
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Question 3
Question : Show that a group with no proper non-trivial subgroups is cyclic.
Claim: Suppose G has no proper non trivial subgroups, then G is cyclic.
Proof
Let G be a group with no proper nontrivial subgroups.
If |G| = 1, then G = {e} which is cyclic (generated by e) .
Otherwise,
let x G such that a 6= e. Since a hai, hai is not trivial subgroup.
Then hei = G
Hence by definition of cyclic group, G is cyclic.
Question 4
Question (a) : Show that every finite group of even order 2n contains an element of order 2.
Claim: Let every finite group of even order 2n contains an element of order 2.
Suppose a2 = e for all a G, then let a,b G
we may associate for every a G its inverse a−1 G.
if a2 6= e for all a, then a2 6= a−1 , It follows that all non-identity pairing elements has been ex-
hausted by this property.
Therefore the number of elements of the group is 2n + 1, Where n is the number of paring and
1 is the identity element e. However, we assumed G was a group of even order, which leads to
contradiction.
Hence G contains an element of order 2.
[(b)]Question:Use the theorem of Lagrange to show that if n is odd, then an abelian group of order
2n contains precisely one element of order 2.
Let G be abelian group of order 2n for n is odd.
RTS: G is abelian group of order 2n and has precisely one element of order 2
Proof by contradiction
Suppose there exists more than one element of order 2.
Let x,y∈ G such that |a| = |y| = 2. hx, yi is a subgroup of G, Since G is abelian,
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This implies
x =x−1 andy = y −1 .
then
hx, yi =hxihyi
={e, x}{e, y} Multiplying the elenents, we have
={e, x, y, xy}
=|hx, yi|
=4
By Langrange’s theorem, we know that |hx, yi| |hGi
⇒ 4|2n = 2|n. 2 does not divide an odd number, Since n is odd. Hence we have a contradiction to
our assumption.
Hence, we have proves that there is only one element of order 2
Bonus Question
let φ : G → H be a group homomorphism. Show that φ(G) is abelian if and only if for all x, y G,
xyx−1 y −1 Ker(φ).
Proof
Because of the iff we must show both directions.
The first statement we will prove is if φ(G) is abelian, then xyx−1 y −1 Ker(φ). for all x,y G.
Suppose φ(G) is abelian
let x,y G
RTS: xyx−1 y −1 Ker(φ) ie. φ(xyx−1 y −1 )
We know that
φ(xyx−1 y −1 ) = φ(x) φ(y) φ(x−1 ) φ(y −1 ) By homomorphism property
Since φ(G) is abelian and φ(x), φ(y), φ(x−1 ), φ(y −1 ), φ(G)
then we have
φ(x) φ(y) φ(x−1 ) φ(y −1 ) = φ(x) φ(x−1 ) φ(y) φ(y −1 )
We also know by definition that
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φ(x) = φ(x−1 ) for all x G
Therefore
0 0 0
φ(x) φ(y) φ(x−1 ) φ(y −1 ) = φ(x) φ(x)−1 φ(y) φ(y)−1 = e e = e
Hence, xyx−1 y −1 Ker(φ)
We prove the opposite.
If xyx−1 y −1 Ker(φ) for all x,y G, then φ(G) is abelian
let y1 , y2 φ(G)
Then there exist
let x1 , x2 G such that φ(x1 ) = y1 and φ(x2 ) = y2 by definition of φ(G)
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Suppose: x1 x2 x1 −1 x2 −1 Ker(φ), that is φ(x1 x2 x1 −1 x2 −1 ) = e
Then
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e = φ(x) φ(x2 ) φ(x1 −1 ) φ(x2 −1 ) = y1 y2 y1 −1 y2 −1
Thus right multiplication by y1 gives us
y2 = y1 y2 y1 −1
Also multiplying through by y2 gives
y2 y1 = y1 y2
Hence: φ(G) is abelian since y1 y2 are arbitrary elements in φ(G)
