Qatar Prometric Materials

Qatar Prometric Materials

Yasir Saleem Pham-D
Email : [email protected]
Whattsup: +923469071210
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Introduction to SCHQ
What is the purpose of this exam?
By taking this exam, the SCH is able to assess your ability in your chosen scope of practice. If
you reach the required standard, you may be eligible to apply for a license to practice in the
State of Qatar.
If I pass the test, do I get a license?
No, the purpose of the exam is for you to demonstrate that you have reached the standard as
required by the SCH
Is an examination for my scope of practice available at Prometric test centres?
A complete list of exam offered by Prometric is available on this website. If the exam you wish
to take is not mentioned, please contact the SCH for further information at
http://www.sch.gov.qa/sch/En .

What methods can I use to schedule a test?

The quickest and easiest way to make your registration is on-line as this will give you up to
the minute details of seat availability. You can also schedule by telephone by calling the
Prometric Regional Contact Centre. When registering for a test, you must enter the number
and issuing country of either your current Passport or Government Issued ID Card. SCH will
not accept candidates who have not completed this information and failure do so may result in
your result being withheld. This ID must also be taken to testing centre for verification at
Check-in.

What is the procedure to reschedule an exam?

Should you need to reschedule your exam, you can either call the Customer Service Team at
the Prometric Regional Contact Centre or you can visit www.prometric.com at least 3 full
calendar days before your appointment.
How do I cancel a test and do I get a refund?
Should you need to cancel your exam, you can either call the Prometric Regional
Contact Centre or visit www.prometric.com at least 3 full calendar days before your
appointment. If you paid Prometric directly with a credit card, please request a
refund and this will be arranged for you. If your registration was made for you, you need to
contact that party and arrange a refund directly with them.
How can I locate my nearest test centre?
To locate your nearest test centre, check on www.prometric.com. After requesting SCHQ,
click on Locate a Testing Centre and this will provide you with all the necessary information
How quickly can I schedule an appointment?
The quickest way to schedule an appointment is booking online. This can be done 3 full
calendar days before the desired test date. You can also schedule via the Customer Service
Team, this must be done 5 full days before the desired test date. When registering for a test,
you must enter the number and issuing country of either your current Passport or Government
 3

Issued ID Card. SCH will not accept candidates who have not completed this information and
failure do so may result in your result being withheld. This ID must also be taken to testing
centre for verification at Check-in.
If I cannot get the date I want, what can I do?
Our aim is to provide you with a suitable appointment date for testing within the next 2 weeks.
In the unlikely event that you are unable to find a seat, please contact our Customer Service
Team at the Prometric Regional Contact Centre or by email (in English only).
CANDIDATES IN QATAR ONLY: While I am scheduling and get error message
Eligibility, not recognized or My eligibility expired, what does this mean and what
should I do?
If this message occurs, you should recontact the SCH at http://www.sch.gov.qa/sch/En . It
could be that your eligibility period to take your exam has expired or that your eligibility has to
be reset. This can only be done via SCH.
CANDIDATES IN QATAR ONLY: How many test centres are available in Qatar?
There is currently one testing centre currently available in Doha for men and women. Up to
date seat availability is available 24 hours a day through www.prometric.com
How do I know that my appointment is confirmed?
When your registration has been successfully made, either through the Internet or over the
phone, you will receive an email confirmation. All the information that you need, including your
confirmation number, contact details of the testing centre and the ID requirements you must
bring with you, is detailed on this email. If you do not receive your email confirmation within 24
hours of registering, you should contact the Customer Service Team at the Prometric
Regional Contact Centre or by email (in English only).
Can I schedule at any test centre?
Yes, you can reserve a seat in any location listed for SCH examinations. (If you wish to test
within Qatar) You cannot reserve your seat directly with the test centre.
How can I pay for my exam?
If booking through the Internet or by telephone, payment for your exam can be made with all
major credit cards; MasterCard, Visa, America Express. Unfortunately, payment cannot be
made in cash. If you send your registration through the post, you must send it with the
relevant form and a cheque made payable to Prometric Inc for the correct amount in US$.
What documents should I take to the test centre for my identification?
When you go to the testing centre, you should take with you the same form of identification
that you used to register with, your Passport or Government Issued ID Card. At check in, this
will be verified and if the ID does not match, you may be refused testing. SCH will not accept
candidates who have not completed this information and failure do so may result in your
result being withheld.
What is the duration of the exam?
All exams last 2 hours
How many questions in my specialty?
There are 70 questions to answer
What type of questions do I have in my test?
All exams questions are in multiple choice format so you simply select the correct answer
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from the choices that are available

Will I get my result at the end of my test?
Yes, when your exam has ended, you will receive a Score Report. This will indicate your
score and whether you have been successful in passing the examination
What is the passing score for my specialty?
This varies according to which exam you are taking. Further information can be obtained
through contacting the Supreme Council of Health directly at www.sch.gov.qa/sch/En/
What should I do if there is technical problem or other issue, which means I am unable
to take my test?
In the highly unlikely situation that you are unable to test, you will be issued with an incident
number at the testing centre. You will then be able to rebook your appointment, free of
charge, with the Customer Service Team at the Prometric Regional Contact Centre or by
email (in English only) and they will be able to assist you. Please ensure that you always
quote the incident number given to you by the test centre staff
What should I do if I get incorrect question in my test or if I have a complaint during my
test?
The exam that you will take has been verified many times. However, if you believe that there
maybe an error, of you have cause to complain for any reason during your test, you should
notify the testing centre Administrator who will file a report. This will be passed onto the
necessary department for further investigation and you will be contacted for further
information, if required
What should I do if the SCH hasnt received my result?
If there is an issue with your result please contact the Customer Service Team at the
Prometric Regional Contact Centre by email including your confirmation number, date and
place of testing and they will escalate this for you
 5

Important Symbols

Abbreviation Definition Abbreviation Definition

p.o - orally q.d. - once a day
I.M. - intramuscularly b.i.d. - twice a day
Subq. - subcutaneous t.i.d. - three times a day
Rectally - rectally q.i.d. - four times a day
I.V. - intravenous q.h.s. - before bed
O.D. - in the right eye 5X a day - five times a day
O.S. - in the left eye q.4h - every four hours
O.U. - in both eyes q.6h - every six hours
q.o.d. - every other day
prn. - as needed
- One
- Two q.t.t. - drop
- Three a.c. - before meals
- Four p.c. - after meals
a.c. - "ante cibum" before meals
ad. lib. - "ad libitum" as you desire or need
b.i.d. - "bis in die" twice a day
c - caution
cap - capsule
cc - "cum cibos" with food
comp - compound
daw - dispense as written
d/c - discontinue or discharge
dieb. alt. - "diebus alternis" every other day
gt - "gutta" drop
h20 - water
hr - hour
hs - "hora somni" at bedtime
iv - intravenous
nebul - "nebula" a spray
npo - nothing by mouth
od - right eye
os - left eye
 6

ou - both eyes
p.c. - "post cibum" after meals
p.o. - "per os" by mouth
p.r. - by rectum
p.r.n. - "pro re nata" as needed
q.d. - "quaque die" once a day
q.i.d. - "quater in die" four times a day
q.h. - "quaque hora" hourly
q.2h. - every 2 hours
q.3h. - every 3 hours
q.4h. - every 4 hours
Rx - prescription or treatment
s - without
sol - "solutio" solution
supp - "suppositorium" suppository
susp - suspension
syr - "syrupus" syrup
tab - "tabella" tablet
t.i.d. - "ter in die" 3 times a day
top - topical
ung - "unguentum" ointment
ut. dict. - "ut dictum" as directed
vag - vaginally
w - with
w/o - without
x - times
Abbreviations for Side Effects
D drowsiness
H habit forming
I interaction
X SOS contains a substance that could cause problems
ASA contains acetylsalicylic acid aspirin
C caution
G glaucoma
S diabetes
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1- ACE mechanism is:

a- converting Ag 11 to vasoconstrictor Ag1

b- converting Ag 1 to vasoconstrictor Ag11
c- converting Ag 1 to vasodilator Ag11
d- converting Ag 11 to vasoconstrictor Ag1
2- Differences between captopril and other ACE inhibitors:

a- Differ in potency, (captopril is more potent than other ACE inhibitors)

b- Mode of action.
c- Same effect if given in the appropriate dose.
d- Differ in shape.
3- The diuretic which is used with Captopril is:

a- Furosemide.
b- Ethacrynic acid.
c- Aldactone.
d- thiazide
4- What are the effects of Captopril?

a- inhibits the conversion of Ag1 to Ag11

b- effective hypotensive when others are contraindicated (B-blockers & diuretics)
c- Has a valuable role in heart failure.
5- ACE inhibitors are used in the treatment of:

a- Hypertension.
b- Migraine.
c- Asthama.
d- All of the above.
6- -blocker is used for:

Essential hypertension.

7- Which of the following is not cardio specific -blocker?

a- Atenolol.
b- Acebutolol.
c- Satolol.
d- Labetalol.
8- One of these is not like the others:

a- Timolol non selective -blocker.

b- Acebutalol selective -blocker.

c- labetolol non selective -blocker.

d- Betoxolol non selective -blocker.

9- What is the pharmacological & / or therapeutic classification of the following drugs:

a- Acebutolol: selective -blocker hypertensive.

 8

b- Labetalol: nonselective -blocker hypertensive.

10- All of the following are 2 antagonists except:

a- Salbutamol.
b- Metoprolol.
c- Nadolol.
d- Atenolol.
N.B.: Salbutamol is 2 agonoist

11- 1 agonist cause:

a- Increase in oxygen consumption.

b- Increasing ectotopic effect.
c- Increasing intotopic effect.
d- All of the above.
12- quinidine sulphate is:

a- Anti arrhythmic agent.

b- Anti malarial agent.
c- Anti hypertensive agent.
d- A & C.
13- procainamide is like:

a- quinidine (anti arrhythmic supra ventricular)

b- Nifedipine.
c- Lisinopril.
d- Cilazapril
14- Which one is not Ca channel blocker?

a- verapamil.
b- Deltiazem.
c- Amlodipine.
d- Cinnarzine.
15- Thiabendazole is one of the Thiazide diuretics:

a- False b- True

16- Thiazide diuretics cause all the following except:

a- Hypokalamia.
b- Hyponatrimia.
c- Hypercalcemia.
d- Hyperuricamia.
e- Hyperglycemia.
f- Hypernatremia.
17- Potassium supplement therapy must not be given with:

a- Triamterene, (diuretic increase excretion of sodium chloride but lessens potassium).

b- Aspirin.
c- Paracetamol.
d- Piroxicam.
18- Nitroprusside Na is:
 9

a- Potent vasodilator.
b- Potent diuretic.
c- Potent vasoconstrictor.
d- Anti arrhythmic agent.
19- All these drugs are anti-cholinergic except:

a- ipratropium.
b- Atropine sulphate.
c- Benzatropine methylate.
d- Dobutamin.
20- All of these are anticholinergics except:

a- Atropine sulphate.
b- Hydroatropine.
c- Ipratropium bromide.
d- Butrepium bromide.
e- Mebeverine.
21- Epinephrime has Alpha and Beta agonist activity so cause:

a- Increasing in heart rate and increasing in blood pressure.

b- Hypotension.
c- Decrease heart rate.
22- Dobutamine is given I.V. because:

a- It is not stable in gastric acid of stomach.

b- It is eliminated very quickly.
c- It is needed in large doses if taken orally.
d- It causes nausea & vomiting orally.
23- Dobutamine is used as:

a- parasympathomimmetic.
b- In cardiac surgery.
c- Hypotensive agent.
d- All of the above.
24- Hydrazine is used as antihypertensive through:

a- Vasodialaton.
b- Diuretic.
c- Decreasing cardiac output.
d- All of the above.
25- Which of these has no vasodilator effect?

a- Methyl dopa.
b- Hydralazine.
c- Enalapril.
d- Prazocin.
26- Which one has vasodilator effect?

a- nicotinic acid.
b- Nalidxic acid.
c- Vitamin A.
d- Urokinase. (anti-coagualant, anti, thrombotic,fibrinolytic).
27- Which one of the following has vasodilator effect?
 10

a- Nicotinc a
b- Cholestyramin.
c- Urikinase.
d- Vitamin A.
28- Zinnat contains:

a- Cefuroxime.
b- Cefaclor.
29- nintrofurantion is indicated for:

a- viral infection.
b- GIT infection.
c- Urinary tract infection (UTI).
d- URI.
30- Ipeca is emetic agent which induces emesis through:

a- Stimulation of the stomach.

b- Stimulation of the CTZ.
c- A & B.
d- Inhibition of the stomach through CNS.
31- Theophylline is:

a- Broncodilator.
b- 2 agonoist.
c- Causes bradicardia.
d- All of the above.
32- Theophylline does in children:

a- Increased metabolism & dose must be increased.

b- Decresed metabolism & dose must be increased.
c- Decresed metabolism & dose must be decreased.
33- The modern method to treat asthma is to use:

a- Long acting bronchodilator + corticosteroid.

b- Long acting bronchodilator only.
c- Corticosteroid for long period of time.
d- Short acting bronchodilator + steroids.
34- Treatment of anaphylactic reaction is indicated in the following except:

a- Hydrocortisone.
b- Cimetidine.
c- Human albumin.
d- Epinephrine.
35- Introduction of emesis is not indicated in the following except:

a- Caustic substance ingestion.

b- CNS.
c- Seizures.
d- Paracetamol poisoning.
36- All of these are anions except:

a- Phosphate.
b- Acetate.
 11

c- Sodium.
d- Chloride.
37- Triazole is:

a- Antifungal.
b- The trade name of clotrimazole.
c- The trade name of amphotrecin B.
d- Nyatatin.
38- Which minoxidil, all these parameters should be monitored except:

a- Urine flow rate.

b- Blood pressure.
c- Pulse rate.
d- Body weight.
39- Give two indications for allopurinol:

a- Prophylaxis from gout.

b- Treatment of high uric acid & calcium oxalate renal stones.
40- famotidine is H2 antagonist used for:

a- Treatment of gastric & duodenal ulcers.

41- Type 1 diabetes advises to use:

a- Insulin.
b- Glibenclamide.
c- A & B.
d- None of the above.
42- Type 2 diabetes advises to use:

a- Sulphonylurea.
b- Diet control.
c- Insulin.
d- All of the above.
43- Vasopressine is used for the treatment of:

a- Diabetes insipidus (used in bleeding oesophageal varices)

b- Diabetes mellitus type I.
c- Diabetes mellitus type II.
d- Hypertension.
44- Enalapril is the prodrug of:

Enalaprilate.

45- Which one is prodrug:

a- Pivampicillin.
b- Erythromycin.
c- Ampicillin.
46- 500 ml normal saline 0.9% contains 4.5 gm. Nacl.

47- misoprostol [cytotec = prostaglandin] inhibits gastric acid by blocking hydrogen-potassium adenosine
triphosphate enzyme system [ATP] of gastric cell:
 12

a- True
b- False.
48- Cytotec is [misoprostol]:

a- Used for gastric & duodenal ulcer.

b- Contraindicated in pregnancy.
c- Used for the upper respiratory tract infection.
d- A & B.
49- Simvastatin is used for hypolipidemic action.

50- acetohexamide (one of silphonyl urea) is hypoglycemic.

51- One of the following should be avoided in pregnancy:

a- Vitamin A.
b- Calcium.
c- Paracetamol.
d- Misoprostal.
52- Which one of the following is contraindicated in pregnancy?

a- Ciprofloxacin.
b- Ethambutol.
c- Chlorpheniramine.
d- Sucralfate.
53- Which one of the following is not contraindicated in pregnancy?

a- Methyldopa.
b- Enalapril.
c- Lisinopril.
d- Captopril.
54- All these medications are used in the treatment of T.B. except:

a- INH.
b- Rifampicin.
c- Cycloserin.
d- Cyclosporine.
55- INH means:

a- isoniazide.
b- Isonicotinic acid hydrazide.
c- A & B.
56- The duration of treatment of T.B. by CTC is:

a- One week.
b- Two week.
c- One month.
d- Six month & over.
57- calcipotriol ( daivonex) is indicated for:

a- Psoriasis.
b- Hypertension.
c- Calcium supplement.
d- Acne.
 13

58- Amantadine is used for all of the following except:

a- Antiviral.
b- For influenza A.
c- Anti-parkinsonism.
d- For influenza B.
59- All these drugs are antiviral except:

a- amantadine.
b- Zidovudine.
c- Acyclovir.
d- Aluerin. (anti spasmodic, spasmonal)
60- All are viral infection except:

a- Hepatitis B.
b- Influenza.
c- Herpes zoster.
d- Riketssia.
61- At the cardiac arrest (shock), the drug of choice is:

a- Epinephrine [same adrenaline = a hormone produced by the adrenal medulla on mammals].

b- Propranolol.
c- Hydrocortisone.
d- Saline solution.
62- Cardiac arrest could be managed by the following except:

a- Ephedrine.
b- Lidocine.
c- Normal saline.
d- Propranolol.
63- Drugs to pass B.B.B. should be:

a- Unionized hydrophilic.
b- Ionized hydrophilic.
c- Unionized lipophilic.
d- Ionized lipophilic.
64- chloramphenicol affects liver inhibitory enzyme, so:

a- Decrease metabolism & increases response.

b- Decrease metabolism & decreases response.
c- Increase metabolism & increases response.
d- Increase metabolism & decreases response.
65- Which one is an OTC drug?

a- Simple analgesic.
b- Warfarin.
c- Ciprofloxacin.
66- What is the most drug can cause damage if it is given OTC?

a- Warfarin.
b- Captopril.
c- Chlorothiazide.
d- Rifampicin.
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67- All are OTC drugs except:

a- Biscodil
b- Aspirin.
c- Antacids.
d- Tegretol.
68- All are non OTC drugs except:

a- Bisacodyl.
b- Metformin.
c- Phenytoin.
d- Carbamazepine.
69- All of these can be dispensed without prescription except:

a- Aspirin.
b- Maalox.
c- Bisacodyl.
d- Tegretol.
70- Morphine & morpin are similar in:

a- Addiction.
b- Miosis.
c- Analgesic.
d- All of the above.
71- oxytocin is one of the posterior pituitary hormones.

72- The concentration of the drug on expiration date is:

a- From 90-110%.
b- Not less than 90%.
c- Not less than 100%.
d- None of the above.
73- Surfactant not used orally:

a- Na lauryl sulphate.
b- Tween.
c- Span
74- Phenylephrine is used for:

a- Decongestant.
b- For runny nose.
c- Sympathomimmetics.
d- Vasoconstrictor and pressor (raise blood pressure).
e- All of the above.
75- Oxytocin produces all the following except:

a- Mammalian glands stimulation.

b- Uterine stimulation.
c- Labor induction.
d- Progesterone release.
76- Binding to plasma protein:

a- Increases half life.

 15

b- Decreases half life.

77- New & best therapy for peptic ulcer is:

a- Four medicines including antibiotic.

b- Use more than H2 antagonist.
c- Antacid + H2 antagonist.
78- in case of osteoarthritis & peptic ulcer of elderly patients use:

a- Paracetamol.
b- Strong NSAIDs.
c- Aspirin.
79- Suprax is:

a- Cefixime.
b- Itraconazole.
80- Which one is sporanox?

a- Itraconazole, (antifungal).
b- Miconazole.
c- Econazole.
d- Clotrimazole.
81- All these can be used in leprosy except:

a- Dapsone. [The drug of choice in leprosy].

b- Rifampicin.
c- Clofazimine.
d- I.N.H.
82- Betahistine dihydrochloride:

a- Antihistaminic.
b- Meniere,s disease.
c- Analgesic.
d- A & B.
83- Maximum use of paracetemol is:

a- 4 gm in 24 hours.
b- 7.5 gm in 8 hours.
c- 7.5 gm in 4 hours.
d- 7.5 gm in 48 hours.
84- Metoclopramide is a dopamine antagonista:

a- Acts centrally by blocking chemoreceptor trigger zone.

b- Acts peripherally.
c- Has an anti-emetic effect.
d- All of the above.
85- Cyproteron (Androcur) is used for:

Antiandrogen : decrease sexual ability.

86- Immunocompetent means?

Control resistant to infections.

 16

87- Immunocompromised means?

Low resistant to infections.

88- Voltaren Emulgel is:

a- Dicolfenac Diethlamine.
b- Diclofenac sodium.
c- Diclofenac potassium.
89- Pneumocystis Carini Pneumonia [PCP] is:

a- Parasite.
b- Virus.
c- Bacteria.
d- Mycobacterium.
90- Which one the following is not antibiotic?

a- Erythromycin.
b- Cefprozil.
c- Ceprodoxin.
d- Finasteride.
91- Which one of the following is used in Benign prostatic hyperplasia [BPHP]?

a- Finasteride, (proscar).
b- Flumazenil.
c- Cefprozil.
d- Mevacurim.
92- Indication(s) of Allopurinol is (are):

a- Prophylaxis of gout.
b- Treatment of uric acid and co-oxalate renal stones.
c- A & B.
93- Otrivin is:

a- Xylometazolinel.
b- Phynylepherine.
94- Which one of the following is not mucolytic?

a- Bromhexine.
b- Carbocisteine.
c- Ambroxol.
d- Guaifenesin.
e- Dextromethorphan.
95- Which one is Antiplatelet?

a- Ticlopidine hydrochloride.
b- Aldesleukin.
c- Desflurane.
d- Atovaquone.
96- Ticlopidine is used as:

a- Antiplatelet.
b- Antibiotic.
 17

c- Anticholinergic.
d- Anti-coagulant.
97- All these drugs are fibrinoltic except.

a- Urokinase.
b- Anistreplase.
c- Streptokinase.
d- Dipyridamole.
98- All these are anti-platelets except: 49

a- Aspirin.
b- Dipyridamol.
c- Presentin.
d- Ticlopidine.
e- Streptokinase.
99- All these are anti-coagulant except:

a- Warfarin.
b- Ancord.
c- Heparin.
d- Dipyridamole (antiplatelet).
100- Anti-coagulant effect of warfarin is decreased by:

a- Aspirin.
b- Rifampicin.
c- Vitamin K.
d- Verapamil
101- Aspirin is recommended with one of the following.

a- Anti-coagulant.
b- Chicken pox.
c- Influenza symptoms.
d- Dysmenorrhea.
102- Which one is not oral anti-coagulant?

a- Warfarin.
b- Nicoumolone.
c- Phenidione.
d- Enoxaprine, (deep vein thrombosis)
103- Enoxprine is taken subcutaneous

104- Phenobarbitone induces liver microsomal enzymes, when taken with warfarin anti-coagulant leads to:

a- Increasing the activity of liver enzymes.

So decreases the activity of warfarin.

b- Increasing the activity of liver enzymes.

So increases the activity of warfarin.

c- Decreasing the activity of liver enzymes.

So increases the activity of warfarin.

d- Decreasing the activity of liver enzymes.

 18

So decreases the activity of warfarin.

105- Drug which increases the action of warfarin is:

a- Carbimazole.
b- Oral contraceptive.
c- Phenobarbitone.
d- None of the above.
106- Drug which decreases [antidote] the action of warfarin is:

a- Carbimazole.
b- Oral contraceptive.
c- Phenobarbitone.
d- Vitamin K.
107- Which one of the following is an enzyme inducer?

a- Rifampicin.
b- Cimetidine.
c- Chloramphenicol.
d- Vitamin C.
108- Which one reduces the metabolism of other drugs in the liver?

a- Rifampicin.
b- Vitamin C.
c- Cimetidine.
d- Metrinidazole.
109- Which one induces the metabolism of other drugs in the liver?

a- Rifampicin.
b- Vitamin C.
c- Cimetdine.
d- Metronidazole.
110- Give the antidote of each of the following drugs.

Heparin -Protomin Zinc.

Paracetamol -Acytylcystiene.

Warfarin -Vitamin K.

Iron -Desferroxamine (chelating agent).

Cyanide -Na thiosulphate.

Copper & Lead -Pencillamine.

Heavy metals -Dimercaprol. (organic compound)

Insulin & oral hypoglycemic -Dextrose.

Digoxine -Protamine sulphate.

Opioid -Noloxone.
 19

Morphine -Naloxone.

111- To prevent more toxicity of digoxin we use antidote which is:

a- Digbind.
b- Digotoxin.
c- Charcoal.
d- Saline.
112- The antidote of heparin available in fish is:

Protamin sulphate.

113- Hepatotoxicity is induced due to these drugs except:

a- Rifampicin.
b- Ketoconazole.
c- Quinolones.
d- Dipyridamole.
114- Give an example of a drug inducing hepatotoxicity:

a- Paracetamol.
b- Ketoconazole.
c- Rifampicin.
d- Quinolones.
115- The cause of death in morphine toxicity is:

a- Respiratory failure.
b- Heart block.
c- A-V block.
116- To prevent more absorption of the toxic drug we use:

a- Charcoal.
b- Water.
c- Salt solution.
d- Saline.
117- The common side effect of sulphonylurea is:

a- Hypoglycemia.
b- GIT upset.
c- Thyrotoxicosis.
d- All of the above.
118- The side effects of insulin are:

a- Local reaction.(urticaria)
b- Hypoglycemia.
c- Fat dystrophy at the side of injection.
d- All of the above.
119- One of the following is the main side effect of insulin:

a- Hypoglycemia.
b- Fluid retention.
c- Hyperglycemia.
d- All of the above.
 20

120- Pseudomembranous colitis is a side effect of:

a- Clindamycin.
b- Vancomycin.
c- Reserpine.
d- INH.
121- All these are side effects of chloramphenicol except:

a- Irreversible a plastic anemia.

b- Optic neuritis.
c- Peripheral neuritis.
d- Iron deficiency anemia.
122- All of these are corticosteroids except:

a- Methyl prednisolone.
b- Prednisolone.
c- Triamcinolone.
d- Beclomethasone.
e- Dexamethasone.
f- Ondansteron [5HT3 receptor antagonist, anti emetic].
123- All of these are anti-neoplastics except:

a- Aldesleukin.
b- Teniposide.
c- Pentostatin.
d- Amlodipine.
124- All of these are antimetabolites (cytotoxic) except:

a- Methotrexate.
b- Cytarabin.
c- Azathioprine.
d- Mercaptopurine.
e- Fluorouracil.
f- Cyclophosphamide.
125- Levodopa is used with Carbidopa for the treatment of Parkinsonism.

126- All of these are true for Levodopa except:

a- Precursor of dopamine.
b- Stimulates dopamine.
c- Effective in Parkinsonism.
d- Does not pass B.B.B.
127- Specific Serotonin reuptake inhibitors are used as:

a- Antihistaminic.
b- Antidepressant.
c- Antihypertensive.
d- Anti-emetic.
128- Fluoxatine (Prozac) is:

a- SSRI antidepressant.
b- Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor.
c- A & B.
 21

129- Ondansetron HCI is used for:

a- Emecis.
b- Anagina pectoris.
c- Prophelaxis of migraine.
d- Hypertension.
130- Which one is not 5 HT3 antagonists?

a- Tropisetron.
b- Ondansetron.
c- Granisetron.
d- Domjperidone, (peripheral dopamine receptor antagonist)
131- The drug of choice for febrile convulsion in children is:

Diazepam 250 microgram / Kg.

132- Which one is correct?

a- Diazepam is not used for long time.

b- Diazepam is taken I.M. only.
c- Diazepam is derived from morphine.
d- Diazepam can cause muscle spasm.
133- Drug of choice in status Epilepticus is:

Diazepam.

134- The following are the indications of Diazepam, except:

a- Antipsychotic.
b- Epilepsy.
c- Hypnotic.
d- Headache.
135- All the following used in treatment of anxiety except:

a- Propranolol.
b- Diazepam.
c- Mebrobamate.
d- Homotropine.
136- All of these are anti-parkinsonism except:

a- Amantadine.
b- Bromocriptine.
c- Selegitine HCL.
d- Lysuride.
e- Pergolide.
f- Levodopa.
g- Primidone.
137- All these drugs can be used for Parkinsonism except:

a- Selgitine HCL.
b- Carbidopa.
c- Pergolide.
d- Nedocramil sodium.
 22

138- One of the following is not used for epilepsy:

a- Clorizepam.
b- Phenytoin.
c- Primidone.
d- Imipramine.
139- All the following used in epilepsy except:

a- Sodium valproate.
b- Carbamazepine.
c- Phenytoin.
d- Nedocromil sodium (tilade inhaler).
140- One of the following not used in epilepsy:

a- Clonazepam.
b- Phenytoin.
c- Primidone.
d- Imipramine (tricyclic antidepressant).
141- All of the following are controlled drugs except:

a- Rivotril.
b- Stesolid.
c- Carbamazepine.
d- Barbiturates.
e- Diazepam.
f- Primidon.
g- Epanutin.
h- Imipenem.
i- G & H.
142- Controlled drugs present in pharmacy are:

In tightly closed shelves.

143- Give the name of:

Vitamin B1 -Thiamine HCI.

Vitamin B2 -Riboflavin.

Vitamin B3 -Niacine

Vitamin B5 -Panthothenic acid.

Vitamin B6 -Pyridoxine HCI.

Vitamin B9 -Folic acid.

Vitamin B12 -Cyanocobalamine.

144- Zidovudine is used for:

a- HIV.
b- AIDS.
 23

c- P.U.
d- A & B.
145- There is one drug used for HIV.

a- Zalcitabin.
b- Kinasterdin.
c- Cefaproxil.
d- Enoxacin.
146- Omprazole:

a- Acts as proton pump inhibitor.

b- Blocks the hydrogen-potassium ATP enzyme system.
c- A & B.
147- M.M.R. vaccine is:

a- Measles-Mumps-Rubella V.
b- Measles-Mumps-Rabies V.
c- Meningococcal polysaccharide-Measles-Rubella V.
148- Hepatitis vaccine does is:

a- Three times / year.

b- Twice / year.
c- Once / year.
149- Maximum dose of captopril is 150 mg / day.

150- Schedule of immunization of HBV is:

a- Single does.
b- Two dose.
c- Three dose.
d- Five days.
151- Maximum recommended dose of Ibuprofen is:

a- 800.
b- 1600.
c- 2400.
d- 3000.
152- Child of 10 Kg. paracetamol dose for him is:

a- 100-150 mg. / 4-6 hours.

b- 125-250 mg. / 4-6 hours.
c- 250-500 mg. / 4-6 hours.
153- Maximum dose of Paracetamol is 4 mg. / day.

154- Maximum dose of Diclofenac sodium is:

a- 50 mg.
b- 75 mg.
c- 100 mg.
d- None of the above.
155- Vitamin A daily dose for the correction of deficiency

Is 30,000 50,000 IU.

 24

Vitamin A daily dose for therapy

Is 100,000 200,000 IU.

156- Insulin which can be given I.V. is:

a- Regular type.
b- 30 / 70 type.
c- NPH type.
d- None of the above.
157- One of the following insulin is given once daily:

a- Protamine zinc insulin.

b- Amorphous insulin.
c- Neutral insulin.
d- Regular insulin.
158- Source of human insulin is E-coli by:

a- Biosynthetically by recombinant DNA technology using E-coli.

b- Semi synthetically by enzymatic modification of protein material.
c- A & B are correct.
159- When you store drug at low temperature you must consider the following:

a- Storage of dusting powder below 00C

causes the accumulation of granules.

b- Storage of cream & ointment below 50C causes cracking.

c- Storage of insulin below 00C causes aggregation of insulin.

d- All of above.

160- Insulin is preserved at:

2 80C.

161- Drug is used for Leishmania:

a- Na stiboglyconate.
b- Na cromoglyconate.
c- Mebendazole.
162- All these drugs are antibacterial except:

a- Cefprazone.
b- Lomifloxacin.
c- Zalcitabine.
163- All these are natural estrogens except:

a- Estradiol.
b- Estrone.
c- Estriol.
d- Mestronol (androgen).
 25

164- Estrogen:

a- Reduces the incidence of coronary diseases in postmenopausal women.

b- Can be taken for life time.
c- Are ineffective when taken orally.
165- Co-trimethoxazole contains:

Trimethoprim + sulphmethoxazole.

1: 5

166- Which is not from quinolone group?

a- Nalidixic acid.
b- Eoxacin.
c- Norfloxacin.
d- Ciprofloxacin.
e- Ciprofloxacin. [fluroquinolones]
f- Ofloxacin.
g- Sparfloxacin. Lemofloxacin.
h- Aminosidine.
i- Quinine. [antimalarial]
j- H & I.
167- Quinolones are contraindicated in children because:

a- Affect joints.
b- Affect liver.
c- Do not affect children.
168- Sumatriptan is used for:

a- Treatment of migraine and headache.

b- Angina pectoris.
c- Control of epilepsy.
d- Hypertension
169- All of the following for prophylaxis if asthma except:

a- Ketotifen.
b- Nedocromil sodium.
c- Sodium cromoglycate.
d- Salbutamol. (for treatment only)
170- All of the following are NSAH (nonsedating antihistamin) except:

a- Loratidine.
b- Cetrizine.
c- Astemizole.
d- Azotodin.
171- Which one of these symptoms does not occur with morphine?

a- Respiratory depression.
b- Constipation.
c- Vomiting.
d- Diarrhea.
172- Which one of these drugs is not used for acute pain?
 26

a- Naproxen.
b- Clochicine.
c- Ibuprofen.
d- Codeine.
e- Prednisolone.
173- Which one of these drugs is drugs of choice for Myxodema (hypothyroidism)?

a- Thyroxin sodium.
b- Carbimazole.
c- Iodine.
d- Propyl thiouracil.
174- Benzyl peroxide is a local treatment for acne vulgaris.

175- The drug of choice for treatment of amoebae is:

a- Metronidazole.
b- Chloramphenicol.
c- Gentamycin.
d- Tetracycline.
176- The steady state concentration of the drug in the plasma depends on:

a- Direct proportion to the rate of elimination.

b- Indirect proportion to the rate of elimination.
c- Direct proportion to the rate of administration.
d- Indirect proportion to the rate of administration.
177- What is the mechanism of action of vitamin K?

Vitamin K has an essential role in the synthesis of coagulation factors by hepatic cells, and increases formation
of clotting factors.

178- Elimination of digoxin is mainly by:

a- Kidney.
b- Liver.
c- A & b.
d- None of the above.
179- Drug physical dependence is as same as drug abuse.

a- True.
b- False.
180- What is difference between the following antifungals?

Terbinafine = Local & systemic.

Miconazole = Local & systemic.

Amphotercin = Parentral only.

Griseofulvin = Oral.

181- Terbinafine is used topically for:

a- Fungal infection.
 27

b- Eczema.
c- Candida sp.
d- None of the above.
182- Amiloride as a treatment causes:

a- Hyperkalaemia.
b- Hypokalaemia.
c- CNS disturbance.
183- Moduretic is a combination between:

Amiloride + hydrochlorothiazide.

184- Give the indication of the following drugs:

Gimfibrazole = for hyperlipidaemia.

Cisapride = for gastro-oesphegyal reflux.

Fluxetin = SSRI as sedative serotonin reuptake

Inhibitor =

Carbimazole = hyperthyroidism.

Imipramine = tricyclic antidepressant.

Ipratropium bromide = anti muscarinic as bronchodilator.

185- Cefaclor is:

a- 1st generation cepharosporins.

b- 2nd generation cepharosporins.
c- 3rd generation cepharosporins.
186- Teicoplanin antibiotic has similar effect on gram positive bacteria as:

a- Vancomycin.
b- Jamicain.
c- Gentamycin.
d- Kanamycine.
187- Which one is not tetracycline?

a- Minocycline.
b- Demeclocycline.
c- Doxicycline.
d- Clindamycin.
188- Tetracycline with Ca & Mg:

Poorly absorbed compound from GIT.

189- Use of tetracycline in its expiry date make syndrome called:

Fanconi syndrome.
 28

190- Tetracycline when taken with minerals such as calcium, iron and aluminium forms a chelate which is:

a- Inactive & poorly absorbed.

b- Active & poorly absorbed
c- Inactive & not absorbed
d- Active & absorbed.
191- Which is not true with tetracycline?

a- Broad spectrum bacteriostatic.

b- Used for acne.
c- Inhibits protein snthesis.
d- Broad spectrum bactericidal.
192- Mesalazine is used for the treatment and maintenance of remission of ulcerative colitis.

193- Mention four lipid soluble vitamins.

Vitamin A, D, E and K.

194- Imipenam (carbapenam)

It is the first thiemamycin - lactam antibiotic.

195- All of these are antibiotics except:

a- Cefopodoxin.
b- Cefaprozil.
c- Loefloxocin.
d- Zaloltabin.
196- Metoclopramide is a dopamine antagonist acts centrally by blocking chemo-receptor Trigger zone &
peripherally acts on GIT to be used as anti-emetic.

197- What is the definition of Bioavailability of the drug?

Is the quantity of the active constituent of the drug absorbed by the blood through the intestine or any other
route in a certain period of time?

OR: Is the concentration of the drug in the blood in a ascertain period of time.

198- Bioavailability of the drug is:

a- Rate of absorption.
b- Extent of absorption.
c- Rate & extent.
199- Biotransformation is:

a- More lipids soluble.

b- Less lipids soluble.
200- Omeprazole is:

Losec (proton pump inhibitor)

201- Mention two diseases cause Edema:

 29

a- Renal failure.
b- Congestive heart failure.
202- Example of drug-drug interaction:

a- Warfarin - Aspirin.

b- Warfarin - Phenobarbital

c- Warfarin - Vitamin K

d- Warfarin - Phenobarbital

e- Heparin - Insulin

g- INH - Insulin

h- Digoxin - Spironolactone

i- ACEI - Potassium sparing K.

203- All of these are the components of calamine lotion B.P. except:

a- ZnO.
b- Calamine.
c- Sodium citrate.
d- Bentonite.
e- Sodium sulphate.
204- All of these are third generation cephalosporins except:

a- Cefixime.
b- Cefopodoxime.
c- Ceftraxone.
d- Cefotaxime.
e- None of the above.
205- Which one is not benzodiazepine?

a- Temazepam.
b- Nitrozepam.
c- Loprazolam.
d- Clozapine.
206- Oral rehydrate solution is one of the following:

a- NaCl + K citrate + Na citrate + glucose.

b- Na citrate + KCl + NaCl.
c- Na citrate + KCl + NaCl.
d- NaCl + KCl + NaHCO3 + citric acid.
207- For hyperlipidemia we use:

Gemfibrozile.

208- Gemfibrozile:

a- Increases HDL & decrease triglysrides.

 30

b- Increases HDL & triglysrides

c- Increases HDL & LDL.
d- Increases LDL & triglysrides.
209- Drugs need monitor for their serum lavel:

Amikacin

Warfarin

Theophyline

Digoxin.

210- For fluxacillin, all these statements are wrong except:

a- It is better absorbed than Cloxacillin.

b- It is taken by oral route only.
c- It is activated by penicillinase enzyme.
d- It is base stable.
211- What are the instruction for the patient take Metamucil or any other bulk foaming laxative as Bran, methyl
cellulose and psyllum?

The adequate fluid intake should be maintained to avoid intestinal obstruction.

212- Mention drugs from HMG-CoA-reductase inhibitor.

Simvastatin, Provastatin and Fluvastatin.

213- HMG-CoA-reductase inhibitor is:

3 hydroxy, 3 Methyl Glutoryl CoA reductase inhibitor.

214- Caciferol is:

a- 1.25 dihydroxy calciferol.

b- 1.2 dihydroxy calciferol
c- 2.3 dihydroxy calciferol.
d- None of the above.
215- Pharmacodynamic means:

a- Physiological and biochemical effect of the DRUG on the BODY.

b- Physiological and biochemical effect of the BODY on the DRUG.
c- None of the above.
216- Pharmacokynetic means:

a- Physiological and biochemical effect of the DRUG on the BODY.

b- Physiological and biochemical effect of the BODY on the DRUG.
c- None of the above.
217- Sympathomimetic drugs:

a- Increase blood pressure.

b- Increase coronary flow.
c- Increase heart rate.
 31

d- All of the above.

218- Bactrim (co-trimazole ) is:

a- Trimethoprim + sulphamethoxasole.
b- Trimethaprim + sulphonylurea.
219- The most common chemical structure of iron in drug is:

Ferrograd (ferrous sulphate).

220- Ferrograde is:

a- Ferrous sulphate.
b- Ferrous citrate.
c- Ferrous gluconate.
d- Ferrous fumarate.
221- Impenem (carbepenem) is:

First thienamycin -lactam antibiotic.

222- Isomack 20 mg tablets taken twice daily at time interval between:

a- 8 am pm.
b- 11 am 11 pm.
c- 8 am 11 pm.
d- 11 am 8 pm.
223- Valtrex is:

Acyclovir.

224- Keflex is:

a- 1st generation cephalosporin.

b- 2nd generation cephalosporin
c- 3rd generation cephalosporin
d- 4th generation cephalosporin.
225- Clonididne used in:

a- Hypertension.
b- Hypotension.
c- None of the above.
226- Micromedex is:

Computer system.

227- In a bottle we have NaCl 500 ml, and to obtain we should add what volume of H2O to get percent dilution 3
(H2O) : 1 (NaCl)?

a- 1500 ml.
b- 2500 ml.
c- 3000 ml.
228- How much lidocaine for solution of 1/1000 to obtain 30 cc:

a- 0.03.
 32

b- 0.3.
c- 30.
d- None of the above.
229- Grain equal:

64.8 mg = 0.065 gm

230- When drug is used for U.T.I. it should be:

a- G-ve.
b- G+ve.
c- BOTH.
d- None of the above.
231- One of the following is not NSAID:

a- Xefo.
b- Voltic.
c- Parafon.
d- None of the above.
232- One of the following has faster systemic action:

a- I.V.
b- I.M.
c- S.C.
233- Intrathecal means:

Interjoint (spinal cord).

234- Patient having constipation not to take:

Morphine.

235- Natural emulsifying agent:

Gum acacia.

236- Olive oil + Water + Asq gives:

a- Emulsion.
b- Solution.
c- Suppositories.
237- Isoptin is present in market in concentration:

240 & 80 mg.

238- Isoptin is used in treatment of:

Supraventricular arrythmia.

239- All of these are precautions of becotide except:

Used only at the attack of asthma.

 33

240- Alcohol present in pharmacy as antiseptic is in concentration:

70%

241- Klacid is used every:

12 hours.

242- Intralipids are:

O/W emulsion.

243- Zantac contains:

Ranitidine.

244- Which is present in balms or liniments & not used inburns?

Methyl Salicylate.

245- The drug of choice for head lice.

a- Pyrithrins.
b- Imidazole.
c- DDT.
d- Primido.
246- One of the following preparations used as otic drops for dewaxing:

a- 5% glycerin bicarbonate.
b- 5% alcoholic bicarbonate.
c- Glycerin magnesia.
d- Glycerin phenol.
247- Disulfiram is used for:

a- Treatment of chronic alcohol dependence.

b- Protection of lover cells from alcoholism.
c- Prevention of conversion of acetaldehyde to acetic acid.
d- All of the above.
248- The drug metabolism in the body occurs in:

a- GIT & plasma.

b- Gut wall during absorption.
c- Gut wall during absorption & I plasma stream.
d- Liver, kidney and bowed mucosa.
249- Protein bounds to drug forming a compound which is:

a- Inactive while the free part is active.

b- Highly active while the free part is inactive.
c- Less active while the free part is active.
d- Active while the free part is more active.
250- The drug transfers through cell membrane by:

a- Aqueous diffusion.
 34

b- Osmotic pressure.
c- Lipid dissolves.
d- None of the above.
e- A & B is correct.
251- Clonidine is used as:

a- Antihypertensive.
b- A drug which prevents the recurrence of migraine.
c- A & B.
d- None of the above.
252- New non-selective antihistamines act through:

a- H1 antagonist.
b- H2 antagonist.
c- Muscarinic receptors.
d- 1 antagonist.
253- Give an example of no sedating anti-histamines:

Loratidine Cetrizine Terfenadine.

254- Astemizole is a long acting non-sedating anti-histamine.

255- Atropine is used as pre-anaesthetic to:

a- Decrease saliva.
b- Makesskeletal mscle relaxation as the effect of parasypathomimmetics.
c- Help the sleeping effect of anaesthesia.
d- Treat the side effect of anaesthesia.
256- Metoclopramide gives anti-emetic effect through:

a- Peripheral action.
b- Dopaminergic receptor.
c- Muscarinic receptors.
d- All of the above.
257- All the following are macrolides except:

a- Clarithromycin.
b- Roxithromycin.
c- Erythromycin.
d- Apiramycin.
e- Azithromycin.
f- Sisomycin.
g- Clindamycin.
h- F & G.
258- Tilade inhaler generic name is:

a- Azelastine HCl.
b- Budesonide.
c- Sodium cromoglycate.
d- Nedocromil sodium.
259- The main use of metronidazole is:

a- Anti amoebiasis.
 35

b- Anthelmentic.
c- Antibiotic.
d- Antimalarial.
260- All these are antibacterial except:

a- Lomefloxacin.
b- Cefprozil.
c- Cefpodoxime.
d- Zalcitabine.
261- The drug of choice in myxodema (hypothyroidism):

a- Thyroxin sodium.
b- Carbimazole.
c- Tadenn.
d- Propyl uracil.
262- Benzyl peroxide is alcohol treatment for:

a- Acne vulgaris.
b- Rheumatic pain.
c- Angina pectoris.
d- Dysmenorrheal.
263- Teicoplanin antibiotic affect on G+ve bacteria similar to:

a- Vancomycin.
b- Neomycin.
c- Gentamycin.
d- Kanamycin.
264- All these are broad spectrum cephalosporin except:

a- Cefexime.
b- Cefuroxime.
c- Cefotaxime.
d- Cefopodoxime.
265- Aminoglycosides are:

a- Tobramycin.
b- Kanamycin.
c- Neomycin.
d- Netilmicin.
e- Streptomycin.
f- Amikacin.
g- Aminosidine sulfate.
h- Sisomycin.
266- Which aminoglycoside antibiotic can be taken orally?

a- Neomycin sulphate.
b- Gentamycin
c- Mikacin.
d- Tobramycin.
267- Which one is not aminoglycoside:

a- Netillmicin.
b- Tobramycin.
 36

c- Kanamycin.
d- Lymecyclin.
268- Give two side effects of aminoglycosides:

Nephrotoxicity ototoxicity.

269- Give an example of drug inducing nephrotoxixity:

Aminoglycosides as Gentamycin.

270- Baclofen is used for:

a- Antispasticity with spinal site of attack.

b- Tuberculosis.
c- Meningitis.
d- None of the above.
271- Expectorants are:

Iodides.

Chlorides.

Bicarbonates.

Acetates.

Squil.

Guaiphenesin.

Ipecauanha.

Creostesl

Volatile oils.

272- Praziquentel used for Billhariasis:

a- Caused loss of intercellular calcium of the worm.

b- Has trade name Biltricide.
c- A & B.
273- Acitretin is used for:

a- Oral treatment of severe forms of psoriasis and disorders of keratinization.

b- Leprosy.
c- Tuberclosis.
d- None of the above.
274- Which of the following has no vasodilating effect?

a- Methyldopa.
b- Hydralazin.
c- Prazosin.
d- Enalapril.
 37

275- Patient with G6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, the drug may cause haemolysis:

a- Sulphonamide.
b- Paracetamol.
c- Pencillin.
d- Ketoconazole.
276- G-6PD deficiency patients must not take:

a- Cotrmazole (sulphonamide).
b- Pencillin.
c- Paracetamol.
d- Dexamethasone.
277- Pentobarbital (often used as pre medication in children) differs from phenobarbital in:

a- Long duration.
b- Faster in action.
278- Glucocoticoids (any steroid hormone promotes gluconeogenesis, i.e. the formation of glucose and glycogen
from protein) used in:

a- Bronchial asthma.
b- Addison disease.
c- A & B.
d- None of the above.
279- Use of calcitonin:

a- To lower plasma Ca concentration in some patients with hyper calcaemia (excessive calcium in the blood.
b- Relieving some neurological complications e.g. deafness.
c- Treatment of Paget disease (hypercalcemia associated with pain).
d- All of the above
280- Generic and trade names of sulphonylurea:

Chlorpropamide = diabenase.

Glibenclamide = Daonil & Euglucon.

Glicazide = Diamicron

Glipizide = Minidiab

Tolbutamide = Rastinone.

Acetohexamide = Dimilor.

Glimipiride = Amaryl.

281- Generic and trade name of antispasmodic drugs:

Hyoscine N butyl bromide = Buscopan & Scopinal.

Propantheline bromide = Probanthine.

Oxyphenonium = Anternyl.
 38

Mebeverine HCl = Duspatalin.

Alverine = Spamonal.

282- Generic and trade name of NSAIDs:

Acetyl salicylic acid = Aspirin.

Ibuprofen = Brufen.

Diclofenac sodium = Voltaren.

Fenbufen = Cinopal.

Diflunisal = Dolobid.

Indomethacin = Indocid, indogesic and Rothacin.

Ketoprofen = Profenid.

Naproxen = Naprosyn.

283- Generic and trade names of anti malarial drugs.

Cloroquine = Malarex & resochin.

Primaquine = Primaquine.

Pyremethamine + Sulfadoxine = Pansidar.

284- List of the trade name of the following:

Pindolol = Visken.

Baclofen = Lioresal.

Omeprazole = Losec.

Acitretin = Neotigasone.

Isotretinoin = Roaccutane.

Orlistat = Xenical.

Hexoprenaline = Ipradol.

Khellin = Lynamine.

Sildenafil = Viagra.

Pivampicillin = pondocillin.

Bufexamac = Droxaryl.
 39

Codergocrin = hydergine.

Acarbose = Glucobay.

285- Use of gentian violet (crystal violet) :

a- Antiseptic.
b- Skin disinfectant.
c- All of the above.
286- The concentration of crystal violet paint is:

2.5% according to B.P. 1980.

1% according to U.S.P. 1985.

287- Give six generic names of cough sedatives:

Codeine.

Dextromethorphan.

Phlocodein.

Methodone.

Morphine.

Isobarmiline.

289- What is the difference between retard and entetic coated tablets?

Retard tablets:

Are coated with a thin layer of different kind of coating agent which make the active constituent
sustained release.

Enteric coated tablets:

Are dissolved in the intestine and not affected by the stomach juices e.g. anthelmentic. Passes
the stomach & releases in the intestine.

290- Sustained release tablets depend on:

PH of stomach.

291- Controlled released drug delivery depends on:

a- Ready programmed & no influence of the body fluid.

b- Enzymatic reactions.
c- Body fluid interaction.
d- Stomach Ph.
292- A child of weight 10 kg. Accidentally swallowed 10 tablets of aspirin and his father came to you, what can you
advice him?
 40

a- Go to a hospital.
b- Give him a medicine.
c- Ignore the case.
d- None of the above.
293- A patient of 10 kg is given a paracetamol one teaspoonful every 4-6 hours, you should call the doctor to tell
him:

a- There is no need to call the doctor.

b- The dose must not exceed 180 mg daily.
c- The dose is not sufficient.
d- The dose is very high.
294- Treatment with an anti arrhythmic drug depends on the following except:

a- Patient sex.
b- Type of medication.
c- Period of medication.
d- Doctors advise.
295- When newly married don't want children, how to arrange:

a- Arrange contraception.
b- Send the wife to the family doctor.
c- Send the wife to her mother.
296- Pharmacy of central hospital is:

a- Central pharmacy only.

b- Contains store.
c- All of the above.
297- Patient take phenytoin and his hair be less growth. You advice him:

a- Go to doctor.
b- Stop the drug.
c- Give him another drug.
d- This is normal side effect.
298- Roaccutan is prescribed to patient who is women 22 years old, you ask?

a- If she is pregnant.
b- Consult doctor.
c- Give her the drug directly with no questions.
d- None of theabove.
299- What is the meaning of poor patient compliance?

The patient did not take the medication properly (no proper dose, no proper time) may be because the
dose regimen is not easy or the dose is high or the side effects

are clear.

Patient dose not take medication as the physician's advice.

300- If you have prescription containing Inderal & the patient is wheezing, what is your

advice?

Call the doctor.

 41

301- Patient has hepatic disease & type II diabetics take:

Rosiglitazone or piaglitazone (Avandia, Glustin)

303- A patient has a prescription of Enalapril + KCL, what do you ask him?

a- Which product of KCL do you need?

b- Do you take any other antihypertensive?
c- Do you need syrup or tablet?
d- None of the above.
1- The major action of sodium chromoglycate is:-
A-mast cell stabilization
b-bronchodilator
c-prostaglandins modifier
d-leukotrienes modifier
e-none of the above
2-The action of histamine is :
a-capillary constriction
b-elevation of blood pressure
c-stimulation of gastric secretion
d-skeletal muscle paralysis
e-slowing the heart rate
3-One of the following antibiotics is resistant to penicillinase:
a-penicillin V
b-penicillin G
c-floxapen (Flucloxacillin)
d-ampicillin
e-amoxicillin
4- Inderal is :
a-similar in action to ergotamine
b-similar in action to tubocurarine
c-used as an antihistamine
d-pure beta -adrenergic receptor blocker
5- Rifampicin is indicated for treatment of :
a-impaired fat absorption
b-pulmonary emboli
c-tuberculosis
d-neoplastic disorders
e-psoriasis
6- Which of the following is non-selective 1 blocker ?
a-labetalol
b-terazosin
c-clonidine
d-captopril
e-verapamil
10- Erythroped (Erythromycin) A :
a-is effective against G +ve Cocci
 42

b-is a macrolide antibiotic

c-can increase g.i.t. motility
d-could be used in pregnant women if need
e-all of the above
11- For the treatment of anaphylactic shock use :
a-salbutamol
b-diphenhydramine
c-acetazolamide
d-epinephrine
e-aminophylline
12- Allopurinol is used as :
a-analgesic agent
b-uricosuric agent
c.antiinflamatory agent
d-antipyretic agent
e-agent which increases renal tubular reabsorption
13- Which of the following is NOT betamethasone side effect ?
A-cataract
b-hypoglycemia
c. skeletal muscle weakness

d-sodium retention

e. lowered resistance to infections

14- A disease which is due to viral infection :

a-poliomyelitis
b-rabies
c-chicken pox
d-herpes
e-all of the above
15- The mechanism of action of atropine is :
a-muscarinic antagonist
b-muscarinic agonist
c.nicotinic antagonist
d-nicotinic agonist
e.none of the above
16- Myocardial muscle tissue property to generate electrical is :
a-inotropy
b-chronotropy
c-automaticity
d-contractility
e-none of the above Dromotropic effect"
17- The heart`s dominant pacemaker is :
a- AV node
b- SA node
 43

c-pukinje fiber
d-internodal pathways
e-none of the above
18- Adenosine is used for :
a-ventricular arrythmias
b-atrial bradycardia
c-supraventricular tachycardia
d-supraventricular bradycardia
e-non of the above
19- Adenosine P produces which of the following :
a-facial flushing
b-dyspnea
c- marked tachycardia
d- a and b
e- a , b and c
20- Which of the following is responsible for buffering
a-magnesium
b-chloride
c-bicarbonates
d-potassium
e-troponin

21- Respiratory acidosis is due to :

a- O2 removal
b- O2 retention
c- CO2 removal
d- CO2 retention
e. none of the above
22- Which of the following is NOT colloid solution ?
a-albumin 5%
b-ringer`s solution
c-dextran
d-beta starch
e-albumin 20%
23- The term shock signifies :
a-hyperperfusion
b-hypoperfusion
c-tachycardia
d-bradycardia
e-none of the above
24- In treatment of shock , which of the following should be considered?
a-airway control
b-IV of crystalloid solution
c-dopamine to support blood pressure
 44

d-monitor heart rhythm

e-all of the above
25- Which of the following is released by bacterial infection?(by bacterial cell wall during their
growth)
a-endotoxin
b-exotoxin
c-antibiotics
d-cytotoxin
e-none of the above
26- the amount of water in adult male is about:
a-25%
b-60%
c-80%
d-10%
e-17%
27- Which of the following are causes of edema?
a- Increased hydrostatic pressure
b- Decreased oncotic pressure
c. increased capillary permeability
d- a and b
e- a , b and c
28- Patients prescribed non -reversible monoamine oxidase inhibitor should be advised not to

consume food containing tyramine because this combination causes:

a-postural hypotension
b-hallucinations
c-anaphylactic shock
d-muscle weakness and tremor
e-acute adrenergic crisis including sever hypertension
29- Concerning COX 2 inhibitors , which is NOT true?
a-they have lower risk gastric adverse reactions
b-good evidence about their effectiveness
c-cardiac toxicity is a recent concern of this class
d-they usually administrated twice daily
e-combination with non -selective agents give more effective action
30- In the treatment of osteoporosis which of the following is NOT true?
a-alendronate should be taken 60 min. before breakfast
b-Ca and vit. D are essential
c-hormone replacement therapy should be considered
d-outcome should be assessed with periodic bone density
e-raloxifene is selective oestrogen modulator
31- Which of the following is the first choice in acute gout?
a-allopurinol
b-indomethacin
 45

c-colchicine
d-probencid
e-sulfinylpyrazone
Note: NSAIDs are First Line treatment in Acute Arthritis.
32- Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteoparalysis?
a.minimal exercise
b-low calcium intake
c-male gender
d-family history
e-minimal exposure to sunlight
33- Early symptoms of aspirin poisoning are :
a-lethergy & fatigue
b-skin rash & headache
c-throbbing headache & dizziness
d-fluid retention hypotension
e-ringing in the ears(Tinitis) & blurred vision
34- Which of the following is NOT true about infiximab
a-IL-1 blocker
b-used for treatment of severe rheumatoid arthritis
c-may increase risk of infections
d-administered as IV infusion
e-post administration reactions include fever & chills
35- A disease modifying drugs in rheumatoid arthritis:

a-gold preparations
b-hydroxychloroquine
c-methotrexate
d- a and b
e- a , b and c
36- A patient who is admitted through the E.R. with an initial diagnosis:
a-slow ventricular response using verapamil
b-start lidocaine infusion
c- considered anti-coagulation with warfarin
d- a and c
e- b and c
37- Which of the following is true about surgical prophylaxis?
a-it is given to treat surgery associated infections
b-it is given to reduce the possibility of surgical site infection
c-should always be given regardless type of surgery
d-should be continued for 7 days after surgery
e-all are true
38- When diagnosis of diabetes to be considered:
a-WBC count with differential
b-oral glucose tolerance test
c- HBA1c
d- a and b
 46

e- b and c
39- The usual daily dose of phenytoin in the range of:
a- 1-5 mg
b- 15-60 mg
c.300-600 mg
d-130 mg
40- Goals of diabetes mellitus management include :
a-reduce onset of complications
b-control symptoms of diabetes
c-near normal glycemic control and HBA1c
d- a and b
e- a , b and c
41- When dosing insulin which of the following is true?
a-initial dose 0.6 u / kg / day split 2/3 a.m and 1/3 p.m
b-regular NPH ratio is 1 : 1 or 1 : 2
c-dose may need to be increased during acute illness
d- b and c
e- a , b and c
42- What first line agent may be considered for an obese type 2 ?
a-glyburinid
b-insulin
c-metformin

d-nateglinid
e-repaglinid
41-30gm of 1% hydrocortisone mixed with 40 gm 2.5% hydrocortisone what is the
concentration of the resulting solution? a)
3% b) 1.85%
c)10% d) none of the above
30gm--------------1%(1/100) ------------=0.3gm
40gm--------------2.5%(2.5/100) -------=1gm
So, 70gm-------------X(%)--------------=1.3
So, the con. Result =1.3/70=0.0185, 0.0185*100=1.85%
42- These are non- aqueous pharmaceutical solutions:
a-otic soln. , mouth washes and nasal soln.
b-essences , collodions and elixirs
c-gargles , douches and irrigation soln.
d-syrups , mucillages and collodions
e-enemas , liniments and spirits
43- A solution is made by dissolving 17.52 g of NaCl exactly 2000 ml.
What is the molarity of this solution?
a- 3.33
b- 0.15
c- 1.60
d-3.00 x 10 -4
e-1.6x10 -4
 47

Morality=mole/volume (L)
Mole=molecular weight of subs. In 1 grams
So, molecular weight of NACL=23+34=57
So, Mole=17.52/57=0.307g
So, Morality=0.307/2(L)=0.153g/L
44- Which of the following drugs exhibits dose dependent pharmaceutical therapeutic doses ?
a-Na valproate
b-phenytoin
c-lithium
d-quinidin
e-carbamazepine
45- Propranolol is often prescribed with hydralazine to:
a-reduce the reflex tachycardia
b-prevent the accumulation of hydralazine.
c-prevent systemic lupus ( SLE ) due to hydralazine.
d-prevent edema
e-increase absorption of hydralazine
46- The ability of a liquid to dissolve is :
a-hydrophilicity
b-miscibility
c-immiscibility

d-solubility equilibrium
47- Which of the following is NOT correct ?
a-glitazones are ineffective as mono therapy
b-GIT disturbance are common side effects of glycosidase inhibitors-a
c-start with small dose of oral agent and triturate up to 1-2 weeks
d-life style modification should not be enforced if an oral agent to be started
e-lispro is rapid acting insulin to be dosed immediately before meals
48- In CHF management the following is not correct:
a-ACEIs such as lisinopril improves left ventricular function and reduces mortality
b-blocker such as carvedilol may have beneficial effect in selected patient
c-spironolactone should be avoided because of the great risk of hyperkalemia
d-non drug therapy includes appropriate fluid and dietary sodium-restriction
e-symptomatic improvement is one of the major assessment criteria for proper therapy
Note: Spironolactones are used in CHF to promote cardiac contraction.
49- Which of the following is NOT a primary literature
a- Journal of pharmacy practice
b-applied therapeutics & clinical use of drugs
c-new England Journal of medicine
d-Loncet
e- JAMA
50- References to check compatibility of drugs in parentral administration:
a- MERCK Index
b-handbook on injectable drugs
c-micromedix
 48

d- a and b
e- b and c
51- When a CNS depressant is prescribed, which of the following is NOT taken at the same
time?
a-analgesic
b-verapamil
c-aspirin
d-diphenhydramine
e-orange juice
Note: Diphenhydramine also has CNS Depressant Effect.
52- A 4 mg dose of lorazepam administered to a adult will act as :
a-analgesic
b-hypnotic
c-diuretic
d-antihistaminic
e-anticonvulsant
53- The drug of choice to control pain during acute myocardial infarction is :
a-naloxone
b-pethidine
c-morphine

d-celecoxib
e-naproxen
54- What is a major contraindication to the use of an OTC sympathomimetic drug :
a-gastric ulcer
b-uncontrolled hypotension
c-severe asthma
d-rheumatoid arthritis
e-hypertension
Note: Sympathomimetics cause increase in B.P.
55-Category C in FDA for drug used in pregnancy :
a- controlled studies fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the trimester and there is no
evidence of risk in later trimester
b- fetal risk NOT demonstrated in animal studies but there are no controlled studies in pregnant
women or animal reproduction studies have shown an adverse effect that was NOT confirmed
in controlled studies in women during trimester
c-either animal study have revealed adverse effect on the fetus and there are no controlled
human studies or studies in animal and women are not available
d- There is positive evidence of human fetal risk but the benefits of use in pregnant woman may
be acceptable despite the risk
56- What advice would you give to a patient prescribed rifampicin?
a-take this medication with food or milk
b-avoid multivitamin preparations during treatment
c-avoid taking paracetamol during treatment
d-possible discolouration of skin is of no importance
e-this medication may cause discoloration of urine
 49

57- Correct method of parentral administration of potassium is :

a-fast I.V. injection
b-slow I.V. injection
c-I.M. injection
d-IP(intra-peritoneal) injection
58- Which route of administration would provide the most
rapid onset of action response to morphine ?
a-oral
b-S.C.
c-I.V.
d-I.M.
e-rectal
59- The long term administration of thiazide diuretics requires:
a- K+
b- Na+
c- Ca++
d- CO3
e- acetate
60- Fifty micrograms equals:

a-50000 nanograms
b- 0.05 milligrams
c- 0.0005 g
d- a and b
e- a and c
Note: To get smaller Quantity multiply by 1000,i.e. 50g*1000=50000g
To get Larger Quantity, divide by 1000,i.e. 50g/1000=0.05 mg
61- When considering drug therapy for hypertension, which is true?
A-combination of drugs always preferred
b-hydralazine is first line therapy in young hypertension
c-furosemide should be administrated before meal to improve absorption
d-beta-blokers should be avoided in asthmatic patient
e- ACEIs are recommended in pregnant women
62- Which of the following is NOT used in theophylline toxicity management :
a-symptomatic control of seizures with benzodiazepine
b-activated charcoal to enhance elimination
c-b blocker for tachycardia
d-control vomiting with metoclopramide
e-methylphenidate to reduce excessive sedation
63- Regarding the use of ACEIs :
a-associated hypokalemia could be avoided by giving K-supplement
b-effective in reducing proteinuria in diabetic patient
c-most common side effect is chronic dry cough
d-a good first line treatment for hypertensive diabetic
e-dose should be started low and triturated gradually upward in need
64- Regarding treatment of digoxin toxicity:
 50

a-verify time of last time

b-check Mg and K levels and correct if needed
c-monitor ECG
d-no antidote for digoxin e-supportive care
65- The antimalarial to avoid in glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase(G-6-PD) deficiency :
a-primaquine
b-quinine
c-chloroguanide
66-HOW can prepare 100 ml of 12% MgCl by taking?
a-12ml of MGCL dissolve in 100 ml water
b-12 mg of MGCL dissolve in 100 ml water
c-12ml of MGCL dissolve in 1000 ml water
d-90.5 ml of MGCL dissolve in 100 ml water
e-.95 ml of MGCL dissolve in 100 ml water
68-The following is NOT characteristic of solution:
a-thermodynamically stable
b-composed of two or more component that exist in one phase
c-homogenous

d-the solvent and solute can be separated by filtration

e-solute doesn`t precipitate as time passes
69- Role of carbidopa in treatment of Parkinsonism.
a- Serotonin reuptake
b- dopamine agonist
c- Decrease dopamine METABOLISM in peripheral vessel
d- Dopamine antagonist
e- 5HT1 antagonist
70- Role of B-blockers in angina. :
Suppress activation of the heart so decrease work of the heart by decrease cardiac output
71- When drug absorbed through GIT then go to liver and excreted this process called
a- first pass
b- drug metabolism
c- drug distribution
72- All the following anti -inflammatory, analgesic effect except
a-ibuprofen
b- aspirin
c- naprosyn
d- sevredol
73- which of the following need filtration before IV infusion
a- mannitol
b- dextrose 5%
c- insulin
d- Suspension
e- emulsion
74-azaleic acid used in
a-acne
 51

b- psoriasis
c- myocardial infarction
75- which hormone are secreted from posterior pituitary gland
a- oxytocin
b- growth hormone
c-adrenocorticosteroid hormone
76- to increase duration of lidocaine in anesthesia
a- propranolol
b- succinyl choline
c- epinephrine
d- Atropine
Note: Epinephrine causes vasoconstriction at the site of application, thus prolonging duration of
action of Lidocaine.
77- Drug absorption depend on
a- age
b- sex
c- dosage form

d- Drug state
e- A and B
78-monitoring for dose in elderly patient:
a- excretion in kidney decrease
b- decrease in liver enzymes function
c- reabsorption is high
d- metabolism is high
e. a ,b
79-which of the following cause metallic taste
a- captopril
b- cimetidine
c- metformin
d-...Metronidazole
Note: Metronidazole causes metallic taste & Captopril causes Lack of sense of Taste( Tastelessness).
80- which of the following are characteristic for Erythroped
a- not effective against G +ve cocci
b- not macrolide antibiotic
c- can increase GIT motility
d-can not used in pregnant women if needed
e- none of the above
81- which of the following are characteristic for Erythrosine:
a-not effective against G+ve cocci
b- has amino glycoside antibiotic
c-decrease GIT motility
d-should not be used in pregnant woman if need
e-could be used in pregnant woman if need
82-the optimal size for ophthalmic drops:- < 10g
83- Amphetamine is used in:
 52

Defect of awareness in the brain of children. (ADHD)

84-if packaged are written for expiry November 2006 it mean that can be used till
a- 1 November
b- 31 November
c- 30 November
d- 31 December
Note:As November consists of only 30 days.
85-The mechanism of action of Buspiron through
a-5HT antagonist
b-GABA agonist
c-dopaminergic agonist
d-dopaminergic antagonist
e-Partial agonist at 5HT-1A
86- Nitroglycerine introduces:
Coronary vasodilatation.

87- Omeprazole used to:

Decreases gastric acid secretion & Peptic Ulcer.
88- which of the following has aldosterone antagonist effect
a- amiloride
b- furosemide
c- spironolactone
d- hydrochlorothiazide
Note: Aldosterone& Triamterone are Aldosterone Receptor Anatgonists.
89-which of the following change color of the urine to red:
nitrofurantoin , rifampicin
90- if patient take Gentamicin for a time which of the following need monitoring test
a- serum creatinine level
b- liver enzyme test
c- Hemoglobin test
d- serum glucose
91-which of the following is antiarrhythmic class a:-
a- lidocaine
b- propranolol
c- amiodarone
d-Quinidine
92- Class antiarrythmic drugs produce its action through:-
a- decrease rate of phase 0 depolarization
b- increase phase 3 repolarization
c- suppress phase 4 depolarization
d- adrenergic receptor blocking
e- shorten action potential
93- Antiarrythmic drug class b produce its action through:-
a- decrease rate of phase 0 depolarization
b- increase phase 3 repolarization
d- decrease phase 4 depolarization
 53

d- adrenergic receptor blocking

e- shorten phase 3 repolarization
Note: Action of Anti-Arrythmics on Heart Action Potential:
IA Na+ channel blocker Slows Phase 0 depolarization in ventricular muscle fibers
IB Na+ channel blocker Shortens Phase 3 repolarization in ventricular muscle fibers
IC Na+ channel blocker Markedly slows Phase 0 depolarization in ventricular muscle fibers
II -Adrenoreceptor blocker Inhibits Phase 4 depolarization in SA and AV nodes
III K+ channel blocker Prolongs Phase 3 repolarization in ventricular muscle fibers
IV Ca2+ channel blocker Inhibits action potential in SA and AV nodes
94- Chiral molecule mean:-
a-dipole moment
b- solubility
c- chelating prep.

d-optical activity.
95-lovastatin produce action through:-
HMG-co reductase inhibitor.
96- lisopril , zinopril or zestril is found in :-
a-captopril
b- fosinopril
c- ramipril
d-Lisinopril
97- om is abbreviation for at morning.
98- ophthalmic prescription are written through following
( gtt tod Bid ) this mean:-
a- give one drop to right eye twice daily
b- give one drop to left eye twice daily
c- shake well and then give one drop to left eye twice daily
d- shake well and then give one drop to right eye twice daily.
99-tegretol is used in ttt of:-
Status epileptic, seizures.
100- Streptokinase is used in ttt of:-
Pulmonary emboli.
101-all the following are antifungal except:-
a- Nystatin
b- Amphotericin
c- Ketoconazole
d- Gamciclovir.
102- ceftazidime is:-
a- first generation cephalosporin
b- second generation cephalosporin
c- third generation cephalosporin
d- fourth generation cephalosporin
103- Bambuterol is used in:-
Treatment of asthma.
104- Drug used in ttt of traveler diarrhea:-
 54

a-ampicillin
b- amoxicillin
c- co-trimoxazole
d- ciprofloxacin
105- Which organism are the cause of traveler diarrhea:-
E-coli.
106-diazepam used in:- anxiety.
107-solid to be reduced in size before dissolving called:-
. Disintegration
108-Benzodiazepine mechanism through:-
binding subunit of GABA-A receptor.
109-Vinca alkaloids produce anticancer drugs :- vincristine , vinblastine . Vindesine. Vinorelbine

110- warfarin monitoring therapy by:-

a- INR (international Normalize Ratio)
b- platelet count
c- APTT
d- lipid profile
111-in ovulation phase which hormone is predominant:-
a-FSH
b-LH
c- progesterone
d- progesterone and LH
112-vencuronium is used as :- skeletal muscle relaxant.
113-most common process for sterilization:-
a- filtration
b- dry heat
c- moist heat
114-which of the following need serum level monitoring with Quinidine:-
a-Digoxin
b- albutrol
c-ampicillin
d-Diazoxide
115- side effect of epinephrine is:-
a- nausea , vomiting
b- headache , constipation
c- hypoglycemic effect
d- ischemic damage
e- skin rash
116-drug used for ttt of migraine and HTN:-
a-clonidine
b- minoxidil
c- Propranolol
d- hydralazin
117- can't be used as monotherapy in mild HTN:-
a- hydralazine
 55

b- losartan
c- pindolol datenolol
e- hydrochlorothiazide
118- which of the following has cathartic side effect:-
a- aluminum silicate
b- magnesium sulphate
c- calcium sulphate
119-normal water can be used in:-
a- parentral prep.
b-ophthalmic prep.
c- oral susp.

d-external prep.

120- Ecothiophate(Phospholine Iodide) mechanism through:-

a-binding to muscarinic receptor
b- cholinergic antagonist
c- make complex with anticholinesterase and inhibit its action
121-tetracaine is used as:-
a-opoid pain
b- vitD metabolite
c- spinal anesthesia
d- neuromuscular blocker
122-half life for first order kinetic:-
a- k
b-1/k
c- 2k
d- 0.693k
123-adsorption are affected by the following except:-
a- physical Rx
b- chemical Rx
c- irreversible
d- reversible
e B,C
124- Charcoal produce its action through:-
a- adsorption
b-neutralization
c-absorption
d-a+b
125- Digoxin used in ttt of CHF as has:-
a-+ VE inotropic effect
bve ionotropic effect
c-chronotropic
d-ectotropic
126- PPM mean:- part per million OR million part
127-all are causes of 2ry HTN except:-
 56

a- phyochromocytoma
b- cholinergic agent
c- sod. intake
Note: Cholinergics reduce BP, Pheochromocytoma is tumor secreting Catchecholamines ,thus
produced secondary Hypertension.
128-pt CHF take digoxin and hydrochlorothiazide with ray arthritis which of the following drugs
can be used :-
a-cortizone
b-hydrocortisone
c-fluticazone
d-prednisolone
129-if a drug has the same active ingredient like other drug but not contain the same inactive
ingredient this mean :-
a- Bioequivalent
b-pharmaceutical equivalent
c- Pharmaceutical alternative
d- A,B
130- conc. of a drug is 7.5 mg in teaspoonful what will be conc. in 150 ml:-
7.5 mg________ 5ml x? mg________ 150 ml
x mg=7.5x150/5 =225 mg
131- prep. containing coal tar 30 part & petroleum 15 part adeq. to 150 part what conc. of coal
tar in 500 ml:-
15 parts in 150ml
X parts will be in 500ml, x=15*500/150, x=50 parts of petroleum
132-which of the following is not colloid
a-kerbs solution
b- albumin 2%
c- Dextran
d- Beta starch
e- albumin 20%
133-sildenafil is found in Viagra.
134-Alteplase is used:- therombolytic
135- salbutamol is used as:-
bronchodilator
136-podocodeine is used in dry cough
137-which of the following not used in emergency HTN:-
a- furosemide
b- pindolol
c- labetolol
d-Captopril
138-Doxorubicin side effect :-
a- cardiac toxicity
b- nephrotoxicity
c- postural hypotension
d- arrhythmia
139- which of the following not used in ttt of asthma:-
 57

a- B2 agonist
b-B2 antagonist
140- Which of the following is alkylating agent and anticancer
a-vinblastine
b- cisplatin
c- Cyclophosphamide
d- vicristine
141- Very small molecule (1 part ) soluble in 10,000 part of water
a- fairly soluble
b- b- Very slightly soluble
C-immiscible
d- miscible
e- insoluble
142-benzoil not soluble in H2O but soluble in benzene in 25 c
a- polar
b- non polar
c-soluble
d- insoluble
e- slightly polar
143- one of the following is member of phenothiazines group
Prochlorperazine
144-primidone is prodrug for ( antiepileptic drug ).
145- Daily recommended dose for folic acid: 400-700g/day
146- Daily recommended dose for vit. C in male :-
a-30mg/day
b-50 mg/day
c-90mg/day
d-200
mg/day
e- 400 mg/day
147- Daily recommended dose for vit. C in female :-
a-30mg/day
b-50 mg/day
c-90mg/day
d-200 mg/day
e- 400 mg/day
148- max. daily dose for paracetamol is ( 4000 mg )
149- Ergot alkaloids is used as Uterine Relaxant eg Methylergonovine
150- Buffering agent used in ophthalmic drops to:-
Decrease irritation to eye and increase stability
151- Sodium picosulphate is used as Contact/Stimulant/Irritant Laxative.
152- Digoxin toxicity increase with:-
a- renal failure
b- hepatic pt
c- Asthmatic pt
153- All the following are side effect of oral contraceptive except:-
 58

a-hypertension
b-weight gain
c- Hyperglycemia
d- dizziness
e- constipation
154-which of the following narcotics not used today:-
a- morphine
b- b- heroin
c- nicotine
d- codeine
155- drug stored in the body in:-
a- fat
b- muscle
c- connective tissue
d- lipid
e- protein
156-which of the following dosage form are famous:-
a- solution, gel, oint.
b- oint , gel , solution
b- oint, solution , gel
e- solution , oint , gel
157- in case of hepatic or renal failure which muscle relaxant is recommended :- Cis-Atracurium
158- Heparin can be monitored through :-
a- APTT
b- INR
c-PT
d-IM
159-Enoxaparin is administrated:-
a- IM
b- IV
c- S.C.
d- IV infusion
160- if drug protein binding increased or decreased:-
a- half life
b- half life
c- side effect
d- action
e- a,b
161-3rd generation cephalosporin has:-
a- G+ only
b- G-ve only
c- G+ve , G-ve
162-solubility enhanced through :-
a- reduce particle size
b- increase surface area
c- increase particle size
 59

d- decrease surface area

e-A&B
163- determination analysis of solution depend on :
a-nature of solute
c- type of solution
d- c-analyzer
d- a.b
164-when use liquid or oint. to dissolve the solid it is called :-
Levigation
165- phenytoin act on :-
a-GABA receptor
b- Voltage-Gated Sodium channel blocker
c- Ca+2 channel blocker
166- NSAIDs produce action through:-
Decrease prostaglandin synthesis
167- which of the following not characteristic of theophylline:-
a- relaxation to bronchial smooth muscle
b- increase cardiac contractility, CO
c- nausea , abdominal disturbance
e- convulsion
d- sedation
168- what is drug of choice in ttt of bronchospasm/asthma:-
a-salbutamol (albutrol )
b-theophylline
c-propranolol
d-esmolol
e- quinidine
169- which of the following cause depression :-
a- ampicillin
b- reserpine
170- PREVOC(Ticlopidine) is trade name used as:-
a- anticoagulant
b- antiplatelet
c- antibiotic
d- antiasthmatic
171- pound = 0.453 kg
172- sustained release dosage form is used to
a-increase half life
b- drug have low therapeutic index
173- drug after metabolized in liver it will become:-
a-polar
b- non polar
c- lipophilic
d- insoluble
174- Loading dose definition:
 60

A larger than normal dose (D*) administered as the first in a series of doses, the others of which are
smaller than D* but equal to each other. The loading dose is administered in order to achieve a
therapeutic amount in the body more rapidly than would occur only by accumulation of the
repeated smaller doses. The smaller doses (D) which are given after D* are called maintenance
doses. The effect of D* on C becomes relatively less with each succeeding maintenance dose;
finally Css,max and Css,min are determined by D, and are uninfluenced by D*.
The relative sizes of D and D* can be adjusted so that peak plasma concentrations (Cmax) are the
same following every dose, including the first with D*, and all are equal to Css,max. These
conditions are met when D/D* = 1-f.
175- in phase 1 in muscle contraction occur:-
a-depolarization for k in
b- repolarization to ca out
c- Depolarization for K+ Out
176- half life of drug is 7 days HOW can taken:-
a- every day
b- twice daily
c-twice weekly
d- every week
177- diltiazim classified as :
. Ca channel blocker
178-B carotine is precursor of :
a-retinol
b- thiamine
c-riboflavin
d- pyridoxine
e- calcefirol
179- electrical property which produce impulses called :
a-conduction
b-automaticity
c-velocity
d- excitability
180- infusion of hypotonic solution in blood cause :
a) shriniking of blood cell
b) hemolysis
c) hyperglycemia
d) hypoglycemia
e) b + d
181- infusion of hypertonic solution in blood cause :
a)shriniking of blood cell
b) hemolysis
c) hyperglycemia
d) hypoglycemia
182- How many gm of substance X must added to 2000 gm of 10% substance X solution in order to
prepare 25% of substance x solution:
a) 10000
b) 400
 61

c) 40
d) 10
e) 0.4
Using Allegation Method:
(X)gram of 100% substance needed to make 25% solution will be(25%-10%= 15 gram)
2000gram of 10 % substance needed to make 25 % solution will be(100%-25%=75gram)
So, 2000gm -------------75gm
X gm -----------------15gm
So, X gm =15x2000/75 =400 gm
183- How gram needed from drug , if 0.1 gm in ml , if 5 one teaspoonful doses contain 7.5 gm of
drug
?
a) 0.0005
b) 0.5
c) 500
d) 1.5
e) 1500
184- denaturation will happened in body for which compounds?
a-penicillin
b- proteins
c- lipid
d-carbohydrate
185- major metabolism proccess in GIT is:-
a-hydrolysis
b- acetylation
c- oxidation
d-conjucation
186- dosage form of nitroglycrin when used in malignant hypertension
?
a-IV
b-IM
c- S.C
d- infusion
e- transdermal
187- drug induced lupus like syndrome is associated with antihypertinsive ?
a-minixidil
b- hydralazine
c- dioxide
d-nitroprusside Na
e- acebutol
Note : The most common drugs that cause Drug-induced Lupus Erythematosus (DILE) include:
Hydralazine, Procainamide, Quinidine, Isoniazid, Diltiazem& Minocycline.
188- Hypothyroidism cause :-
a-weight gain
 62

b- hypoglycemia
c-low body temp
d-high metabolic rate
189- ACE I mechanism of action as antihypertension ?
- inhibition of converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II
190- About definition of first pass effect , it increase with:-
a- increase rate of absorption
b- increase biotransformation
c- increase pka
d- A&B
191- metal used in rheumatoid arthiritis :
a-gold
b-Silver
c-copper
d-Iron
192- low density lipoprotein(LDL) act as :
a-carrier cholesterol in plasma
b- transport fatty acid
c- good lipoprotien.
193- true solutions another name is:-
a- homogenous
b- heterogenous
c-emultion
d- suspension
194-about ophthalmic preparation as single dose which is false:-
a-sterile
b- purified
c-should contain preservative
d-pyrogen free
195-most of drugs are :
a-Weak electrolyte
b-Non electrlolyte
c-Non ionic
d-Strong electrolyte
e-B+ C
196-90% of substance X solution , 50% of substance X solution , how mixing both to give 80% of
substance X solution ?
a- 3: 1
b-1:3
c-10:30
d- 5: 9
e- B + C
Calculation using Allegation Method:
90% of X to make 80% will be 10gm,
 63

50% of X to make 80% will be 30gm,

So the Ratio will be , 30:10 or 3:1
197- antipseudomonas drug :
a-metronidazole
b-nystatin
c- primaquine
d-vancomycin
198-digoxin differ from digitoxin :
a-Half life
b-Excreted hepatically
d-Excreted unchanged in urine
199- In digoxin induced arrythmia , what is not recommonded?
a-stop digixin administration
b-phenytoin administration
c-give lidocaine
d-give digoxin immune fab
e-electrical cardioversion
200- which is not asthma properties :
a-Bronchodilator
b-Bronchospasm
c-Increase mucous secretion
d-Chest pain
201- hormone excreted from adrenal cortex :
a-Growth hormone
b-Primary product c-mineral corticoids (eg, aldosterone) d-glucocorticoids (eg,
cortisolndrosterone)
e-weak androgens (eg, dehydroepiandrosterone)
f=c+d+e
202- Immunosuppressant agent cannot used in organ transplantation:
Predisolone
203- all of following are side effects of methotrexate except :
a-Bone marrow depression
b-Alopecia
c-Nausea and vomiting
e-Drive sex gland
204- mechanism of action of antipsychotic drug :
Dopamine receptor inactivation
Note: Psychosis is caused due to excess Dopaminergic activity in the brain.
205- ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in :
bilateral renal artery stenosis
206- about cardioglycosidic effect :
a--ve inotropic
b-+ve inotropic
c-Hypertension

d-Tachycardia
 64

e-Bradycardia
207-all factors affect on distribution of drug except :
a-Tissue solubility
b-Protein binding
c-Molecular weight of drug
d-Type enzyme response of metabolism
208-all factors affect on renal clearance except :
a-Age
b-Sex
c-Both
d-Disease state
209- ointment used for :
a-Carrier of drug
b-Emollient
c-A&B
d-Increase absorption
e-Increase distribution
210- in hypodynamic shock treatment we used :-
a- dopamine
b- nicotine
c- aspirin
211-acyclovir used to :
Herpes simplex
212- lady take chronic warfarin , which is not true
a- avoid aspirin containing prepration
b-avoid doubling dose from herself
c-balanced food with green leaves to avoid thrombosis
d-if she pregnant, monitor INR to avoid DVT
e-take care about nasal bleeding
213- which of following is least sedative action ?
A-Diazepam
B-Estazolam
C-Triazolam
D-Temazepam
214- which drug has spasmolytic action?
a-Reserpine
b-Amphetamine
215-desmopressin used in :-
Nocturnal enuresis
216.pentophylline used for :
a-peripheral vasodilator
b-Hypertension
c-Cough suppressant Indications

Pentofylline is indicated in diseases, causing disorders in the peripheral perfusion, and in

diabetes, atherosclerotic and inflammatory disorders, including shank ulcers; gangrene;
 65

diabetic angiopathy; intermittent claudication; Raynauds disease. In acute disorders of the

brain perfusion, including ischemic stroke and resultant conditions. Acute disorders of the
retinal blood supply.
217-2 mg \ L solution , according ppm :
a-2 ppm
b-0.002 ppm
c-0.000002 ppm
218- normal water used for :
a-Eye preparption
bParentral preparation
c-Solution
d-Emulsion
e-External preparation
219- ceftazidime :
3rd generation
220-about amino glycoside , which is not true ?
a-Has gram ve activity
b-Less toxicity
c-Narrow therapeutic
d-Compatible with other drug
e-Usually IV , IM
221- about nor epinephrine not true :-
a-increases B.P
b-vasoconstrictive
c-used in cardiogenic shock
d-effective orally
e-S.C
222- Pharmacokinetic constant follows :-
a-Zero order
b-1st order
c-2nd order
d-Mixed order
e-A+ B
223- Which of the following is NOT prednisolone side effect ?
a-cataract
b-hypoglycemia
c-skeletal muscle weakness
d-sodium retention
e-lowered resistance to infections
224- When concidering drug therapy for hypertention , which is true?
a-combination of drugs always preferred
b-hydralazine is first line therapy in young hypertension

c-furosemide should be administrated before meal to improve absorption

d-b-blockers should be avoided in asthmatic patient
e- ACEIs are recommended in pregnant women
 66

225-solutions are better than solid dosage form coz:

a-Accurate dose
b-Easy to handle
c-More stable
d-Faster action
e-B + C
226- One of following NOT used to cover bitter taste:-
a-Film coat
b-Enteric coat
c-Grinding of tablet
227-which of following tricyclic antidepressant is tertiary amine?
Amitriptyline
228- antihypertensive used in pregnancy ?
Alpha Methyldopa
229-drug used for peptic ulcer ?
Losec
230- drug infusion rate is 2mg\kg\hr , infused for 12 hours , for 70kg patient. what is total dose?
(2x70x12)=1680 mg
231-( GMP) mean:-
a-Good Manufacturing practices
b-Good Manu factor Product
c-General Manufacture Protocol
d-General Manufacture Product
232-how many gm of water add to 5% KCL soln to make 180 gm of solution(w\w)?
5gm--------------100
Xgm--------------180
X= 5x180/100=9 gm
So, the amount of water is:- 180 - 9 =171 gm
233- according to sterile method which of the following is false about filteration:-
a-able to filtter viscous substance
b-able to filter heat-labile substances
c-able to filter heat stable substances
234- when you know the preservative used with antibiotic is not suitable you make:-
a- use another one is suitable
b- add another to increase it is activity
c- use two or more preservative may increase the activity and may become suitable
d- a+c
235- deltiazem & nifedipine &flocdipine act as
- block Ca to intracellular & increase metabolism from storage site
236- All of this affect rate of absorption except:-
a- chemical stability

1.Prescription Must contain all of the following Except :

name of the patient
Diagnosis
 67

Single or Married
Dosage form

2.If the Prescription is not clear:

Return it to the Doctor
Give it to the Pharmacist
Dispense the clear drugs
Return it to The patient

3.which of the following drugs not used in Acute pain:

Morphine
Phentanyl
Naloxone
Dexamethasone

4.which of the following is parenteral rout of administration:

subcutaneous
IM
IV
All of the above

5.Insulin Storage at:

0c
4-8 c
24 c
25 c

6.Which of the following blocker used in ophthalmic preparation?

Timolol
Propranolol
Labetalol
Pindolol

7.Fluoxetine belong to:

Proton pump inhibitor
ACEI
 68

Selective Serotonine reuptake inhibitor

Oral hypoglycemic

8.Treatment of Hypertension in pregnant woman:

Captopril
Verapamil
Methyl dopa
All above

9. Dose of Klacid (Clarithromycin):

three times per day
twice per day
once
four times per day

9.Atenolol sold in KSA under trade name of:

Indral
Tenormin
Capoten
Zovirax

10.Atenolol is :
alpha blocker
non selective beta blocker
selective beta 1 blocker
beta agonist

11.trade name of Fosinopril is:

Capoten
Reinetic
Zestril
Monopril

12.Heparin is:
Antiplattlet
Anticoagulant
 69

Fibrinolytic
Analgesic

13.Advantage of Salbutamol over other bronchodilator:

Long acting
More potent
Low side effect
Fast Acting

14.Which of the following drugs are not OTC:

Aspirin
Bisacodyl
Tegretol
Malox

15.Side effect of oral Hypoglycemia:

Hyperglycemia
Hypoglycemia
Hypernatremia
Hypertension

16.Generic name of Zantac:

Rantidine
Cimitidine
Famotodine
Nizatidine

17.Diltiazim is:
beta blocker
Ca channel blocker
Na channel blocker
Alpha blocker

18.over dose of panadol can be treated with:

Naloxone
EDTA
 70

Vitamin K
Acetyl Cystiene

19.qod means:
three times daily
every day
four times daily
every other day

20.qid means:
three times per day
two times per day
four times per day
once daily

21.bid means:
three times per day
two times per day
four times per day
once daily

22.tid means :
three times per day
two times per day
four times per day
once daily

23.about Tetracycline all of the following are right except:

It can suppress the growth of bacteria
It binds to bacterial Ribosome
Active against G+ve and G-ve
Safe for children use without affecting color of teeth

24.all of these drugs are controlled drugs except:

morphine
Nalbuphine
 71

Aspirin
Methadone

25.Opoid toxicity can be treated with:

Paracetamol
Naloxone
Deferroxamin
Vitamin K

26.Dapson is :
Beta lactam Antibiotic
Cephalosporines
Sulpha drug
Antacid

27.Rheumatoid can be treatment with:

Gold derivatives drugs
Platinum derivatives drugs
Silver derivatives drugs
Non of the above

28.Concentration of normal saline:

9%
5.3 %
0.9 %
90 %

29.which of the following dosage form can be administrated orally:

Spray
Suppositories
Ointment
Elixir

30.Aspirin used as:

Analgesic
Antipyretic
 72

Antinflammatory
All above

31.which of the following drugs inhibit liver enzymes:

Paracetamol
Epanutine (phenytoin)
Cimitidine
Aspirin

33- Which of the following drugs Induce liver enzymes:

a- Rifamicin
b- Rantidine
c- Cimitidine
d- Acyclovair

34.Side effect of Atropine:

Diarrhea
Headache
Dry mouth
Constipation

35.Amphotricine is:
Antibiotic
Antifungal
Antiviral
Antiprotozoal

36.Vassoprossine used in treatment of:

Diabetes mellitus
Diabetes Insipidus
Hyperthyrodism
Hypothyrodism

37.Maximum dose of Diclofenac ( Voltaren):

1000 mg/ day
200 mg/day
 73

4000 mg/day
3200 mg/day

38.Side effect of Buscopan:

Diarrhea
Headache
Dry mouth
Constipation

39.Metformin used as:

Antibiotic
Antihypertensive
Oral hypoglycemic
Antianginal

40.pseudomembranous colitis treated with:

omeprazol
mebindazol
metronidazol
Amoxil
The disease is treated either with oral vancomycin or with intravenous metronidazole

41.IM administration Site of Injection:

Arm
Restus Lateral (lateral restus in the eye)
Buttocks
All of the above

42.the Latin abbreviation for four times:

qid
bid
tid
qd

43.Zinnat is:
First generation cephalosporin's
Quinolon
 74

Aminoglycosides
Second generation cephalosporin's

44.which of the following is not beta Agonist:

Salbutamol
Salmetrol
Pindolol
Albutrol

45.Amoxicillin + clavulinic present in:

Ciprobay
Augmentin
Zantac
Klacid

46.Warfarin over dose can be treated with:

vitamin A
Acetyl custiene
Protamin sulphate
Vitamin K

47.Quality control is control of:

condition
specification
shelf life
all above

48.Which of the following effect is not considered in formation of suspension:

use of chelating agent
of whiting agent
particle size
non of the above

49.Streptokinase is indicated for:

Pulmonary embolism
Impaired fat absorption
 75

Tuberculosis
Neoplastic anemia

49- Analgesic indicated for Asthmatic patient:

Paracetamol
Aspirin
Brufen
Salbutamol

50- Antibiotic safe for Pregnant woman:

Ciprofloxacin
Gentamycin
Amoxicillin
Tetracycline

51- Atenolol belongs to:

NSAID
AB
blocker
ACEI

52- Normal Potassium level in blood:

50-30
150-130
3.5-5 (3.5-5.0 (mEq/L)).
5.5-8.5

53- content of patient file is:

-name+ age+ gender+ diagnosis+ medication
-name + diagnosis
medication only
-name+ age+ gender+ telephone

54- Used in treatment of AIDS:

Acyclovir
Rifampicin
 76

Zidovudine
Prednesolone

55- Diclfenac taken:

Before meal
After meal
Within meal
Not affected by food content

56- Neostigmine should stopped before Pregnancy by:

two weeks
two months
two Years
non above

57- Which of the following OTC:

a- Tegretol
b- Celebrex (Celecoxib = NSAID)
c- Augmentine
d- Phenobarbital
e- non above

58-- Which of the following are oral amino glycosides

a- Gentamycin
b- Amikacin
c- Topramycin
d- Neomycin

59-- Similar to Teicoplanin in the effect on G+ve bacteria:

a- Jamica
b- Gentamycin
c- Kanamycin
d- Vancomycin

60- Which of the following is not Tetracycline?

a- Minocycline
b- Demeclocline
 77

c- Dilitiazem
d- Doxeycline

61- Which of the following are not Ca channel blockers?

a- Amlodipine
b- Cinnarazine
c- Verapamil
d- Diltiazem

62- Which of the following are used in treatment of Hypertension?

a- Folic acid
b- Amoxil
c- Inderal
d- Amantadin

63- Spironolactone is:

a- ACEI
b- Antibiotic
c- Antiviral
d- Diuretics

64- Which of the following Antihypertensive are safe during Pregnancy:

a- Nifidepine
b- Amlodipine
c- Methyldopa
d- Capoten

65- Used in treatment of Amoebia giardia:

a- yomesan
b- Flagyl
c- Prazaquantil
d- Mg sulphate

66- Scientific name of vitamin B1:

Riboflavin
Tochopherol
 78

Thiamine
Pyridoxine

67- Which of the following is contraindicated in Asthmatic patient:

a- Ranitidine
b- Aspirin
c- Atrovent
d- Salbutamol

68- Period (duration) of treatment of Tuberculosis (TB):

a- from 6 months to 9 months
b- from 6 weak to 9 weak
c- from 1 year to 1 year
d- from 2 year to 2 year

69- OTC means:

a- Over the content
b- Over the counter Drugs
c- On the counter
d- Ophthalmic Drugs

70- Antidote for Warfarine:

a- Deferroxamin
b- Protamin
c- Vitamin K
d- Heparin

71- Antidote for INH:

a- Naloxone
b- Protamin sulphate
c- Vitamin B6
d- Vitamin K

72- Generic name of Capoten:

a- Ramipril
b- Captopril
 79

c- Lisinopril
d- Propranolol

73- Antidote for Heparin:

a- Deferroxamin
b- Protamin
c- Vitamin K
d- Naloxone

74- Generic name of Prozac:

a- Imepramine
b- Fluxotine
c- Citalopram
d- Sertraline

75- Content of ORS:

a- NaCl+ Na lactate+ K citrate
b- Glucose+ NaCl+ Na citrate+ K citrate
c- NaCl+ Na lactate+ K citrate+ MgOH
d- Glucose+ fructose+ NaCl+ KCl+ Na citrate+ K citrate
(Glucose + NaCl + KCl + Na-citrate or bicarbonate)

76- Ideal Temperature for Insulin storage:

a- 15- 20 C
b- 2 8 C
c- 0 5 C
d- 2- 4 C

78- Theophyllin is:

a- Bronchodilator
b- 2 agonist
c- Anticholinergic
d- All of the above

79- Normal Hemoglobin level in blood:

a- In male 15-20 in woman 25-30
b- In male 13.5-16.5 in woman 12.5- 15.5
 80

c- 12 15
d- In male 10-12 in woman 8 10

80- Antidote for Iron:

a- Deferroxamin
b- Protamin
c- Vitamin K
d- Naloxone

81- Malaria Transmitted via:

a- pugs
b- Mosquito
c- Bacteria
d- Fungus

82- Acyclovir used in treatment of:

a- bacterial infection
b- Viral infection
c- Nesseria
d- Fungal infection

83- Prescription contains Prednsolone as:

1 X Tid X 3days
1 X Bid X 3days
1 X Qd X 3days
How many tablets will you give to the patient: ?
a- 9 b- 36 c- 27 d- 18

84- Scientific name of Vitamin C:

Acetyl Salycilic acid
Ascorbic Acid
Cyanocobalamine
Nicotenic Acid

85- Used in treatment of Ascaris:

a- Clindamycin
b- Prazaquantil
 81

c- Metronidazol
d- Mebendazole

86- Vaccines Storage:

a- Away from light
b- at Rome temp.
c- at refrigerator
d- All above

87- The way that you deliver 100% of the drug to the blood (highest
Bioavailability)and rapid action:
a- IM
b- IV
c- Rectally
d- Inhalation

88- Maximum dose of Paracetamol:

a- 4 gm / day
b- 40 mg / day
c- 2400 mg / day
d- 3 tab / day

89- Use of Barium sulphate:

a- for Acne
b- for Conistipation
c- Radio contrast agent
d- for Diarrhea

90- Salivation Enzyme converts food into:

a- Glucose
b- Maltose
c- Fructose
d- Sucrose

91- Maximum dose of captopril:

a- 125 mg/day
b- 150 mg/ day
 82

c- Three tab / day (450mg/day) 25-125mg bid or tid

d- 4 gm / day

92-to avoid more absorption of toxic drugs use:

a- saline
b- Charcoal
c- Antibiotic
d- Antidote

93- Type II diabetes use:

a- Insulin
b- Sulphonyl urea
c- H2 antagonist
d- Glucose

94- Red Man Syndrome is the side effect of:

a- Aspirin
b- Metronidazole
c- Vancomycin
d- Gentamycin

95- Type I diabetes use:

a- oral hypoglycemic
b- Insulin
c- Dextrose sol
d- sulphonyl urea

96- Which is contraindicated during pregnancy?

a- Mythyldopa
b- Paracetamol
c- Ciprofloxacine
d- Penicillin

97- Nephrotoxicity is the side effect of:

a- Paracetamol
b- Metronidazole
 83

c- Vancomycin
d- Gentamycin

98- Hepatotoxicity is the side effect of:

a- Paracetamol
b- Metronidazole
c- Vancomycin
d- Gentamycin

99- Generic name of Voltaren:

a- Diclofenac Sodium
b- Piroxicam
c- Acetyl salisylic acid
d- Indomethacin

100- Ondansteron HCl is used for:

a-hypertension
b-angina pectoris
c-prophylaxis of migraine
d-anti-emetic

101- All of these are side effect of Chloramephenicol except:

a-irreversible aplastic anaemia
b-optic neuritis
c-peripheral neuritis
d-iron deffeciency anaemia

102- Ticlopidine is used for:

a-anticoagulant
b-antibiotic
c-anticholinergic
d-antiplatelets

103- Teicoplanin is used for:

a-anticoagulant
b-antibiotic
 84

c-anticholinergic
d-antiplatelets

104- Retrovir is the brand name of:

a- Famciclovir
b- Zidovudine
c- Acyclovir
d- Amantadine

105- Pseudomembraneous colitis is the side effect of:

a- Vancomycin
b- Flagyl
c- Dapsone
d- Clindamycin

106- Sporanox is used to treat: (itraconazole)

a- antifungall
b- antiviral
c- antiprotozoal
d- antibiotic

107- Fosamax is the trade name of:

a- Dapsone
b- Amantadine
c- Alendronate (bisphosphonate)
d -Warfarin

108- Bisphosphonate is used to treat:

a- Acne
b- Osteoporosis
c- Contraceptive
d- constipation

109- The antacid that cause diarrhea is:

a- Ca
b- Al
 85

c- Mg
d- all of the above

110- Sodium Stibogluconate is used to treat:

a- Leshmaniasis
b- Amoebiasis
c- Ascaris
d- Taenia

111- Amenorrhea is defined as:

a- painful menstruation
b- Premenstrual syndrome
c- Impotence
d- Absence of menstruation

112- What is the major complication of morphine overdose?

a AV-Block
b- Respiratory depression
c- Cardiac Arrest
d- Liver dysfunction

113- Which of the following is INCORRECT?

a- A syrup is an aqueous solution that has a sweet taste.
b- Sustained release tablets should be crushed before dissolving when given to a
patient.
c- Elixir is a solution that contains alcohol as diluent.
d- Regular tablet is a solid dosage form.

114- The duration for treatment of Brucellosis is:

a- 2 weeks
b- 2 months
c- 6 weeks
d- 6 months

115- SNF is:

a- Southern Non-fatal Fever
b- Sinusitis Nasal Formula
 86

c- Saudi National Formulary

d- Computer software contains information about drugs, diseases and other
scientific materials

116- In case of acetaminophen poisoning, the recommended antidote is:

a- IV normal saline
b- N-acetylcystine
c- Epinephrine
d- Activated charcoal

117- Which one of these drugs is NOT an antiarrhythmic agent?

a- Procainamide
b- Amitriptyline
c- Propranolol
d- Lidocaine

118- A patient complaining of changing of his urine color to red/orange. Which

one of the following drugs might cause it?
a- Augmantin
b- Dapson
c- Rifampicin
d- Diphenyhydramine

119- Misoprostol is classified by FDA as pregnancy category X. that means:

a- It is absolutely contraindicated during pregnancy
b- Can be used with caution
c- Absolutely safe
d- Can be used in the third trimester only

120- Sedating antihistamines effect is related to:

a- H2 antagonists
b- H1 antagonists
c- A and B
d- None of the above

121- Intraosseus injection (IO) refers to injection into the:

a- Bone marrow
 87

b- Superficial skin layer

c- Muscle mass
d- Pleural fluid

122- The generic name of Cotrimozazole is:

a- Bactrim
b- Ultracef
c- Comazole
d- None of the above

123- The recommended dose of paracetamol for a 10 kilogram child is:

a- 50 mg every 6 hours
b- 150-300 mg four times daily
c- 15 mg every 4-6 hours
d- 100-150 mg every 4-6 hours

124- The pH for acidic preparation is:

a- 7
b- More than 7
b- Less than 7
c- 5.5 8.5

125- Eight fluid ounce equal to:

a- 240 ml(1US fluid ounce =29.5735)
b- 120 ml
c- 60 ml
d- none of the above

126- Which of the following drugs should not be mixed with normal saline for
intravenous administration
a- Phenytoin
b- Cefazolin
b- Amphotericin B
d- Insulin
127- Which of the following drugs should not be mixed with dextrose for
intravenous administration
a- Phenytoin
 88

b- Cefazolin
b- Amphotericin B
d- Insulin

128- Quinolones are NOT recommended in children because:

a- They are not very effective unlike the adults
b- The have serious side effects on liver
c- They may affect their joints
d- They make the child hyperactive

129- Which of the following medications cause Rhabdomyolysis?

a- Simvastatin
b- Sumatriptan
c- Phenytoin
d- Fusidic acid injection

130- Pharmacodynamic is defined as:

a. The study of the biochemical and physiological effects of the drug.
b- Drug interactions, dosage form, and side effects of the drugs.
c- The study of time course of a drug and its metabolite in the body after
administration.
d- all of the above.

131- A father seeks your advice for his 2 months old child complaining of runny
nose and Temperature of 39C. What is your advice?
a- Give him paracetamol and Actifed.
b- Watch the child for the next 48 hours.
c- Take the child to the emergency department.
d- Start him immediately on Amoxil.

132- Upper respiratory tract infections are treated sometimes with antibiotics.
The comments microorganisms for which you suggest an antibiotic are:
a- Gram negative organisms.
b- Gram positive organisms.
 89

c- Mixed micro organisms.

d- None of the above.

133- Histoplasmosis is caused by an internal invasion of the body by:

a- Virus.
b- Fungal infection
c- Helminthes
d- Protozoa

134- The drug of choice for head lice is:

a- Topical steroids.
b- Pyrithrins. (Pyrethroids) & Malathion
c- Antihistamines.
d- Antibiotics.

135- All of the following consider Calcium channel blockers EXCEPT:

a- Felodipine.
b- Diltiazem.
c- Nifedipine.
d- Lamivudine.
potent nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor (nRTI). For HIV

136- Norepinephrine stimulates 1 adrenergic receptors and adrenergic

receptors causing:
a- increased contractility and heart rate.
b- Vasoconstriction and increasing systemic blood pressure and coronary blood
flow.
c- A and B
d- None of the above.

137- These drugs cannot be dispensed to patients without a prescription

EXCEPT:
a- Bisacodyl.
b- Tegretol.
c- Pravastatin.
 90

d- Metformin.

138- The well known complexion reaction between Warfarin and certain drugs
containing metal ions such as aluminum hydroxide leads to:
a- Formation of complexes in the GI tract that is poorly absorbed.
b- Formation of complexes in the GI tract that is highly absorbed.
c- Formation of complexes in the GI tract cause irritation.
d- None of the above.

139- Which of the following are secreted from the pancreas?

a- Insulin + FSH.
b- Insulin + Bile acids.
c- Insulin + Glucagon.
d- Insulin only.

140- The insulin that cannot be given intravenously is:

a- NPH.
b- Regular.
c- Insulin Lispro.
d- all of the above.
141- All these cases not cure with thiazides except:
a-hypernatrimia.
b-hyperglycemia.
c-hypokalaemia.
d-hyperuricaemia.

142- How much magnesium sulfate is in 10 ml of a 200 mg/ml magnesium

sulfate solution
a- 1 gm
b- 2 gm (2000mg)
c- 1000 gm
d- 2000 gm

143- How many milliliters of ampicillin do you have to dispense if the patient
needs to take 2 tsp qid for 7 days:
a- 280 mls
b- 560 mls
 91

c- 840 mls
d- None of the above

144- A 20-kg child receives erythromycin 30 mg/kg q6h, so he

receives..mg/day
a- 180
b- 3600
c- 2400
d- 120

145- three grains equalmg

a- 168
b- 65
c- 195
d- None of the above

146- Calcitriol is:

1,25 Dihydroxycholecalciferol
1 Dihydroxycholecalciferol
25 Dihydroxycholecalciferol
None of the above

147 25 oC = . oF
a)31.66
b)77
c)13
d)-3.8
F=(oC1.8)+32

148- D10W means..

-solution containing 10 mg dextrose in 100 ml water
-solution containing 10 mg dextrose in 100 L water
-solution containing 10 gm dextrose in 1000 ml water
-solution containing 10 gm dextrose in 100 ml water
 92

149 0.5 NS solution contains.milligram sodium chloride in 30 ml.

a)0.27
b)270
c)135
d)0.135
150 1 milliliter =.minims
a)14.23
b)15.23
c)16.23
d) None of the above

151 1deciliter = liter

a)10
b)100
c)0.1
d)0.01

152- The concentration of one drug is 1:100, if the patient takes 900 ml at the
morning and 600 ml in the evening, How much drug will the patient take in 15
days?
15 mg
15 gm
225 mg
225 gm

153- How many milliliters of a NS solution can be made from 4500 mg of sodium
chloride?
0.5 L
5L
50 L
None of the above

154- When the patient want to take Viagra, you should ask him:
If he is asthmatic
His age
If he is taking nitroglycerine
 93

All of the above

155- How many grams of water needed to prepare 150 gm of potassium acetate
solution with concentration 4% w/w?
157
144
66
6
156- What is the concentration of solution, if we dilute 100 ml 5% of antiseptic
solution to 200 ml?
10%
5%
2.5%
0.5% (n1v1=n2v2 formula)

157- A patient who weighs 50 kg receives 5 mg/kg of acyclovir tid, so the patient
receives.mg/day
15
250
500
750

158- The main neurochemical transmitter in the parasympathetic nervous

system is
a- acetylcholine
b- epinephrine
c- ephedrine
d- amphetamine

159- Which one of the following is considered non selective blocker

a- esmolol
b- betaxolol
c- propranolol
d- metoprolol
 94

160- Which one of the following blockers used in ophthalmic drops for
treatment glaucoma
a- esmolol
b- propranolol
c- timolol
d- sotalol

161- Which one of the following blockers used as antiarrythmia as it can block
K (potassium) channel
a- esmolol
b- sotalol
c- timolol
d- metoprolol

162- Which one of is used as 2 agonist?

a- salbutamol
b- butoxamine
c- clonidine
d- phenylephrine

163-isoproterenol is sympathetic agonist and can be used by:

a- injection
b- inhalation
c- topically
d- rectally
164- Which one of the following used as vasodilator and can be used in benign
prostatic hypertrophy?
a- tolazocin
b- prazocin
c- phentolamine
d- phenoxybenzamine
165- The trade name of prazocin is:
a- Minipress
b- Flagicure
c- Canesten
d- Zodium
 95

166- Which one of the following agents can be used in migraine prophylaxis?
a- ergotamine
b- ergonovine
c- methylergonovine
d- methysergide

167- Which one of the following agents can be used as powerful oxytocic?
a- ergotamine
b- ergonovine (ergometrine)
c- methylergonovine
d- methsyrgide

168- Which one of the following agents used to decrease postpartum

hemorrhage?
a- ergotamine
b- ergonovine
c- methylergonovine (Methylergometrine)
d- methsyrgide

169- Which one of the following agents used for migraine treatment (acute
attack)?
a- ergotamine
b- ergonovine
c- methylergonovine
d- methsyrgide

170- The anticoagulant effect of warfarin decreased by the use of:

a-Rifampicin
b- Aspirin
c- Vitamin k
d- verapamil
171- Which one of the following parasympathomimetic can be used as
antiemetic?
a- carbachol
b- pilocrapine
c- bethanecol
 96

d- metoclopramide

172- Which one of the following can be used in treatment the toxicity of
organophosphorus compound?
a- ecothiopate
b- pyridostigmine
c- parathione
d- parlidoxime

173- candidiasis is considered

a- viral infection
b- bacterial infection
c- fungal infection
d- protozoa infection
174- histoplasmosis is considered
a- viral infection
b- bacterial infection
c- fungal infection
d- protozoa infection

175- amebiasis or amoebic dysentery can be treated by

a- metronidazole
b- flubendazole
c- alpendazole
d- nifurtimox

176- Which one of the following parasympathetic agent can be used as

ophthalmic drops to treat glaucoma?
a- pilocrapine
b- bethanecol
c- metoclopramide
d- edrophonium
177- All of the following are atropine side effects except:
a- constipation
b- diarrhea
c- dry mouth
d- rapid pulse
 97

178- Which one of the following is considered sedating antihistaminic?

a- loratidine
b- astemizole
c- diphenhydramine
d- acrivastine

179- Claritin is a trade name of a drug and the generic name is?
a- loratidine
b- astemizole
c- diphenhydramine
d- acrivastine

180- fexofenadine is antiallergic and can be sold under the name:

a- Trictine
b- Telfast
c- Allergex
d- Pirafen

181- The H1 blocker is used as:

a- antiallergic
b- ulcer
c- antidiarrhea
d- antiamobeic

182- The H2 blocker is used as:

a- antiallergic
b- Ulcer
c- antidiarrhea
d- antiamobeic

183- Which one of the following used for treatment peptic and duodenal ulcer?
a- astemizole
b- cimetidine
c- ticlopidine
d- acrivastine
 98

184- The trade of ranitidine is KSA is:

a- Histac
b- Zantac
c- Tagamet
d- Anafranil

185- The trade name of cimitidine is:

a- Histac
b- Zantac
c- Tagamet
d- Anafranil

186- Benzodiazepine is preferred as sedative hypnotic than barbiturate:

a- as benzodiazepine is more safer
b- as benzodiazepine is less liable to produce tolerance
c- barbiturate is more liable to produce tolerance
d- all of the above

187- Which one of the following is considered ultrashort acting barbiturate?

a- thiopental
b- secobarbital
c- amobarbital
d- phenobarbaital

188- Which one of the following is considered short acting barbiturate?

a- thiopental
b- secobarbital
c- amobarbital
d- phenobarbaital

189- Which one of the following is considered intermediate acting barbiturate?

a- thiopental
b- secobarbital
c- amobarbital
d- phenobarbaital
 99

190- Which one of the following is considered long acting barbiturate?

a- thiopental
b- secobarbital
c- amobarbital
d- phenobarbaital

191- Leprosy can be treted by

a- isoniazide plus streptomycin
b- dapsone and clofazimine
c- rigfampin and streptomycin
d- rifampin and ethambutol

192-Xanax is sedative drugs and the generic name is:

a- diazepam
b- chloroazepam
c- alprazolam
d- clorazepate

193-which one of the following can be for treatment benzodiazepine overdose:

a- disulfiram
b- buspirone
c- flumazenil
d- parlidoxime

194- Which one of the following can be used for treatment alcohol addiction?
a- disulfiram
b- buspirone
c- flumazenil
d- parlidoxime

195- Which one of the following can be as anxiolytic drug?

a- disulfiram
b- buspirone
c- flumazenil
d- parlidoxime
 100

196- Which one of the following can be used in morphine overdose?

a- methadone
b- naloxone
c- pethidine
d- alfentanyl

197- Death can occur in morphine toxicity due to:

a- Hypotension
b- Respiratory failure
c- Cardiac arrest
d- Meningitis

198- All of the following can be used as antitussive except:

a- codeine
b- dextromethorphane
c- metronidazole
d- phlocodiene

199- Cholera can be treated by

a- Doxycycline(Doxycycline is recommended as first-line treatment for adults)
b- penicillin
c- cephalosporin
d- none of the above

200- The death occur in cholera due to

a- respiratory failure
b- Cardiac arrest
c- Dehydration
d- none of the above

201- T.B is abbreviation for tuberculosis which can be treated by

a- isoniazide, rifampin ,ethambutol & pyrazinamide
b- isoniazide, rifampin,ethambutol & chloramephenicol
c- isoniazide, rifampin ,ethambutol & dapsone
d- isoniazide, rifampin ,ethambutol & clofazimine
 101

202- Flagyl is a trade name of:

a- metronidazole
b- flubendazole
c- alpendazole
d- nifurtimox

203- The active ingredient in Leponex is:

a- Clozapine
b- Respiredone
c- Lithium
d- Haldol

204- All of the following are considered selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
(SSRIs) except:
a-Fluoxetine
b- Citalopram
c- Sertraline
d- Imipramine (TCA)

205- Parkinsonism can be treated by all of the following except:

a- L-dopa
b- Dopamine
c- amantadine
d- bromocriptine

206-which one of the following is used for treatment Parkinsonism?

a- Sinemet
b- Stellazil
c- Stellazine Trifluoperazine
d- Stroka

207- carbamazepine is anti epilepsy drug sold under the trade name:
a- Bional
b- Taural
c- Epiran
d- Tegretol
 102

208- Status epilepticus best treated by:

a- diazepam
b- valproic acid
c- phenytoin
d- Primidone

209- ethusoxamide can be used for treatment of:

a- petit mal epilepsy
b- grand mal epilepsy
c- status epilepticus
d- partial status

210- phenytoin is generic name of:

a- Epanutin
b- Cidoquin
c- Dusputaline
d- Idiavix

211- Pseudomembranous colitis can be treated by

a- vancomycin plus metronidazole
b- vancomycin plus tetracycline
c- ampicillin plus metronidazole
e- amoxacyillin plus metronidazole

212- Gonorrhea is infectious disease and can be transmitted

a- sexually
b- topically
c- Inhalation
d- all of the above

213- Avian flu (Bird flu) can be treated by:

a- zidovidine
b- amantadine
c- ganciclovir
d- oseltamivir
 103

214- All these drugs are antibacterial except:

a- zalcitabine
b- lomefloxacin
c- cefopyrazone
d- Nalidixic acid

215- Which of the following antibiotics can be used topically?

Acyclovir.
Cefaclor.
Cephalexin.
Fusidic acid.

216- All these are natural Estrogens except:

a-Mestronol
b- Oestrone
c- Oestriol
d- Oestradiol

217- Which of the following has vasodilator effect?

a-nicotine
b-cholestyramine
c-urokinase
d-vit. A

218- One of the following is not from Quinolone group:

a-naldixic acid
b-quinine
c-eoxacin
d-norfloxacin

219- One of the following is not for epilepsy:

a-clorizepam
b-phenytoin
c-primidone
d-imipramine
 104

220- All of these can be used for leprosy except:

a-dapson
b-rifampicin
c- clofazinine
d- INH

221- Sumatriptan is used for:

a-hypertension
b-treatment of migraine
c-angina pectoris
d-control of epilepsy

222- Which is enzyme inducer?

a-rifampicin
b-cimetidin
c-vit. C
d-chloramephenicol

223- All of the following for prophylaxis of asthma except:

a- Ketotifen
b-nedocromil sod.
c- Sodium cromoglycate
d-salbutamol

224- All of the following is Non Sedating Anti-Histamine, except:

a- Loratadine
b- Cetrizine
c- Astimazole
d- Azotodin

225- Herpes simplex can be treated by

a- ganciclovir
b- acyclovir
c- zalcitabine
d- oseltamivir
 105

226- All of the following are controlled drugs except:

a- rivotril
b- epanutin
c- sresolid
d- diazepam

226- All these drugs are anti-viral except:

a- amantadine
b- zidovudine
c- acyclovir
d- aluerin(antispasmodic)

227- Which one of these symptoms not occur with morphine ?

a-diarrhea
b-respiratory depression
c-constipation
d-vomiting

228- Which one of these drugs not used for acute pain ?
a-naproxen
b-colchicine
c-codeine
d-prednisolone

229- The Recommended daily dose of Vitamin A for correction of deficiency is:
a-5,000 IU
b- 10,000 IU
c- 20,000 IU
d- 30,000 IU

230- The daily dose of Vitamin A for therapy is:

a- 10,000 IU
b- 20,000 IU
c- 50,000 IU
d- 100,000 IU
 106

231- Hepatitis vaccine dose is:

a- once/year
b- twice/year
c- three times/year
d- four times/year

232- Which one is OTC drug?

a-Simple analgesic
b- Warfarin
c- Ciprofloxacin
d- Amoxicillin

233- One of the following is given once daily:

a-Amorphous insulin
b- Regular insulin
c- Neutral insulin
d- Protamine zinc insulin

234- All these are anticoagulants except:

a-warfarin
b-ancord
c-heparin
d- dipyridamol

235- All these are anti-platelets except:

a-dipyridamol
b-aspirin
c-streptokinase
d-ticlopidine

236- Acyclovir is a generic name sold in KSA under the name

a- Trosyd
b- Mycospor
c- Zovirax
d- Amikacin
 107

237- Ferrograde is:

a-ferrous sulphate
b- ferrous citrate
c- ferrous gluconate
d- ferrous fumarate

238- Procainamide is:

a-Na channel blocker
b-nifedipine
c-lisinopril
d-quinidine

239- Thiazide diuretics cause all the following except :

a-hypokalaemia
b-hypercalcemia
c-hyperuricaemia
d- hypernatremia

240- Elimination of digoxin is mainly by:

a-kidney
b- liver
c- both
d- none of them

241- What is the most drug that can cause damage if it is given OTC?
a-captopril
b-warfarin
c-chlorothiazide
d-rifampicin

242- All are antimetabolites except:

a-methotrexate
b-flurouracil
c- cytarabine
d- cyclophosphamide
 108

e-azathioprine(Imuran)

243- Cefaclor is:

a- 1st generation cephalosporin
b- 2nd generation cephalosporin
c- 3rd generation cephalosporin
d- 4th generation cephalosporin

244- Cefixime is:

a- 1st generation cephalosporin
b- 2nd generation cephalosporin
c- 3rd generation cephalosporin
d- 4th generation cephalosporin

245- Zinnat is:

a- 1st generation cephalosporin
b- 2nd generation cephalosporin
c- 3rd generation cephalosporin
d- 4th generation cephalosporin

246- Which aminoglycoside antibiotic can be taken orally?

a-gentamycin
b-neomycin
c-amikacin
d-tobramycin

247- All these medications are used in treatment of TB except:

a-cyclosporin
b-INH
c- cycloserin
d-rifampicin

248- One of these is not like others:

a-timolol
b- acebutalol
c- labetolol
d- propranolol
 109

249- Betahistine HCl (betaserc) used for:

a- for mieniere`s disease
b-antihistamine
c- hypersensitivity reactions.
d- all of the above.

250- Which one is not 5HT3 antagonist?

a-tropisetron
b-ondansetron
c-domperidone
d-gransetron

251- Which is not oral anti-coagulant?

a-warfarin
b-enoxaprine
c-phenidione
d-nicoumolone

252- All of these are the components of calamine lotion B.P except:
a- sod. Sulphate
b-calamine
c-sod. citrate
d-bentonite
e- Zinc Oxide

253- Terbinafene is used topically for:

a- eczema
b- candida
c- fungal infections
d- antibiotic

254- Which one is used for benign prostatic hyperplasia?

a-flumazenil
b-cefprozil
c-mivacurim
d-finasteride
 110

255- All of these are 3rd generation cephalosporin except:

a-cifixime
b-cefpodoxime
c-ceftriaxone
d-cefotaximeE) none of the above

256- Which of the following is not mucolytic?

a-bromohexin
b- dextromethorphan
c-ambroxol
d-guaphenesin

257- Which one is anti-platelet?

a-ticlopidine
b-desfluron
c-aldesleukin
d-atovouon

258- All of these are anti-neoplastic except?

a-aldesleukin
b-taniposide
c-pentostatin
d-amlodipine

259-Which is not benzodiazipne?

a-temazepam
b-nitrozepam
c-loprazepam
d-clozapine

260- Oral re-hydrate solution(ORS) contains:

a- sod. citrate,pot. chloride & glucose
b- sod. citrate,pot. chloride & sod. chloride
c- sod. chloride,pot. citrate, sod. citrate & glucose
d- sod. chloride,pot. chloride, sod. bicarbonate &citric acid.
 111

261- Which of the following is selective 1 blocker?

a-labitolol
b-terazosine
c-clonidine
d-captopril
e-verapamil

262- Allopurinol is used as:

a-analgesic agent
b-uricosuric agent
c-antiinflamatory agent
d-antipyretic agent

263- Which of the following is released by bacterial infection?

a-endotoxin
b-exotoxin
c-antibiotics
d-cytotoxin

264- The amount of water in adult male is about:

a-25%
b-60%
c-80%
d-10%

265- Which of the following is the first choice in acute gout?

a-allopurinol
b-indomethacin
c-colchicine

266- Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteoparalysis?

a- Minimal exercise
b- Low calcium intake
c- Male gender
d- Family history
 112

267- The latin abbreviation for After Meals is:

a- a.c.
b- a.a.
c- p.c.
d- i.c.
e- c.c

268- The latin abbreviation for Every Night is:

a- a.c.
b- o.n.
c- p.c.
d- i.c.
e- c.c

269- Which of the following consider Parenteral Administration?

a- Subcutaneous
b- oral
c- aa
d- all

270- INH can be used for treatment of TB.

a- true
b- False
271- Fentanyl is considered controlled medication:
a- true
b- False
272- Rosiglitazon is useful in treatment of:
a- DM
b- HF
c- CKD
d- HTN
-273 8 gm of water are needed to make 160 gm of 5% w/w solution of K
acetate.
a- true
b- False
 113

274- Which of the following are given IV rout?

a- Atrovastatin
b- Gentamycin
c- Nitroglycrin
d- b, c

275- The main neurochemical transmitter in the parasympathetic nervous

system is
a- acetylcholine
b- Epinephrine
c- Ephedrine
d- Amphetamine

276- Which one of the following is considered non selective blocker

a- esmolol
b- betaxolol
c- propranolol
d- metoprolol

277- - which one of the following blockers used in ophthalmic drops for
treatment glaucoma
a- esmolol
b- propranolol
c- timolol
d- sotalol

278- Which one of the following blockers used as antiarrythmia as it can block
K (potassium) channel
a- esmolol
b- sotalol
c- Timolol
d- Metoprolol
279- Which one of the following is used as 2 agonist?
a- salbutamol
b- Butoxamine
c- clonidine
d- Phenylephrine
 114

280- Which one of the following used as vasodilator and can be used in benign
prostatic hypertrophy
a- tolazocin
b- prazocin
c- Phentolamine
d- Phenoxybenzamine

281- Which one of the following agents can be used as powerful oxytocic?
a- ergotamine
b- ergonovine (ergometrine)
c- methylergonovine
d- Methsyrgide

282- which one of the following drugs doesnt make the feces black
a- ferric gluconate
b- ferroic
c- rifampicin
d- warfarine
e- phenytoin

283- Which one of the following leads to constipation

a- aspirin
b- ibuprofen
c- ca carbonate
d- aluminium hydroxide
e- morphine

284 10 grains equal how much grams

a- 0.0065
b- .065
c- .65
d- 6.5
 115

e- 65
285- The mixture of liquid paraffine and water will be
a- solution
b- lotion
c- emulsion
d- elixir
e- drops

286- which one of the following not be fibrinolytic drug

a- streptokinase
b- urokinase
c- alteplase
d- heparine

287- Types on nerves in the nervous system

a- motor
b- Sensory
c- Mixed
d- a and b
c- all of the above

288- Which one of the following shows antipyretic activity?

a- amiodorone
b- metrinidazol
c- mebendazol
d- Nitroglycrine
e- diclofenac Na

289- Roacutene (isotretinoin) can be used for

a- acne vulgaris
b- TB
c- Amoeba

290- Roacutene is
a- Catecholamine
b- Vitamin A derivative
 116

c- Cardiac glycoside
d- Alkaloids
e- Vitamin D drevatives

291- which of the following sentences is true

a- alprazolam should not be used for long term
b- Aspirin is safe in peptic ulcer patient
c- Ciprofloxacin is safe during pregnancy
d- Morphine cause diarrhea
e- Atropine indicated in Glaucoma

292- Dobutamine mustnt be taken

a- IV
b- Orally
c- IM
d- SC
e- all above

293- Prednisolone used for treatment

a- Addison's disease
b- Hyponatremia
c- Severe bronchical asthma
d- all of the above
e- None of the above

294- which one of the following is not pure - blocker

a- betaxolol
b- sotalol
c- propranolol
d- Labetalol
e- Timolol

295- Tirofiban is
a- prevent blood clotting (antiplatelet)
b- Prevent fungal growth
c- Antibiotic
d- NSAID
 117

e- ACEI

296- Which one of the following is not considered endocrine gland

a- Pituitary gland
b- Adrenal gland
c- Thyroid gland
d- Sweat glands
e- Ovary

297- Which one of the following is agonist?

a- Phentolamine
b- Dobutamin
c- Phenylephrine
d- Pilocarpine
e- Serotonin

298- Which of the following sentences is true about carvedilol

a- It's Parasympathomimetic
b- and blocker
c- 1
d- 2
e- all above

299- The function of the thyroid gland is/are

a-growth
b-memory
c-body tempreture
d-energy production
e-all above

300- Which one of the following has vasodilator effect

a- Verapamil
b- Digoxin
c- Cimitidine
d- Hydralazine
 118

e- Fluxitin

301- Symmetrel is a trade name used for treatment

a- Diabetes
b- Parkinsonism (amantadine)
c- Peptic Ulcer
d- Fever
e- Cancer

302- Which one of the following drugs can be used for treatment Parkinson's
disease?
a- Rantidine
b- Amlodopine
c- Prazosine
d- Bromocribtine
e- Phenobarbital

303-oxytocin is category X so it
a- shouldn't be given during pregnancy
b- Safe during pregnancy
c- Given with caution
d- Risk is unknown
e- non above

304-which one of the following drugs shouldn't be taken during pregnancy

a- enlapril
b- sucralfate
c- ibuprofen
d- paracetamol
e- aldomet

305- the therapeutic index is refer to relation which is

a- (-)
b- (+)
c- (X)
d- (/)
 119

306- Insulin shouldn't be used with

a- dextrose
b- Saline
c- Mannitol
d- Aspirin
e- Paracetamol

307- Which one of the following is not insulin side effect?

a- atrophy at site of ingection
b- hypoglycemia
c- hyperglycemia
d- all are side effect
e- all are not side effect

308 - Which one of the following is considered Glimipride side effect

a- hypoglycemia
b- hyperglycemia
c- all are side effect
d- all are not side effect

309- Which one of the following drugs can't be taken orally?

a- Enoxparine
b- Ampicillin
c- Aspirin
d- neomycin
e- Atropin

310- Which one of the following is not cephalosporin?

a- clarithromycin
b- Cephalexin
c- Cefoxitin
d- Cephamandole
e- Cefepime

311- The type II Diabetus Mellitus can be treated with:

a-sulphonylurea
 120

b- exercise
c- Insulin
d- Metronidazol
e- a and b

312- Which one of the following is not OTC drugs

a-Bisacodyl
b- Aspirin
c- Duphlac
d- Brufen
e- warfarine

313- Which of the following symptoms is due to increase epinephrine in the

sympathetic nervous system
a- Increase Heart rate
b- Bronchodilator
c- Mydriasis
d- Vasoconstriction
e- all of the above

314- The mixture of acacia, water, and oil will be

a- lotion
b- Suspension
c- Solution
d- Emulsion

315-ondansetron HCl is used for

hypertension
angina pectoris
prophylaxis of migraine
anti-emetic

316-all these are side effects of chloramphenicol except

irreversible aplastic anemia
optic neuritis
peripheral neuritis
iron deficiency anemia
 121

317-ticlopidine is used for

anticoagulant
antibiotic
anticholinergic
antiplatelets

318- all these drugs are fibrinolytic except

Dipyridamole
streptokinase
urikinase

319-all these drugs can be used for parkinsonism except

selgiline HCl
carbidopa
pergolide
nedocromil sodium

320- cardiac arrest could be managed by the following except

ephedrine
lidocaine
propranolol
normal saline

321- insulin which can be given I.V. is

regular type
30/70 type
NPH type
None of the above

322- Drug used for leishmania is

sodium stiboglyconate
sodium cromoglyconate
mebendazole
 122

323- all these drugs are antibacterial except

Zalcitabine
lomefloxacin
cefoprazone

324- all these are natural estrogens except

Mestronol
oestrone
oestriol
oestradiol

325-co-trimethoxazole contains
-trimethoprim + sulphamethoxazole
-trimethoprim + sulphisoxazole
-trimethoprim + sulphadiazine
-trimethoprim + sulphacetamide

326- which one of these is the drug of choice for myxodema [hypothyrodism]
Carbimazole
iodine
thyroxine sodium
propyl thiouracil

327- benzyl peroxide is

local treatment of acne vulgaris
local treatment of scabies
local treatment of inflammation
local treatment of pain

328- thiazide diuretics cause all the following except

hypokalemia
hypercalcemia
hyperuricemia
hyponatremia
 123

hyperglycemia
hypernatremia

329- treatment with anti-arrythmic drug depends on except

type of medciation
period of medication
patient sex

330- amilorid as trimetren causes

CNS disturbances
Hyperkalemia
Hypokalemia
Not affect potassium

331- which one is not tetracycline

minocycline
demeclocycline
doxycycline
clindamycin

332- which one is not Calcium channel blocker

verapamil
diltiazem
amlodipine
cinnarzine

333- all these drugs are used in treating T.B. except

Cyclosporine
INH
Cycloserin
Rifampin

334- All these drugs are anti-cholinergic except

iprotropium
atropine sulphate
benzatropine methylate
dobutamin
 124

335- which is correct about diazepam

can cause muscle spasm
is taken I.M. only
is derivative from morphine
is not used for long term

336- maximum dose of paracetamol is

4 gm/day
5 gm/day
7gm/day
10 gm/day

337- Metoclopramide is
dopamine antagonist
acts central chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)
acts peripherally
used as anti emetic
all of the above

338- which one is contraindicated in pregnancy

sucralfate
ethambutol
chlorpheneramine
ciprofloxacin

339- the antidote for heparin is

protamine sulphate
acetyl cysteine
vitamin K
naloxone

340- the antidote for paracetamol

protamine sulphate
acetyl cysteine
vitamin K
naloxone
 125

341- what is the generic name of vitamin B2

cyanocobalamin
niacin
riboflavin
pantothenic acid
pyridoxine
folic acid

342-what is the generic name of vitamin B3

cyanocobalamin
niacin
riboflavin
pantothenic acid
pyridoxine
folic acid

343- what is the generic name of vitamin B5

cyanocobalamin
niacin
riboflavin
pantothenic acid
pyridoxine
folic acid

344- what is the generic name of vitamin B6

a- cyanocobalamin
b- niacin
c- riboflavin
d- pantothenic acid
e- pyridoxine
f- folic acid
345- what is the generic name of vitamin B9
a cyanocobalamin
b- niacin
c- riboflavin
d- pantothenic acid
 126

e- pyridoxine
f- folic acid

346-what is the generic name of vitamin B12

a- cyanocobalamin
b- niacin
c- riboflavin
d- pantothenic acid
e- pyridoxine
f- folic acid

347- what is the generic name of vitamin B1

a- cyanocobalamin
b- niacin
c- riboflavin
d- Thiamin
e- pyridoxine
f- folic acid

348- fluxotine is
prozac
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
antiinflammatory drug
a&b

349- omeprazole is
losec
proton pump inhibitor
analgesic
a&b

350- which of the following diseases that cause edema

CHF
Renal failure
Arrhythmia
a&b
 127

351- all of these are the components of calamine lotion B.P. except
ZnO
Calamine
Sodium citrate
Bentonite
Sodium sulphate

352- MMR vaccine is

measles vaccine
mumps vaccine
rubella vaccine
measles-mumps-rubella vaccine

353- sodium nitroprusside

potent vasodilator
potent diuretic
potent vasoconstrictor
anti-arrhythmic agent

354- a drug needs monitor for its serum level

amikacin
warfarin
theophyllin
digoxin
all of the above

355- for fluxacillin, all these statements are wrong except

it is resistant to penicillinase enzyme
it is taken by oral route only
it is base stable
it is better absorbed than cloxacillin
356- thiabendazole is one of thiazide diuretics
true
false(it is an anthelmintic)

357- praziquantil is
 128

causes loss of intracellular calcium of worms

used for malaria
biltracid is the trade name
a&c

358- nitrofurantoin is indicated for

viral infection
GIT infection
Urinary tract infection
URI

359- Vitamin K
increase formation of clotting factor
increase conversion of vit. K to the active form
prevent conversion of vitamin K back to the active form
none of the above

360- quinidine sulphate is

anti-arrhythmic agent
antimalarial agent
antihypertensive agent
a&c

361- ACE stands for

converting Ag II to vasoconstrictor Ag I
converting Ag I to vasoconstrictor Ag II
converting Ag I to vasodilator Ag I
converting Ag II to vasodilator Ag I

362- treatment of anaphylactic reaction is initiated by immediate

Hydrocortisone
cimetidine
human albumin
epinephrine

363- introduction of emesis is not indicated in the following except

caustic substance ingestion
 129

CNS
Seizures
Paracetamol poisoning

364- the following are non sedating anti-histamines except

loratadine
cetrizine
terfenadine
famotidine

365- type II diabetics is characterized by

lack of response to insulin
lack of response to sulphonylurea
respond to dietary therapy alone
slowly increasing sulphonylurea requirement

366- the following are side effects of aminoglycosides except

nephrotoxicity
ototoxicity
eye toxicity
abdominal pain (N & V)

367- the following are potassium sparing diuretics except

trimetren
spironolactone
amiloriode
furosemide
368- which one reduces the metabolism of other drugs in the liver
rifampin
vit. C
cimetidine
metronidazole
369- Specific serotonin reuptake inhibitors are used as
antihistaminic
antidepressant
antihypertensive
antiemetic
 130

370- which of these has no vasodilator effect

Methyldopa
hydralazine
enalapril
prazocin

371- Calcipotriol (vitamin D3 derivative, induce differentiation and to suppress

proliferation of keratinocytes) is indicated for
psoriasis
hypertension
calcium supplement
acne

372- Amantadine is used for all of the following except

antiviral
for influenza A
antiparkinsonism
for influenza B

373- all are viral infections except

hepatitis B
influenza
herpes zoster
rikettsia

374- at the cardiac arrest, the drug of choice is

Epinephrine
propranolol
hydrocortisone
saline solution

375- drugs to pass B.B.B. should be

unionized hydrophilic
ionized hydrophilic
unionized lipophilic
ionized lipophobic
 131

376- side effects of insulin

local reaction
hypoglycemia
fat dystrophy at site of injection
all of the above
none of the above

377- one of the following is the main side effect of insulin

Hypoglycemia
fluid retention
hyperglycemia
all of the above

378- chloramphenicol affects liver inhibitory enzyme. So

decrease metabolism & increase response
decrease metabolism & decrease response
increase metabolism & increase response
decrease metabolism & decrease response

379- Enteric coated tablets

pass the stomach and release in the intestine
pass the stomach and intestine
release in the stomach

380- all of these are true for levodopa except

precursor of dopa
does not pass B.B.B
effective in parkinsonism
stimulate dopamine

381- The conc. Of the drug on expiration date is

not less than 100 %
not less than 90 %
from 90-110 %
none of the above
 132

382- New and best therapy for peptic ulcer is

a- antacid + H2 antagonist
b- use more than one H2 antagonist
c- four medicines including antibiotic

383- all the following change the color of urine except

nitrofurantoin
phenazopyridine
rifampcin
none of the above

384- which of the following is not cardioselective blocker

a. atenolol
b. acebutolol
c. sotalol
d. Labetalol

385- a patient has a prescription of erythromycin 500 mg tablets every 6 hours

and you do not have this antibiotic. You can phone the doctor to change it with
Clarithromycin
amoxicillin
clindamycin
ampicillin

386- ACE inhibitors are used for the treatment of

asthma
migraine
hypertension
all of the above

387- Atropine is used as pre-anesthetic to

give skeletal muscle relaxation
decrease saliva
treat the side effects of anesthetics
help the sleeping effects of anesthetics
 133

388- disulfiram is used for

treatment of chronic alcohol dependence
protection of liver cells from alcoholism
prevention of conversion of acetaldehyde to acetic acid
all of the above

389- The following are the indications of diazepam except

antipsychotic
epilepsy
analgesic
hypnotic

390- The tricyclic antidepressant Imipramine (Tofranil) has been approved by

FDA for use in :
a- Parkinson's disease
b- Hypertension
c- Childhood Eneuresis
d- Peptic ulcer
e- None of the above

391- Regular use of sublingual doses of Nitroglycerin is likely to result in :

a- Hepatotoxicity
b- Nephrotoxicity
c- Peptic ulcer
d- Tolerance

392-All of the following are beta blockers except :

a- Metoprolol (Lopressor)
b- Nadolol (Corgard)
c- Enalapril (Renitec)
d- Propranolol (Inderal)
393- Buspirone (Buspar) is classified pharmacologically as :
a- Antidepressant
b- Anxiolytic agent
c- Narcotic analgesic
d- Hypnotic
 134

394- Carbocysteine is an agent used clinically as :

a- Laxative
b- Cough suppressant
c- Diagnostic agent
d- Mucolytic

395- Treatment of Hypothyroidism:

Cimetidin
Thiamin
Carbimazol
Thyroxine Sodium

396- Treatment of Hyperthyroidism:

Carbimazole
Propylthiouracil
Thyroxine
A and b

397- Trade name of Nifedipine:

Voltaren
Diamicron
Zantac
Adalat

398- NSAIDs means:

NO side effect drugs
Steroid anti inflammatory
Non steroid anti inflammatory drugs
Non symptoms diseases

399- Which of the following not given IV:

Suspension
Emulsion
Solution
All of the above
 135

400- Short acting barbiturate used as:

Antidepressant
Anesthetic
Antiepileptic
Diuretics

401- BACITRACIN used:

Only parenteral
Only topically
Only orally
All of the above

402- Which of the following are contraindicated with Digoxine:

Aspirin
Spironolactone
Zocor
Rantidine

403- MEFANAMIC ACID is:

Anticoagulant
Anti-inflammatory
Antibiotic
Bronchodilator

404- Which of the following drugs are taken before meal?

VOLTAREN
AUGMENTIN
GRISOFULVIN
BRUFEN

405- Drugs used for the treatment of gout:

COLCHICINE
ASPIRIN (contraindicated in gout)
ALLOPURINOL
A and C
 136

406- Treatment of Herps:

a- NIFIDEPIN
b- DIGOXIN
c- ACYCLOVIR
d- HYDRALAZIN

407- Maximum dose of Brufen:

1200 mg/day
3200 mg/day
4000 mg/day
200 mg/day

408- Antiepileptic:
a. carbamazepin
b. phyntoin
c. phenoparbital
d. all of the above

409- Scientific name of Vitamin A:

Retinol
Thiamine
Cyanocopalamin
Calciferol

410- H2 receptor antagonist

Cimetidine
loratidine
celexocib
Promthazine

411- Which of the following are corticosteroids?

amantadin
hydrocortesione
prednisoline
b and c
 137

412- Scientific name of Vitamin K:

Retinol
Phytomenadione
Niacin
Riboflavin

413- Trade name of Gliclazide:

amoxil
minidiab (glipizide)
diamicron
ventolin

414- Generic name of Claritin:

histadin
adrenalin
loratidin
chloropheniramin

415- Generic name of Buscopan:

atenolol
hyoscine (scopolamine)
pilocarbine
atropine

416- Trade name of Allopurinol:

profenide
diurecif
voltaren
zyloric

417- Treatment of grand mal epilepsy:

atenolol
phyntoin
heparin
diclofenac
 138

418-Treatment of (petit mal epilepsy):

a- fluxitin
b- ethosuximide
c- atenolol
d- warfarin

419- Not used in Dysenteric Amoeba treatment:

Gentamycine
iodoquinol
metronidazol
diloxanide furoate

420- Dose of Cephalexin:

1 gm /day
250 mg- 500mg / day
250 mg 1000 mg / 6hr
500mg/8hr

421- All of the following are Antiarrhythmic drugs except:

Quinidin
Procainamide
Halothane
Phyntoine

422- Amino glycosides Mechanism of action:

Inhibit cell wall synthesis
Bind to 30S ribosome
Interfere with osmosis characters
Inhibit DNA transfer

423- Drug administrated are exposed to first-pass effect

a- orally
b- I.M
c- I.V
d- S.C
 139

424- Which one these is pro-drug?

a- ampicilline
b- erythromycin
c- levodopa
d- all above

425- Bioavailability is defined as:

a- the action of the body on the drug
b- rate and extent to which the drug enters the systemic circulation
c- remove the drug from the body
d- all above

426- If 100 mg of the drug is administered orally and 70 mg of this drug is

absorbed unchanged, the bioavilability is:
a- 100%
b- 10%
c- 70%
d- 0%

427- The nervous system is divided into:

a- central nervous system and peripheral nervous system
b- peripheral nervous system only
c- brain
d- all of the above

428- Epinephrine is indicated for:

a- anaphylactic shock
b- asthma
c- nasal decongestant
d- all above

429- Which of the following drug can cause addiction?

a- barbiturate
b- tetracycline
c- iodine
d- furosemide
 140

430- All of these drugs are used for general anesthesia except:
a- nitrous oxide
b- diazepam
c- metronedazole
d- morphine

431- All of these drugs are used in epilepsy except:

a- carbamazepine
b- furosemide
c- diazepam
d- phyntoin

432- Captopril:
a- vasodilators
b- used for treatment of congestive heart failure
c- a and b
d- non of the above

433- All of these medications are antihypertensive except:

a- amlodipine
b- atenolol
c- timolol
d- ferrous gluconate

434- Agents used in anemia:

a- ferrous gluconate
b- vitamine B12
c- folic acid
d- all of the above

435- Anticoagulants:
a- reduce the formation of fibrin clots
b- heparin
c- warfarin
d- all of the above
 141

436- Antiplatelet drugs:

a- increase the bleeding time
b- aspirin
c- a and b
d- cloxacillin

437- Drugs used for treatment of hyperlipidemias:

a- lovastatine
b- mebendazol
c- lorazepam
d- non of the above

438- Drugs used in treatment of asthma:

a- aminophylline
b- beclomethasone
c- cimetidine
d- a and b

439- Penicillin and cephalosporin:

a- are the major antibiotics that inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
b- called beta lactams
c- the microbial resistance poses constant challenge to use
d- all of the above

440- Amoxicillin and ampicillin:

a- cell wall synthesis inhibitors
b-used for treatment of infections cauesd by gram+ve and gram-ve
c- contraindicated in patient with penicillin hypersensetivity
d- all of the above

441- Which of the following statements are correct about cephalosporin?

a- they are classified for 4th generations
b- dos not used for treatment urinary tract infection
c- cefoxitin is acephalosporin derivatives
d- a and c
 142

442- Protein synthesis inhibitors:

a- tetracyclin
b- gentamycin
c- clarithromycin
d- all of the above

443- Ciprofloxacin:
a- it is a fluoroquinolones
b- it is bactericidal
c- used for treatment of respiratory and urinary tract infection
d- all above

444- Drugs used for treatment of tuberculosis:

a- isoniazide
b- rifampin
c- ethambutol
d- all of the above

445- Which of the following is not anti fungal agent:

a- naproxen
b- amphotericine B
c- miconazol
d- nystatin

446- Which of the following is not anti viral agent:

a- amantadine
b- acyclovair
c- ribovirin
d- cephalexin

447- Which of the following drugs are disinfectants:

a- chlorohexidine
b- cresol
c- iodin
d- all of the above
 143

448- Drugs used for treatment of allergies:

a- chloropheniramine maleate
b- diphenhydramine hydrochloride
c- indomethacin
d- a and b

449- Which of the following drugs are used for constipation?

a- bisacodyl
b- magnesium sulphate
c- castor oil
d- all of the above

450- Thrombocytopenia means:

Increase platelets
Decrease Platelets
Decrease RBCs
Increase RBCs

451- Generic name of Aldacton:

aldhyde
spironolactone
aldosterone
phenyl ephrine

452- tochopherol is
Vit K
Vit E
B-complex
Vit C

453- Patient received Amiloride + Captopril the excepected side effect is:
hypercalcemia
hyponatremia
hyperkalemia
hypokalemia
 144

454- Cerivastatin withdrawal from the market because it causes:

a- rhabdomyolysis
b- osteomylitis
c- leukemia
d- CNS.

455- Which of the following have local effect?

Insulin
spironolactone
lidocaine
non of the above

456- sulphinpyrazone is:

Analgesic
Antiinflammatory
Antipyretic
Stimulate uric secretion (uricosoric)

457- WFI characterized by:

a- Free from sodium
b- Free from Ca and K
c- Pyrogen free
d- All above

458- Tween 20 is:

deflocoulant
lipohpilic surfactant
preservative
hydrophilic surfactant

459- Drug used in treatment of Hypotension:

-Dolobid (Diflunisal) NSAID
-Doloxene (Dextropropoxyphene),opoid
-Dilitiazem
-Dopamine
 145

460- Normal heart beat:

100- 140
60-100
120-140
100- 200

461- Crystalline insulin is:

Cloudy
Clear
Unclear
Non above

462- Increase Temperature means:

Hypertension
Hyperthermia
Hypothermia
Thermal

463- Increase Heart rate:

Tachycardia
bradycardia
arrhythmia
CHF

464- Decrease Heart rate:

tachycardia
bradycardia
arrhythmia
CHF

465- Normal saline conc.:

9%
4.5 %
0.9%
90%
 146

466- Intrathecal means injection into:

Joints
Spinal cord
Heart
Muscle

467- anti lice's:

topical steroid
antibiotics
parathion
non above

468- Most common drops:

Solution
Suspension
Emulsion
Oint.

469- Sedating antihistaminic acting on:

a- H1 receptor
b- H2 receptor
c- H3 receptor
d- H4 receptor

470- Noradrenalin affects all these receptors Except:

a- 1
b- 1
c- 2
d- 2

471- Megaloplastic anemia is a side effect of:

Midazolam
ketamine
Nitrous oxide
Sevoflurane
 147

472- Suitable volume for ophthalmic preparation is:

a- 1 ml
b- 50 micro liters
c- 10 micro liters
d- 5 ml

473- Methadone used in:

Severe pain
Morphine dependence
Euphoria
Respiratory depression

474- H2o + Nacl final will be:

Suspension
Emulsion
Solution
Lotion

475- Which of the following are Anticholenergic?

Atropine
Homatropine
Scopolamine
All above

476- Generic name of Vasotec:

Ramipril
Enalapril
Captopril
Lisinopril

477- Trade name of Clindamycine:

Dalacin
Ceporex
Klacid
Vibramycin
 148

478- Which of the following is Catecholamine?

Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Serotonine
Dopamine
All above

479- Generic name of Renetic:

Captopril
Lisinopril
Prindopril
Enalpril

480- blocker used in:

Treatment of Arrhythmia
Treatment of Hypertension
Treatment of Angina pectoris
All above

481- Cefixime is:

First generation Cephalosporin's
Second generation Cephalosporin's
Third generation Cephalosporin's
Fourth generation Cephalosporin's

482- Cefoxitin is:

-First generation Cephalosporin's
-Second generation Cephalosporin's
-Third generation Cephalosporin's
-Fourth generation Cephalosporin's

483- Maximum dose of Aspirin:

300 mg
5000 mg
4 gm
1000 mg
 149

484- Cinnarzine used in:

Hypertension
Depression
Peptic ulcer
Prophylaxis from migraine
(Mnire's disease)

485- Generic name of Cialis:

sildenafli
pravastatin
verdenafil
tadalafil

486- Trade name of Benazepril:

capoten
Renitec
Zestril
Cibacen

487- Generic name of Capril:

diclofenac potassium
Captopril
Carbamazepine
Cefixime

488- Generic name of Zestril

Prendopril
Benazepril
Lisinopril
Quinapril

489- Generic name of Elyzol:

Metronidazol
Metrizamide
Loperamide
Allopurinol
 150

490- Trade name of Prindopril:

Capozide
Amoxil
Ceporex
Coversyl

491- Co-Renitec is:

Captopril + Hydrochlorothiazide
Enalapril+ Chlorothiazide
Enalapril+ Hydrochlorothiazide
lisinopril + Indapamide

492- Generic name of Acuitel is:

Ramipril
Lisinopril
Fosinopril
Quinapril

493- Chlorothiazide is:

Loop diuretics
potassium sparing diuretics
Osmotic diuretics
Thiazide diuretics

494- Cefaclor is:

Cephalosporine Antibiotic
blocker
Aminoglycoside Antibiotic
Macrolide Antibiotic
cough suppressant

495- Atenolo is:

Cephalosporine Antibiotic
blocker
Aminoglycoside Antibiotic
Macrolide Antibiotic
 151

cough suppressant

496- Clarthromycin is:

Cephalosporine Antibiotic
blocker
Aminoglycoside Antibiotic
Macrolide Antibiotic
cough suppressant

497- Amikacin is:

Cephalosporine Antibiotic
blocker
Aminoglycoside Antibiotic
Macrolide Antibiotic
cough suppressant

498- Pholcodine is:

Cephalosporine Antibiotic
blocker
Aminoglycoside Antibiotic
Macrolide Antibiotic
cough suppressant

499- Non OTC drug:

Malox
Bisacodyl
Acetamenophen
Acetylsalicylic acid
Tetracycline

500- Carbidopa used in treatment of:

Parkinson's
Anxiety
Leprosy
Amoeba
 152

Epilepsy
Muscle inflammation

501- Metronidazol used in treatment of:

Parkinson's
Anxiety
Leprosy
Amoeba
Epilepsy

502- Ibuprofen used in treatment of:

Parkinson's
Anxiety
Leprosy
Amoeba
Epilepsy
Muscle inflammation

503- Diazepam used in treatment of:

a- Parkinson's
b- Anxiety
c- Leprosy
d- Amoeba
e- Epilepsy
f- Muscle inflammation

504- Phyntoin used in treatment of:

Parkinson's
Anxiety
Leprosy
Amoeba
Epilepsy
505- Amiodarone used as:
Oral Anticoagulant
Heparin Antagonist
Antiplattlet
Antiarrhythmic
 153

Parenteral Anticoagulant

506-warfarine used as:

Oral Anticoagulant
Heparin Antagonist
Antiplattlet
Antiarrhythmic
Parenteral Anticoagulant

507- Protamin sulphate used as:

Oral Anticoagulant
Heparin Antagonist
Antiplattlet
Antiarrhythmic
Parenteral Anticoagulant

508- Heparin used as:

Oral Anticoagulant
Heparin Antagonist
Antiplattlet
Antiarrhythmic
Parenteral Anticoagulant

509- Aspirin used as:

Oral Anticoagulant
Heparin Antagonist
Antiplattlet
Antiarrhythmic
Parenteral Anticoagulant

510- Ca channel blocker:

Enalapril
Isradepine
Metoprolol
Pergolide
 154

Phenyl Ephrine

511- Angiotensin converting Enzyme Inhibitor:

Enalapril
Isradepine
Metoprolol
Pergolide
Phenyl Ephrine

512- Agonist:
Enalapril
Isradepine
Metoprolol
Pergolide
Phenylephrine

513- Not pure B-Blocker:

a- Indral
b- Atenolol
c- Trandate (Labetolol)
d- non above

514- which type of insulin taken orally:

a- NPH
b- Mixtard
c- Actrapid
d- Insulin not taken orally
515- Regular insulin characters:
a -clear
b -colorless
c -watery
d -all of the above

516- Fosinopril is:

a-Staril
b- capoten
c- Acutil
 155

d- Renetic

517- All of these Anticoagulant except:

a- heparin
b- warfarin
c- ancord
d- clopidogrel

518- Ticlid is:

a- Dipyridamol
b- Aspirin
c- Ticlodipine
d- Enoxaparine

519- The meaning of drug that is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy by

FDA :
a- Pregnancy Category A
b- Pregnancy Category B
c- Pregnancy Category c
d- Pregnancy Category d
e- Pregnancy Category X

520- Acetab is:

a- Ramipril
b- Captopril
c- lisinopril
d- Enalapril

521- Which of these is/are catecholamine's:

a- Epinephrine
b- Norepinephrine
c- Dopamine
d- Dobutamine
 156

e- Serotonin
h- All of them

522- Which of the following can't taken without prescription:

a- H2 antagonist
b- Antibiotic
c- Narcotic drug
d- Corticosteroids
e- all of them

523- All of these are used in T.B except :

a- I.N.H
b- Cycloserine
c- Riafampin
d- ethambutol
e- Cyclosporin

524- Bethanecol is:

a- Muscarinic agonist
b- Aderenergic antagonist
c- Muscarinic Antagonist
d- Adrenergic agonist

525- Which is not parasympatholytic:

a- Hyocine
b- Omeprazol
c- Atropine
d- Benzatropine
e- None of them

-526 Imigran used for:

a- Treatment of Amoeba
b- Treatment of diaharrea
c- Treatment of migraine
d- Treatment of Indigistion
 157

527- Natural emulsifying agent is:

a- Span
b- Acacia
c- Tween
d- all above

528- Injection in spinal fluid called:

a- Intrathecal injection
b- Intramascular
c- Intrapretonial
d- Intraarticular

529- which of these is fibrinolytic:

a- Urikinase
b- Streptokinase
c- Alteplase
d- all of them

530- Terfenadine is:

a- Antibiotic
b- Antifungal
c- Antiemetic
d- Antihistamine

531- Cilazapril trade name is :

a- Enalapril
b- Capoten
c- Vascase
d- Zestril

532- Zelaic acid used for:

a- Diarrhea
b- Anticoagulant
c- Antacid
d- Acne
 158

533- Propantheline bromide is:

a- Antiprotozoal
b- Antibiotic
c- Anti muscarinic
d- Antihistaminic

534- Acenocoumarol is
a- Anticoagulant (oral)
b- Antiarrhythmic
c- Antihypertensive
d- Antiplattlets

535- Daptomycin is :
a- Antiviral
b- Antibiotic
c- Antifungal
d- a and b

536- How many grams of water are used to prepare 60 g of potassium acetate
solution have concentration 5% w/w:
a- 300 gm
b- 57 gm
c- 3 gm
d- 5.7 gm
537- How many grams of substance X are needed to prepare 100 cc from
solution 1:1000 ?
a- 10 mg
b- 0.01 mg
c- 100 mg (0.1g)
d- 1000 mg

538- Best rout of administration for Chloramephinicol is:

Oral
Parenteral
Topical (eye, ear, skin)
S.c
 159

Inhalation

539- Most of drugs are:

Weak acids
Weak bases
Strong acids
Weak salts
Strong salts

540- Malaria is:

Bacteria
Fungus
Virus
Protozoa

541- One of these substances not medically used:

Morphine
Codeine
Heroine
Phenobarbital

542- - Which of the following is not a side effect of codeine?

a- Miosis
b- Nausea
c- Diarrhea
d- Respiratory depression
e- Addiction

543- Epinephrine is not given orally because :

a- It is inactivated in the gastric mucosa
b- Local vasoconstriction inhibits absorption
c- It is rapidly inactivated in circulation
544- Various opiates may be used as all of the following except :
a- Analgesics
b- Anti-inflammatories
c- Antidiarreals
d- Aids to anesthesia
 160

e- Antitussive

545- Which of the following action is not seen with sympathomimetics?

a- Pupil constriction
b- Increased heart rate
c- Bronchiole dilation
d- Systemic blood vessel constriction

546- Which of the following diuretics do not cause potassium loss?

a- Furosemide
b- Chlorthalidone
c- Triamterene
d- Hydrochlorothiazide
e- Metolazole

547- Which of the following beta-adrenergic agents is not short acting?

a- Pirbuterol
b- Salmetrol
c- Terbutaline
d- Albuterol
e- None of the above

548- Possible treatment of Hypoglycemia does not include:

a- Insulin
b- Candy
c- Glucose
d- Fruit juice
e- Glucagon

549- Which of the following drugs is not a Tricyclic Antidepressant?

a- Trimipramine
b- Maprotiline (tetracyclic antidepressant)
c- Nortryptiline
d- Imipramine HCL
 161

550- Captopril and Enalapril do all the following except:

a- Increase rennin concentration in blood
b- Inhibit an enzyme
c- Competively blocks Angiotensin || at its receptors
d- Raises the blood Potassium concentration

551- Which of the following factors affect the distribution of a drug?

a- Lipid solubility
b- Plasma protein binding
c- Polarity
d- Molecular size
e- All of the above

552- Salicylic acid is used primarily as an (a)

a- Analgesic
b- Antipyretic
c- Cough suppressant
d- Uricosuric agent
e- Keratolytic agent
553- Which of the following factors affect the distribution of a drug?
a- Lipid solubility
b- Plasma protein binding
c- Polarity
d- Molecular size
e- All of the above
554- Most drugs are
a- Strong electrolytes
b- Weak electrolytes
c- Non electrolytes
d- Highly ionic
e- None of the above
555-The most common disintergrator in compressed tablets is
a- Dextrose
b- Lactose
c- Starch
d- Potassium bitartrate
 162

e- Powdered sucrose

556- Which of the following is found in vitamin b12?

a- Magnesium
b- Nickel
c- Iron
d- Cobalt
e- Manganese

557- Gums are used in tabletting primarily as

a- Disintegrators
b- Glidants
c- Lubricants
d- Binding agents
e- Both b and c

558- Which of the following is classified as fat soluble?

a- Vitamin d
b- Niacin
c- Ascorbic acid
d- Thiamine hydrochloride
e- Riboflavin

559- Ophthalmic solutions should be formulated to include which of the

following?
Sterility
Isotonicity
Buffering
all above

560- Advantages of tablets over liquid dose forms include the following
Enhanced stability
Ease of administration
Greater accuracy of dosing
All above
 163

561- Activated charcoal is used in some antidotes because of which of its

properties?
a- Neutralizing
b- Emetic
c- Absorptive
d- Adsorptive
e- Stabilizing

562- parkinson is probably due to

a- too little dopamine in the brain
b- too little levodopa in the brain
c- too little acetylcholine in the brain
d- too much levodopa in the brain
e- too much dopamine in the brain

563- Cyclosporine is used for

a- allergies
b- angina
c- prevention of transplant rejection
d-steroids deficiency
e- treating lead poisoning

564- pantoprazole is used primarily to treat

a- gastric hyperacidity
b- hypertension
c-cardiac insufficiency
d- gout
e- migraine headache

565-citalopram is a (an)
a- diuretic
b- cardiotonic
c- antidepressant SSRI
d-anti-inflammatory
 164

e- anthelmintic

566- Ultra-short acting barbiturates are used primarily as

a- Sedatives
b- Hypnotics
c- Antispasmodic agents
d- Anti-parkinsonian agents
e- Preanesthetic agents

567- Orlistat is used as a(an)

a- Narcotic antagonist
b- Narcotic analgesic
c- Weight loss agent
d- Antiepileptic
e- Anesthetic

568- Lidocaine is used as a local anesthetic or as a(an)

a- General anesthetic
b- Antipruritic
c- Preanesthetic
d- Antiarrhythmic
e- Analgesic

569- Which of the following is classified as a cholinergic antagonist?

a- Acetylcholine
b- Neostigmine
c- Atropine
d- Bethanecol
e- Methacholine

570- Streptokinase is used to

a. Dissolve blood clots
b. Treat digestive disorders
c. Promote carbohydrate degradation
d. Treat muscle injuries
 165

e. Replace pepsin

571- Gold compounds have been used to teat

a. Worm infestations
b. Ulcers
c. Kidney failure
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
e. Psoriasis

572- Tamoxifen is classified as a(an)

a. Estrogen
b. Antiestrogen
c. Androsterone
d. Testosterone
e. Thyroid hormone

573- Castor oil is classified as which type of laxative?

a. Lubricating
b. Anthraquinone
c. Irritant
d. Stool softening
e. Bulk producing

574- Albuterol is :
Alpha receptor antagonist
Alpha receptor agonist
Beta receptor antagonist
Beta receptor agonist
Alpha and Beta receptor agonist

575- Which of the following is (are) dopaminergic antiparkinson agents?

Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
Pergolide(Permax)
Selegiline (Eldepryl)
All above
 166

576- Tomoxifen(Nolvadex) is an agent that can best be described as :

a- Gonadotropin- releasing hormone analog
b- Antiestrogen
c- Enstrogen
d- Progestin
e- Androgen

577- Which one of the following agents is classified pharmacologically as a

carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
a- Indapamide (Lozol)
b- Acetazolamide (Diamox)
c- Chlorthalidone (Hygroton)
d- Torsemide (Demadex)
e- Amiloride (Midamor)

578- The thiazide diuretics decease the excretion of

a- Uric acid
b- Urea
c-Sodium
d- Bicarbonate
e- Creatinine

579- The appropriate PH range for ophthalmic products is

a- 2.0 to 3.0
b- 4.0 to 6.0
c- 6.0 to 8.0
d- 8.0 to 10.0

580- Side effects of isotretinoin (Roaccutane) include

a- Dermatological reactions
b- Depresion
c- Teratogenicity
d- All of the above
 167

581- Sucralfate is used to treat

a- Peptic ulcers
b- Carcinoma
c- Calcium depletion
d- Obesity

582- Methyldopa is used as a /an

a- Antiparkinsonism
b- Sedative
c- Antihypertensive
d- Prolactin inhibitor

583- Lidocaine is used as

a- General anaesthesia
b- Antipruritic
c- Antiarrythmic
d- Preanaesthetic

584- Simethicone is a\an

a- Antacid
b- Antiflatulent
c- Constipating agent
d- Laxative

585- Which of the following drugs is the choice for the treatment of all forms of
Schistosomiasis
a- Praziquantel
b- Mebendazole
c- Niclosamide
d- Thiabendazole

586- Famotidine is classified as

a- Anti depressant
b- H1 receptor antagonist
c- H2 receptor antagonist
d- Beta 2 agonist
 168

587- Which of the following is a natural emulsifuing agent

a- Acacia
b- Lactose
c- Polysorbate 20
d- Polysorbate 80

588- Paracetamol
a- Is not recommended for post- immunization in 2-3 month old
b- Has an anti- inflammatory activity similar to aspirin
c- Is an effective analgesic in severe renal colic
d- May cause severe liver toxicity if taken in overdose

589- for a 4 year old child, the maximum daily dose of paracetamol is
a- 240mg
b- 480 mg
c- 1 g
d- 2 g

590- All the following are considered to be beta lactam type

antibiotics,EXCEPT
a- Ceftriaxone
b- Pieracillin
c- Ofloxacin
d- Imipenem

591- Which of the following drugs inhibits the formation of uric acid
a- Aspirin
b- Colchicine
c- Allopurinol
d- Sodium salicylate

592- The most common side effect related to the use of Aluminium containing
antacids is
a- Nausea,Vomitting
b- Constipation
c- Diarrhoea
 169

d- Gl bleeding

593- Salmeterol is a
a- Abeta-agonist
b- Methylxanthine
c- Mast-cell- stabilizer
d- Muscarinic antagonist

594- a medicine expires "January 2001" it must not be used after

a- January 01,2001
b- January15,2001
c- January 31,2001
d- December 31,2001

595- Which of the following is not a beta-lactam antibiotic

a- Aztreonam
b- Imipenem
c- Streptomycin
d- Ampicillin

596- The normal range of FASTING blood glucose is

a- 55-75mg/dL (60-100)
b- 75-150mg/dL
c-150-180mg/dL after meal
d- 90-110mg/dL

597- The dose of a drug is 0.5 mg/kg What dose should be given to a 6 yr. old
child who weighs 20 Kg approximately
a- 0.003g
b- 0.010g
c- 0.033g
d- 0.05g
598- Which of the following is not indicated for use in children less than 12 years
old
a- Domperidone (Motilium)
b- Doxycycline (Vibramycin)
c- Chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin)
 170

d- Astemizole (Hismanal)

599- H2 receptor antagonist

a- Omeprazole
b- Sucralfate
c- Famotidine
d- Metoclopramide

600- The principal toxic effect of Heparin is

a- Bronchospasm
b- Chills
c- Hair loss
e- Haemorrhage

Errors are always expected everywhere. Whenever consider an answer plz confirm it
once atleast.
Thank u.
Gratitude and Best Regards.
YASIR SALEEM