No# 1 QuickNET Sure Success Series

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General Paper-1

TEACHING AND RESEARCH APTITUDE

2006 to 2017 [Solved]

With Solutions & Explanations

#1
2018
Edition

Authentic & Dependable

QuickNET
Sure Success Series

CBSE UGC NET / JRF / SET

TEACHING
&
RESEARCH APTITUDE
(GENERAL PAPER 1)

FOR
Junior Research Fellowship and Lectureship

By and
RAGHU R. ALLA ANUSHA K.
M.B.A., M.F.A., D.B.M. M.C.A.
Volume : #1
Edition : 2018
QuickNET
2017-2018
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PREFACE
It gives us immense pleasure to have reached this milestone
and be able to present a new MCQ Book on UGC NET -
Teaching and Research Aptitude (Paper 1). Our only reason
for writing this book is to fulfil the unmet need of the
aspiring students and faculties, who still looks for a book
with precise text with extensive coverage of quality question
bank to practice with solutions and explanations.

A student who goes through by exercising all the objective

questions by topic can easily crack this esteem exam. The
emphasis in this book is on making it more a practice book.
For this reason this book contains 6000+ MCQs by topic in-
addition to last 11D years question papers with solutions.

This book is made for Part I of UGC NET Exam. Paper 1

constituted of 10 chapters. Each chapter covers adequate
number of practice questions by topic. The book in the
present form shall serve as a complete revision tool prior to
the examinations.

We sincerely believe that students should acquire balanced

knowledge of theory as well as practice of the subject in
order to increase the chances of passing the exam.

We do believe the book will work like a tonic for all the
aspirants who are making their career in Teaching Industry.

Raghu R. Alla
 Table of Contents
PAPER -1 Syll abus ................................................................................. iii
Pr evious Year Question Papers ..................................................................0
CBSE UGC NET - JANUARY 2017 ..................................................................................... 1
CBSE UGC NET - JULY 2016 .......................................................................................... 18
CBSE UGC NET - DECEMBER 2015................................................................................. 35
CBSE UGC NET - JUNE 2015.......................................................................................... 45
CBSE UGC NET - DECEMBER 2014................................................................................. 55
UGC NET JUNE 2014 ................................................................................................. 64
UGC NET DECEMBER 2013 ........................................................................................ 73
UGC NET JUNE 2013 ................................................................................................. 82
UGC NET DECEMBER 2012 ........................................................................................ 91
UGC NET JUNE 2012 ............................................................................................... 105
UGC NET DECEMBER 2011 ...................................................................................... 117
UGC NET JUNE 2011 ............................................................................................... 129
UGC NET DECEMBER 2010 ...................................................................................... 141
UGC NET JUNE 2010 ............................................................................................... 153
UGC NET DECEMBER 2009 ...................................................................................... 169
UGC NET JUNE 2009 ............................................................................................... 184
UGC NET DECEMBER 2008 ...................................................................................... 197
UGC NET JUNE 2008 ............................................................................................... 211
UGC NET DECEMBER 2007 ...................................................................................... 223
UGC NET JUNE 2007 ............................................................................................... 235
UGC NET DECEMBER 2006 ...................................................................................... 246
UGC NET JUNE 2006 ............................................................................................... 260
UNIT 1 Teaching Aptitude .................................................................. 273
Ability of Adaptability:............................................................................................... 274
Attitude Towards Children:........................................................................................ 289
Interest In Profession: ............................................................................................... 302
Professional Information: .......................................................................................... 320
Teaching Aptitude:.................................................................................................... 332
UNIT 2 Research Aptitude .................................................................. 463
Methods of Research: ............................................................................................... 464
Paper, Article, Workshop, Seminar, Conference and Symposium: ................................ 474
Academic Research:.................................................................................................. 484
Research Ethics:........................................................................................................ 493
Steps of Research:..................................................................................................... 497
Thesis Writing: Its Characteristics and Format:............................................................ 506
Research Aptitude:.................................................................................................... 513
UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

UNIT 3 Communication...................................................................... 601

Communication Part I:............................................................................................... 602
Communication Part II:.............................................................................................. 614
UNIT 4 Reasoning.............................................................................. 683
Alphabet Series:........................................................................................................ 684
Best Reason Test:...................................................................................................... 715
Mathematical Ability Test:......................................................................................... 720
Number Series:......................................................................................................... 732
Numerical Reasoning:................................................................................................ 791
Problems based on Alphabet: .................................................................................... 795
Reasoning:................................................................................................................ 808
UNIT 5 Logical Reasoning................................................................... 818
Analogy Test:............................................................................................................ 819
Blood Relation: ......................................................................................................... 880
Coding and Decoding Test: ........................................................................................ 902
Direction Sense Test:................................................................................................. 940
Logical Reasoning:..................................................................................................... 967
Arranging according to size or age:............................................................................. 980
Spotting Out the Dissimilar:....................................................................................... 984
Time Sequence Tests:...............................................................................................1020
UNIT 6 Data Interpretation............................................................... 1031
Situation Reaction Test:............................................................................................1032
Statement & Argument: ...........................................................................................1047
Statement & Assumption:.........................................................................................1101
Statement & Conclusion: ..........................................................................................1107
Statement & Inference:............................................................................................1170
Verification of the Truth of the Statement:................................................................1174
UNIT 7 ICT ..................................................................................... 1182
Information and Communication Technology Part I:...................................................1183
Information and Communication Technology Part II:..................................................1257
UNIT 8 Peopl e And Environment....................................................... 1271
People and environment Part I: ................................................................................1272
People and environment Part II:................................................................................1344
Uni t 9 Higher Education System ....................................................... 1360
Governance, Polity And Administration:....................................................................1361
Higher Education System Part I: ................................................................................1382
Higher Education System Part II: ...............................................................................1513
ii
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

PAPER -1 Syllabus

SUBJECT: GENERAL PAPER ON TEACHING

AND RESEARCH APTITUDE

The main objective is to assess the teaching and research

capabilities of the candidates. Therefore, the UGC NET Test is aimed
at assessing the teaching and general / research aptitude as well as
their awareness. They are expected to possess and exhibit cognitive
abilities. Cognitive abilities include comprehension, analysis,
evaluation, understanding the structure of arguments and deductive
and inductive reasoning. The candidates are also expected to have a
general awareness and knowledge of sources of information. They
should be aware of interaction between people, environment and
nature resources and their impact on quality of life. The details are
given in the following sections:

NOTE:

i. Each section of the syllabus will get equal weight age: five
questions and 10 mark each section.
ii. Whenever pictorial questions are set for the sighted candidates
a passage followed by equal number of questions should be set
for the visually handicapped candidates.
iii
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Syllabus
I. Teaching Aptitude
Teaching: Nature, objectives, characteristics and basic requirements;
Learners characteristics;

Factors affecting teaching;

Methods of teaching;
Teaching aids;
Evaluation systems.

II. Research Aptitude

Research: Meaning, characteristics and types;
Steps of research;
Methods of research;
Research Ethics;

Paper, article, workshop, seminar, conference and symposium;

Thesis writing: its characteristics and format.

III. Reading Comprehension

A passage to be set with questions to be answered.

IV. Communication
Communication: Nature, characteristics, types, barriers and effective
classroom communication.

V. Reasoning (Including Mathematical)

Number series;
letter series;
codes;
Relationships;

Classification.
iv
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

VI. Logical Reasoning

Understanding the structure of arguments;
Evaluating and distinguishing deductive and inductive reasoning;

Verbal analogies: Word analogy Applied analogy;

Verbal classification.
Reasoning Logical Diagrams: Simple diagrammatic relationship, multi-
diagrammatic relationship;
Venn diagram; Analytical Reasoning.

VII. Data Interpretation

Sources, acquisition and interpretation of data.
Quantitative and qualitative data;
Graphical representation and mapping of data.

VIII. Information and Communicating Technology (ICT)

ICT: meaning, advantages, disadvantages and uses;
General abbreviations and terminology;
Basics of internet and e-mailing.

IX. People and Environment

People and environment interaction;
Sources of pollution;
Pollutants and their impact on human life, exploitation of natural and
energy res ources;
Natural hazards and mitigation.

X. Higher Education System:

Governance Polity And Administration;

Structure of the institutions for higher learning and research in India;

formal and distance education;
Professional/technical and general education; value education:
v

governance, polity and administration; concept, institutions and their

Page

interactions.

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 Previous Year
Question Papers
&
Answer Keys
UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

CBSE UGC NET - JANUARY 2017

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
Q1) The principal of a school conducts an interview session of teachers and
students with a view to explore the possibility of their enhanced participation in
school programmers. This endeavour may be related to which type of research?
1. Evaluation Research
2. Fundamental Research
3. Action Research
4. Applied Research

Answer: 3
Q2) In doing action research what is the usual sequence of steps?
1. Reflect, observe, plan, act
2. Plan, act, observe, reflect
3. Plan, reflect, observe, act

4. Act, observe, plan, reflect

Answer: 2
Q3) Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given below?
1. Problem formulation, Analysis, Development of Research design,
Hypothesis making, Collection of data, Arriving at generalizations and
conclusions.
2. Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Problem
formulation, Data analysis, Arriving at conclusions and data collection.
3. Problem formulation, Hypothesis making, Development of a Research
design, Collection of a Data; Data analysis and formulation of
generalizations and conclusions.
4. Problem formulation, Deciding about the sample and data collection tools
Formulation of hypothesis, Collection and interpretation of research
evidence
Answer: 3
1
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Q4) Below are given two seat research methods (Set-I) and data collection tools
(Set-II). Match the two sets and indicate your answer by selecting the correct
code:

Set-I Set-II

A Experimental method i Using primary secondary sources

B Ex post-facto method ii Questionnaire

C Descriptive survey method iii Standardized tests

D Historical method iv Typical characteristics tests

Codes:
A B C D
1. ii i iii iv
2. iii iv ii i
3. ii iii i iv

4. ii iv iii i
Answer: 2
Q5) The issue of Research ethics may be considered pertinent at which stage of
research?
1. At the stage of problem formulation and its definition

2. At the stage of defining the population of research

3. At the stage of data collection and interpretation
4. At the stage of reporting the findings.
Answer: 3
Q6) In which of the following, reporting format is formally prescribed?

1. Doctoral level thesis

2. Conference of researchers
3. Workshops and seminars
4. Symposia
Answer: 1
2
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Passage:
The last Great War, which nearly shook the foundations of the modern world
had little impact on Indian Literature beyond aggravating the popular revulsions
against violence and adding to growing disillusionment with the humane
pretensions of the Western World. This was eloquently voiced in Tagores poems
and his last testament, Crisis in Civilization. The Indian intelligentsia was in a
state of moral dilemma. On the one hand, it could not help but sympathize with
the Englands dogged courage in the hour of peril, with the Russians fighting
with their backs on the wall against ruthless N azi hordes, and with the China
groaning under the heel of Japanese militarism; on the other hand their own
country was practically under the military occupation of their own soil and the
Indian army under Subhas Bose was trying from the opposite camp to liberate
their country. No creative impulse could issue from such confusion of loyalties.
One would imagine that the achievement of Indian independence in 1947, which
came in the wake of the Allies victory and was followed by collapse of
colonialism in the neighbouring countries of South East Asia, would have
released an upsurge of the creative energy. No doubt it did, but it was soon
submerged in the great agony of partition with the inhuman slaughter of
innocents and the uprooting of the millions of the people from their homeland
followed by the martyrdom of Mahatma Gandhi. These tragedies along with
Pakistans Invasion of Kashmir and its later atrocities in Bangladesh, did indeed
provoke a pregnant writing, particularly in the languages of the regions most
affected Bengali, Hindi, Kashmiri, Punjabi, Sindhi and Urdu. Both poignant or
passionate writing does not by itself make great literature. What reserves of
enthusiasm and confidence served these disasters have been mainly absorbed
in the task of national reconstruction and economic development. Great
literature has always emerged out of chains of convulsions. I ndian literature is
richer today in terms of volume, range and variety than it ever was in past.
Q7) What was the impact of the last great war on Indian literature?
1. It had no impact
2. It aggravated popular revulsion against violence
3. It shook the foundations of literature
4. It offered eloquent support to the Western World

Answer: 2
Q8) What did Tagore articulate in his last testament?
1. Offered support to Subhas Bose
2. Exposed the humane pretensions of the Western World
3. Expressed loyalty to England

4. Encouraged the liberation of countries

3

Answer: 2
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Q9) What was the stance of Indian intelligentsia during the period of great war?
1. Indifference to Russias plight
2. They favoured Japanese militarism

3. They prompted creativity out of confused loyalties

4. They expressed sympathy for Englands dogged courage.
Answer: 4
Q10) Identify the factor responsible for the submergence creative energy in I ndia
literature.

1. Military occupation of ones own soil

2. Resistance to colonial occupation
3. Great agony of partition
4. Victory of Allies
Answer: 3

Q11) What was the aftermath that survived tragedies in Kashmir and
Bangladesh?
1. Suspicion of other countries
2. Continuance of rivalry
3. Menace of war

4. National reconstruction
Answer: 4
Q12) The passage has the message that
1. Disasters are inevitable
2. Great literature emerges out of chains of convulsions

3. Indian literature does not have a marked landscape

4. Literature has no relation with war and independence.
Answer: 2
Q13) Effective communication pre-supposes
1. Non-alignment

2. Domination
3. Passivity
4. Understanding
4
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Answer: 4

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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Q14) When verbal and non-verbal messages are contradictory, it is that most
people believe in
1. Indeterminate messages

2. Verbal messages
3. Non-verbal messages
4. Aggressive messages
Answer: 3
Q15) The typical feature of information-rich classroom lecture is in the nature of
being
1. Sedentary
2. Staggered
3. Factual
4. Sectoral

Answer: 3
Q16) Expressive communication is driven by
1. Passive aggression
2. Encoders personality characteristics
3. External clues

4. Encoder-decoder contract
Answer: 2
Q17) Positive classroom communication leads to
1. Coercion
2. Submission

3. Confrontation
4. Persuasion
Answer: 4
Q18) Classroom communication is the basis of
1. Social identity

2. External inanities
3. Biased passivity
4. Group aggression
5
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Answer: 1

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Q19) The missing term in the series 1, 4, 27, 16, ?, 36, 243,... is
1. 30
2. 49

3. 125
4. 81
Answer: 3
Q20) The next term in the following series
YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI, _?_ will be

1. TLO
2. QOL
3. QLO
4. GQP
Answer: 2

Q21) If A is coded as C, M as I, N as P, S as O, I as A, P as N, E as M, O as E,
and C as S, then the code of COMPANIES will be
1. SPEINMOAC
2. NCPSEIOMA
3. SMOPIEACN

4. SEINCPAMO
Answer: 4
Q22) Among the following, identify the continuous type of data:
1. Number of languages a person speaks
2. Number of children in a household

3. Population of cities
4. Weight of students in a class
Answer: 4
Q23) Ali buys a glass, a pencil box and a cup and pays rs 21 to to the
shopkeeper. Rakesh buys a cup, two pencil boxes and a glass and pays rs 28 to
the shopkeeper. Preeti buys two glass, a cup and two pencil boxes and pays rs
35 to the shopkeeper. the cost of 10 cups will be
1. 40 2. 60
3. 80 4. 70
6
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Answer: 4

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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Q24) Out of four cities given below three are alike in some manner while the
fourth one is different. Identify the odd one
1. Lucknow

2. Rishikesh
3. Allahabad
4. Patna
Answer: 1
Q25) Given below are some characteristics of reasoning. Select the code that
states a characteristic which is not a deductive reasoning
1. The conclusion must be based on observation and experiment
2. The conclusion should be supported by the premise/premises
3. The conclusion must follow from the premise/premises necessarily
4. The argument may be valid or invalid

Answer: 1
Q26) If two standard form cate gorical propositions with the same subject and
predicate are related in such a manner that is one is undermined the other
must be undetermined, what is their relation?
1. Contrary
2. Subcontrary
3. Contradictory
4. Sub-altern
Answer: 3
Q27) Men and women may have different reproductive strategies but neither can
be considered inferior or superior to the other. any more than a bird's winds can
be considered superior or inferior to a fish's fins. Select the code that states
those two propositions
1. Biological
2. Physiological

3. Analogical
4. Hypothetical
Answer: 3
7
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Q28) Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they
cannot both be true but can be false. Select the code states those two
propositions

Propositions:
(a) Every student is attentive
(b) Some students are attentive
(c) Students are never attentive
(d) Some students are not attentive

Codes:
1. (a) and (b)
2. (a) and (c)
3. (b) and (c)
4. (c) and (d)

Answer: 2
Q29) Given below are two premised (a) and (b). from those two premises four
conclusions i, ii, iii, iv are drawn. Select the code that states the conclusions
validly drawn from the premises (taking singly or jointly)
Premises:
(a) Untouchability is a curse
(b) All hot pans are untouchable
Conclusions:
(i) All hot pans are curse
(ii) some untouchable things as hot pans

(iii) All courses are untouchability

(iv) Some courses are untouchability
Codes:
1. (i) and (ii)
2. (ii) and (iii)

3. (iii) and (iv)

4. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: 4
8
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Q30) If the statement 'None but the brave wins the race' is false, which of the
following statements can be claimed to be true?
1. All brave persons win the race

2. Some persons who win the race are not brave

3. Some persons who win the race are brave
4. No person who wins the race is brave
Answer: 2
The table below embodies data on the sales revenue (rs in lakh) generated by a
publishing house during the years 2012-15 while selling books, magazines and
journals as three categories of items. Answer questions 31-33 based in the data
contained in the table

Items 2012 2013 2014 2015

Journals 46 47 45 44

Magazines31 39 46 51

Books 73 77 78 78

Total
Q31) In 2015, approximately what percent of total revenue come from books?
1. 45% 2. 55%
3. 35% 4. 25%
Answer: 1
Q32) The number of years in which there was an increase in revenue from at
least two categories of items, is
1. 0 2. 1

3. 2 4. 3
Answer: 3
Q33) If the year 2016 were to show the same growth in terms of total sales
revenue as the year 2015 over the year 2014, then the revenue in the year 2016
must be approximately:

1. rs 194 lakh
2. rs 187 lakh
3. rs 172 lakh
4. rs 177 lakh
Answer: 4
9
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

A University professor maintains data on MCA students tabulated by

performance and gender of the students. The data is kept on a computer had
disk, but accidentally some of it lost because of a computer virus. Only the
following could be recovered:
Gender Average Good ExcellentTotal

Male 10

Female 32
Total 30

Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed,
which decided that the following facts were self evident:
(a) Half the students were either excellent or good.
(b) 40% of the students were females
(c) One-third of the male students were average
Answer questions 34-36 based on the data given above
Q34) How many female students are excellent?

1. 0
2. 8
3. 16
4. 32
Answer: 1

Q35) What proportion of female students are good?

1. 0
2. 0.25
3. 0.50
4. 0.75

Answer: 2
Q36) Approximately, what proportion of good students are male?
1. 0
2. 0.73
3. 0.43
4. 0.27
10

Answer: 2
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Q37) Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?

S1: The decimal number 11 is larger than the hexadecimal number 11
S2: In the binary number 1110.101, the fractional part has the decimal
value as 0.625
1. S1 Only
2. S2 Only
3. Both S1 and S2
4. Neither S1 nor S2

Answer: 2
Q38) Read the following two statements:
I: Information and communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset
of Information Technology(I T)
II: The 'right to use' a piece of software is termed as copyright

Which of the above statement(s) is/are CORRECT?

1. Both I and II
2. Neither I nor II
3. II Only
4. I Only

Answer: 2
Q39) Which of the following correctly lists computer memory types from highest
to lowest speed?
i) Secondary Storage
ii) Main Memory (RAM)
iii) Cache Memory
iv) CPU Registers
Code:
1. i, ii, iii, iv
2. iv, iii, i, ii

3. iv, iii, ii, i

4. iii, iv, ii, i
Answer: 3
11
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Q40) Which of the following is a characteristic of Web2.0 applications?

1. Multiple users schedule their time to use Web2.0 applications one by one.
2. We b2.0 applications are focused on the ability for people to collaborate
and share information online.
3. We b2.0 applications provide users with content rather than facilitating
users to create it.
4. We b2.0 applications use only static pages.
Answer: 2

Q41) With regard to a word processing software, the process of combining static
information in a publication together with variable information in a data source
to create one merged publication is called
1. Electronic mail
2. Data sourcing
3. Mail merge
4. Spam mail
Answer: 3
Q42). DVD technology uses an optical media to store the digital data DVD is an
acronym for
1. Digital Vector Disc
2. Digital Volume Disc
3. Digital Versatile Disc
4. Digital Visualization Disc
Answer: 3

Q43) Assertion (A): Sustainable development critical to well being of human

society.
Reason (R): Environmentally sound policies do not harm the environment or
deplete the natural resources.
Choose the correct code:

1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true and (R) is true
4. (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer: 2
12
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Q44) The dominant source of pollution due to oxides of nitrogen (NOx) in urban
areas is
1. Road transport

2. Commercial Sector
3. Energy use in industry
4. Power plants
Answer: 1
Q45) Which of the following is not a water-borne disease?

1. Typhoid
2. Hepatitis
3. Cholera
4. Dengue
Answer: 4

Q46) India governments target for power production from small hydro projects
by the year 2022 is
1. 1 Giga-Watt
2. 5 Giga-Watt
3. 10 Giga-Watt

4. 15 Giga-Watt
Answer: 2
Q47) In which country, the recent international agreement on phasing out
Hydro Fluoro Carbons (HFCs) was signed?
1. Rwanda 2. Morocco

3. South Africa 4. Algeria

Answer: 1
Q48) Which of the following natural hazards is not hydro-meteorological?
1. Snow avalanche
2. Sea erosion

3. Tropical cyclone
4. Tsunami
Answer: 4
13
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Q49) Which of the following are the demerits of globalization of higher

education?
(a) Exposure to global curriculum
(b) Promotion of elitism in education
(c) Commodification of higher education
(d) Increase in the cost of education
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:

1. (a) and (d)

2. (a), (c) and (d)
3. (b), (c) and (d)
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 3

Q50) Which of the following statements are correct about deemed universities?
(a) The Governor of the State is the chancellor of deemed universities.
(b) They can design their own syllabus and course work.
(c) They can frame their own guidelines regarding admission and fees.
(d) They can grant degrees.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Code:
1. (A), (B) and (C)
2. (B), (C) and (D)
3. (A), (C) and (D)

4. (A), (B), (C) and (D)

Answer: 2
Q51) The purpose of value education is best served by focusing on
1. Cultural practices prevailing in the society.
2. Norms of conduct laid down by a social group

3. Concern for human values

4. Religious and moral practices and instructions.
14

Answer: 3
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Q52) Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Rajya Sabha is a permanent House which can be dissolved only during
national emergency.
(b) Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests of the States.
(c) Members of the Rajya Sabha are not bound to vote at the dictates of
the states they represent.
(d) No Union territory has a representative in the Rajya Sabha.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Code:
1. (a) and (d)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (b), (c) and (d)
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 2
Q53) Which of the following are not necessarily the immediate consequences of
the proclamation of the Presidents Rule in a State?
(a) Dissolution of the State of Ministers in the State
(b) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State.

(c) Takeover of the State administration by the Union Government

(d) Appointment of a new Chief Secretary
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
1. (a) and (d)

2. (a), (b) and (c)

3. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
4. (b) and (c)
Answer: 1
Q54) Instead of holding the office during the pleasure of the President who
among the following hold (s) office during good behaviour?
(a) Governor of a state
(b) Attorney General of India
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(c) Judges of the High Court

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(d) Administrator of a Union Territory

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Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:
1. (a) only

2. (c) Only
3. (a) and (c)
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 2
Q55) Which of the following set of statements represents acceptable propositions
in respect of teaching-learning relationships? Choose the correct code to
indicate your answer.
(i) When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails.
(ii) Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning.
(iii) There can be teaching without learning taking place

(iv) There can be no learning without teaching.

(v) A teacher teaches but learns also
(vi) Real learning implies rote learning
Codes:
1. (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

2. (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)

3. (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
4. (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)
Answer: 2
Q56) Assertion (A): Learning is a lifelong process.
Reason (R): Learning to be useful must be linked with life processes.
Choose the correct answer from the following code:
1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false

4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 1
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Q57) Effectiveness of teaching has to be judged in terms of

1. Course coverage
2. Students interest

3. Learning outcomes of students

4. Use of teaching aids in the classroom
Answer: 3
Q58) In which teaching method learners participation is made optimal and
proactive?

1. Discussion method
2. Buzz s ession method
3. Brainstorming session method
4. Project method
Answer: 4

Q59) One of the most powerful factors affection teaching effectiveness is related
to the
1. Social system of the country
2. Economic status of the society
3. Prevailing political system

4. Educational system
Answer: 4
Q60) Assertion (A): Formative evaluation tends to accelerate the pace of
learning.
Reason (R): As against summative evaluation, formative evaluation is highly
reliable.
Choose the correct answer from the following code:
1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

4. (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: 3
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

CBSE UGC NET - JULY 2016

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
The following table shows the percentage profit (%) earned by two companies A
and B during the years 2011 - 15. Answer questions 1 - 3 based on the data
contained in the table:

Profit earned by the companies

Year and profit by A and B

Percentage Profit (%)
Year
A B
2011 20 30
2012 35 40
2013 45 35
2014 40 50
2015 25 35

Where, percent (%) Profit =Income-ExpenditureExpenditure100

1. In which year, the percentage profit earned by the company B is less than
that of company A?

(1) 2012

(2) 2013

(3) 2014

(4) 2015

Answer: 2

2. If the total expenditure of the two companies was Rs. 9 lakh in the year 2012
and the expenditure of A and B were in the ratio2: 1, then what was the income
of the company A in that year?

(1) Rs. 9.2 lakh

(2) Rs. 8.1 lakh

(3) Rs. 7.2 lakh

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(4) Rs. 6.0 lakh

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Answer: 2

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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

3. What is the average percentage profit earned by the company B?

(1) 35%

(2) 42%

(3) 38%

(4) 40%

Answer: 3

The table shows the number of people in different age groups who responded to
a survey about their favourite style of music. Use this information to answer the
questions that follow:

Number of people and styles of music

Number of people
Ages (years) 15 - 20 (years) 21 - 30 (years) 31+
Style of Music
Classical 6 4 17
Pop 7 5 5
Rock 6 12 14
Jazz 1 4 11
Blues 2 3 15
Hip-Hop 9 3 4
Ambient 2 2 2

4. What percentage of respondents aged 31 + indicated a favorite style other

than classical music?

1. 64%
2. 60%
3. 75%
4. 50%

Answer: 3

5. Approximately what percentage of the total sample were aged 21 - 30?

1. 31%
2. 23%
3. 25%
4. 14%
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Answer: 3
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6. Approximately what percentage of the total sample indicates that Hip-Hop is

their favourite style of music?

1. 6%
2. 8%
3. 14%
4. 12%

Answer: 4

7. The process of copying files to a CD-ROM is known as________

1. Burning
2. Zipping
3. Digitizing
4. Ripping

Answer: 1

8. An unsolicited e-mail message sent to many recipient at once is a________

1. Worm
2. Virus
3. Threat
4. Spam

Answer: 4

9. The statement the study, development, implementation, support or

management of computer-based information systems, particularly software
applications and computer hardware refers to

1. Information Technology (IT)

2. Information and collaborative Technology (ICT)
3. Information and data Technology (IDT)
4. Artificial Intelligence (AI)

Answer: 1

10. I f the binary equivalent of the decimal number 48 is 110000, then the
binary equivalent of the decimal number 51 is given by

1. 110011
2. 110010
3. 110001
4. 110100

Answer: 1
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11. I dentify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes and also
res piratory tract of human beings.

1. Particulate matter
2. Oxides of nitrogen
3. Surface ozone
4. Carbon monoxide

Answer: 3

12. Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major rivers
of india?

1. Untreated sewage
2. Agriculture run-off
3. Unregulated small scale industries
4. Religious practices

Answer: 1

13. Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be achieved by

1. 2022
2. 2030
3. 2040
4. 2050

Answer: 2

14 Indian governments target of producing power from biomass by the year

2022, is

1. 50 MW
2. 25 MW
3. 15 MW
4. 10 MW

Answer: 4

15. Assertion (A): Conserving our soil resources is critical to human survival.

Reason (R): Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.

Choose the correct code:

1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true and (R) is false
4. (A) is false and (R) is true
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Answer: 2

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16. World Meteorological Organizations (WMO) objective has been to reduce the
number of deaths due to hydro meteorological disasters over the decade 2010 -
2019 by (with reference to the decade 1994 - 2003)

1. 25% 2. 50%
3. 75% 4. 80%

Answer: 2

17. ________is a type of memory circuitry that holds the computers start-up
routine.

2. RI M (Read Initial Memory) 2. RAM (Random Access Memory)

3. ROM (Read Only Memory) 4. Cache Memory

Answer: 3

18. An ASCI I is a character-encoding scheme that is employed by personal

computers in order to represent various characters, numbers and control keys
that the computer used selects on the keyboard. ASCII is an acronym for

1. American Standard Code for Information Interchange

2. American Standard Code for Intelligent Information
3. American Standard Code for Information Integrity
4. American Standard Code for Isolated Information

Answer: 1

19. The N ational Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared
unconstitutional by

1. The Supreme Court of India 2. The High Court

3. The High Court and the Supreme Court both
4. The President of India

Answer: 1

20. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are
correct?

(a) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.
(b) Parliament is Supreme.
(c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justifiable.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

1. (a), (b), (c) and (d) 2. (b), (c) and (d)

3. (b) and (c) 4. (c) only
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Answer: 4

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21. Which of the following are the fundamental duties?

(a) To respect the National Flag.

(b) To protect and improve the natural environment.
(c) For a parent to provide opportunities for education to his/her child.
(d) To protect monuments and places of national importance.

Select the correct answer from the codes given:

Codes:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 1

22. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog?

(a) It is a constitutional body.

(b) It is a statutory body.
(c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
(d) It is a think-tank.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (b) and (d)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 3

23. Which of the following core value among the institutions of higher education
are promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment and Accreditation Council)?

(a) Contributing to national development.

(b) Fostering global competencies among students and teachers.
(c) Inculcating a value system among students and teachers.
(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
23

Answer: 2
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

24. The best way for providing value education is through

(1) discussions on scriptural texts

(2) lecture/discourses on values
(3) seminars/symposia on values
(4) mentoring/reflective sessions on values

Answer: 4

25. A college level assistant professor has planned his/her lectures with an
intent to develop cognitive dimensions of students centered on skills of analysis
and synthesis. Below, given are two sets of items Set I consisting of levels of
cognitive interchange and Set II comprising basic requirements for promoting
them. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing the correct
alternative from the code:

Set I
(Levels of Cognitive Interchange)
a. Memory level
b. Understanding level
c. Reflective level

Set II
(Basic requirements for promoting cognitive interchange)
i. Giving opportunity for discriminating examples and non-examples of a point.
ii. Recording the important points made during the presentations.
iii. Asking the students to discuss various items of information
iv. Critically analyzing the points to be made and discussed.

Codes:

abc

(1) ii iv i
(2) iii iv ii
(3) ii i iv
(4) i ii iii

Answer: 3

26. Which set of learner characteristics may be considered helpful in designing

effective teaching-learning systems? Select the correct alternative from the codes
given below:

(i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject.

(ii) Interpersonal relationships of learners family friends.
(iii) Ability of the learners in respect of the subject.
(iv) Students language background.
(v) Interest of students in following the pres cribed dress code.
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(vi) Motivational orientation of the students.

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Codes:

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(4) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

Answer: 2

27. Assertion (A): The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and
creative thinking abilities among students.

Reason (R): These abilities ensure job placements

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true and (R) is false
4. (A) is false and (R) is true

Answer: 2

28. Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in respect of
evaluation system. Choose the correct code:

Types of Evaluations
Set-I SET-II
i. Evaluating cognitive and co-cognitive aspects
a. Formative evaluation
with regularity
ii. Tests and their interpretations based on a
b. Summative evaluation
group and certain yardsticks
c. Continuous and
iii. Grading the final learning outcomes
comprehensive evaluation
d. Norm and criterion
iv. Quizzes and discussions
referenced tests

Codes:

List and correct codes

a b c d
iv iii i ii
i ii iii iv
iii iv ii i
i iii iv ii
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Answer: 1

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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

29. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to

effectiveness of teaching:

List of factors:

1.
1. Teachers knowledge of the subject.
2. Teachers socio-economic background.
3. Communication skill of the teacher.
4. Teachers ability to please the students.
5. Teachers personal contact with students.
6. Teachers competence in managing and monitoring the classroom
transactions

Codes:

1. (b), (c) and (d)

2. (c), (d) and (f)
3. (b), (d) and (c)
4. (a), (c) and (f)

Answer: 4

30. The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of

1. Attracting students attention in the class room.

2. Minimizing indiscipline problem in the classroom.
3. Optimizing learning outcomes of students.
4. Effective engagement of students in learning tasks.

Answer: 3

31. The format of thesis writing is the same as in

1. Preparation of a research paper/article

2. Writing of seminar presentation
3. A research dissertation
4. Presenting a workshop/conference paper

Answer: 3

32. I n qualitative research paradigm, which of the following features may be

considered critical?

1. Data collection with standardized research tools.

2. Sampling design with probability sample techniques.
3. Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences.
4. Data gathering to take with top-down systematic evidences.
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Answer: 3
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33. From the following list of statement identify the set, which has negative
implications for research ethics :

1. A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.

2. Related studies are cited without proper references.
3. Research findings are made the basis for policymaking.
4. Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research
evidences.
5. A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from
other researches.
6. Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in
terms of preliminary studies.

1. I, II and III 2. II, III and IV

3. II, IV and VI 4. I, III and V

Answer: 3

34. I n a research on the effect of child-rearing practices on stress proneness of

children in competing school projects, the hypothesis formulated is that child
rearing practices do influence stress- proneness. At the data-analysis stage a
null hypothesis is advanced to find out the tenability of research hypothesis. On
the basis of the evidence available, the null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01 level of
significance. What decision may be warranted in respect of the research
hypothesis?

1. The research hypothesis will also be rejected.

2. The research hypothesis will be accepted.
3. Both the research hypothesis and the null hypothesis will be rejected.
4. No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis.

Answer: 2

35. A research intends to explore the effect of possible factors for the
organization of effective mid-day meal interventions. Which research method will
be most appropriate for this study?

1. Historical method 2. Descriptive survey method

3. Experimental method 4. Ex-post factor method

Answer: 4

36. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing

research?

1. Developing a research design

2. Formulating a research question
3. Deciding about the data analysis procedure
4. Formulating a research hypothesis
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Answer: 2

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Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers from 37 to
42:

In terms of labour, for decades the relatively low cost and high quality of
Japanese workers conferred considerable competitive advantage across
numerous durable goods and consumer electronics industries (eg. Machinery,
automobiles, televisions, radios), then labour-based advantages shifted to South
Korea, then to Malaysia, Mexico and other nations. Today, China appears to be
capitalizing best on the basic of labour, Japanese firms still remain competitive
in markets for such durable goods, electronics and other products, but the
labour force is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over manufacturers
in other industrializing nations. Such shifting of labour-based advantage is
clearly not limited to manufacturing industries. Today a huge number of IT and
service jobs are moving from Europe and North America to India, Singapore and
like countries with relatively well-educated, low-cost workforces possessing
technical skills. However, as educational level and technical skills continue to
rise in other countries, I ndia, Singapore and like nations enjoying labour-based
competitive advantage today are likely to find such advantage cannot be
sustained through emergence of new competitions.

In terms of capital, for centuries the days of gold coin and later even paper
money restricted financial flows. Subsequently regional concentrations were
formed where large banks, industries and markets coalesced. But today capital
flows internationally at rapid speed. Global commerce no longer requires
regional interactions among business players. Regional capital concentrations in
places such as New York, London and Tokyo still persist of course, but the
capital concentrated there is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over
other capitalists distributed worldwide, Only if an organization is able to
combine , integrate and apply its res ources (eg. Land, labour, capital, IT) in an
effective manner that is not readily imitable by competitors can such as
organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime.

In a knowledge-based theory of the firm, this idea is extended to view

organizational knowledge as recourse with at least the same level of power and
importance as the traditional economic inputs. An organization with superior
knowledge can achieve competitive advantage in markets that appreciate the
application of such knowledge. Semiconductors, genetic engineering,
pharmaceuticals, software, military warfare, and like knowledge-intensive
competitive arenas provide both time-proven and current examples. Consider
semiconductors (e. g. computer chips), which are made principles of sand and
common metals, these ubiquitous and powerful electronics devices are designed
within common office building, using commercially available tools, and
fabricated within factories in many industrialized nations. Hence land is not the
key competitive recourse in the semiconductor industry.
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Based on the passage answer the following questions:

37. How can an organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime?

1. Through regional capital flows

2. Through regional interactions among business players.
3. By making large bank, industries and markets coalesced.
4. By effective use of various instrumentalities.

Answer: 4

38. What is required to ensure competitive advantages in specific markets?

1. Access to capital
2. Common office buildings
3. Superior knowledge
4. Common metals

Answer: 3

39. The passage also mentions about the trend of

1. Global financial flow

2. Absence of competition in manufacturing industry
3. Regionalization of capitalists
4. Organizational incompatibility

Answer: 1

40. What does the author lay stress on in the passage?

1. International commerce
2. Labour-Intensive industries
3. Capital resource management
4. Knowledge-driven competitive advantage

Answer: 4

41. Which country enjoyed competitive advantages in automobile industry for

decades?

1. South Korea
3. Japan
4. Mexico
5. Malaysia

Answer: 2
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42. Why labour-based competitive advantages of India and Singapore cannot be

sustained in IT and service sectors?

1. Due to diminishing levels of skill

2. Due to capital-intensive technology making inroads
3. Because of new competitors
4. Because of shifting of labour-based advantage in manufacturing
industries.

Answer: 3

43. What are the barriers to effective communication?

1. Moralising, being judgemental and comments of consolation.

2. Dialogue, summary and self-review.
3. Use of simple words, cool reaction and defensive attitude.
4. Personal statement, eye contact and simple narration.

Answer: 1

44. The choice of communication partners is influenced by factors of

1. Proximity, utility, loneliness

2. Utility, secrecy, dissonance
3. Secrecy, dissonance, deception
4. Dissimilarity, dissonance, deviance

Answer: 1

45. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the
classroom.

1. Use of peer command

2. Making aggressive statements
3. Adoption of well-established posture
4. Being authoritarian

Answer: 3

46. Every communicator has to experience

1. Manipulated emotion
2. Anticipatory excitement
3. The issue of homophiles
4. Status dislocation

Answer: 2
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47. I magine you are working in an educational institution where people are of
equal status. Which method of communication is best suited and normally
employed in such a context?

1. Horizontal communication
2. Vertical communication
3. Corporate communication
4. Cross communication

Answer: 1

48. I dentify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while
addres sing students in a classroom.

1. Avoidance of proximity
2. Voice modulation
3. Repetitive pause
4. Fixed posture

Answer: 2

49. Two railway tickets from city A and B three ticketd from city A to C cost Rs.
177. Three tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C city Rs. 173.
The fare for city B from city A will be Rs.

1. 25
2. 27
3. 30
4. 33

Answer: 4

50. A person walks 10 m infront and 10 m to the right. Then every time turning
to his left, he walk 5, 15 and 15 m respectively. How far is he from his starting
point?

1. 20 m 2. 15 m
3. 10 m 4. 5 m

Answer: 4

51. A sister of B. F is daughter of G. C is mother of B. D is father of C. E is

mother of D. A is related to D as

1. Grand daughter
2. Daughter
3. Daughter-in-law
4. Sister
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Answer: 1
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52. I n the series AB, EDC, FGHI, ________? ________ OPQRST, The missing term
is

1. JKLMN
2. JMKN L
3. NMLKJ
4. NMKLJ

Answer: 3

53. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that one is
the denial of the other. Which are those propositions? Select the correct code:

Propositions:

1. All women are equal to men

2. Some women are equal to men
3. Some women are not equal to men
4. No women are equal to men

Codes:

1. (a) and (b)

2. (a) and (d)
3. (c) and (d)
4. (a) and (c)

Answer: 4

54. I n certain code, SELECTION is coded as QCJCARGML. The code of

AMERI CANS will be

1. YKCPGAYLQ
2. BNFSJDBMR
3. QLYAGPCKY
4. YQKLCYPAG

Answer: 1

55. I n the series 3, 11, 23, 39, 59, ________ The next term will be

1. 63
2. 73
3. 83
4. 93

Answer: 3
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56. Select the code, which is not correct about Venn diagram:

(1) Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes.

(2) It can provide clear method of notation.
(3) It can be either valid or invalid.
(4) It can provide the direct method of testing the validity.

Answer: 3

57. Select the code, which is not correct in the context of deductive argument
with two premises:

(1) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion
may be valid.
(2) An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
(3) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion
may be valid.
(4) An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be valid.

Answer: 2

58. Given below two premise and four conclusions are drawn from them (taking
singly or together). Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.

Premises:
(i) All religious persons are emotional.
(ii) Ram is a religious person.

Conclusion:
(a) Ram is emotional.
(b) All emotional persons are religious.
(c) Ram is not a non-religious person.
(d) Some religious persons are not emotional.

Codes:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (b) and (c) only

Answer: 3
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59. I f the proposition All thieves are poor is false, which of the following
propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?

Propositions:

(1) Some thieves are poor.

(2) Some thieves are not poor.
(3) No thief is poor.
(4) No poor person is a thief.

Answer: 2

60. Consider the following statement and select the correct code stating the
nature of the argument involved in it:

To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the infinite space is as
absurd as to assert that in an entire field of millet only one grain will grow.

(1) Astronomical
(2) Anthropological
(3) Deductive
(4) Analogical

Answer: 4

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CBSE UGC NET - DECEMBER 2015

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
1. Greater the handicap of the students coming to the educational institutions,
greate r the demand on the:

(1) Family
(2) Society
(3) Teacher
(4) State
2. What are the characteristics of Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation?

(a) It increases the workload on students by taking multiple tests.

(b) It replaces marks with grades.
(c) It evaluates every aspect of the student.
(d) It helps in reducing examination phobia.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a) (b) (c) and (d)

(2) (b) and (d)
(3) (a) (b) and (c)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
3. Which of the following attributes denote great strengths of a teacher?
(a) Full-time active involvement in the institutional management
(b) Setting examples
(c) Willingness to put assumptions to the test
(d) Acknowledging mistakes
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (C) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
4. Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of multiple
choice type questions?
(1) They are more objective than true-false type questions.
(2) They are less objective than essay type questions.
(3) They are more subjective than short-answer type questions.
(4) They are more subjective than true-false type questions.
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

5. As Chairman of an independent commission on education, Jacques Delors

report to UNESCO was titled:
(1) International Commission on Education Report
(2) Millennium Development Report
(3) Learning: The Treasure Within
(4) World Declaration on Education for All
6. What are required for good teaching?
(a) Diagnosis
(b) Remedy
(c) Direction
(d) Feedback
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and
(d) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (c) and (d)
7. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of participatory
research?

(1) It recognizes knowledge as power.

(2) It emphasises on people as experts.
(3) It is a collective process of enquiry.
(4) Its sole purpose is production of knowledge,
8. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the testing of a
hypothesis?
(1) It is only the alternative hypothesis, that can be tested.
(2) It is only the null hypothesis, that can be tested.
(3) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses can be tested.
(4) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses cannot be tested.

9. Which of the following are the basic rules of APA style of referencing format?
(a) Italicize titles of shorter works such as journal articles or essays
(b) Invert authors names (last name first)
(c) Italicize titles of longer works such as books and journals
(d) Alphabetically index reference list

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

10. Which of the following are the characteristics of a seminar?

(a) It is a form of academic instruction.
(b) It involves questioning, discussion and debates.
(c) It involves large groups of individuals.
(d) It needs involvement of skilled persons.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (b) and (c)
(2) (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
11. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political
party in an u area. What tool should he prefer for the study?
(1) Rating scale
(2) Interview
(3) Questionnaire
(4) Schedule
12. Ethical norms in research do not involve guidelines for:
(1) Thesis format
(2) Copyright
(3) Patenting policy
(4) Data sharing policies

Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers 13 to

17.
I did that thing recently where you have to sign a big card which is a horror
unto itself, especially as the keeper of the Big Card was leaning over me at the
time. Suddenly I was on the spot, a rabbit in the headlights, torn between doing
a fun message or some sort of in-joke or a drawing. Instead overwhelmed by the
myriad options available to me, I decided lo just write: Good luck, best, Joel.
It was then that I realised, to my horror, that 1 had forgotLen how to write. Mv
entire existence is tap letters into computer. My shopping lists are hidden in
the notes function of my phone. If I need to remember somelhing 1 send an e-
mail to myself. A pen is something I chew when Im struggling to think. Paper is
something I pile beneath my laptop to make it a more comfortable height for me
to type on.
A poll of 1,000 teens by the stationers, Bic found that one in 10 dont own a
pen, a third have never written a letter, and half of 13 to 19 years old have
never been forced to sit down and write a thank you letter. More than 80% have
never written a love letter, 56% dont have letter paper at home. And a quarter
have never known the unique torture of writing a birthday card. The most a teen
ever has to use a pen is on an exam paper.
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Bic, have you heard of mobile phones? Have you heard of e-mail, lacebook and
snap chatting? This is the future. Pens are dead. Paper is dead. Handwriting is a
relic.

Handwriting is one of the most creative outlets we have and should be given the
same importance as other art forms such as sketching, painting or
photography.

Answer the foll owing questions:

13. When confronted with signing a big card, the author felt like a rabbit in the
headlight. What does this phrase mean?
(1) A slate of confusion
(2) A state of pleasure
(3) A state of anxiety
(4) A state of pain
14. According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of
pursuit?
(I) Handwriting
(2) Photography
(3) Sketching
(4) Reading
15. The entire existence of the author revolves round:
(a) Computer
(b) Mobile phone
(c) Typewrite ?
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (b) only
(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (b) and (c) only
16. How many teens, as per the Bic survey, do not own a pen?
(1) 800
(2) 560
(3) 500
(4) 100
17. What is the mam concern of the author?
(1) That the teens use social networks for communication.
(2) that the teens use mobile phones.
(3) That the teens use computer.
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(4) That the teens have forgotten the art of handwriting.

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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

18. The main objectives of student evaluation of teachers are:

(a) To gather information about student weaknc
(b) To make teachers take teaching seriously.
(c) To help teachers adopt innovative methods of leaching.
(d) To identify the areas of further improvement in teacher traits.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) (a) only

19. Using the central point of the classroom communication as the beginning of
a dynamic pattern of ideas is referred to as:
(1) Systemisation (2) Problem orientation
(3) Idea protocol (4) Mind mapping
20. Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as:

(1) Physical language (2) Personal language

(3) Para language 4) Delivery language
21. Every type of communication is affected by its:
(1) Reception (2) Transmission
(3) Non-regulation (4) Context

22. Attitudes, actions and appearances in the context of classroom

communication are considered as:
(1) Verbal (2) Non-verbal
(3) Impersonal (4) Irrational
23. Most often, the teacher student communication is:
(1) Spurious (2) Critical
(3) Utilitarian (4) Confrontational
24. I n a classroom, a communicators trust level is determined by:
(1) the use of hyperbole (2) the change of voice level
(3) the use of abstract concepts (4) eye contact

25. The next term in the Series 2,5,10,17,26, 37,? is:

(1) 50 (2) 57 (3) 62 (4) 72
26. A group of 210 students appeared in some test. The mean of 1/3 rd of
students is found to be 60.
The mean of the remaining students is found to be 78. The mean of the whole
group will be;
(1) 80 (2) 76 (3) 74 (4) 72
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27. Anil after travelling 6 km towards hast from his house realized that he has
travelled i , wrong direction. He turned and travelled 12 km towards West,
turned right anil travelled 8 km to reach his office. The straight distance of the
office from his house is:
(1) 20 km (2) 11 km (3) 12 km (4) 10 km
28. The next term m the series: B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N,? is
(1) J561 (2) I62Q (3) Q62J (4) J58Q

29. A party was held in which a grandmother, father, mother, four sons, their
wives and one son and two daughters to each of the sons were present. The
number of females present in the party is:
(1) 12 (2) 14 (3) 18 (4) 24
30. P and Q are brothers. R and S are sisters. The son of P is brother of S. Q is
related to R as:
(1) Son (2) Brother (3) Uncle (4) Father
31. Consider the argument given below ;
Pre employment testing of teachers is quite fair because doctors; architects
and engineers who are now employed had to face such a testing.
What type of argument it is?
(1) Deductive (2) Analogical (3) Psychological (4) Biological
32. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way thai they
can both be true although they cannot both be false. Which are those
propositions? Select the correct code.

Propositions:
(a) Some priests are cunning.
(b) No priest is cunning.
(c) All priests are cunning.
(d) Some priests are not cunning.

Codes:
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (a) and (d)
33. A Cluster of propositions with a structure thai exhibits some inference is
called:

(1) An inference (2) An argument

(3) An explanation (4) A valid argument
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

34. Consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R) and select the correct
code given below:
(A): No man is perfect.
(R): Some men are not perfect.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) provides sufficient reason for (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

35. A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol
is called:
(1) Lexical (2) Precising (3) Stipulative (4) Persuasive
36. I f the proposition No men are honest is taken to be false which of the
following proposition/ propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?

Propositions:
(1) All men are honest (2) Some men are honest
(3) Some men are not honest (4) No honest person is man

Given below in the table is the decadal data of Population and Electrical
Power Production of a country.
Year Population El ectrical Power
(million) Production (GW)*

1951 20 10

1961 21 20

1971 24 25

1981 27 40

1991 30 50

2001 32 80

2011 35 100

* 1 GW = 1000 Million
Watt

Based on the above table, answer the questions from SI. No. 37 to 42.
37. Which decade registered the maximum growth rate (%) of population?
(1) 1961-71 (2) 1971-81
(3) 1991-2001 (4) 2001-2011
38. Average decadal growlh rate (%) of population is:
41

(1) ~12.21% (2) ~9.82%

(3) ~6.73% (4) ~ 5%
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

39. Based on the average decadal growth rate, what will be the population in the
year 2021?
(1) 40.34 million (2) 38.49 million
(3) 37.28 million (4) 36.62 million
40. I n the year 1951, what was the power availability per person?
(1) 100 W (2) 200 W
(3) 400 W (4) 500 W
41. I n which decade, the average power availability per person was maximum?

(1) 1981-1991 (2) 1991-2001

(3) 2001-2011 (4) 1971-1981
42. By what percentage (%) the power production increased from 1951 to 2011?
(1) 100% (2) 300%
(3) 600% (4) 900%

43. N MEICT stands for:

(1) National Mission on Education through ICT
(2) National Mission on E-govemance through ICT
(3) National Mission on E-commerce through ICT
(4) National Mission on E-learning through ICT

44. Which of the following is an instant messaging application?

(a) WhatsApp (b) Google Talk (c) Viber
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)

45. I n a Computer a byte generally consists of:

(1) 4 bits (2) 8 bits
(3) 16 bits (4) 10 bits
46. Which of the following is not an input device?
(1) Microphone (2) Keyboard
(3) Joystick (4) Monitor
47. Which of the following is an open source software?
(1) MS Word (2) Windows
(3) Mozilla Firefox (4) Acrobat Reader
48. Which of the following enables us to send the same letter to different
persons in MS Word
(1) Mail join (2) Mail copy
42

(3) Mail insert (4) Mail merge

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49. I nside rural homes, the source/sources of Nitrogen Oxide Pollution may be:
(a) Unvented gas stoves (b) Wood stoves (c) Kerosene heaters
Choose the correct code:

(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
50. Which ot the following pollutants can cause cancer in humans?
(1) Pesticides (2) Mercury (3) Lead (4) Ozone
51. Assertion (A): People population control measures do no! necessarily help in
checking environmental degradation.
Reason (R): The relationship between population growth and environmental
degradation is rather complex.
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
52. Which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard?
(1) Wildfire (2) Lightning
(3) Landslide (4) Chemical contamination
53. As part of National Climate Change Policy, Indian government is planning to
raise the installed capacity of renewable energy by the year 2030 to:
(1) 175 GW (2) 200 GW (3) 250 GW (4) 350 GW
54. At present, in terms of per capita energy consumption (kWh/year), identify
the correct sequence.
(1) Brazil > Russia > China > India (2) Russia > China > India > Brazil
(3) Russia > China > Brazil > India (4) China > Russia > Brazil > India
55. Which of the following are the objectives of Kashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha
Abhivan (RUSA)?

(a) To improve the overall quality of state institutions.

(b) lo ensure adequate availability of quality faculty.
(c) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing autonomous
colleges.
(d) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into autonomous
colleges.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
43

(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

56. The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational

institutions is constitutionally prohibited are:
(a) Religion (b) Sex (c) Place of birth (d) Nationality

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
57. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha?
(a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.
(b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the
Election Commission.
(c) First past the Post electoral system is followed.
(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality
of votes.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b); (c) and (d)
58. Public Order as an item in the Constitution figures in:
(1) the Union List (2) the State List
(3) the Concurrent List (4) the Residuary Powers
59. The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
(1) 4 years
(2) 5 years
(3) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
(4) not fixed
60. Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in the
Lok Sabha?
(1) Maharashtra (2) Rajasthan (3) Tamil Nadu (4) West Bengal

Answer Key
Q1) 3, Q2) 4, Q3) 2, Q4) 1, Q5) 3, Q6) 1, Q7) 4, Q8) 2, Q9) 2, Q10) 4,
Q11) 3, Q12) 1, Q13) 1, Q14) 4, Q15) 2, Q16) 4, Q17) 4, Q18) 2, Q19) 4,
Q20) 3, Q21) 4, Q22) 2, Q23) 3, Q24) 4, Q25) 1, Q26) 4, Q27) 4, Q28) 4,
Q29) 2, Q30) 3, Q31) 2, Q32) 4, Q33) 2, Q34) 1, Q35) 3, Q36) 2, Q37) 1,
Q38) 2, Q39) 2, Q40) 4, Q41) 3, Q42) 4, Q43) 1, Q44) 4, Q45) 2, Q46) 4,
Q47) 3, Q48) 4, Q49) 4, Q50) 1&3, Q51) 1, Q52) 4, Q53) 4, Q54) 3, Q55) 2,
Q56) 2, Q57) 1, Q58) 2, Q59) 4, Q60) 1
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

CBSE UGC NET - JUNE 2015

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
1. Which of the following is the highest level of cognitive ability?
(1) Knowing (2) Understanding
(3) Analysing (4) Evaluating
2. Which of the following factors does not impact teaching?
(1) Teachers knowledge
(2) Class room activities that encourage learning
(3) Socio-economic background of teachers and students
(4) Learning through experience
3. Which of the following statements about teaching aids are correct?
(a) They help in retaining concepts for longer duration.
(b) They help students learn better.
(c) They make teaching learning process interesting.
(d) They enhance rote learning.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
4. Techniques used by a teacher to teach include:

(a) Lecture (b) Interactive lecture

(c) Group work (d) Self study
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)

5. Achie vement tests are commonly used for the purpose of:
(1) Making selections for a specific job
(2) Selecting candidates for a course
(3) Identifying strengths and weaknesses of learners
(4) Assessing the amount of learning after teaching

6. A good teacher is one who:

(1) gives useful information
(2) explains concepts and principles
(3) gives printed notes to students
(4) inspires students to learn
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

7. Which of the following statements regarding the meaning of research are

correct?
(a) Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities undertaken to
find out the solution of a problem.
(b) It is a systematic, logical and an unbiased process wherein verification of
hypothesis, data analysis, interpretation and formation of principles can be
done.
(c) It is an intellectual enquiry or quest towards truth.
(d) It leads to enhancement of knowledge.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
8. A good thesis writing should involve:

(a) reduction of punctuation and grammatical errors to a minimum.

(b) careful checking of references.
(c) consistency in the way the thesis is written.
(d) a clear and well written abstract.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
9. Jean Piaget gave a theory of cognitive development of humans on the basis of
his :
(1) Fundamental Research (2) Applied Research
(3) Action Research (4) Evaluation Research
10. Male and female students perform equally well in a numerical aptitude
test. This statement indicates a:
(1) research hypothesis (2) null hypothesis
(3) directional hypothesis (4) statistical hypothesis

11. The conclusions/findings of which type of research cannot be generalized to

other situations?
(1) Historical Research (2) Descriptive Research
(3) Experimental Research (4) Causal Comparative Research
12. Which of the following steps are required to design a questionnaire?

(a) Writing primary and secondary aims of the study.

(b) Review of the current literature. (c) Prepare a draft of questionnaire.
(d) Revision of the draft.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
46

(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
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Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 13 to 18.

Story telling is not in our genes. Neither it is an evolutionary history. It is the
essence of what makes us Human.

Human beings progress by telling stories. One event can result in a great variety
of stories being told about it. Sometimes those stories differ greatly. Which
stories are picked up and repeated and which ones are dropped and forgotten
often determines how we progress. Our history, knowledge and understanding
are all the collections of the few stories that survive. This includes the stories
that we tell each other about the future. And how the future will turn out
depends partly, possibly largely, on which stories we collectively choose to
believe.
Some stories are designed to spread fear and concern. This is because some
story-tellers feel that there is a need to raise some tensions. Some stories are
frightening, they are like totemic warnings: Fail to act now and we are all
doomed. Then there are stories that indicate that all will be fine so long as we
leave everything upto a few especially able adults. Currently, this trend is being
led by those who call themselves rational optimists. They tend to claim that it
is human nature to compete and to succeed and also to profit at the expense of
others. The rational optimists however, do not realize how humanity has
progressed overtime through amiable social networks and how large groups
work in less selfishness and in the process accommodate rich and poor, high
and low alike. This aspect in story-telling is considered by the Practical
Possibles, who sit between those who say all is fine and cheerful and be
individualistic in your approach to a successful future, and those who ordain
pessimism and fear that we are doomed. What the future holds for us is which
stories we hold on to and how we act on them.

Answer the following questions:

13. Our knowledge is a collection of:

(1) all stories that we have heard during our life-time

(2) some stories that we remember
(3) a few stories that survive
(4) some important stories
14. Story telling is:

(1) an art (2) a science

(3) in our genes (4) the essence of what makes us human
15. How the future will turn out to be, depends upon the stories?
(1) We collectively choose to believe in
(2) Which are repeatedly narrated
(3) Designed to spread fear and tension
(4) Designed to make prophecy
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

16. Rational optimists:

(a) Look for opportunities.
(b) Are sensible and cheerful.
(c) Are selfishly driven.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) only
(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (b) and (c) only
17. Humans become less selfish when:

(1) they work in large groups (2) they listen to frightening stories
(3) they listen to cheerful stories (4) they work in solitude
18. Practical Possibles are the ones who:
(1) follow Midway Path (2) are doom-mongers
(3) are self-centred (4) are cheerful and carefree

19. Effectiveness of communication can be traced from which of the following?

(a) Attitude surveys (b) Performance records
(c) Students attendance (d) Selection of communication channel
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
20. Assertion (A): Formal communication tends to be fast and flexible.
Reason (R): Formal communication is a systematic and orderly flow of
information.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but, (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but, (R) is correct
21. Which of the following are the characteristic features of communication?
(a) Communication involves exchange of ideas, facts and opinions.
(b) Communication involves both information and understanding.
(c) Communication is a continuous process.
(d) Communication is a circular process.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
22. The term grapevine is also known as:
(1) Downward communication (2) Informal communication
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(3) Upward communication (4) Horizontal communication

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23. Which of the following is not a principle of effective communication?

(1) Persuasive and convincing dialogue
(2) Participation of the audience
(3) One-way transfer of information
(4) Strategic use of grapevine
24. I n communication, the language is:
(1) The verbal code (2) Intrapersonal
(3) The symbolic code (4) The non-verbal code

25. The next term in the series is: 2, 5, 9, 19, 37,?

(1) 73 (2) 75 (3) 78 (4) 80
26. I n certain code MATHURA is coded as JXQEROX. The code of HOTELS will
be:
(1) LEQI BP (2) ELQBIP (3) LEBIQP (4) ELIPQB

27. One day Prakash left home and walked 10 km towards south, turned right
and walked 5 km, turned right and walked 10 km and turned left and walked 10
km. How many km will he have to walk to reach his home straight?
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 15 (4) 30
28. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of her uncle.
The boy is related to the girl as:
(1) Brother (2) Uncle (3) Nephew (4) Son
29. I n an examination 10,000 students appeared. The result revealed the
number of students who have:
passed in all five subjects = 5583
passed in three subjects only = 1400
passed in two subjects only = 1200
passed in one subject only = 735
failed in English only = 75
failed in Physics only = 145
failed in Chemistry only = 140
failed in Mathematics only = 200
failed in Bio-science only = 157
The number of students passed in at least four subjects is:
(1) 6300 (2) 6900 (3) 7300 (4) 7900

30. At present a person is 4 times older than his son and is 3 years older than
his wife. After 3 years the age of the son will be 15 years. The age of the persons
wife after 5 years will be:
49

(1) 42 (2) 48 (3) 45 (4) 50

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31. If we want to seek new knowledge of facts about the world, we must rely on
reason of the type:
(1) Inductive (2) Deductive (3) Demonstrative (4) Physiological

32. A deductive argument is invalid if:

(1) Its premises and conclusions are all false
(2) Its premises are true but its conclusion is false
(3) Its premises are false but its conclusion is true
(4) Its premises and conclusions are all true

33. I nductive reasoning is grounded on:

(1) Integrity of nature (2) Unity of nature
(3) Uniformity of nature (4) Harmony of nature
34. Among the following statements two are contradictory to each other. Select
the correct code that represents them:

Statements:
(a) All poets are philosophers.
(b) Some poets are philosophers.
(c) Some poets are not philosophers.
(d) No philosopher is a poet.

Codes:
(1) (a)and(b) (2) (a) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (c)
35. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?
Select the code:

Statements:
(a) Venn diagram represents the arguments graphically.
(b) Venn diagram can enhance our understanding.
(c) Venn diagram may be called valid or invalid.
(d) Venn diagram is clear method of notation.

Codes:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (c) and (d)
36. When the purpose of a definition is to explain the use or to eliminate
ambiguity the definition is called:

(1) Stipulative (2) Theoretical

(3) Lexical (4) Persuasive
Codes:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
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Question numbers 37 to 42 are based on the tabulated data given below:

A company has 20 employees with their age (in years) and salary (in thousand
rupees per month) mentioned against each of them:

S.No Age Salary (in S.no Age Salary (in

(in Thousand (in Thousand
years) rupees per years) rupees per
month) month)

1. 44 35 11. 33 30

2. 32 20 12. 31 35

3. 54 45 13. 30 35

4. 42 35 14. 37 40

5. 31 20 15. 44 45

6. 53 60 16. 36 35

7. 42 50 17. 34 35

8. 51 55 18. 49 50

9. 34 25 19. 43 45

10. 41 30 20. 45 50

37. Classify the data of age of each employee in class interval of 5 years. Which
class interval of 5 years has the maximum average salary?

(1) 35-40 years (2) 40 45 years

(3) 45 50 years (4) 50 55 years
38. What is the frequency (%) in the class interval of 30 35 years?
(1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 30% (4) 35%
39. What is the average age of the employees?

(1) 40.3 years (2) 38.6 years

(3) 47.2 years (4) 45.3 years
40. What is the fraction (%) of employees getting salary 40,000 per month?
51

(1) 45% (2) 50% (3) 35% (4) 32%

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41. What is the average salary (in thousand per month) in the age group 40 50
years?
(1) 35 (2) 42.5 (3) 40.5 (4) 36.5

42. What is the fraction of employees getting salary less than the average salary
of all the employees?
(1) 45% (2) 50% (3) 55% (4) 47%
43. Encoding or scrambling data for transmission across a network is known as:
(1) Protection (2) Detection (3) Encryption (4) Decryption

44. Which of the following is not an output device?

(1) Printer (2) Speaker (3) Monitor (4) Keyboard
45. Which of the following represents one billion characters?
(1) Kilobyte (2) Megabyte (3) Gigabyte (4) Terabyte
46. Which of the following is not open source software?

(1) Internet explorer (2) Fedora Linux

(3) Open office (4) Apache HTTP server
47. Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the decimal
number 25?
(1) 10101 (2) 01101 (3) 11001 (4) 11011
48. Which is an instant messenger that is used for chatting?
(1) Altavista (2) MAC
(3) Microsoft Office (4) Google Talk
49. I n which of the countries per capita use of water is maximum?
(1) USA (2) European Union
(3) China (4) India
50. I ndias contribution to total global carbon dioxide emissions is about:
(1) -3% (2) -6% (3) -10% (4) -15%
51. Two earthquakes A and B happen to be of magnitude 5 and 6 respectively
on Richter Scale. The ratio of the energies released EB/EA will be
approximately:
(1) ~8 (2) -16 (3) -32 (4) -64
52. Which of the following combinations represent renewable natural resources?
(1) Fertile soil, fresh water and natural gas
(2) Clean air, phosphates and biological diversity
52

(3) Fishes, fertile soil and fresh water

(4) Oil, forests and tides
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53. I n the recently launched Air Quality Index in India, which of the following
pollutants is not included?
(1) Carbon monoxide (2) Fine particulate matter
(3) Ozone (4) Chlorofluorocarbons
54. The factors which are most important in determining the impact of
anthropogenic activities on environment are:
(1) Population, affluence per person, land available per person
(2) Population, affluence per person and the technology used for exploiting
resources
(3) Atmospheric conditions, population and forest cover
(4) Population, forest cover and land available per person
55. The session of the parliament is summoned by:
(1) The President
(2) The Prime Minister
(3) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(4) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
56. Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on:
(1) 21st April (2) 24th April
(3) 21st June (4) 7th July
57. The South Asia University is situated in the city of:
(1) Colombo (2) Dhaka (3) New Delhi (4) Kathmandu
58. The University Grants Commission was established with which of the
following aims?

(a) Promotion of research and development in higher education

(b) Identifying and sustaining institutions of potential learning
(c) Capacity building of teachers
(d) Providing autonomy to each and every higher educational institution in India
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
59. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in institutions of higher education in India
at present (2015) is about:
(1) 8 percent (2) 12 percent
(3) 19 percent (4) 23 percent
60. The total number of central universities in India in April 2015 was:
(1) 08 (2) 14 (3) 27 (4) 43
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Answer Key
Q1) 4, Q2) 3, Q3) 2, Q4) 1, Q5) 4,
Q6) 4, Q7) 4, Q8) 1, Q9) 1, Q10) 2,

Q11) 1, Q12) 4, Q13) 3, Q14) 4, Q15) 1,

Q16) 1, Q17) 1, Q18) 1, Q19) 2, Q20) 4,
Q21) 4, Q22) 2, Q23) 3, Q24) 1, Q25) 2,
Q26) 2, Q27) 3, Q28) 1, Q29) 1, Q30) 4,
Q31) 1, Q32) 2, Q33) 3, Q34) 3, Q35) 2,

Q36) 3, Q37) 4, Q38) 4, Q39) 1, Q40) 1,

Q41) 2, Q42) 3, Q43) 3, Q44) 4, Q45) 3,
Q46) 1, Q47) 3, Q48) 4, Q49) 2, Q50) 2,
Q51) 3, Q52) 3, Q53) 4, Q54) 2, Q55) 1,
Q56) 1, Q57) 3, Q58) 2, Q59) 3, Q60) 4

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CBSE UGC NET - DECEMBER 2014

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
1. CSS stands for
(A) Cascading Style Sheets (B) Collecting Style Sheets
(C) Comparative Style Sheets (D) Comprehensive Style Sheets
2. MOOC stands for
(A) Media Online Open Course (B) Massachusetts Open Online Course
(C) Massive Open Online Course (D) Myrind Open Online Course
3. Binary equivale nt of decimal number 35 is

(A) 100011 (B) 110001

(C) 110101 (D) 101011
4. gif. jpg, bmp, png are used as extensions for files which store
(A) audio data (B) image data
(C) video data (D) text data

5. Symbols A-F are used in which one of the following?

(A) Binary number system (B) Decimal number system
(C) Hexadecimal number system (D) Octal number system
6. Which one of the following is not a search engine?
(A) Google (B) Chrome
(C) Yahoo (D) Bing
7. In terms of total CO, emissions from a country, identify the correct
sequence
(A) U.S.A. > China > India > Russia (B) China > U.S.A. > India > Russia
(C) China > U.S.A. > Russia > India (D) U.S.A. > China > Russia > India

8. Match List I and List II and identify the correct code:

List I List-II
a. World Health Day i. 16th September
b. World Population Day ii. 1st December
c. World Ozone Day iii. 1st July
d. World AIDS Day iv. 7th April
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
55

(B) iv iii i ii
(C) ii iii iv i
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(D) iii iv ii i
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9. Which of the anthropogenic activity accounts for more than ~2/3rd of

global water consumption?
(A) Agriculture (B) Hydropower generation
(C) Industry (D) Domestic and Municipal usage
10. One of the anthropogenic sources of gaseous pollutants
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in air is
(A) Cement industry (B) Fertiliser industry
(C) Foam industry (D) Pesticide industry

11. The maximum number of fake institutions / universities as identified by

the UGC in the year 2014 are in the State / Union territory of
(A) Bihar (B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu (D) Delhi
12. Which of the following institutions are empowered to confer or grant
degrees under the UGC Act, 1956?
1. A university established by an Act of Parliament.
2. A university established by an Act of Legislature.
3. A university / institution established by a linguistic minority.
4. An institution which is a deemed to be university.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1,2 and 3
(C) 1.2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
13. Which of the following are the tools of good governance?
1. Social Audit 2. Separation of Powers
3. Citizens Charter 4. Right to Information
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) 1,3 and 4 (B) 2. 3 and 4
(C) l and 4 (D) 1,2. 3 and 4
14. The cyclone Hudhud hit the coast of which State?

(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Kamataka

(C) Kerala (D) Gujarat
15. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource?
(A) Clean air (B) Fres h water
(C) Fertile soil (D) Salt

16. Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right is implied in

(A) Right to Freedom (B) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
56

(C) Right to Equality (D) Right against Exploitation

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17. Which of the following organizations deals with capacity building

Educational Planning?
(A) NCERT (B) UGC
(C) NAAC (D) NUEPA
18. Which of the following powers, the President has in relation to Lok Sabha?
1. Summoning 2. Adjournment sine die
3. Prorogation 4. Dissolution
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) 1 and 4 (B) 1.2 and 3

(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1,2, 3 and 4
19. The interval between two sessions of parliament must not exceed
(A) 3 months (B) 6 months
(C) 4 months (D) 100 days

20. Maximum participation of students during teaching is possible through

(A) Lecture method (B) Demonstration method
(C) Inductive method (D) Textbook method
21. Diagnostic evaluation ascertains

(A) Students performance at the beginning of instructions.

(B) Learning progress and failures during instructions.
(C) Degree of achievement of instructions at the end.
(D) Causes and remedies of persistent learning problems during instructions.
22. Instructional aids are used by the teacher to
(A) glorify the class (B) attract the students
(C) clarify the concepts (D) ensure discipline
23. Attitude of the teacher that affects teaching pertains to
(A) Affective domain (B) Cognitive domain
(C) Connative domain (D) Psychomotor domain

24. Education is the manifestation of perfection already in man was stated

by
(A) M.K.Gandhi (B) R.N. Tagore
(C) Swami Vivekanand (D) Sri Aurobindo
25. Which of the following is not a prescribed level of teaching?

(A) Memory (B) Understanding

(C) Reflective (D) Differentiation
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

26. The core elements of a dissertation are

(A) Introduction; Data Collection; Data Analysis; Conclusions and
Recommendations
(B) Executive Summary; Literature review; Data gathered; Conclusions:
Bibliography
(C) Research Plan; Research Data; Analysis: References
(D) Introduction; Literature Review; Research Methodology, Results;
Discussion and Conclusion

27. What is a Research Design?

(A) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory.
(B) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.
(C) The style in which you present your research findings e.g. a graph.
(D) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.

28. Sampling Cases means

(A) Sampling using a sampling frame
(B) Identifying people who are suitable for research
(C) Literally the researchers briefcase
(D) Sampling of people, newspapers, television programmes etc.

29. The frequency distribution of a research data which is symmetrical in

shape similar to a normal distribution but center peak is much higher, is
(A) Skewed (B) Mesokurtic
(C) Leptokurtic (D) Platykurtic
30. When planning to do as social research, it is better to

(A) approach the topic with an open mind

(B) do a pilot study before getting stuck into it
(C) be familiar with literature on the topic
(D) forget about theory because this is a very practical
31. When academicians are called to deliver lecture or presentation to an
audience on certain topics or a set of topics of educational nature, it is called
(A) Training Program (B) Seminar
(C) Workshop (D) Symposium
32. Media is known as
(A) First Estate (C) Third Estate
(B) Second Estate (D) Fourth Estate
33. The mode of communication that involves a single source transmitting
information to a large number of receivers simultaneously, is called
(A) Group Communication (B) Mass Communication
58

(C) Intrapersonal Communication (D) Interpersonal Communication

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34. A smart classroom is a teaching space which has

(i) Smart portion with a touch panel control system.
(ii) PC/Laptop connection and DVD/VCR player.
(iii) Document camera and specialized software
(iv) Projector and screen
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (ii) and (iv) only
(C) (i). (ii) and (iii) only (D) (i).(ii),(iii)and(iv)
35. The term Yellow Journalism refers to
(A) sensational news about terrorism and violence
(B) sensationalism and exaggeration to attract readers / viewers.
(C) sensational news about arts and culture
(D) sensational news prints in yellow paper.
36. In the classroom, the teacher sends the message either as words or
images. The students are really
(A) Encoders (B) Decoders
(C) Agitators (D) Propagators

37. The next term in the series: AB, ED, I H, NM, is

(A) TS (B) ST
(C) TU (D) SU
38. If STREAMERS is coded as UVTGALDQR, then KNOWLEDGE will be coded
as

(A) MQPYLCDFD (B) MPQYLDCFD

(C) PMYQLDFCD (D) YMQPLDDFC
39. A is brother of B. B is the brother of C. C is the husband of D. E is the
father of A. D is related to E as
(A) Daughter (B) Daughter-in-law
(C) Sister-in-law (D) Sister
40. Two numbers are in the ratio 3: 5. If 9 is subtracted from the numbers,
the ratio become 12: 23. The numbers are
(A) 30,50 (B) 36,60
(C) 33,55 (D) 42,70

41. The mean of the ages of father and his son is 27 years. After 18 years,
father will be twice as old as his son. Their present ages are
(A) 42.12 (B) 40,14
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(C) 30,24 (D) 36.18

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42. Digital Empowerment means

(i) Universal digit literacy
(ii) Universal access to all digital resources.
(iii) Collaborative digital platform for participative governance.
(iv) Probability of all entitlements for individuals through cloud.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii). (iii) and (iv)
43. The next term in the series: 2,7,28.63, 126. Is
(A) 215 (B) 245 (C) 276 (D) 296

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 44 to 48:

The literary distaste for politics, however, seems to be focused not so much on
the largely murky practice of politics in itself as a subject of literary
representation but rather more on how it is often depicted in literature, i.e., on
the very politics of such representation. A political novel often turns out to be
not merely a novel about politics but a novel with a politics of its own, for it
seeks not merely to show us how things are but has fairly definite ideas about
how things should be, and precisely what one should think and do in order to
make things move in that desired direction. In short, it seeks to convert and
enlist the reader to a particular cause or ideology; it often is (in an only too
familiar phrase) not literature but propaganda. This is s aid violate the very spirit
of literature which is to broaden our understanding of the world and to range of
our sympathies rather than to narrow them down through partisan
commitment. As John Keats said, We hate poetry that has a palpable design
upon us.
Another reason why politics does not seem amenable to the highest kind of
literary representation seems to arise from the fact that politics by its very
nature is constituted of ideas and ideologies. I f political situations do not lend
themselves to happy literary treatment, political ideas present perhaps an even
greate r problem in this regard. Literature, it is argued, is about human
experiences rather than about intellectual abstractions; it deals in what is called
the felt reality of human flesh and blood, and in sap and savour (rasa) rather
than in arid and lifeless ideas. In an extensive discussion of the matter in her
book Ideas and the Novel the American novelist Mary McCarthy observed that
ideas are still today felt to be unsightly in the novel though that was not so in
former days, i.e.. in the 18th and 19n centuries. Her formulation of the precise
nature of the incompatibility between ideas on the one hand and the novel on t
other betrays perhaps a divided conscience in the matter and a sense of
dilemma shared by many writers and readers: An idea cannot have loose ends,
but a novel, I almost think, needs them Nevertheless, there is enough in
60

common for the novelists to fee! the attraction of ideas while taking up arms
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against them most often with weapons of mockery.

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44. The constructs of politics by its nature is

(A) Prevalent political situation (B) Ideas and Ideologies
(C) Political propaganda (D) Understanding of Iranian nature

45. Literature deals with

(A) Human experiences in politics (B) Intellectual abstractions
(C) Dry and empty ideas (D) Felt reality of human life
46. The observation of the novelist. Mary McCarthy reveals
(A) unseen felt ideas of today in the novel
(B) dichotomy of conscience on political ideas and novels
(C) compatibility between idea and novel
(D) endless ideas and novels
47. According to the passage, a political novel often turns out to be a
(A) Literary distaste for politics (B) Literary representation of politics
(C) Novel with its own politics (D) Depiction of murky practice of politics
48. A political novel reveals
(A) Reality of the things (B) Writers perception
(C) Particular ideology of the readers (D) The spirit of literature

49. Warrior is related to sword, carpenter is related to saw. farmer is related to

plough. In the same way, the author is related to
(A) Book (B) Fame (C) Reader (D) Pen
50. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B and C over-lapping each
other. The circle A represents the class of honest people, the circle B represents
the class of sincere people and circle C represents the class of politicians, p, q. r,
s. U. X. Y represent different regions. Select the code that represents the region
indicating the class of honest politicians who are not sincere.

Codes:

(A) X (B) q
61

(C) p (D) s
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51. A man ought no more to value himself for being wiser than a woman if he
owes his advantage to a better education, than he ought to boast of his courage
for beating a man when his hands were tied.

The above passage is an instance of

(A) Deductive argument (B) Hypothetical argument
(C) Analogical argument (D) Factual argument
52. By which of the following proposition, the proposition wise men are hardly
afraid death is contradicted?

(A) Some wise men are afraid of death.

(B) All wise men are afraid of death.
(C) No wise men is afraid of death.
(D) Some wise men are not afraid of death.
53. When in a group of propositions, one proposition is claimed to follow from
the others, the group of propositions is called
(A) An argument (B) A valid argument
(C) An explanation (D) An invalid argument
54. Namita and Samita are brilliant and studious. Anita and Karabi are
obedient and irregular Babita and Namita are irregular but brilliant. Samita and
Kabita are regular and obedient. Who among them is/are brilliant, obedient,
regular and studious?
(A) Samita alone (B) Namita and Samita
(C) Kabita alone (D) Anita alone
For a country CO, emissions (million metric tons) from various sectors are given
in the following table. Answer the questions (55 to 60) based on the d ata given:

55. By what percentage (%), the total emissions of CO, have increased from
2005 to 2009?

(A) -89.32% (B) -57.62% (C) -40.32% (D) -113.12%

56. What is the average annual growth rate of CO, emissions in power sector?
(A) -12.57% (B) -16.87% (C) -30.81% (D) -50.25%
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

57. What is the percentage contribution of power sector to total CO, emissions
in the year 2008?
(A) -30.82% (B) -41.18% (C) -51.38% (D) -60.25%

58. In which year, the contribution (%) of industry to total sectoral CO,
emissions was minimum?
(A) 2005 (B) 2006 (C) 2007 (D) 2009

59. What is the percentage (%) growth of CO, emissions from power sector
during 2005 to 2009?
(A) 60 (B) 50 (C) 40 (D) 80

60. Which sector has recorded maximum growth in CO, emissions during
2005 to 2009?
(A) Power (B) Industry (C) Commercial (D) Agriculture

Answer Key:
Q1) A, Q2) C, Q3) A, Q4) B, Q5) C,

Q6) B, Q7) B, Q8) B, Q9) A, Q10) C,

Q11) B, Q12) C, Q13) 3, Q14) A, Q15) D,
Q16) B, Q17) D, Q18) C, Q19) B, Q20) B,
Q21) D, Q22) C, Q23) A, Q24) C, Q25) D,
Q26) D, Q27) D, Q28) D, Q29) C, Q30) C,

Q31) B, Q32) D, Q33) B, Q34) D, Q35) B,

Q36) B, Q37) A, Q38) B, Q39) B, Q40) C,
Q41) A, Q42) D, Q43) A, Q44) B, Q45) D,
Q46) A, Q47) C, Q48) B, Q49) D, Q50) D,
Q51) C, Q52) B, Q53) A, Q54) A, Q55) A,

Q56) A, Q57) B, Q58) A, Q59) A, Q60) D,

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UGC NET JUNE 2014

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
1. Which of the following are Central Universities?
1. Pondicherry University 2. Vishwa Bharati
3. H.N.B. Garhwal University 4. Kurukshetra University
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes:
(A) 1,2 and 3 (B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1,2 and 4

2. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the
code given below:
i. Rajasthan receives the highest solar radiation in the country.
ii. India has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world.
iii. The maximum amount of wind power is contributed by TamilNadu.
iv. The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda.
Codes:
(A) i and ii (B) i, ii and iii
(C) ii and iii (D) i and iv
3. Who among the following is the defacto executive head of the Planning
Commission?
(A) Chairman (B) Deputy Chairman
(C) Minister of State for Planning (D) Member Secretary
4. Education as a subject of legislation figures in the
(A) Union List (B) State List
(C) Concurrent List (D) Residuary Powers
5. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (i) and (ii).
Statement: India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments: (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.
(ii) No, it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.

Codes:
(A) Only argument (i) is strong. (B) Only argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong. (D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
6. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept?
(A) Assam University (B) Delhi University
64

(C) Hyderabad University (D) Pondicherry University

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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

7. Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University?

1. Central University is established under an Act of Parliament.
2. The President of India acts as the visitor of the University.
3. The President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive
Committee or the Board of Management of the University.
4. The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive
Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Codes:
(A) 1,2 and 4 (B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 1,2 and3 (D) 1,2, 3 and 4
8. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned by
the Ministry of Human Resource Development to

(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium for Educational Communication
(C) National Knowledge Commission
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University
9. Classroom communication is normally considered as

(A) effective (B) cognitive

(C) affective (D) selective
10. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching?
(A) Students asking questions (B) Maximum attendance of the students
(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom (D) Students taking notes

11. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching?

(A) Lecture (B) Discussion
(C) Demonstration (D) Narration
12. Dyslexia is associated with
(A) mental disorder (B) behavioural disorder
(C) reading disorder (D) writing disorder
13. The research approach of Max Weber to understand how people create
meanings in natural settings is identified as
(A) positive paradigm (B) critical paradigm
(C) natural paradigm (D) interpretative paradigm

14. Which one of the following is a non-probability sampling?

(A) Simple random (B) Purposive
(C) Systematic (D) Stratified
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

15. I dentify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning progress to
provide continuous feedback to the students during instruction.
(A) Placement (B) Diagnostic
(C) Formative (D) Summative
16. The research stream of immediate application is
(A) Conceptual research (B) Action research
(C) Fundamental research (D) Empirical research
17. Who among the following, propounded the concept of paradigm?

(A) Peter Haggett (B) Von Thunen

(C) Thomas Kuhn (D) John K. Wright
18. I n a thesis, figures and tables are included in
(A) the appendix (B) a separate chapter
(C) the concluding chapter (D) the text itself

19. A thesis statement is

(A) an observation (B) a fact
(C) an assertion (D) a discussion

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 20 to 24:

Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual
and from that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups
enjoying a common system of leadership which we call the State, The Indian
States special feature is the peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence
of social groups of various historical provenances which mutually adhere in a
geographical, economic, and political sense, without ever assimilating to each
other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language.
Modern Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the
regime of the family, upon the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the
turban is worn, for this may identify the litigants as members of a regional
group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law, though their
ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word
State above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict
between the individual and the State, atleast before foreign governments became
established, just as there was no concept of state sovereignty or of any church-
and-state dichotomy.

Modern Indian secularism has an admittedly peculiar feature: It requires the

state to make a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions.
These blessed aspects of Indias famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely
persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the rule) at once struck
Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the
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sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways
gave rise, at one remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas Mores Utopia.
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

There is little about modern India that strikes one at once as Utopian: but the
insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the absence of bigotry and
institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very
different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the
essence of all Utopians.
20. The basic construction of Thomas Mores Utopia was inspired by
(A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance.
(B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers.
(C) Social ine quality in India.
(D) European perception of Indian State.
21. What is the striking feature of modern India?
(A) A replica of Utopian State (B) Uniform laws
(C) Adherence to traditional values (D) Absence of Bigotry

22. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian State?

(A) Peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
(B) Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances
attached to each other in a geographical, economic and politicalsense
(C) Social integration of all groups
(D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups.
23. The author uses the word State to highlight
(A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout
the period of history.
(B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in
time.
(C) The concept of state sovereignty.
(D) Dependence on religion.
24. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian Secularism?
(A) No discrimination on religious considerations
(B) Total indifference to religion
(C) No space for social identity
(D) Disregard for social law
25. Photographs are not easy to
(A) publish (B) secure (C) decode (D) change

26. The grains that appear on a television set when operated are also referred to
as
(A) sparks (B) green dots (C) snow (D) rain drops
27. I n circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when there is
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(A) noise (B) audience (C) criticality (D) feedback

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28. Break-down in verbal communication is described as

(A) Short circuit (B) Contradiction
(C) Unevenness (D) Entropy

29. The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed in the area of
(A) Technological theory (B) Dispersion theory
(C) Minimal effects theory (D) Information theory
30. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2013 has bee n conferred on
(A) KaranJohar (B) Amir Khan
(C) Asha Bhonsle (D) Gulzar
31. Complete the series BB, FE, I I, ML, PP, ..by choosing one of the
following option given:
(A) TS (B) ST (C) RS (D) SR
32. A man started walking from his house towards south. After walking 6 km,
he turned to his left and walked 5 km. Then he walked further 3 km after
turning left. He then turned to his left and continued his walk for 9 km. How far
is he away from his house?
(A) 3km (B) 4 km (C) 5 km (D) 6 km
33. I n a post-office, stamps of three different denominations of rs7, rs 8, rs 10
are available. The exact amount for which one cannot buy stamps is
(A) 19 (B) 20 (C) 23 (D) 29
34. I n certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as DOMESTIC. In
this coding, what is the code word for the word RESPONSE?
(A) OMESUCEM (B) OMESICSM
(C) OMESICEM (D) OMESISCM
35. I f the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22,. is continued in the same pattern,
which one of the following is not a term of this series?
(A) 31 (B) 32 (C) 33 (D) 35
36. I f two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms can both be
true but can not both be false, the relation between those two propositions is
called
(A) contradictory (B) contrary
(C) sub-contrary (D) subaltern
37. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2 and 7. How many
numbers have been written?
(A) 32 (B) 36 (C) 40 (D) 38
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

38. If a large diamond is cut up into little bits, it will lose its value just as an
army is divided up into small units of soldiers, it loses its strength. The
argument put above may be called as

(A) Analogical (B) De ductive

(C) Statistical (D) Causal
39. Given below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select the code
which expresses a characteristic which is not of inductive in character.
(A) The conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.
(B) The conclusion is based on causal relation.
(C) The conclusion conclusively follows from its premises.
(D) The conclusion is based on observation and experiment.
40. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B & C inter-related with each
other. The circle A represents the class of Indians, the circle B represents the
class of scientists and circle C represents the class of politicians, p, q, r, s
represent different regions.
Select the code containing the region that indicates the class of Indian scientists
who are not politicians.

Codes:
(A) q and s only (B) s only
(C) s and r only (D) p, q and s only
41. Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn from those
premises. Select the code that expresses conclusion drawn validly from the
premises (separate ly or jointly).

Premises:
(a) All dogs are mammals.
(b) No cats are dogs.
Conclusions:
(i) No cats are mammals. (ii) Some cats are mammals.
(iii) No dogs are cats. (iv) No dogs are non-mammals.
Codes:
(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)
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Read the following table carefully. Based upon this table answer questions
from 42 to 46: Net Area under Irrigation by sources in a country (Thousand
Hectares)
Government Private Tube Wells &
Year Tanks Other Sources Total
Canals Canals Other

1997-98 17117 211 2593 32090 3102 55173

1998-99 17093 212 2792 33988 3326 57411

1999-00 16842 194 2535 34623 2915 57109

2000-01 15748 203 2449 33796 2880 55076

2001-02 15031 209 2179 34906 4347 56672

2002-03 13863 206 1802 34250 3657 53778

2003-04 14444 206 1908 35779 4281 56618

2004-05 14696 206 1727 34785 7453 58867

2005-06 15268 207 2034 35372 7314 60196

42. I dentify the source of Irrigation that has recorded the maximum incidence of
negative growth in terms of Net irrigated area during the years given in the
table.

(A) Government canals (B) Private canals

(C) Tube wells and other wells (D) Other sources
43. I n which of the following years, share of the tube wells and other wells in the
total net irrigated area was the highest?
(A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01 (C) 2002-03 (D) 2004-05

44. Which of the following sources of Irrigation has registered the largest
percentage of decline in Net area under irrigation during 1997- 98 and 2005-06?
(A) Government canals (B) Private canals
(C) Tanks (D) Other sources
45. Find out the source of Irrigation that has registered die maximum
improvement in terms of percentage of Net irrigated area during 2002-03 and
2003-04.
(A) Government canals (B) Tanks
(C) Tube wells and other wells (D) Other sources
46. I n which of the following years, Net irrigation by tanks increased at the
highest rate?
(A) 1998-99 (C) 2003-04 (B) 2000-01 (D) 2005-06
47. When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory by
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(A) RAM (B) ROM (C) CD-ROM (D) TCP

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48. Which one of the following is not. the same as the other three?
(A) MAC address (B) Hardware addres s
(C) Physical address (D) IP address

49. Identify the IP address from the following:

(A) 300-215 -317-3 (B) 302-215@ 417 -5
(C) 202 . 50 . 20 . 148 (D) 202-50-20-148
50. The acronym FTP stands for
(A) File Transfer Protocol (B) Fast Transfer Protocol
(C) File Tracking Protocol (D) File Transfer Procedure
51. Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file format?
(A) PNG (B) GI F (C) BMP (D)GUI
52. The first web browser is
(A) Internet Explorer (B) Netscape
(C) World Wide We b (D) Firefox
53. Lahar is a natural disaster involving
(A) eruption of large amount of material (B) strong winds
(C) strong water waves (D) strong winds and water waves
54. The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average consumption
of energy per person per year in India as 30 Mega Joules. If this consumption is
met by carbon based fuels and the rate of carbon emissions per kilojoule is 15 x
106 kgs, the total carbon emissions per year from India will be
(A) 54 million metric tons (B) 540 million metric tons
(C) 5400 million metric tons (D) 2400 million metric tons

55. Which of the following cities has been worst affected by urban smog in
recent times?
(A) Paris (B) London (C) Los Angeles (D) Beijing
56. The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies is
(A) run-off urban areas (B) run-off from agricultural forms
(C) sewage effluents (D) industrial effluents
57. Which one of the following green house gases has the shortest residence
time in the atmosphere?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbon (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane (D) Nitrous oxide
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

58. I n order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate change, there is

general agreement among the countries of the world to limit the rise in average
surface temperature of earth compared to that of per-industrial times by

(A) 1.5C to 2C (B) 2.0 C to 3.5 C

(C) 0.5C to l0C (D) 0.25 C to 0.5 C
59. The N ational Disaster Management Authority functions under the Union
Ministry of
(A) Environment (B) Water Resources
(C) Home Affairs (D) Defense
60. Match Lis t I and List II and select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List -I
a. Flood
b. Drought
c. Earthquake
d. Volcano
List II
1. Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration
2. Tremors produced by the passage of vibratory waves through the rocks of the
3. Avent through which molted substances come out
4. Excess rain and uneven distribution of water earth
Codes:
abcd
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2

Answer Key
Q1) A, Q2) D, Q3) B, Q4) C, Q5) A, Q6) B, Q7) C, Q8) B, Q9) C,
Q10) A, Q11) C, Q12) C, Q13) D, Q14) B, Q15) C, Q16) B, Q17) C,
Q18) D, Q19) C, Q20) A, Q21) D, Q22) B, Q23) D, Q24) A, Q25) C,
Q26) C, Q27) D, Q28) D, Q29) D, Q30) D, Q31) A, Q32) C, Q33) A,
Q34) C, Q35) C, Q36) C, Q37) A, Q38) A, Q39) C, Q40) B, Q41) C,
Q42) A, Q43) C, Q44) C, Q45) D, Q46) D, Q47) B, Q48) D, Q49) C,
Q50) A, Q51) D, Q52) C, Q53) A, Q54) B, Q55) D, Q56) C, Q57) C,
Q58) A, Q59) C, Q60) A
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

UGC NET DECEMBER 2013

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
1. Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013?
(A) Distance Education Council (DEC)
(B) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
(D) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
2. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Assessment
and Accreditation Council?

1. It is an autonomous institution.
2. It is tasked with the responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions of
higher education.
3. It is located in Delhi.
4. It has regional offices.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:
(A) l and 3 (B) l and 2
(C) l,2 and 4 (D) 2,3 and 4
3. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or
more States falls under its
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction (B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction (D) Writ Jurisdiction
4. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. There are seven Union Territories in India.
2. Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies
3. One Union Territory has a High Court.
4. One Union Territory is the capital of two States.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
5. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information
Commission?
1. The Central Information Commission is a statutory body.
2. The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners
are appointed by the President of India.
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3. The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum of Rs 25,000/-

4. It can punish an errant officer.
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1,2 and 4
(C) 1,2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4
6. Who among the following conducted the CNN-IBN The Hindu 2013 Election
Tracker Survey across 267 constituencies in 18 States?
(A) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)
(B) The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)
(C) CNN and IBN
(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu
7. In certain code TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. The code of CHILDREN will
be
(A) EKNJFTGP (B) EJKN FTGP (C) KNJFGTP (D) None of these

8. A person has to buy both apples and mangoes. The cost of one apple is Rs 7
whereas that of a mango is Rs 5/-. If the person has Rs 38, the number of
apples he can buy is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
9. A man pointing to a lady said, The son of her only brother is the brother of
my wife. The lady is related to the man as
(A) Mothers sister (B) Grand mother
(C) Mother-in-law (D) Sister of Father-in-law
10. I n this series 6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2, 2, 7,1, 4, 1, 3, 5, 8, 6,
how many pairs of successive numbers have a difference of 2 each?

(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8

11. The mean marks obtained by a class of 40 students is 65. The mean marks
of half of the students is found to be 45. The mean marks of the remaining
students is
(A) 85 (B) 60 (C) 70 (D) 65

12. Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three years ago, he was three times as old as
Sunita. The present age of Anil is
(A) 6 years (B) 8 years (C) 12 years (D) 16 years
13. Which of the following is a social network?
(A) amazon.com (B) eBay (C) gmail.com (D) Twitter

14.The population information is called parameter while the corresponding

sample information is known as
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(A) Universe (B) Inference (C) Sampling design (D) Statistics

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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 15 to 20:

Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International
Center for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property
(I CCROM) was established with UNESCOs assistance in 1959. The inter-
governmental organization with 126 member states has done a commendable
job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards,
and sharing technical expertise. I n this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge
its key role in global conservation, an assessment of international practices
would be meaningful to the Indian conservation movement. Consistent
investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination are
some of the positive lessons to imbibe.
Countries such as Italy have demonstrated that prioritizing heritage with
significant budget provision pays. On the other hand, India, which is no less
endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long wav to go. Surveys indicate that
in addition to the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally
valuable heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the
service of Archaeological Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained
conservation professionals. In order to overcome this severe shortage the
emphasis has been on setting up dedicate d labs and training ins titutions. It
would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream
research and engineering institutes, as has been done in Europe.Increasing
funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part.The real challenge
is to redefine international approaches to address local contexts.

Conservation cannot limit itself to enhancing the art-historical value of the

heritage structures, which international charters perhaps over emphasize. The
effort has to be broad-based: It must also serve as a means to improving the
quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first
tas k therefore is to integrate conservation efforts with sound development plans
that take care of people living in the heritage vicinity. Unlike in western
countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and conservation
practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the
Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but
is yet to receive substantial state support.

More strength for heritage conservation can be mobilized by aligning it with the
green building movement. Heritage structures are essentially Eco-friendly and
conservation could become a vital part of the sustainable building practices
campaign in future.
15. The outlook for conservation heritage changed

(A) after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the
Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property.
(B) after training the specialists in the field.
(C) after extending UNESCOs assistance to the educational institutions.
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(D) after ASIs measures to protect the monuments

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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

16. The inter-govemment organization was appreciated because of

(A) increasing number of members to 126.
(B) imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.
(C) consistent investment in conservation.
(D) its proactive role in renovation and restoration
17. I ndian conservation movement will be successful if there would be
(A) Financial support from the Government of India.
(B) Non-governmental organizations role and participation in the conservation
movement.
(C) consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and
dissemination of awareness for conservation.
(D) Archaeological Survey of Indias meaningful assistance.
18. As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small
number of prote cted monuments. As per given the total number of monuments
and enlisted number of protected monuments, percentage comes to
(A) 10 percent (B) 11 percent (C) 12 percent (D) 13 percent
19. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage?
(i) There should be significant budget provision to conserve our cultural
heritage.
(ii) Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.
(iii) Force the government to provide sufficient funds.
(iv) Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and engineering
institutes .

Choose correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (i) (ii), (iii ,(iv)
(B) (i). (ii) (iv)
(C) (i), (ii)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)

20. I NTACH is known for its contribution for conservation of our cultural
heritage. The full form of INTACH is
(A) International Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(B) Intra-national Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(C) Integrated Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(D) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
21. While delivering lecture if there is some disturbance in the class, a teacher
should
(A) keep quiet for a while and then continue.
(B) punis h those causing disturbance.
76

(C) motivate to teach those causing disturbance.

(D) not bother of what is happening in the class.
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22. Effective teaching is a function of

(A) Teachers satisfaction.
(B) Teachers honesty and commitment.
(C) Teachers making students learn and understand.
(D) Teachers liking for professional excellence.
23. The most appropriate meaning of learning is
(A) Acquisition of skills (B) Modification of behaviour
(C) Personal adjustment (D) Inculcation of knowledge

24. Arrange the following teaching process in order:

(i) Relate the present knowledge with previous one
(ii) Evaluation
(iii) Reteaching
(iv) Formulating instructional objectives
(v) Presentation of instructional materials
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (B) (ii), (i). (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii) (D) (iv), (i), (v). (ii), (iii)
25.CIET stands for
(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology
(B) Central Institute for Engine ering and Technology
(C) Central Institute for Education Technology
(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques.
26. Teachers role at higher education level is to
(A) provide information to students.
(B) promote self learning in students.
(C) encourage healthy competition among students.
(D) help students to solve their problems.
27.The Verstehen School of Understanding was popularised by
(A) German Social Scientists
(B) American Philosophers
(C) British Academicians
(D) Italian Political Analysts
28.The sequential operations in scientific research are
(A) Co-variation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Generalisation, Theorisation
(B) Ge neralisation, Co-variation, Theorisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations
(C) Theorisation, Generalisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Co-variation
(D) Elimination of Spurious Relations, Theorisation,Generalisation, Co-variation.
29. I n sampling, the lottery method is used for
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(A) Interpretation (B) Theorisation

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30. Which is the main objective of research?

(A) To review the literature
(B) To summarize what is already known
(C) To get an academic degree
(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts
31.Sampling error decreases with the
(A) decrease in sample size (B) increase in sample size
(C) process of randomization (D) process of analysis

32. The principles of fundamental research are used in

(A) action research (B) applied research
(C) philosophical research (D) historical research
33. Users who use media for their own ends are identified as
(A) Passive audience (B) Active audience
(C) Positive audience (D) Negative audience
34. Classroom communication can be described as
(A) Exploration (B) Institutionalisation
(C) Unsignified (D) Discourse
35. I deological codes shape our collective

(A) Productions (B) Perceptions

(C) Consumptions (D) Creations
36. I n communication, myths but are have power
(A) uncultural. (B) insignificant.
(C) imprecise. (D) unpreferred

37. The first multi- lingual ne ws agency of India was

(A) Samachar (B) API
(C) Hindustan Samachar (D) Samachar Bharati
38.Organisational communication can also be equated with
(A) intra-personal communication. (B) inter-personal communication.
(C) group communication. (D) mass communication.
39. I f two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such
that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between them is called
(A) Contradictory (B) Contrary
(C) Sub-contrary (D) Sub-alternation
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40. Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and
speak Hindi as Archana does.Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali.
Kris hna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can
speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali?
(A) Archana (B) Bulbul (C) Ananya (D) Krishna
41.A stipulative definition may be said to be
(A) Always true (B) Always false
(C) Sometimes true, sometimes false (D) Neither true nor false

42.When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premise/premises

conclusively, the argument is called
(A) Circular argument (B) Inductive argument
(C) Deductive argument (D) Analogical argument
43.Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun
and moves around the Sun as the Earth does. So those planets are inhabited by
various orders of creatures as the earth is.What type of argument is contained
in the above passage?
(A) Deductive (B) Astrological (C) Analogical (D) Mathematical
44. Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two
premises in four codes. Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.
Premises:
(i) All saints are religious, (major) (ii) Some honest persons are saints. (minor)
Codes:
(A) All saints are honest. (B) Some saints are honest.
(C) Some honest persons are religious. (D) All religious persons are honest
Following table provides details about the Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in
India from different regions of the world in different years. Study the table
carefully and answer questions from 45 to 48 based on this table.

Number of Foreign Tourist Arrivals

2007 2008 2009

Western Europe 1686083 1799525 1610086

North America 1007276 1027297 1024469

South Asia 982428 1051846 982633

South East Asia 303475 332925 348495

East Asia 352037 355230 318292

79

West Asia 171661 215542 201110

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Total FTAs in India 5081504 5282603 5108579

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45.Find out the region that contributed around 20 percent of the total foreign
tourist arrivals in India in 2009.
(A) Western Europe (B) North America
(C) South Asia (D) South East Asia
46. Which of the following regions has recorded the highest negative growth rate
of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009?
(A) Western Europe (B) North America
(C) South Asia (D) West Asia

47.out the region that has been showing declining trend in terms of share of
foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2008 and 2009.
(A) Western Europe (B) South East Asia
(C) East Asia (D) West Asia
48. I dentify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist
arrivals than the growth rate of the total FTAs in India in 2008.
(A) Western Europe (B) North America
(C) South Asia (D) East Asia
49. The post-industrial society is designated as
(A) Information society (B) Technology society
(C) Mediated society (D) Non-agricultural society
50. The initial efforts for internet based communication was for
(A) Commercial communication (B) Military purposes
(C) Personal interaction (D) Political campaigns
51. I nternal communication within institutions is done through
(A) LAN (B) WAN (C) EBB (D) MMS
52. Virtual reality provides
(A) Sharp pictures (B) Individual audio
(C) Participatory experience (D) Preview of new films
53. The first virtual university of India came up in

(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Maharashtra

(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu
54. Arrange the following books in chronological order in which they appeared.
Use the code given below:
(i) Limits to Growth (ii) Silent Spring
(iii) Our Common Future (iv) Resourceful Earth
Codes:
80

(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) (B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
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(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

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55. Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of desertification?

(A) Africa (B) Asia (C) South America (D) North America
56. Women are closer to nature than men. What kind of perspective is this?

(A) Realist (B) Essentialis (C) Feminist (D) Deep ecology

57. Which one of the following is not a matter a global concern in the removal of
tropical forests?
(A) Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone
layer
(B) Their role in maintaining the oxygen and carbon balance of the earth.
(C) Their ability to regulate surface and air temperatures, moisture content and
reflectivity.
(D) Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.
58. The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man-
environment interaction is one of the following:
(A) Natural Resource Conservation Approach
(B) Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach
(C) Rural-agricultural Growth Oriented Approach
(D) Watershed Development Approach

59. The major source of the pollutant gas,carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban
areas is
(A) Thermal power sector (B) Transport sector
(C) Industrial sector (D) Domestic sector
60. I n a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of

(A) Methane (B) Hydrogen (C) LPG (D) CNG

Answer Key:
Q1) A, Q2) B, Q3) C, Q4) D, Q5) C, Q6) A, Q7) B, Q8) D, Q9) D,
Q10) C, Q11) A, Q12) C, Q13) D, Q14) D, Q15) A, Q16) B, Q17) C,
Q18) B, Q19) B, Q20) D, Q21) C, Q22) C, Q23) B, Q24) D, Q25) C,

Q26) B, Q27) A, Q28) A, Q29) D, Q30) D, Q31) B, Q32) B, Q33) B,

Q34) D, Q35) B, Q36) C, Q37) C, Q38) C, Q39) A, Q40) C, Q41) D,
Q42) C, Q43) C, Q44) C, Q45) B, Q46) D, Q47) A, Q48) C, Q49) A,
Q50) B, Q51) A, Q52) C, Q53) D, Q54) C, Q55) A, Q56) B, Q57) A,
Q58) D, Q59) B, Q60) B
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UGC NET JUNE 2013

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
1. www stands for
(A) work with web (B) word wide web
(C) world wide web (D) worth while web
2. A hard disk is divided into tracks which is further subdivided into
(A) Clusters (B) Sectors (C) Vectors (D) Head
3. A computer program that translates a program statement by statement into
machine language is called a / an

(A) Compiler (B) Simulator (C) Translator (D) Interpreter

4. A Gigabyte is equal to
(A) 1024 Megabytes (B) 1024 Kilobytes
(C) 1024 Terabytes (D) 1024 Bytes
S. A Compiler is software which converts

(A). Characters to bits.

(B) High level language to machine language.
(C) Machine language to high level language
(D) Words to bits
6. Virtual memory

(A) an extremely large main memory.

(B) an extremely large secondary memory.
(C) an illusion of extremely large main memory
(D) a type of memory used in super computers.
7. The phrase tragedy of commons is in the context of

(A) tragic event related to damage caused by release of poisonous gases.

(B) tragic conditions of poor people.
(C) degradation of renewable free access resources
(D) climate change
8. Kyoto Protocol is related to

(A) Ozone depletion (B) Hazardous waste

(C) Climate change (D) Nuclear-energy
9. Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual
formation of surface ozone as a pollutant?
82

(A) Transport sector (B) Refrigeration and Airconditioning

(C) Wetlands (D) Fertilizers
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10. The smog in cities in India mainly consists of

(A) Oxides Of sulphur (B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide and SPM (D) Oxides of sulphur and ozone

11. Which of the following types of natural hazards have the highest potential to
cause damage to humans?
(A) Earth quakes (B) Forest fires
(C) Volcanic eruptions (D) Droughts and Floods
12. The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power production
in India is around
(A) 2 3 % (B) 22-25% (C) l0-12% (D) < 1%
13. I n which of the following categories the enrollment of students in higher in
2010 11 was beyond the percentage Of seats reserved?
(A) OBC students (B) SC students
(C) ST students (D) Woman students
14. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the University
Grants Commission (UGC)?
(A) It was established in 1956~by an Act of Parliament.
(B) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education.
(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the Central Government.
(D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities
15. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II)
Statement: Should India switch over to a two party system?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government.
(II) No, it will limit the choice of voters.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong;
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
16. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II):
Statement: Should persons with criminal background be banned from
contesting elections?
Arguments: (I) Yes, it will decriminalise politics.
(II) No, it will encourage the ruling party to file frivolous cases against their
political opponents.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
83

(C) Both the arguments are strong.

(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
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17. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the
Supreme Court of India?
1. A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.
2. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
3. He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.
4. He can be removed for proven misbehaviour or incapacity.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1,2and3 (B) 1,3and4 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1 and 4
18. I n the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only
to
(A) The President (B) The Vice-President
(C) The Prime Minister (D) The Cabinet Ministers

19. The black-board can be utilized best by a teacher for

(A) Putting the matter of teaching in black and white
(B) Making the students attentive
(C) Writing the important and notable points
(D) Highlighting the teacher himself

20. N owadays the most effective mode of learning is

(A) Self study (B) Face-to-face learning
(C) e-Learning (D) Blended learning
Note: Both C & D are correct
21. At the primary school stage, most of the teachers should be women because
they
(A) can teach children better than men.
(B) know basic content better than men.
(C) are available on lower salaries.
(D) can deal with children with love and affection.

22. Which one is the highest order of learning?

(A) Chain learning (B) Problem-solving learning
(C) Stimulus-response learning (D) Conditioned-reflex learning
23. A person can enjoy teaching as a profession when he
(A) has control over students.
(B) commands respect from students.
(C) is more qualified than his colleagues.
(D) is very close to higher authorities.
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24. A diagram speaks more than 1000 words The statement means that the
teacher should
(A) use diagrams in teaching. (B) speak more and more in the class.
(C) use teaching aids in the class. (D) not speak too, much in the class.
25. A research paper
(A) is a compilation of information on a topic.
(B) contains original research as deemed by the author.
(C) contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research conducted
by others.
(D) can be published in more than one journal.
26. Which one of the following belongs to the category of good research ethics?
(A) Publishing the same paper in two research journals without telling the
editors.
(B) Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the contributions of
other people in the relevant field or relevant prior work.
(C) Trimming outliers from a data set without discussing your reasons, in a
research paper.
(D) Including a colleague as an author on a research paper in return for a favour
even though the colleague did not make a serious contribution to the paper
27. Which of the following sampling methods is not based on probability?
(A) Simple Random Sampling (B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Quota Sampling (D) Cluster Sampling
28. Which one of the following references is written as per Modem Language
Association (MLA) format?
(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi: Prentice Hall of India,
2005
(B) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi: Prentice Hall of India,
2005
(C) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi, Prentice Hall of
India, 2005
(D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics. New Delhi: Prentice Hall of India,
2005
29. A workshop is

(A) a conference for discussion on a topic

(B) a meeting for discussion on a topic.
(C) a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students
discuss a topic.
(D) a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a
skill or technique for solving a specific problem.
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30. A working h ypothesis is

(A) a proven hypothesis for an argument.
(B) not required to be tested
(C) a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research
(D) a scientific theory

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (31 to 36):
The Taj Mahal has become one of the worlds best known monuments. This
domed white marble structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern end
of a four-quartered garden evoking the gardens of paradise, enclosed within
walls measuring 305 by 549 metres . Outside the walls, in an area known as
Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants, markets, serais and other
structures built by local merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the
other imperial structures of Mumtazabad were maintained by the income of
thirty villages given specifically for the tombs support.
The name Taj Mahal is unknown in Mughal chronicles, but it is used by
contemporary Europeans in India, suggesting that this was the tombs popular
name. In contemporary texts, it is generally called simply the Il1urninated Tomb
(Rauza-i-Munavvara). Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth
child in 1631. The Mughal court was then residing in Burhanpur. Her remains
were temporarily buried. by the grief stricken emperor in a spacious garden
known as Zainabad on the bank of the nver Tapti.
SIX months later her body was transported to Agra, where it was interred in
land chosen for the mausoleum. This land, situated south of the- Mughal city
on the bank of the Jamuna, had belonged to the Kachhwaha rajas since the
time of Raja Man Singh and was purchased from the then current raja, Jai
Singh. Although contemporary chronicle s indicate Jai Singhs willing
cooperation in this exchange, extant, farmans (imperial commands) indicate
that the final price was not settled until almost two years after the mausoleums
commencement. Jai Singhs further cooperation was insured by imperial orders
issued between 1632 and 1637 demanding that he provide stone masons and
carts to transport marble from the mines at Makrana, within his ancestral
domain, to Agra where both the Taj Mahal and Shah Jahans additions to the
Agra fort were constructed concurrently.

Work on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence

indicates much of the tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan
most lavishly celebrate d the Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal, the entire
complex was virtually complete.
31. Marble stone used for the construction of the Taj Mahal was brought from
the ancestral domain of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the place where mines of
marble is
(A) Burhanpur (B) Makrana (C) Amber (D) Jaipur
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32. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by

(A) Shah Jahan (B) Tourists (C) Public (D) European travelers
33. Point out the true statement from the following.

(A) Marble was not used for the construction of the Taj Mahal.
(B) Red sandstone is non-visible in the Taj Mahal complex.
(C) The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four-quartered garden known as Chahr
Bagh..
(D) The Taj Mahal was constructed to celebrate the Urs ceremony for Mumtaz
Mahal.
34. I n the contemporary texts the Taj Mahal is known
(A). Mumtazabad (B) Mumtaz Mahal
(C) Zainabad (D)Rauza-i-Munavvara.
35. The construction of the Taj Mahal was completed between the period

(A) 1632 1636 A.D. (B) 1630 1643A.D.

(C) 1632 -1643 A.D. (D) 1636 1643 A.D.
36. The documents indicating the ownership of land, where the Taj Mahal was
built, known as
(A) Farman (B) Sale Deed
(C) Sale-Purchase Deed (D) None oft he above
37. I n the process of Communication, which one Of the following is in the
chronological order?
(A) Communication, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message
(B) Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
(C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect
(D) Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect
38,. Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper in India was started in 1780 by
(A) Dr. Annie Besant (B) James Augustus Hicky
(C) Lord Cripson (D) AO Hume

39. Press censorship in India was imposed during the tenure of the Prime
Minister
(A)Rajeev Gandhi (B) Narasimha Rao
(C) Indira Gandhi (D) Deve Gowda
40. Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet
and mobile telephony is termed as
(A) Entertainment
(B) Interactive Communication
87

(C) Development Communication

(D) Communitarian
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41 Classroom communication of a teacher rest on the principle of

(A) Infotainment (B) Edutainment
(C) Entertainment (D) Enlightenment

42 ________ is important when a teacher communicates with his / her student

(A) Sympathy (B) Empathy
(C) Apathy (D) Antipathy
43. I n a certain code GALIB is represented by HBMJC. TIGER will be
represented by

(A) UJHFS (B) UHJSF

(C) JHUSF (D) HUJSF
44. I n a certain cricket tournament 45 matches were played. Each te am played
once against each of the other teams. The, number of teams participated in the
tournament is

(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14

45. The missing number in the series 40, 120, 60, 180, 90,?, 135 is
(A) 110 (B) 270 (C) 105 (D) 210
46. The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged
in an ascending order. The number at 6th position is

(A) 18 (B) 24 (C) 33 (D) 36

47. The mean of four numbers a, b, c, d is 100. If c = 70, then the mean of the
remaining numbers is
(A) 30 (B) 85/2 (C) 170/3 (D) 110
48. I f the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, the perimeter of the circle will
increase by
(A) 20% (B) 30% (C) 40% (D) 50%
49. I f the statement some men are honest is false, which among the following
statements will be true Choose the correct code given below
(i) All men are honest (ii) No men are honest
(iii) Some men are not honest (iv) All men are dishonest
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii), (i) and (iv)
50. Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question Bee
Honey, Cow Milk, Teacher ?
(A) Intelligence (B) Marks
88

(C) Lessons (D) Wisdom

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51. P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P, If R is the
sister of S, how is Q related to T?
(A) Wife (B) Sister-in-law
(C) Brother-in-law (D) Daughter-in-law
52. A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or
stirring emotions is called
(A)Lexical (B) Persuasive
(C) Stipulative (D)Precisions

53. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?
Statements:
(i) Venn diagram is a clear method of notation
(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical
syllogisms
(iii) In Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical
syllogism is diagrammed.
(iv) In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a
categorical syllogism
Codes:
(A) (i) (ii) & (iii) (B) (i) (ii) &(iv) (C) (ii) (iii)& (iv) (D) (i) (iii) &(iv)
54. I nductive reasoning presupposes
(A) Unity in human nature (B) Integrity in human nature
(C) Uniformity in human nature (D) Harmony in human nature

Read the table below and based on this table answer questions from 55 to
60:
Area under Major Horticulture Crop (in lakh hectares)
Year Fruits Vegetables Flowers Total Horticulture
Area

2005-06 53 72 1 187

2006-07 56 75 1 194

2007-08 58 78 2 202

2008-09 61 79 2 207

2009-10 63 79 2 209

55. Which of the following, two year have recorded the highest
rate increase in area under the total horticulture?
89

(A) 2005-06 & 2006-07 (B) 2006-07 & 2008- 09

(C) 2007-08 & 2008- 09 (D) 2006-07 & 2007-08
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56. Shares of the area under flower vegetables and fruits in the area under total
horticulture are respectively
(A) 1, 38 and 30 percent (B) 30, 38 an d 1 percent
(C) 38, 30 and 1 percent (D) 35, 36 and 2 percent
57. Which of the following has recorded the highest rate of increase in are
during 2005-06 to 2009-10?
(A) Fruits (B) Vegetables
(C) Flowers (D) Total horticulture

58. Find out the horticultural crop that has recorded an increase of area by
around10 percent from 2005-06 to 2009-10
(A) Fruits (B) Vegetables
(C) Flowers (D) Total horticulture
59. What has been the share of area under fruits, vegetables and flowers in the
area under total horticulture in 2007- 08?
(A) 53 percent (B) 68 percent (C) 79 percent (D) 100 percent
60. I n which year, area under fruits has recorded the highest rate of increase?
(A) 2006-07 (B) 2007-08 (C) 2008-09 (D) 2009-10

Answer Key
Q1) C, Q2) B, Q3) D, Q4) A, Q5) B,
Q6) C, Q7) C, Q8) C, Q9) A, Q10) B,
Q11) D, Q12) C, Q13) A, Q14) D, Q15) C,
Q16) A, Q17) D, Q18) C, Q19) C, Q20) D,

Q21) D, Q22) D, Q23) B, Q24) C, Q25) C,

Q26) B, Q27) C, Q28) D, Q29) D, Q30) C,
Q31) B, Q32) D, Q33) C, Q34) D, Q35) C,
Q36) A, Q37) C, Q38) B, Q39) C, Q40) B,
Q41) B, Q42) B, Q43) A, Q44) B, Q45) B,

Q46) C, Q47) D, Q48) D, Q49) B, Q50) D,

Q51) B, Q52) B, Q53) B, Q54) C, Q55) D,
Q56) A, Q57) C, Q58) B, Q59) B, Q60) A,
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UGC NET DECEMBER 2012

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
1. The English word Communication is derived from the words
(A) Communis and Communicare (B) Communist and Commune
(C) Communism and Communalism (D) Communion and Common sense
Answer: (A)

2. Chinese Cultural Revolution leader Mao Zedong used a type of

communication to talk to the masses is known as

(A) Mass line communication (B) Group communication

(C) Participatory communication (D) Dialogue communication
Answer: (A)

3. Conversing with the spirits and ancestors is termed as

(A) Transpersonal communication (B) Intrapersonal communication

(C) Interpersonal communication (D) Face-to-face communication
Answer: (A)

4. The largest circulated daily newspaper among the following is

(A) The Times of India (B) The Indian Express

(C) The Hindu (D) The Deccan Herald
Answer: (A)

5. The pioneer of the silent feature film in India was

(A) K.A. Abbas (B) Satyajit Ray

(C) B.R. Chopra (D) Dada Sahib Phalke
Answer: (D)

6. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of

(A) Infotainment (B) Edutainment

(C) Entertainment (D) Power equation
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Answer: (B)
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7. The missing number in the series :

0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?, 336, is
(A) 240 (B) 220 (C) 280 (D) 210

Answer: (D)

8. A group of 7 members having a majority of boys is to be formed out of 6 boys

and 4 girls. The number of ways the group can be formed is
(A) 80 (B) 100 (C) 90 (D) 110

Answer: (B)

9. The number of observations in a group is 40. The average of the first 10

members is 4.5 and the average of the remaining 30 members is 3.5. The
average of the whole group is

(A) 4 (B) 15/2 (C) 15/4 (D) 6

Answer: (C)

10. I f MOHAN is represented by the code KMFYL, then COUNT will be

represented by
(A) AMSLR (B) MSLAR (C) MASRL (D) SAMLR
Answer: (A)

11. The sum of the ages of two persons A and B is 50. 5 years ago, the ratio of
their ages was 5/3. The present age of A and B are

(A) 30, 20 (B) 35, 15 (C) 38, 12 (D) 40, 10

Answer: (A)

12. Let a means minus (), b means multiplied by (X), C means divided by (/)
and D means plus (+). The value of 90 D 9 a 29 C 10 b 2 is

(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14

Answer: (D)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

13. Consider the AssertionI and AssertionII and select the right code given
below:
AssertionI: Even Bank-lockers are not safe. Thieves can break them and take
away your wealth. But thieves cannot go to heaven. So you should keep your
wealth in heaven.
AssertionII: The difference of skin-colour of beings is because of the distance
from the sun and not because of some permanent traits. Skin-colour is the
res ult of bodys reaction to the sun and its rays.

Codes :
(A) Both the assertions-I and II are forms of argument.
(B) The assertion-I is an argument but the assertion-II is not.
(C) The assertion-II is an argument but the assertion-I is not.
(D) Both the assertions are explanations of facts.

Answer: (B)

14. By which of the following proposition, the proposition some men are not
honest is contradicted?
(A) All men are honest. (B) Some men are honest.
(C) No men are honest. (D) All of the above.
Answer: (A)

15. A stipulative definition is

(A) always true (B) always false
(C) sometimes true sometimes false (D) neither true nor false
Answer: (D)

16. Choose the appropriate alternative given in the codes to replace the question
mark.

Examine r Examinee, Pleader Client, Preceptor ?

(A) Customer
(B) Path-finder
(C) Perceiver
(D) Disciple

Answer: (D)
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17. I f the statement most of the students are obedient is taken to be true,
which one of the following pair of statements can be claimed to be true?
I. All obedient persons are students.
II. All students are obedient.
III. Some students are obedient.
IV. Some students are not disobedient.
Codes :
(A) I & II

(B) II & III

(C) III & IV
(D) II & IV
Answer: (C)

18. Choose the right code:

A deductive argument claims that:
I. The conclusion does not claim something more than that which is contained
in the premises.
II. The conclusion is supported by the premise/premises conclusively.
III. If the conclusion is false, then premise/premises may be either true or false.
IV. If premise/combination of premises is true, then conclusion must be true.
Codes:
(A) I and II
(B) I and III

(C) II and III

(D) All the above
Answer: (A)
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On the basis of the data given in the following table, give answers to questions
from 19 to 24 :
Government Expenditures on Social Services

(As percent of total expenditure)

Sl. 2007- 2008- 2009- 2010-

Items
No. 08 09 10 11
Social Services 11.06 12.94 13.06 14.02
Education, sports &
(a) 4.02 4.04 3.96 4.46
youth affairs
(b) Health & family welfare 2.05 1.91 1.90 2.03
Water supply, housing,
(c) 2.02 2.31 2.20 2.27
etc.
Information &
(d) 0.22 0.22 0.20 0.22
broadcasting
Welfare to SC/ST &
(e) 0.36 0.35 0.41 0.63
OBC
Labour and
(f) 0.27 0.27 0.22 0.25
employment

Social welfare &

(g) 0.82 0.72 0.79 1.06
nutrition
(h) North-eastern areas 0.00 1.56 1.50 1.75
(i) Other social services 1.29 1.55 1.87 1.34
Total Government
100.00 100.00 100.00 100.00
expenditure

19. How many activities in the social services are there where the expenditure
has been less than
5 percent of the total expenditures incurred on the social services in 2008-09?

(A) One
(B) Three
(C) Five
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
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20. I n which year, the expenditures on the social services have increased at the
highest rate?
(A) 2007-08 (B) 2008-09 (C) 2009-10 (D) 2010-11

Answer: (B)

21. Which of the following activities remains almost stagnant in terms of share
of expenditures?
(A) North-eastern areas (B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Information & broadcasting (D) Social welfare and nutrition
Answer: (C)

22. Which of the following items expenditure share is almost equal to the
remaining three items in the given years?
(A) Information & broadcasting (B) Welfare to SC/ST and OBC
(C) Labour and employment (D) Social welfare & nutrition
Answer: (D)

23. Which of the following items of social services has registered the highest rate
of increase in expenditures during 2007-08 to 2010-11?
(A) Education, sports & youth affairs (B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Social welfare & nutrition (D) Overall social services
Answer: (B)

24. Which of the following items has registered the highest rate of decline in
terms of expenditure during 2007-08 to 2009-10?
(A) Labour and employment (B) He alth & family welfare
(C) Social welfare & nutrition (D) Education, sports & youth affairs
Answer: (A)

25. ALU stands for

(A) American Logic Unit (B) Alternate Local Unit
(C) Alternating Logic Unit (D) Arithmetic Logic Unit
Answer: (D)
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26. A Personal Computer uses a number of chips mounted on a circuit board

called
(A) Microprocessor (B) System Board
(C) Daughter Board (D) Mother Board
Answer: (D)

27. Computer Virus is a

(A) Hardware (B) Bacteria
(C) Software (D) None of these
Answer: (C)

28. Which one of the following is correct?

(A) (17) 10 = (17)16 (B) (17)10 = (17) 8
(C) (17)10 = (10111)2 (D) (17) 10 = (10001)2
Answer: (D)

29. The file extension of MS-Word document in Office 2007 is _______.

(A) .pdf (B) .doc (C) .docx (D) .txt
Answer: (C)

30. _______ is a protocol used by e-mail clients to download e-mails to your

computer.
(A) TCP (B) FTP (C) SMTP (D) POP

Answer: (D)

31. Which of the following is a source of methane?

(A) Wetlands (B) Foam Industry
(C) Thermal Power Plants (D) Cement Industry

Answer: (A)

32. Minamata disaster in Japan was caused by pollution due to

(A) Lead (B) Mercury (C) Cadmium (D) Zinc
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Answer: (B)
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33. Biomagnification means increase in the

(A) concentration of pollutants in living organisms
(B) number of s pecies
(C) size of living organisms
(D) biomass
Answer: (A)

34. N agoya Protocol is related to

(A) Climate change (B) Ozone depletion

(C) Hazardous waste (D) Biodiversity
Answer: (D)

35. The second most important source after fossil fuels contributing to Indias
energy needs is
(A) Solar energy (B) Nuclear energy
(C) Hydropower (D) Wind energy
Answer: (C)

36. I n case of earthquakes, an increase of magnitude 1 on Richter Scale implies

(A) a ten-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.
(B) a ten-fold increase in the energy of the seismic waves.
(C) two-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.
(D) two-fold increase in the energy of seismic waves.

Answer: (A)

37. Which of the following is not a measure of Human Development Index?

(A) Literacy Rate (B) Gross Enrolment
(C) Sex Ratio (D) Life Expectancy

Answer: (C)

38. I ndia has the highest number of students in colleges after

(A) the U.K. (B) the U.S.A.
(C) Australia (D) Canada

Answer: (B)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

39. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about the Attorney
General of India?
1. The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High
Court, to be the Attorney General of India.
2. He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country.
3. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha.
4. He has a fixed tenure.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 3 only
Answer: (A)

40. Which of the following prefix President Pranab Mukherjee desires to be

discontinued while interacting with Indian dignitaries as well as in official
notings ?
1. His Excellency
2. Mahamahim
3. Honble 4. Shri/Smt.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (C)

41. Which of the following can be done under conditions of financial emergency?
1. State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished.
2. Central Government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of
States.
3. Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court can be
reduced.
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 2 and 3

Answer: (D)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

42. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List I List II

(a) Poverty Re duction Programme (i) Mid-day Meals

(b) Human Development Scheme (ii) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)
(c) Social Assistance Scheme (iii) National Old Age Pension (NOAP)
(d) Minimum Need Scheme (iv) MNREGA
Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer: (A)

43. For an efficient and durable learning, learner should have

(A) ability to learn only (B) requisite level of motivation only
(C) opportunities to learn only (D) desired level of ability and motivation

Answer: (D)

44. Classroom communication must be

(A) Teacher centric (B) Student centric
(C) General centric (D) Textbook centric

Answer: (B)

45. The best method of teaching is to

(A) impart information
(B) ask students to read books
(C) suggest good reference material
(D) initiate a discussion and participate in it
Answer: (D)

46. I nteraction inside the classroom should generate

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(A) Argument (B) Information (C) Ideas (D) Controversy

Answer: (C)
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47. Spare the rod and spoil the child, gives the message that
(A) punishment in the class should be banned.
(B) corporal punis hment is not acceptable.
(C) undesirable behaviour must be punished.
(D) children should be beaten with rods.
Answer: (C)

48. The type of communication that the teacher has in the classroom, is termed
as
(A) Interpersonal (B) Mass communication
(C) Group communication (D) Face-to-face communication
Answer: (C)

49. Which one of the following is an indication of the quality of a research

journal?
(A) Impact factor (B) h-index
(C) g-index (D) i10-index
Answer: (A)

50. Good research ethics means

(A) Not disclosing the holdings of shares/stocks in a company that sponsors
your research.
(B) Assigning a particular research problem to one Ph.D./research student only.
(C) Discussing with your colleagues confidential data from a research paper that
you are reviewing for an academic journal.
(D) Submitting the same research manuscript for publishing in more than one
journal.
Answer: (B)

51. Which of the following sampling methods is based on probability?

(A) Convenience sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Judgement sampling
(D) Stratified sampling
Answer: (D)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

52. Which one of the following references is written according to American

Psychological Association (APA) format?
(A) Sharma, V. (2010). Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata
McGraw Hill
(B) Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata
McGraw Hill
(C) Sharma.V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata
McGraw Hill
(D) Sharma, V. (2010), Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata
McGraw Hill
Answer: (A)

53. Arrange the following steps of research in correct sequence :

1. Identification of research problem

2. Listing of research objectives
3. Collection of data
4. Methodology
5. Data analysis
6. Results and discussion
(A) 1 2 3 4 5 6
(B) 1 2 4 3 5 6
(C) 2 1 3 4 5 6
(D) 2 1 4 3 5 6

Answer: (B)

54. I dentify the incorrect statement:

(A) A hypothesis is made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for
further investigations.
(B) A hypothesis is a basis for reasoning without any assumption of its truth.
(C) Hypothesis is a proposed explanation for a phenomenon.
(D) Scientific hypothesis is a scientific theory.
Answer: (D)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (55 to 60):
The popular view of towns and cities in developing countries and of urbanization
process is that despite the benefits and comforts it brings, the emergence of
such cities connotes environmental degradation, generation of slums and
squatters, urban poverty, unemployment, crimes, lawlessness, traffic chaos etc.
But what is the reality? Given the unprecedental increase in urban population
over the last 50 years from 300 million in 1950 to 2 billion in 2000 in developing
countries, the wonder really is how well the world has coped, and not how
badly.
In general, the urban quality of life has improved in terms of availability of water
and sanitation, power, health and education, communication and transport. By
way of illustration, a large number of urban residents have been provided with
improved wate r in urban areas in Asias largest countries such as China, I ndia,
Indonesia and Philippines. Despite that, the access to improved water in terms
of percentage of total urban population seems to have declined during the last
decade of 20th century, though in absolute numbers, millions of additional
urbanites, have been provided improved services. These countries have made
significant progress in the provision of sanitation services too, together,
providing for an additional population of more than 293 million citizens within a
decade (1990-2000). These improvements must be viewed against the backdrop
of rapidly increasing urban population, fiscal crunch and strained human
resources and efficient and quality-oriented public management.

55. The popular vie w about the process of urbanization in developing countries
is
(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Neutral (D) Unspecified
Answer: (B)

56. The average annual increase in the number of urbanites in developing

countries, from 1950 to 2000 A.D. was close to
(A) 30 million (B) 40 million (C) 50 million (D) 60 million
Answer: (A)

57. The reality of urbanization is reflected in

(A) How well the situation has been managed.
(B) How badly the situation has gone out of control.
(C) How fast has been the tempo of urbanization.
(D) How fast the environment has degraded.
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Answer: (A)
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58. Which one of the following is not considered as an indicator of urban quality
of life?
(A) Tempo of urbanization

(B) Provision of basic services

(C) Access to social amenities
(D) All the above
Answer: (A)

59. The author in this passage has tried to focus on

(A) Extension of Knowledge
(B) Ge neration of Environmental Consciousness
(C) Analytical Reasoning
(D) Descriptive Statement

Answer: (C)

60. I n the above passage, the author intends to state

(A) The hazards of the urban life
(B) The sufferings of the urban life

(C) The awareness of human progress

(D) the limits to growth
Answer: (D)

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UGC NET JUNE 2012

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
1. Video-Conferencing can be classified as one of the following types of
communication :

(A) Visual one way (B) Audio-Visual one way

(C) Audio-Visual two way (D) Visual two way
Answer: (C)

2. MC N ational University of Journalism and Communication is located at

(A) Lucknow (B) Bhopal (C) Chennai (D) Mumbai

Answer: (B)

3. All India Radio (A.I.R.) for broadcasting was named in the year
(A) 1926 (B) 1936 (C) 1946 (D) 1956

Answer: (B)

4. In India for broadcasting TV programmes which system is followed ?

(A) NTCS (B) PAL (C) NTSE (D) SECAM
Answer: (B)

5. The term DAVP stands for

(A) Directorate of Advertising & Vocal Publicity
(B) Division of Audio-Visual Publicity
(C) Department of Audio-Visual Publicity
(D) Directorate of Advertising & Visual Publicity
Answer: (D)

6. The term TRP is associated with TV shows stands for

(A) Total Rating Points (B) Time Rating Points
(C) Thematic Rating Points (D) Television Rating Points
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Answer: (D)
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7. Which is the number that comes next in the following sequence?

2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, _____
(A) 60 (B) 64 (C) 72 (D) 70

Answer: (C)

8. Find the next letter for the series YVSP

(A) N (B) M (C) O (D) L
Answer: (B)

9. Given that in a code language, 645 means day is warm; 42 means warm
spring and 634 means spring is sunny; which digit represents sunny ?
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 5
Answer: (A)

10. The basis of the following classification is :

first President of India author of Godan books in my library, blue things and
students who work hard
(A) Common names (B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases (D) Indefinite description
Answer: (C)

11. I n the expression Nothing is larger than itself the relation is larger than is
(A) antisymmetric (B) asymmetrical
(C) intransitive (D) irreflexive
Answer: (D)

12. Assertion (A) : There are more laws on the books today than ever before,
and more crimes being committed than ever before.

Reason (R) : Because to reduce crime we must eliminate the laws.

Choose the correct answer from below :
(A) (A) is true, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is false, (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
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Answer: (A)
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13. I f the proposition All men are not mortal is true then which of the following
inferences is correct ? Choose from the code given below :
1. All men are mortal is true. 2. Some men are mortal is false.
3. No men are mortal is doubtful. 4. All men are mortal is false.
Code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 1 and 3
Answer: (B)

14. Determine the nature of the following definition :

Abortion means the ruthless murdering of innocent beings.

(A) Lexical (B) Persuasive (C) Stipulative (D) Theoretical

Answer: (B)

15. Which one of the following is not an argument ?

(A) Devadutt does not eat in the day so he must be eating at night.
(B) If Devadutt is growing fat and if he does not eat during the day, he will be
eating at night.
(C) Devadutt eats in the night so he does not eat during the day.
(D) Since Devadutt does not eat in the day, he must be eating in the night.
Answer: (B)

16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to

(A) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(B) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic
form.
(C) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(D) assess but not represent the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic
form
Answer: (A)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

17. Reasoning by analogy leads to

(A) certainty (B) definite conclusion
(C) predictive conjecture (D) surety

Answer: (C)

18. Which of the following statements are false ? Choose from the code given
below :
1. Inductive arguments always proceed from the particular to the general.
2. A cogent argument must be inductively strong.
3. A valid argument may have a false premise and a false conclusion.
4. An argument may legitimately be spoken of as true or false.
Code :
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 4 (D) 1 and 2

Answer: (C)

19. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is between F and

C, A is between E and D, F is to the left of D. Who is between A and F ?
(A) B (B) C (C) D (D) E

Answer: (C)

20. The price of petrol increases by 25%. By what percentage must a customer
reduce the consumption so that the earlier bill on the petrol does not alter ?
(A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 30% (D) 33.33%

Answer: (A)

21. I f Ram knows that y is an integer greater than 2 and less than 7 and Hari
knows that y is an integer greater than 5 and less than 10, then they may
correctly conclude that

(A) y can be exactly determined

(B) y may be either of two values
(C) y may be any of three values
(D) there is no value of y satisfying these conditions
Answer: (A)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

22. Four pipes can fill a reservoir in 15, 20, 30 and 60 hours respectively. The
first one was opened at 6 AM, second at 7 AM, third at 8 AM and the fourth at 9
AM. When will the reservoir be filled ?

(A) 11 AM (B) 12 N oon (C) 1 PM (D) 1:30 PM

Answer: (C)

23. What is the contribution of wind and solar power in absolute terms in the
electricity generation ?

(A) 6.79 GW (B) 19.4 GW (C) 9.7 GW (D) 29.1 GW

Answer: (A)

24. What is the contribution of renewable energy sources in absolute terms in

the electricity generation ?
(A) 29.1 GW (B) 26.19 GW (C) 67.9 GW (D) 97 GW
Answer: (B)

25. TCP/IP is necessary if one is to connect to the

(A) Phone lines (B) LAN (C) Internet (D) a Server
Answer: (C)

26. Each character on the keyboard of computer has an ASCII value which
stands for
(A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
(D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change
Answer: (B)

27. Which of the following is not a programming language ?

(A) Pascal
(B) Microsoft Office
(C) Java
(D) C++
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Answer: (B)
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28. Minimum number of bits required to store any 3 digit decimal number is
equal to
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 10

Answer: (D)

29. I nternet explorer is a type of

(A) Operating System (B) Compiler
(C) Browser (D) IP address

Answer: (C)

30. POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in which

(A) One automatically gets ones mail everyday
(B) One has to be connected to the server to read or write ones mail
(C) One only has to be connected to the server to send and receive email
(D) One does not need any telephone lines
Answer: (C)

31. I rritation in eyes is caused by the pollutant

(A) Sulphur di-oxide (B) Ozone (C) PAN (D) Nitrous oxide
Answer: (C)

32. Which is the source of chlorofluorocarbons ?

(A) Thermal power plants (B) Automobiles
(C) Refrigeration and Airconditioning (D) Fertilizers
Answer: (C)

33. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource ?

(A) Clean air
(B) Fertile soil
(C) Fresh water
(D) Salt
Answer: (D)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

34. Which of the following parameters is not used as a pollution indicator in

water ?
(A) Total dissolved solids (B) Coliform count
(C) Dissolved oxygen (D) Density
Answer: (D)

35. S and P waves are associated with

(A) floods (B) wind energy
(C) earthquakes (D) tidal energy
Answer: (C)

36. Match Lists I and II and select the correct answer from the codes given
below :
List I List II
(i) Ozone hole (a) Tsunami
(ii) Greenhouse effect (b) UV radiations
(iii) Natural hazards (c) Methane
(iv) Sustainable development (d) Eco-centrism

Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (c) (a) (d)
(B) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(C) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(D) (d) (b) (c) (a)
Answer: (A)

37. I ndian Institute of Advanced Study is located at

(A) Dharmshala (B) Shimla (C) Solan (D) Chandigarh

Answer: (B)

38. I ndicate the number of Regional Offices of National Council of Teacher

Education.
(A) 04 (B) 05 (C) 06 (D) 08
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Answer: (A)
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39. Which of the following rights was considered the Heart and Soul of the
Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar ?
(A) Freedom of Speech (B) Right to Equality
(C) Right to Freedom of Religion (D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer: (D)

40. Who among the following created the office of the District Collector in India ?
(A) Lord Cornwallis (B) Warren Hastings
(C) The Royal Commission on Decentralisation (D) Sir Charles Metcalfe
Answer: (B)

41. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include

1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem
2. To develop the scientific temper.
3. Respect for the Government.
4. To protect Wildlife.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 3, 4 and 2

Answer: (B)

42. The President of India takes oath

(A) to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.
(B) to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India.
(C) to uphold the Constitution and Laws of the country.
(D) to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law of the country.
Answer: (D)

43. I f you get an opportunity to teach a visually challenged student along with
normal students, what type of treatment would you like to give him in the class?
(A) Not giving extra attention because majority may suffer.
(B) Take care of him sympathetically in the class- room.
(C) You will think that blindness is his destiny and hence you cannot do
anything.
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(D) Arrange a seat in the front row and try to teach at a pace convenient to him.
Answer: (D)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

44. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good achievement test ?

(A) Reliability (B) Objectivity (C) Ambiguity (D) Validity

Answer: (C)

45. Which of the following does not belong to a projected aid ?

(A) Overhead projector (B) Blackboard
(C) Epidiascope (D) Slide projector

Answer: (B)

46. For a teacher, which of the following methods would be correct for writing on
the blackboard ?
(A) Writing fast and as clearly as possible.
(B) Writing the matter first and then asking students to read it.
(C) Asking a question to students and then writing the answer as stated by
them.
(D) Writing the important points as clearly as possible.
Answer: (D)

47. A teacher can be successful if he/she

(A) helps students in becoming better citizens
(B) imparts subject knowledge to students
(C) prepares students to pass the examination
(D) presents the subject matter in a well organized manner
Answer: (D)

48. Dynamic approach to teaching means

(A) Teaching should be forceful and effective

(B) Teachers should be energetic and dynamic

(C) The topics of teaching should not be static, but dynamic
(D) The students should be required to learn through activities
Answer: (D)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

49. The research that aims at immediate application is

(A) Action Research (B) Empirical Research
(C) Conceptual Research (D) Fundamental Research

Answer: (A)

50. When two or more successive footnotes refer to the same work which one of
the following expressions is used ?
(A) ibid (B) et.al (C) op.cit : (D) loc.cit.

Answer: (A)

51. N ine year olds are taller than seven year olds. This is an example of a
reference drawn from
(A) Vertical study (B) Cross-sectional study
(C) Time series study (D) Experimental study
Answer: (B)

52. Conferences are meant for

(A) Multiple target groups (B) Group discussions
(C) Show-casing new Research (D) All the above
Answer: (D)

53. Ex Post Facto research means

(A) The research is carried out after the incident
(B) The research is carried out prior to the incident
(C) The research is carried out along with the happening of an incident.
(D) The research is carried out keeping in mind the possibilities of an incident.
Answer: (A)

54. Research ethics do not include

(A) Honesty (B) Subjectivity (C) Integrity (D) Objectivity
Answer: (B)
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Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 55 to 60 :

James Madison said, A people who mean to be their own governors must arm
themselves with power that knowledge gives. I n India, the Official Secrets Act,
1923 was a convenient smokescreen to deny members of the public access to
information. Public functioning has traditionally been shrouded in secrecy. But
in a democracy in which people govern themselves, it is necessary to have more
openness. In the maturing of our democracy, right to information is a major step
forward; it enables citizens to participate fully in the decision-making process
that affects their lives so profoundly. It is in this context that the address of the
Prime Minister in the Lok Sabha is significant. He said, I would only like to see
that everyone, particularly our civil servants, should see the Bill in a positive
spirit; not as a draconian law for paralyzing Government, but as an instrument
for improving Government-Citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and
effective Government functioning for the good of our People. He further said,
This is an innovative Bill, where there will be scope to review its functioning as
we gain experience. Therefore, this is a piece of legislation, whose working will
be kept under constant reviews.
The Commission, in its Report, has dealt with the application of the
Right to Information in Executive, Legislature and Judiciary. The judiciary could
be a pioneer in implementing the Act in letter and spirit because much of the
work that the Judiciary does is open to public scrutiny, Government of India
has sanctioned an e-governance project in the Judiciary for about ` 700 crores
which would bring about systematic classification, standardization and
categorization of records. This would help the judiciary to fulfil its mandate
under the Act. Similar capacity building would be required in all other public
authorities. The transformation from nontransparency to transparency and
public accountability is the responsibility of all three organs of State.

55. A person gets power

(A) by acquiring knowledge (B) from the Official Secrets Act, 1923
(C) through openings (D) by denying public information
Answer: (A)

56. Right to Information is a major step forward to

(A) enable citizens to participate fully in the decision making process
(B) to make the people aware of the Act
(C) to gain knowledge of administration
(D) to make the people Government friendly
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Answer: (A)
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57. The Prime Minister considered the Bill

(A) to provide power to the civil servants
(B) as an instrument for improving Government-citizen interface resulting in a
friendly, caring and effective Government
(C) a draconian law against the officials
(D) to check the harassment of the people
Answer: (B)

58. The Commission made the Bill effective by

(A) extending power to the executive authorities
(B) combining the executive and legislative power
(C) recognizing Judiciary a pioneer in implementing the act in letter and spirit
(D) educating the people before its implementation

Answer: (C)

59. The Prime Minister considered the Bill innovative and hoped that
(A) It could be reviewed based on the experience gained on its functioning.
(B) The civil servants would see the Bill in a positive spirit.

(C) It would not be considered as a draconian law for paralyzing Government

(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

60. The transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of three

organs of the State.
These three organs are
(A) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Judiciary
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Executive
(C) Judiciary, Legislature and the Commission

(D) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary

Answer: (D)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

UGC NET DECEMBER 2011

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
1. Photo bleeding means
(A) Photo cropping (B) Photo placement
(C) Photo cutting (D) Photo colour adjustment
Answer: (D)

2. While designing communication strategy feed-forward studies are conducted

by

(A) Audience (B) Communicator

(C) Satellite (D) Media
Answer: (B)

3. In which language the newspapers have highest circulation?

(A) English (B) Hindi (C) Bengali (D) Tamil

Answer: (B)

4. Aspect ratio of TV Scree n is

(A) 4 : 3 (B) 3 : 4 (C) 2 : 3 (D) 2 : 4
Answer: (A)

5. Communication with oneself is known as

(A) Organisational Communication (B) Grapewine Communication
(C) Interpersonal Communication (D) Intrapersonal Communication

Answer: (D)

6. The term SITE stands for

(A) Satellite Indian Television Experiment
(B) Satellite International Television Experiment
(C) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
(D) Satellite Instructional Teachers Education
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Answer: (C)
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7. What is the number that comes next in the sequence?

2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ___
(A) 76 (B) 74 (C) 75 (D) 50

Answer: (C)

8. Find the next letter for the series

MPSV..
(A) X (B) Y (C) Z (D) A

Answer: (B)

9. If 367 means I am happy; 748 means you are sad and 469 means happy
and sad in a given code, then which of the following represents and in that
code ?

(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 4

Answer: (C)

10. The basis of the following classification is animal, man, house, book, and
student:

(A) Definite descriptions (B) Proper names

(C) Descriptive phrases (D) Common names
Answer: (D)

11. Assertion (A): The coin when flipped next time will come up tails.

Reason (R): Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it
came up heads.
Choose the correct answer from below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: (C)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

12. The relation is a sister of is

(A) non-symmetrical (B) symmetrical
(C) asymmetrical (D) transitive

Answer: (D)

13. I f the proposition Vegetarians are not meat eaters is false, then which of
the following inferences is correct? Choose from the codes given below:
1. Some vegetarians are meat eaters is true.
2. All vegetarians are meat eaters is doubtful.
3. Some vegetarians are not meat eaters is true.
4. Some vegetarians are not meat eaters is doubtful.
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (A)

14. Determine the nature of the following definition: Poor means having an
annual income of Rs. 10,000.
(A) persuasive (B) prcising (C) lexical (D) stipulative

Answer: (B)

15. Which one of the following is not an argument?

(A) If today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(B) Since today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(C) Ram insulted me so I punched him in the nose.
(D) Ram is not at home, so he must have gone to town.
Answer: (A)

16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to

(A) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences with the help of
Boolean Algebra of classes.
(B) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of
Boolean Algebra of classes.
(C) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help
of Boolean Algebra of classes.
119

(D) assess but not represent the validity of elementary inferences with the help
of Boolean Algebra of classes.
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Answer: (B)

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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

17. I nductive logic studies the way in which a premise may

(A) support and entail a conclusion (B) not support but entail a conclusion
(C) neither support nor entail a conclusion
(D) support a conclusion without entailing it
Answer: (D)

18. Which of the following statements are true? Choose from the codes given
below.

1. Some arguments, while not completely valid, are almost valid.

2. A sound argument may be invalid.
3. A cogent argument may have a probably false conclusion.
4. A statement may be true or false.
Codes:

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 3 and 4 (C) 4 alone (D) 3 and 4

Answer: (D)

19. I f the side of the square increases by 40%, then the area of the square
increases by

(A) 60 % (B) 40 % (C) 196 % (D) 96 %

Answer: (D)

20. There are 10 lamps in a hall. Each one of them can be switched on
independently. The number of ways in which hall can be illuminated is

(A) 102 (B) 1023 (C) 210 (D) 10 !

Answer: (B)

21. How many numbers between 100 and 300 begin or end with 2?
(A) 100 (B) 110 (C) 120 (D) 180

Answer: (B)

22. I n a college having 300 students, every student reads 5 newspapers and
every newspaper is read by 60 students. The number of newspapers required is
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(A) at least 30 (B) at most 20 (C) exactly 25 (D) exactly 5

Answer: (C)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

The total CO2 emissions from various sectors are 5 mmt. In the Pie Chart given
below, the percentage contribution to CO 2 emissions from various sectors is
indicated.

23. What is the absolute CO 2 emission from domestic sector?

(A) 1.5 mmt (B) 2.5 mmt (C) 1.75 mmt (D) 0.75 mmt
Answer: (D)

24. What is the absolute CO 2 emission for combined thermal power and
transport sectors?
(A) 3.25 mmt (B) 1.5 mmt (C) 2.5 mmt (D) 4 mmt
Answer: (A)

25. Which of the following operating system is used on mobile phones?

(A) Windows Vista (B) Android (C) Windows XP (D) All of the above
Answer: (B)

26. If (y)x represents a number y in base x, then which of the following numbers
is smallest of all ?
(A) (1111) 2
(B) (1111)8
(C) (1111)10
(D) (1111) 16
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Answer: (A)
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27. High level programming language can be converted to machine language

using which of the following?
(A) Oracle (B) Compiler (C) Mat lab (D) Assembler

Answer: (B)

28. HTML is used to create

(A) machine language program (B) high level program
(C) web page (D) web server

Answer: (C)

29. The term DNS stands for

(A) Domain Name System (B) De fense Nuclear System
(C) Downloadable New Software (D) Dependent Name Server

Answer: (A)

30. I Pv4 and IPv6 are addresses used to identify computers on the internet.
Find the correct statement out of the following:
(A) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is more than number of bits
required for IPv6 addres s.
(B) Number of bits required for IPv4 addres s is same as number of bits required
for IPv6 addres s.
(C) Number of bits required for IPv4 addres s is less than number of bits required
for IPv6 addres s.
(D) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is 64.
Answer: (C)

31. Which of the following pollutants affects the respiratory tract in humans?
(A) Carbon monoxide (B) Nitric oxide
(C) Sulphur di-oxide (D) Aerosols
Answer: (C)

32. Which of the following pollutants is not emitted from the transport sector?
(A) Oxides of nitrogen (B) Chlorofluorocarbons
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(C) Carbon monoxide (D) Poly aromatic hydrocarbons

Answer: (B)
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33. Which of the following sources of energy has the maximum potential in
India?
(A) Solar energy (B) Wind energy
(C) Ocean thermal energy (D) Tidal energy
Answer: (A)

34. Which of the following is not a source of pollution in soil?

(A) Transport sector (B) Agriculture sector
(C) Thermal power plants (D) Hydropower plants
Answer: (B)

35. Which of the following is not a natural hazard?

(A) Earthquake (B) Tsunami (C) Flash floods (D) Nuclear accident

Answer: (D)

36. Ecological footprint represents

(A) area of productive land and wate r to meet the resources requirement
(B) energy consumption
(C) CO 2 emissions per person
(D) forest cover
Answer: (A)

37. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is

(A) the moral values (B) the social values

(C) the political values (D) the economic values
Answer: (A)

38. I ndicate the number of Regional Offices of University Grants Commission of

India.
(A) 10 (B) 07 (C) 08 (D) 09
Answer: (B)
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39. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of

(A) The President of India (B) Finance Minister of India
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Secretary of Government of India
Answer: (D)

40. Match the List I with the List II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
List I List II

(Commissions and Committees) (Year)

(a) First Administrative Reforms (i) 2005
Commission
(b) Paul H. Appleby Committee I (ii) 1962
(c) K. Santhanam Committee (iii) 1966
(d) Second Administrative Reforms (iv) 1953
Commission
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Answer: (B)

41. Constitutionally the registration and recognition of political parties is the

function performed by
(A) The State Election Commission of respective States
(B) The Law Ministry of Government of India
(C) The Election Commission of India
(D) Election Department of the State Governments

Answer: (C)

42. The members of Gram Sabha are

(A) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas
(B) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker
(C) Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas
(D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat
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Answer: (D)
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43. By which of the following methods the true evaluation of the students is
possible?
(A) Evaluation at the end of the course. (B) Evaluation twice in a year.
(C) Continuous evaluation. (D) Formative evaluation.
Answer: (C)

44. Suppose a student wants to share his problems with his teacher and he
visits the teachers house for the purpose, the teacher should
(A) contact the students parents and solve his problem.
(B) suggest him that he should never visit his house.
(C) suggest him to meet the principal and solve the problem.
(D) extend reasonable help and boost his morale.
Answer: (D)

45. When some students are deliberately attempting to disturb the discipline of
the class by making mischief, what will be your role as a teacher?
(A) Expelling those students.
(B) Isolate those students.
(C) Reform the group with your authority.
(D) Giving them an opportunity for introspection and improve their behaviour.
Answer: (D)

46. Which of the following belongs to a projected aid?

(A) Blackboard (B) Diorama (C) Epidiascope (D) Globe
Answer: (C)

47. A teacher is said to be fluent in asking questions, if he can ask

(A) meaningful questions
(B) as many questions as possible
(C) maximum number of questions in a fixed time
(D) many meaningful questions in a fixed time
Answer: (A)

48. Which of the following qualities is most essential for a teacher?

(A) He should be a learned person. (B) He should be a well dressed person.
(C) He should have patience. (D) He should be an expert in his subject.
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Answer: (C)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

49. A hypothesis is a
(A) law (B) canon (C) postulate (D) supposition
Answer: (D)

50. Suppose you want to investigate the working efficiency of nationalised bank
in India, which one of the following would you follow?
(A) Area Sampling (B) Multi-stage Sampling
(C) Sequential Sampling (D) Quota Sampling

Answer: (B)

51. Controlled group condition is applied in

(A) Survey Research (B) Historical Research
(C) Experimental Research (D) Descriptive Research

Answer: (C)

52. Workshops are meant for

(A) giving lectures (B) multiple target groups
(C) showcase new theories (D) hands on training/experience
Answer: (D)

53. Which one of the following is a research tool?

(A) Graph (B) Illustration (C) Questionnaire (D) Diagram
Answer: (C)

54. Research is not considered ethical if it

(A) tries to prove a particular point.
(B) does not ensure privacy and anonymity of the respondent.
(C) does not investigate the data scientifically.
(D) is not of a very high standard.
Answer: (B)
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Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (Qn. Nos. 55
to 60 :
The catalytic fact of the twentieth century is uncontrollable development,
consumerist society, political materialism, and spiritual devaluation. This
inordinate development has led to the transcendental second reality of sacred
perception that biologically transcendence is a part of human life. As the
century closes, it dawns with imperative vigour that the first reality of
enlightened rationalism and the second reality of the Beyond have to be
harmonised in a worthy state of man. The de facto values describe what we are,
they portray the is of our ethic, they are est values (Latin est means is). The
ideal values tell us what we ought to be, they are esto values (Latin esto ought
to be). Both have to be in the ebb and flow of consciousness. The ever new
science and technology and the ever-perennial faith are two modes of one
certainty, that is the wholeness of man, his courage to be, his share in Being.
The materialistic foundations of science have crumbled down. Science itself has
proved that matter is energy, processes are as valid as facts, and affirmed the
non-materiality of the universe. The encounter of the two cultures, the
scientific and the humane, will restore the normal vision, and will be the
bedrock of a science of understanding in the new century. It will give new
meaning to the ancient perception that quantity (measure) and quality (value)
coexist at the root of nature. Human endeavours cannot afford to be
humanistically irresponsible.

55. The problem raised in the passage reflects overall on

(A) Consumerism (B) Mate rialism
(C) Spiritual devaluation (D) Inordinate development
Answer: (D)

56. The de facto values in the passage means

(A) What is (B) What ought to be (C) What can be (D) Where it is
Answer: (A)

57. According to the passage, the first reality constitutes

(A) Economic prosperity (B) Political development

(C) Sacred perception of life (D) Enlightened rationalism
Answer: (D)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

58. Encounter of the two cultures, the scientific and the human implies
(A) Restoration of normal vision
(B) Universe is both material and non-material

(C) Man is superior to nature

(D) Co-existence of quantity and quality in nature
Answer: (A)

59. The contents of the passage are

(A) Descriptive
(B) Prescriptive
(C) Axiomatic
(D) Optional
Answer: (D)

60. The passage indicates that science has proved that

(A) universe is material
(B) matter is energy
(C) nature has abundance

(D) humans are irresponsible

Answer: (B)

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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

UGC NET JUNE 2011

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
1. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on
(A) Primary Data only

(B) Secondary Data only

(C) Both Primary and Secondary Data
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)

2. Newton gave three basic laws of motion. This research is categorized as

(A) Descriptive Research
(B) Sample Survey
(C) Fundamental Research
(D) Applied Research

Answer: (C)

3. A group of experts in a specific area of knowledge assembled at a place and

prepared a syllabus for a new course. The process may be termed as
(A) Seminar

(B) Workshop
(C) Conference
(D) Symposium
Answer: (B)

4. In the process of conducting research Formulation of Hypothesis is followed

by
(A) Statement of Objectives
(B) Analysis of Data
(C) Selection of Research Tools
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(D) Collection of Data

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Answer: (D)

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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 5 to 10:

All historians are interpreters of text if they be private letters, Government
records or parish birthlists or whatever. For most kinds of historians, these are
only the necessary means to understanding something other than the texts
themselves, such as a political action or a historical trend, whereas for the
intellectual historian, a full understanding of his chosen texts is itself the aim of
his enquiries. Of course, the intellectual history is particularly prone to draw on
the focus of other disciplines that are habitually interpreting texts for purposes
of their own, probing the reasoning that ostensibly connects premises and
conclusions. Furthermore, the boundaries with adjacent subdisciplines are
shifting and indistinct: the history of art and the history of s cience both claim a
certain autonomy, partly just because they require specialised technical skills,
but both can also be seen as part of a wider intellectual history, as is evident
when one considers, for example, the common stock of knowledge about
cosmological beliefs or moral ideals of a period.
Like all historians, the intellectual historian is a consumer rather than a
producer of methods. His distinctiveness lies in which aspect of the past he is
trying to illuminate, not in having exclusive possession of either a corpus of
evidence or a body of techniques. That being said, it does seem that the label
intellectual history attracts a disproportionate share of misunderstanding.
It is alleged that intellectual history is the history of something that never really
mattered. The long dominance of the historical profession by political historians
bred a kind of philistinism, an unspoken belief that power and its exercise was
what mattered. The prejudice was reinforced by the assertion that political
action was never really the outcome of principles or ideas that were more
flapdoodle. The legacy of this precept is still discernible in the tendency to
require ideas to have licensed the political class before they can be deemed
worthy of intellectual attention, as if there were some reasons why the history of
art or science, of philosophy or literature, were somehow of interest and
significance than the history of Parties or Parliaments. Perhaps in recent years
the mirror-image of this philistinism has been more common in the claim that
ideas of any one is of systematic expression or sophistication do not matter, as if
they were only held by a minority.

Answer the following questions:

5. An intellectual historian aims to fully understand

(A) the chosen texts of his own
(B) political actions

(C) historical trends

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(D) his enquiries

Answer: (A)
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6. Intellectual historians do not claim exclusive possession of

(A) conclusions (B) any corpus of evidence
(C) distinctiveness (D) habitual interpretation

Answer: (D)

7. The misconceptions about intellectual history stem from

(A) a body of techniques (B) the common stock of knowledge
(C) the dominance of political historians (D) cosmological beliefs

Answer: (D)

8. What is philistinism?
(A) Reinforcement of prejudice (B) Fabrication of reasons
(C) The hold of land-owning classes (D) Belief that power and its exercise matter

Answer: (D)

9. Knowledge of cosmological beliefs or moral ideas of a period can be drawn as

part of
(A) literary criticism (B) history of science
(C) history of philosophy (D) intellectual history
Answer: (D)

10. The claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression do not matter, as
if they were held by a minority, is

(A) to have a licensed political class (B) a political action

(C) a philosophy of literature (D) the mirror-image of philistinism
Answer: (D)

11. Public communication tends to occur within a more

(A) complex structure

(B) political structure
(C) convenient structure
(D) formal structure
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Answer: (C)
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12. Transforming thoughts, ideas and messages into verbal and non-verbal
signs is referred to as
(A) channelisation (B) mediation (C) encoding (D) decoding

Answer: (A)

13. Effective communication needs a supportive

(A) economic environment (B) political environment
(C) social environment (D) multi-cultural environment

Answer: (C)

14. A major barrier in the transmission of cognitive data in the process of

communication is an individuals
(A) personality (B) expectation (C) social status (D) coding ability

Answer: (D)

15. When communicated, institutionalised stereotypes become

(A) myths (B) reasons (C) experiences (D) convictions
Answer: (C)

16. I n mass communication, selective perception is dependent on the receivers

(A) competence (B) pre-disposition (C) receptivity (D) ethnicity
Answer: (C)

17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words NUMERATOR :

DENOMINATOR and then select the pair of words from the following which have
a similar relationship :
(A) fraction : decimal (B) divisor : quotient
(C) top : bottom (D) dividend : divisor

Answer: (D)

18. Find the wrong number in the sequence 125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165
132

(A) 130 (B) 142 (C) 153 (D) 165

Answer: (D)
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19. I f HOBBY is coded as IOBY and LOBBY is coded as MOBY; then BOBBY is
coded as
(A) BOBY (B) COBY (C) DOBY (D) OOBY

Answer: (B)

20. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this
relationship, make the right choice for the second set:
K/T : 11/20 :: J/R : ?

(A) 10/8 (B) 10/18 (C) 11/19 (D) 10/19

Answer: (B)

21. I f A = 5, B = 6, C = 7, D = 8 and so on, what do the following numbers stand

for?

17, 19, 20, 9, 8

(A) Plane (B) Moped (C) Motor (D) Tonga
Answer: (B)

22. The price of oil is increased by 25%. If the expenditure is not allowed to
increase, the ratio between the reduction in consumption and the original
consumption is
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 1 : 4 (C) 1 : 5 (D) 1 : 6
Answer: (C)

23. How many 8s are there in the following sequence which are preceded by 5
but not immediately followed by 3 ?
5 8 3 7 5 8 6 3 8 5 4 5 8 4 7 6
5 5 8 3 5 8 7 5 8 2 8 5
(A) 4

(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 3
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Answer: (A)
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24. I f a rectangle were called a circle, a circle a point, a point a triangle and a
triangle a square, the shape of a wheel is
(A) Rectangle (B) Circle (C) Point (D) Triangle

Answer: (C)

25. Which one of the following methods is best suited for mapping the
distribution of different crops as provided in the standard classification of crops
in India ?

(A) Pie diagram (B) Chorochromatic technique

(C) Isopleth technique (D) Dot method
Answer: (B)

26. Which one of the following does not come under the methods of data
classification ?
(A) Qualitative (B) Normative (C) Spatial (D) Quantitative
Answer: (C)

27. Which one of the following is not a source of data ?

(A) Administrative records (B) Population census
(C) GIS (D) Sample survey
Answer: (A)

28. I f the statement some men are cruel is false, which of the following
statements/statement are/is true ?
(i) All men are cruel.
(ii) No men are cruel.
(iii) Some men are not cruel.
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) only

Answer: (D)

29. The octal number system consists of the following symbols :

(A) 0 7 (B) 0 9 (C) 0 9, A F (D) None of the above
134

Answer: (A)
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30. The binary equivalent of (19) 10 in signed magnitude system is

(A) 11101100 (B) 11101101 (C) 10010011 (D) None of these
Answer: (D)

31. DNS in internet technology stands for

(A) Dynamic Name System (B) Domain Name System
(C) Distributed Name System (D) None of these
Answer: (B)

32. HTML stands for

(A) Hyper Text Markup Language (B) Hyper Text Manipulation Language
(C) Hyper Text Managing Links (D) Hyper Text Manipulating Links
Answer: (A)

33. Which of the following is type of LAN ?

(A) Ethernet (B) Token Ring (C) FDDI (D) All of the above
Answer: (A)

34. Which of the following statements is true ?

(A) Smart cards do not require an operating system.
(B) Smart cards and PCs use some operating system.
(C) COS is smart card operating system.
(D) The communication between reader and card is in full duplex mode.

Answer: (B)

35. The Ganga Action Plan was initiated during the year
(A) 1986 (B) 1988 (C) 1990 (D) 1992
Answer: (A)

36. I dentify the correct sequence of energy sources in order of their share in the
power sector in India :
135

(A) Thermal > nuclear > hydro > wind (B) Thermal > hydro > nuclear > wind
(C) Hydro > nuclear > thermal > wind (D) Nuclear > hydro > wind>thermal
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37. Chromium as a contaminant in drinking wate r in excess of permissible

levels, causes
(A) Skeletal damage (B) Gastrointestinal problem
(C) Dermal and nervous problems (D) Liver/Kidney problems
Answer: (C)

38. The main precursors of winter smog are

(A) N 2O and hydrocarbons (B) NO x and hydrocarbons
(C) SO 2 and hydrocarbons (D) SO 2 and ozone
Answer: (B)

39. Flash floods are caused when

(A) the atmosphere is convectively unstable and there is considerable vertical
wind shear
(B) the atmosphere is stable
(C) the atmosphere is convectively unstable with no vertical windshear
(D) winds are catabatic
Answer: (A)

40. I n mega cities of India, the dominant source of air pollution is

(A) transport sector (B) thermal power
(C) municipal waste (D) commercial sector
Answer: (C)

41. The first Open University in India was set up in the State of
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Delhi (C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: (A)

42. Most of the Universities in India are funded by

(A) the Central Government
(B) the State Governments
(C) the University Grants Commission
(D) Private bodies and Individuals
136

Answer: (C)
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43. Which of the following organizations looks after the quality of Technical and
Management education in India ?
(A) NCTE

(B) MCI
(C) AICTE
(D) CSIR
Answer: (C)

44. Consider the following statements :

Identify the statement which implies natural justice.
(A) The principle of natural justice is followed by the Courts.
(B) Justice delayed is justice denied.
(C) Natural justice is an inalienable right of a citizen

(D) A reasonable opportunity of being heard must be given.

Answer: (C)

45. The President of India is

(A) the Head of State

(B) the Head of Government

(C) both Head of the State and the Head of the Government
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)

46. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President of
India ?
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission

(D) Governor of a State

Answer: (D)
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Not for Visually Handicapped Candidates

Questions 47 to 49 are based upon the following diagram in which there are
three interlocking circles A, P and S where A stands for Artists, circle P for
Professors and circle S for Sportspersons.
Different regions in the figure are lettered from a to f:

47. The region which represents artists who are neither sportsmen nor
professors.
(A) d (B) e (C) b (D) g
Answer: (B)

48. The region which represents professors, who are both artists and
sportspersons.
(A) a (B) c (C) d (D) g
Answer: (A)

49. The region which represents professors, who are also sportspersons, but not
artists.
(A) e (B) f (C) c (D) g
Answer: (C)
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Questions 50 to 52 are based on the following data :

Measurements of some variable X were made at an interval of 1 minute from 10
A.M. to 10:20 A.M. The data, thus, obtained is as follows :

X : 60, 62, 65, 64, 63, 61, 66, 65, 70, 68

63, 62, 64, 69, 65, 64, 66, 67, 66, 64

50. The value of X, which is exceeded 10% of the time in the duration of
measurement, is

(A) 69 (B) 68 (C) 67 (D) 66

Answer: (B)

51. The value of X, which is exceeded 90% of the time in the duration of
measurement, is

(A) 63 (B) 62 (C) 61 (D) 60

Answer: (C)

52. The value of X, which is exceeded 50% of the time in the duration of
measurement, is
(A) 66 (B) 65 (C) 64 (D) 63
Answer: (B)

53. For maintaining an effective discipline in the class, the teacher should
(A) Allow students to do what they like.
(B) De al with the students strictly.
(C) Give the students some problem to solve.
(D) Deal with them politely and firmly.
Answer: (D)

54. An effective teaching aid is one which

(A) is colourful and good looking
(B) activates all faculties
(C) is visible to all students
(D) easy to prepare and use
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Answer: (B)
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55. Those teachers are popular among students who

(A) develop intimacy with them (B) help them solve their problems
(C) award good grades (D) take classes on extra tuition fee

Answer: (B)

56. The essence of an effective classroom environment is

(A) a variety of teaching aids (B) lively student-teacher interaction
(C) pin-drop silence (D) strict discipline
Answer: (B)

57. On the first day of his class, if a teacher is asked by the students to
introduce himself, he should
(A) ask them to meet after the class (B) tell them about himself in brief
(C) ignore the demand and start teaching (D) scold the student for this
unwanted demand
Answer: (B)

58. Moral values can be effectively inculcated among the students when the
teacher
(A) frequently talks about values (B) himself practices them
(C) tells stories of great persons (D) talks of Gods and Goddesses
Answer: (B)

59. The essential qualities of a researcher are

(A) spirit of free enquiry (B) reliance on observation and evidence
(C) systematization or theorizing of knowledge (D) all the above
Answer: (D)

60. Research is conducted to

I. Generate new knowledge II. Not to develop a theory
III. Obtain research degree IV. Reinterpret existing knowledge

Which of the above are correct ?

(A) I, III & II (B) III, II & IV (C) II, I & III (D) I, III & IV
Answer: (D)
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UGC NET DECEMBER 2010

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
1. Which of the following variables cannot be expressed in quantitative terms?
(A) Socio-economic Status (B) Marital Status
(C) Numerical Aptitude (D) Professional Attitude
Answer: (D)

2. A doctor studies the relative effectiveness of two drugs of dengue fever. His
research would be classified as

(A) Descriptive Survey (B) Experimental Research

(C) Case Study (D) Ethnography
Answer: (B)

3. The term phenomenology is associated with the process of

(A) Qualitative Research (B) Analysis of Variance
(C) Correlational Study (D) Probability Sampling
Answer: (A)

4. The Sociogram technique is used to study

(A) Vocational Interest (B) Professional Competence
(C) Human Relations (D) Achievement Motivation
Answer: (C)

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 5 to 10:
It should be remembered that the nationalist movement in India, like all
nationalist movements, was essentially a bourgeois movement. It represented
the natural historical stage of development, and to consider it or to criticise it as
a working-class movement is wrong. Gandhi represented that movement and
the Indian masses in relation to that movement to a supreme degree, and he
became the voice of Indian people to that extent. The main contribution of
Gandhi to India and the Indian masses has been through the powerful
movements which he launched through the National Congress. Through nation-
wide action he sought to mould the millions, and largely succeeded in doing so,
and changing them from a demoralised, timid and hopeless mass, bullied and
crushed by every dominant interest, and incapable of resistance, into a people
141

with self-respect and self-reliance, resisting tyranny, and capable of united

action and sacrifice for a larger cause.
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Gandhi made people think of political and economic issues and every village and
every bazaar hummed with argument and debate on the new ideas and hopes
that filled the people. That was an amazing psychological change. The time was
ripe for it, of course, and circumstances and world conditions worked for this
change. But a great leader is necessary to take advantage of circumstances and
conditions. Gandhi was that leader, and he released many of the bonds that
imprisoned and disabled our minds, and none of us who experienced it can ever
forget that great feeling of release and exhilaration that came over the Indian
people.
Gandhi has played a revolutionary role in India of the greatest importance
because he knew how to make the most of the objective conditions and could
reach the heart of the masses, while groups with a more advanced ideology
functioned largely in the air because they did not fit in with those conditions
and could therefore not evoke any substantial response from the masses.
It is perfectly true that Gandhi, functioning in the nationalist plane, does not
think in terms of the conflict of classes, and tries to compose their differences.
But the action he has indulged and taught the people has inevitably raised
mass consciousness tremendously and made social issues vital. Gandhi and the
Congress must be judged by the policies they pursue and the action they
indulge in. But behind this, personality counts and colours those policies and
activities. In the case of very exceptional person like Gandhi the question of
personality becomes especially important in order to understand and appraise
him. To us he has represented the spirit and honour of India, the yearning of
her sorrowing millions to be rid of their innumerable burdens, and an insult to
him by the British Government or others has been an ins ult to India and her
people.

5. Which one of the following is true of the given passage?

(A) The passage is a critique of Gandhis role in Indian movement for

independence.
(B) The passage hails the role of Gandhi in Indias freedom movement.
(C) The author is neutral on Gandhis role in Indias freedom movement.
(D) It is an account of Indian National Congresss support to the working-class
movement.
Answer: (B)

6. The change that the Gandhian movement brought among the Indian masses
was

(A) Physical (B) Cultural (C) Technological (D) Psychological

142

Answer: (D)
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7. To consider the nationalist movement or to criticise it as a working-class

movement was wrong because it was a
(A) historical movement (B) voice of the Indian people
(C) bourgeois movement (D) movement represented by Gandhi
Answer: (B)

8. Gandhi played a revolutionary role in India because he could

(A) preach morality (B) reach the heart of Indians
(C) see the conflict of classes (D) lead the Indian National Congress
Answer: (B)

9. Groups with advanced ideology functioned in the air as they did not fit in
with
(A) objective conditions of masses (B) the Gandhian ideology
(C) the class consciousness of the people (D) the differences among masses
Answer: (A)

10. The author concludes the passage by

(A) criticising the Indian masses
(B) the Gandhian movement
(C) pointing out the importance of the personality of Gandhi
(D) identifying the sorrows of millions of Indians
Answer: (C)

11. Media that exist in an interconnected series of communication points are

referred to as
(A) Networked media (B) Connective media
(C) Nodal media (D) Multimedia

Answer: (A)

12. The information function of mass communication is described as

(A) diffusion (B) publicity C) surveillance (D) diversion
Answer: (C)
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13. An example of asynchronous medium is

(A) Radio (B) Television (C) Film (D) Newspaper
Answer: (D)

14. I n communication, connotative words are

(A) explicit (B) abstract (C) simple (D) cultural
Answer: (D)

15. A message beneath a message is labelled as

(A) embedded text (B) internal text
(C) inter-text (D) sub-text
Answer: (D)

16. I n analog mass communication, stories are

(A) static (B) dynamic (C) interactive (D) exploratory
Answer: (A)

17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words ALWAYS : NEVER and
then select from the following pair of words which have a similar relationship :
(A) often : rarely (B) frequently : occasionally
(C) constantly : frequentl (D) intermittently : casually
Answer: (A)

18. Find the wrong number in the sequence: 52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
(A) 27 (B) 34 (C) 43 (D) 48
Answer: (B)

19. I n a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35, then PAT is written in
the same code as
(A) 30 (B) 37 (C) 39 (D) 41
Answer: (B)
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20. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this
relationship, make the right choice for the second set: AF : IK : : LQ : ?
(A) MO (B) NP (C) OR (D) TV

Answer: (D)

21. I f 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6, 7584 = 6, what is 9236?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
Answer: (A)

22. I n an examination, 35% of the total students failed in Hindi, 45% failed in
English and 20% in both. The percentage of those who passed in both subjects
is
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 40

Answer: (D)

23. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a) and
(b). Supposing the statements are true, which of the following conclusions can
logically follow ?
Statements:
I. Some flowers are red.
II. Some flowers are blue.
Conclusions:
(a) Some flowers are neither red nor blue.
(b) Some flowers are both red and blue.
(A) Only (a) follows. (B) Only (b) follows.
(C) Both (a) and (b) follow. (D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.
Answer: (D)

24. I f the statement all students are intelligent is true, which of the following
statements are false?
(i) No students are intelligent.
(ii) Some students are intelligent.
(iii) Some students are not intelligent.
145

(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i) only
Answer: (B)
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25. A reasoning where we start with certain particular statements and conclude
with a universal statement is called
(A) Deductive Reasoning (B) Inductive Reasoning
(C) Abnormal Reasoning (D) Transcendental Reasoning
Answer: (B)

26. What is the smallest number of ducks that could swim in this formation
two ducks in front of a duck, two ducks behind a duck and a duck between two
ducks?
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 4 (D) 3
Answer: (D)

27. Mr. A, Miss B, Mr. C and Miss D are sitting around a table and discussing
their trades.
(i) Mr. A sits opposite to the cook.
(ii) Miss B sits right to the barber
(iii) The washerman sits right to the barber
(iv) Miss D sits opposite to Mr. C

What are the trades of A and B?

(A) Tailor and barber (B) Barber and cook
(C) Tailor and cook (D) Tailor and washerman
Answer: (C)

28. Which one of the following methods serve to measure correlation between
two variables?
(A) Scatter Diagram (B) Frequency Distribution
(C) Two-way table (D) Coefficient of Rank Correlation
Answer: (D)

29. Which one of the following is not an Internet Service Provider (ISP)?
(A) MTNL (B) BSNL
(C) ERNET India (D) Infotech India Ltd.
Answer: (D)
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30. The hexadecimal number system consists of the symbols

(A) 0 7 (B) 0 9 , A F (C) 0 7, A F (D) None of these
Answer: (B)

31. The binary equivalent of (15) 10 is (2s complement system is used)

(A) 11110001 (B) 11110000 (C) 10001111 (D) None of these
Answer: (A)

32. 1 GB is equal to

(A) 230 bits (B) 230 bytes (C) 220 bits (D) 220 bytes
Answer: (B)

33. The set of computer programs that manage the hardware/software of a

computer is called
(A) Compiler system (B) Operation system
(C) Operating system (D) None of these
Answer: (C)

34. S/MIME in Internet technology stands for

(A) Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
(B) Secure Multimedia Internet Mail Extension
(C) Simple Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
(D) Simple Multimedia Internet Mail Extension
Answer: (A)

35. Which of the following is not covered in 8 missions under the Climate Action
Plan of Government of India?
(A) Solar power (B) Waste to energy conversion
(C) Afforestation (D) Nuclear energy
Answer: (D)

36. The concentration of Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) in drinking water should
not exceed
(A) 500 mg/L (B) 400 mg/L (C) 300 mg/L (D) 200 mg/L
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Answer: (A)
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37. Chipko movement was first started by

(A) Arundhati Roy (B) Medha Patkar
(C) Ila Bhatt (D) Sunderlal Bahuguna

Answer: (D)

38. The constituents of photochemical smog responsible for eye irritation are
(A) SO 2 and O3 (B) SO 2 and NO 2
(C) HCHO and PAN (D) SO 2 and SPM

Answer: (C)

39. Assertion (A): Some carbonaceous aerosols may be carcinogenic.

Reason (R): They may contain polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs).
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (A)

40. Volcanic eruptions affect

(A) atmosphere and hydrosphere (B) hydrosphere and biosphere
(C) lithosphere, biosphere and atmosphere (D) lithosphere, hydrosphere and
atmos phere
Answer: (D)

41. I ndias first Defence University is in the State of

(A) Haryana (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Punjab
Answer: (A)

42. Most of the Universities in India

(A) conduct teaching and research only
(B) affiliate colleges and conduct examinations
(C) conduct teaching/research and examinations
148

(D) promote research only

Answer: (C)
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43. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body?

(A) Election Commission (B) Finance Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission (D) Planning Commission

Answer: (D)

44. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) Indian Parliament is supreme.
(B) The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.
(C) There is a division of powers between the Centre and the States.
(D) There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.
Answer: (B)

45. Which one of the following statements reflects the republic character of
Indian democracy?
(A) Written Constitution
(B) No State religion
(C) Devolution of power to local Government institutions
(D) Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament
Answer: (D)

46. Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be removed by only
the President of India?
(A) Chief Minister of a State
(B) A member of the State Public Service Commission
(C) Advocate-General
(D) Vice-Chancellor of a State University
Answer: (B)
47. I f two small circles represent the class of the men and the class of the
plants and the big circle represents mortality, which one of the following
figures represent the proposition All men are mortal. ?
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Answer: (C)
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The following table presents the production of electronic items (TVs and LCDs)
in a factory during the period from 2006 to 2010. Study the table carefully and
answer the questions from 48 to 52:

Year 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010

TV 6000 9000 13000 11000 8000
LCDs 7000 9400 9000 10000 12000

48. I n which year, the total production of electronic items is maximum?

(A) 2006 (B) 2007 (C) 2008 (D) 2010

Answer: (C)

49. What is the difference between averages of production of LCDs and TVs from
2006 to 2008?

(A) 3000 (B) 2867 (C) 3015 (D) 2400

Answer: (Wrong question)

50. What is the year in which production of TVs is half the production of LCDs
in the year 2010?
(A) 2007 (B) 2006 (C) 2009 (D) 2008
Answer: (B)

51. What is the ratio of production of LCDs in the years 2008 and 2010?
(A) 4 : 3 (B) 3 : 4 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 2 : 3

Answer: (B)

52. What is the ratio of production of TVs in the years 2006 and 2007?
(A) 6 : 7
(B) 7 : 6

(C) 2 : 3
(D) 3 : 2
Answer: (C)
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53. Some students in a class exhibit great curiosity for learning. It may be
because such children
(A) Are gifted

(B) Come from rich families

(C) Show artificial behaviour
(D) Create indiscipline in the class
Answer: (A)

54. The most important quality of a good teacher is

(A) Sound knowledge of subject matter
(B) Good communication skills
(C) Concern for students welfare
(D) Effective leadership qualities

Answer: (A)

55. Which one of the following is appropriate in respect of teacher student

relationship?
(A) Very informal and intimate

(B) Limited to classroom only

(C) Cordial and respectful
(D) Indifferent
Answer: (C)

56. The academic performance of students can be improved if parents are

encouraged to
(A) supervise the work of their wards
(B) arrange for extra tuition
(C) remain unconcerned about it

(D) interact with teachers frequently

Answer: (A)
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57. I n a lively classroom situation, there is likely to be

(A) occasional roars of laughter
(B) complete silence

(C) frequent teacher-student dialogue

(D) loud discussion among students
Answer: (C)

58. I f a parent approaches the teacher to do some favour to his/her ward in the
examination, the teacher should
(A) try to help him
(B) ask him not to talk in those terms
(C) refuse politely and firmly
(D) ask him rudely to go away

Answer: (C)

59. Which of the following phrases is not relevant to describe the meaning of
research as a process?
(A) Systematic Activity

(B) Objective Observation

(C) Trial and Error
(D) Problem Solving
Answer: (B)

60. Which of the following is not an example of a continuous variable?

(A) Family size
(B) Intelligence
(C) Height
(D) Attitude

Answer: (B)
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UGC NET JUNE 2010

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
1. Which one of the following is the most important quality of a good
teacher ?

(A) Punctuality and sincerity

(B) Content mastery
(C) Content mastery and reactive
(D) Content mastery and sociable
Answer: (C)

2. The primary responsibility for the teachers adjustment lies with

(A) The children
(B) The principal
(C) The teacher himself

(D) The community

Answer: (B)

3. As per the NCTE norms, what should be the staff strength for a unit of 100
students at B.Ed. level?

(A) 1 + 7
(B) 1 + 9
(C) 1 + 10
(D) 1 + 5
Answer: (C)

4. Research has shown that the most frequent symptom of nervous instability
among teachers is
(A) Digestive upsets (B) Explosive behaviour
(C) Fatigue (D) Worry
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Answer: (B)
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5. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum.
(B) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions.

(C) Curriculum includes both formal, and informal education.

(D) Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation.
Answer: (C)

6. A successful teacher is one who is

(A) Compassionate and disciplinarian

(B) Quite and reactive
(C) Tolerant and dominating
(D) Passive and active
Answer: (A)

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 7 to 12.
The phrase What is it like? stands for a fundamental thought process. How
does one go about observing and reporting on things and events that occupy
segments of earth space? Of all the infinite variety of phenomena on the face of
the earth, how does one decide what phenomena to observe? There is no such
thing as a complete description of the earth or any part of it, for every
microscopic point on the earths surface differs from every other such
point. Experience shows that the things observed are already familiar, because
they are like phenomena that occur at home or because they resemble the
abstract images and models developed in the human mind.
How are abstract images formed? Humans alone among the animals possess
language; their words symbolize not only specific things but also mental images
of classes of things. People can remember what they have seen or experienced
because they attach a word symbol to them.

During the long record of our efforts to gain more and more knowledge about
the face of the earth as the human habitat, there has been a continuing
interplay between things and events. The direct observation through the senses
is described as a percept; the mental image is described as a concept. Percepts
are what some people describe as reality, in contrast to mental images, which
are theoretical, implying that they are not real.
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The relation of Percept to Concept is not as simple as the definition implies. It is

now quite clear that people of different cultures or even individuals in the same
culture develop different mental images of reality and what they perceive is a
reflection of these preconceptions. The direct observation of things and events
on the face of the earth is so clearly a function of the mental images of the mind
of the observer that the whole idea of reality must be reconsidered.
Concepts determine what the observer perceives, yet concepts are
derived from the generalizations of previous percepts. What happens is that the
educated observer is taught to accept a set of concepts and then sharpens
or changes these concepts during a professional career. In any one field of
scholarship, professional opinion at one time determines what concepts and
procedures are acceptable, and these form a kind of model of scholarly
behaviour.

7. The problem raised in the passage reflects on

(A) thought process
(B) human behaviour
(C) cultural perceptions

(D) professional opinion

Answer: (C)

8. According to the passage, human beings have mostly in mind

(A) Observation of things

(B) Preparation of mental images

(C) Expression through language
(D) To gain knowledge
Answer: (B)

9. Concept means
(A) A mental image
(B) A reality
(C) An idea expressed in language form
(D) All the above
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Answer: (C)
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10. The relation of Percept to Concept is

(A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Reflective (D) Absolute

Answer: (C)

11. I n the passage, the earth is taken as

(A) The Globe (B) The Human Habitat
(C) A Celestial Body (D) A Planet

Answer: (C)

12. Percept means

(A) Direct observation through the senses
(B) A conceived idea

(C) Ends of a spectrum

(D) An abstract image
Answer: (B)

13. Action research means

(A) A longitudinal research

(B) An applied research
(C) A research initiated to solve an immediate problem
(D) A research with socioeconomic objective
Answer: (C)

14. Research is
(A) Searching again and again
(B) Finding solution to any problem
(C) Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem

(D) None of the above

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Answer: (C)
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15. A common test in research demands much priority on

(A) Reliability (B) Use ability
(C) Objectivity (D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

16. Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?
(A) Searching sources of information to locate problem.
(B) Survey of related literature

(C) Identification of problem

(D) Searching for solutions to the problem
Answer: (A)

17. I f a researcher conducts a research on finding out which administrative

style contributes more to institutional effectiveness ? This will be an example of
(A) Basic Research
(B) Action Research
(C) Applied Research
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

18. N ormal Probability Curve should be

(A) Positively skewed
(B) Negatively skewed

(C) Leptokurtic skewed

(D) Zero skewed
Answer: (D)

19. I n communication, a major barrier to reception of messages is

(A) audience attitude (B) audience knowledge

(C) audience education (D) audience income
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Answer: (A)
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20. Post-modernism is associated with

(A) newspapers (B) magazines
(C) radio (D) television

Answer: (D)

21. Didactic communication is

(A) intra-personal (B) inter-personal
(C) organisational (D) relational

Answer: (B)

22. I n communication, the language is

(A) the non-verbal code (B) the verbal code
(C) the symbolic code (D) the iconic code

Answer: (B)

23. I dentify the correct sequence of the following:

(A) Source, channel, message, receiver
(B) Source, receiver, channel, message

(C) Source, message, receiver, channel

(D) Source, message, channel, receiver
Answer: (A)

24. Assertion (A): Mass media promote a culture of violence in the society.

Reason (R): Because violence sells in the market as people themselves are
violent in character.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (C)
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25. When an error of 1% is made in the length of a square, the percentage error
in the area of a square will be
(A) 0 (B) 1/2 (C) 1 (D) 2

Answer: (C)

26. On January 12, 1980, it was a Saturday. The day of the week on January
12, 1979 was
(A) Thursday (B) Friday (C) Saturday (D) Sunday

Answer: (B)

27. I f water is called food, food is called tree, tree is called earth, earth is called
world, which of the following grows a fruit?
(A) Water (B) Tree (C) World (D) Earth

Answer: (C)

28. E is the son of A, D is the son of B, E is married to C, C is the daughter of B.

How is D related to E?
(A) Brother (B) Uncle (C) Father-in-law (D) Brother-in-law
Answer: (D)

29. I f INSURANCE is coded as ECNARUSNI, how HINDRANCE will be coded?

(A) CADNIHWCE (B) HANODEINR (C) AENIRHDCN (D) ECNARDNIH
Answer: (D)

30. Find the next number in the following series:

2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, ?
(A) 63
(B) 65

(C) 67
(D) 69
Answer: (B)
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31. Which of the following is an example of circular argument?

(A) God created man in his image and man created God in his own image.
(B) God is the source of a scripture and the scripture is the source of our
knowledge of God.
(C) Some of the Indians are great because India is great.
(D) Rama is great because he is Rama.
Answer: (B)

32. Lakshmana is a morally good person because

(A) he is religious (B) he is educated
(C) he is rich (D) he is rational
Answer: (D)

33. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a) and
(b). Supposing the statements are true, which of the following conclusions can
logically follow?
I. Some religious people are morally good.
II. Some religious people are rational.

Conclusions:
(a) Rationally religious people are good morally.
(b) Non-rational religious persons are not morally good.
(A) Only (a) follows.
(B) Only (b) follows.

(C) Both (a) and (b) follow.

(D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.
Answer: (C)

34. Certainty is

(A) an objective fact (B) emotionally satisfying

(C) logical (D) ontological
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Answer: (B)
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Questions from 35 to 36 are based on the following diagram in which there

are three intersecting circles I, S and P where circle I stands for Indians,
circle S stands for scientists and circle P for politicians. Different regions of the
figure are lettered from a to g.

35. The region which represents non Indian scientists who are politicians.
(A) f (B) d (C) a (D) c
Answer: (A)

36. The region which represents politicians who are Indians as well as
scientists.
(A) b (B) c (C) a (D) d
Answer: (C)

37. The population of a city is plotted as a function of time (years) in graphic

form below:

Which of the following inference can be drawn from above plot?

(A) The population increases exponentially.
(B) The population increases in parabolic fashion.
(C) The population initially increases in a linear fashion and then stabilizes.

(D) The population initially increases exponentially and then stabilizes.

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Answer: (D)
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In the following chart, the price of logs is shown in per cubic metre and that of
Plywood and Saw Timber in per tones. Study the chart and answer the
following questions 38, 39 and 40.

38. Which product shows the maximum percentage increase in price over the
period?

(A) Saw timber

(B) Plywood
(C) Log
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)

39. What is the maximum percentage increase in price per cubic metre of log ?
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 18

(D) 20
Answer: (D)

40. I n which year the prices of two products increased and that of the
third increased ?

(A) 2000
(B) 2002
(C) 2003
(D) 2006
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Answer: (B)
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41. Which one of the following is the oldest Archival source of data in
India ?
(A) National Sample Surveys

(B) Agricultural Statistics

(C) Census
(D) Vital Statistics
Answer: (A)

42. I n a large random data set following normal distribution, the ratio (%) of
number of data points which are in the range of (mean standard
deviation) to the total number of data points, is
(A) ~ 50%
(B) ~ 67%

(C) ~ 97%
(D) ~ 47%
Answer: (B)

43. Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer?

(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 16
Answer: (B)

44. Which one of the following is an example of Operating System?

(A) Microsoft Word
(B) Microsoft Excel
(C) Microsoft Access

(D) Microsoft Windows

Answer: (D)
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45. Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the decimal
number 23?
(A) 01011

(B) 10111
(C) 10011
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D)

46. Which one of the following is different from other members?

(A) Google
(B) Windows
(C) Linux
(D) Mac

Answer: (A)

47. Where does a computer add and compare its data?

(A) CPU
(B) Memory

(C) Hard disk

(D) Floppy disk
Answer: (C)

48. Computers on an internet are identified by

(A) e-mail address

(B) street address
(C) IP address
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
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49. The Right to Information Act, 2005 makes the provision of

(A) Dissemination of all types of information by all Public authorities to any
person.

(B) Establishment of Central, State and District Level Information Commissions

as an appellate body.
(C) Transparency and accountability in Public authorities.
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)

50. Which type of natural hazards cause maximum damage to property and
lives?
(A) Hydrological
(B) Hydro-meteorological

(C) Geological
(D) Geo-chemical
Answer: (B)

51. Dioxins are produced from

(A) Wastelands
(B) Power plants
(C) Sugar factories
(D) Combustion of plastics
Answer: (D)

52. The slogan A tree for each child was coined for
(A) Social forestry programme
(B) Clean Air programme
(C) Soil conservation programme

(D) Environmental protection programme

Answer: (A)
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53. The main constituents of biogas are

(A) Methane and Carbon di-oxide
(B) Methane and Nitric oxide

(C) Methane, Hydrogen and Nitric oxide

(D) Methane and Sulphur di-oxide
Answer: (A)

54. Assertion (A): In the world as a whole, the environment has degraded during
past several decades.
Reason (R): The population of the world has been growing significantly.
(A) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (B)

55. Climate change has implications for

1. soil moisture

2. forest fires
3. biodiversity
4. ground water
Identify the correct combination according to the code:
Codes :

(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (B)
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56. The accreditation process by National Assessment and Accreditation Council

(NAAC) differs from that of National Board of Accreditation (NBA) in terms of
(A) Disciplines covered by both being the same, there is duplication of efforts.

(B) One has institutional grading approach and the other has programme
grading approach.
(C) Once get accredited by NBA or NAAC, the institution is free from renewal of
grading, which is not a progressive decision.
(D) This accreditation amounts to approval of minimum standards in the quality
of education in the institution concerned.
Answer: (C)

57. Which option is not correct?

(A) Most of the educational institutions of National repute in scientific and
technical sphere fall
Under 64th entry of Union list.
(B) Education, in general, is the subject of concurrent list since 42nd
Constitutional Amendment
Act 1976.

(C) Central Advisory Board on Education (CABE) was first established in 1920.
(D) India had implemented the right to Free and Compulsory Primary Education
in 2002 through 86th Cons titutional Amendment.
Answer: (C)

58. Which statement is not correct about the National Education Day of India?
(A) It is celebrated on 5th September every year.
(B) It is celebrate d on 11th November every year.
(C) It is celebrate d in the memory of Indias first Union Minister of Education,
Dr. Abul Kalam Azad.

(D) It is being celebrated since 2008

Answer: (A)
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59. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
List I List II

(Articles of the
Constitution)
(I nstitutions)
(a) Article 280 (i) Administrative Tribunals
(b) Article 324 (ii) Election Commission of India

(c) Article 323 (iii) Finance Commission at Union level

(d) Article 315 (iv) Union Public Service Commission
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Answer: (A)

60. Deemed Universities declared by UGC under Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956,
are not permitted to
(A) Offer programmes in higher education and issue degrees.
(B) give affiliation to any institute of higher education.
(C) open off-campus and off-shore campus anywhere in the country and
overseas respectively without the permission of the UGC.
(D) offer distance education programmes without the approval of the Distance
Education Council
Answer: (C)
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UGC NET DECEMBER 2009

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
1. The University which telecasts interaction educational programmes through
its own channel is

(A) Osmania University

(B) University of Pune
(C) Annamalai University
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
Answer: (D)

2. Which of the following skills are needed for present day teacher to adjust
effectively with the classroom teaching?
1. Knowledge of technology
2. Use of technology in teaching learning

3. Knowledge of students needs

4. Content mastery
(A) 1 & 3
(B) 2 & 3
(C) 2, 3 & 4

(D) 2 & 4
Answer: (C)

3. Who has signed an MOU for Accreditation of Teacher Education Institutions

in India?

(A) NAAC and UGC

(B) NCTE and NAAC
(C) UGC and NCTE
(D) NCTE and IGNOU
Answer: (B)
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4. The primary duty of the teacher is to

(A) raise the intellectual standard of the students
(B) improve the physical standard of the students

(C) help all round development of the students

(D) imbibe value system in the students
Answer: (C)

5. Micro teaching is more effective

(A) during the preparation for teaching-practice

(B) during the teaching-practice
(C) after the teaching-practice
(D) always
Answer: (B)

6. What quality the students like the most in a teacher?

(A) Idealist philosophy (B) Compassion
(C) Discipline (D) Entertaining
Answer: (C)

7. A null hypothesis is
(A) when there is no difference between the variables
(B) the same as research hypothesis
(C) subjective in nature

(D) when there is difference between the variables

Answer: (A)

8. The research which is exploring new facts through the study of the past is
called

(A) Philosophical research (B) Historical research

(C) Mythological research (D) Content analysis
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Answer: (B)
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9. Action research is
(A) An applied research
(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems

(C) A longitudinal research

(D) Simulative research
Answer: (B)

10. The process not needed in Experimental Researches is

(A) Observation
(B) Manipulation
(C) Controlling
(D) Content Analysis
Answer: (B)

11. Manipulation is always a part of

(A) Historical research
(B) Fundamental research
(C) Descriptive research

(D) Experimental research

Answer: (C)

12. Which correlation co-efficient best explains the relationship between

creativity and intelligence?

(A) 1.00
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.3
Answer: (A)
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Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 13 to 18:
The decisive shift in British Policy really came about under mass pressure in the
autumn and winter of 1945 to 46 the months which Perderel Moon while
editing Wavells Journal has perceptively described as The Edge of a Volcano.
Very foolishly, the British initially decided to hold public trials of several
hundreds of the 20,000 I.N.A. prisoners (as well as dismissing from service and
detaining without trial no less than 7,000). They compounded the folly by
holding the first trial in the Red Fort, Delhi in N ovember 1945, and putting on
the dock together a Hindu, a Muslim and a Sikh (P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz,
Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon). Bhulabhai Desai, Tejbahadur Sapru and Nehru
appeared for the defence (the latter putting on his barristers gown after 25
years), and the Muslim League also joine d the countrywide protest.
On 20 November, an Intelligence Bureau note admitted that there has seldom
been a matter which has attracted so much Indian public interest and, it is safe
to say, sympathy this particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal
barriers. A journalist (B. Shiva Rao) visiting the Red Fort prisoners on the same
day reporte d that There is not the slightest feeling among them of Hindu and
Muslim A majority of the men now awaiting trial in the Red Fort is Muslim.
Some of these men are bitter that Mr. Jinnah is keeping alive a controversy
about Pakistan. The British became extremely nervous about the I.N.A. spirit
spreading to the Indian Army, and in January the Punjab Governor reported
that a Lahore reception for released I.N.A. prisoners had been attended by
Indian soldiers in uniform.

13. Which heading is more appropriate to assign to the above passage?

(A) Wavells Journal
(B) Role of Muslim League
(C) I.N.A. Trials

(D) Red Fort Prisoners

Answer: (C)

14. The trial of P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon
symbolises

(A) communal harmony

(B) threat to all religious persons
(C) threat to persons fighting for the freedom
(D) British reaction against the natives
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Answer: (C)
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15. I .N.A. stands for

(A) Indian National Assembly
(B) Indian National Association

(C) Inter-national Association

(D) Indian National Army
Answer: (D)

16. There has seldom been a matter which has attracted so much Indian Public
Interest and, it is safe to say, sympathy this particular brand of sympathy
cuts across communal barriers.
Who sympathises to whom and against whom?
(A) Muslims sympathised with Shah Nawaz against the British
(B) Hindus sympathised with P.K. Sehgal against the British

(C) Sikhs sympathised with Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon against the British
(D) Indians sympathised with the persons who were to be trialled
Answer: (D)

17. The majority of people waiting for trial outside the Red Fort and criticising
Jinnah were the
(A) Hindus
(B) Muslims
(C) Sikhs
(D) Hindus and Muslims both

Answer: (B)

18. The sympathy of I ndian soldiers in uniform with the released I.N.A.
prisoners at Lahore indicates
(A) Feeling of Nationalism and Fraternity

(B) Rebellious nature of Indian soldiers

(C) Simply to participate in the reception party
(D) None of the above
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Answer: (A)
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19. The country which has the distinction of having the two largest circulated
newspapers in the world is
(A) Great Britain

(B) The United States

(C) Japan
(D) China
Answer: (C)

20. The chronological order of non-verbal communication is

(A) Signs, symbols, codes, colours
(B) Symbols, codes, signs, colours
(C) Colours, signs, codes, symbols
(D) Codes, colours, symbols, signs

Answer: (A)

21. Which of the following statements is not connected with communication?

(A) Medium is the message.
(B) The world is an electronic cocoon.

(C) Information is power.

(D) Telepathy is technological.
Answer: (D)

22. Communication becomes circular when

(A) the decoder becomes an encoder

(B) the feedback is absent
(C) the source is credible
(D) the channel is clear
Answer: (A)
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23. The site that played a major role during the terrorist attack on Mumbai
(26/11) in 2008 was
(A) Orkut

(B) Facebook
(C) Amazon.com
(D) Twitter
Answer: (D)

24. Assertion (A): For an effective classroom communication at times it is

desirable to use the projection technology.
Reason (R): Using the projection technology facilitates extensive coverage of
course contents.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)

25. January 1, 1995 was a Sunday. What day of the week lies on January 1,
1996?
(A) Sunday
(B) Monday
(C) Wednesday

(D) Saturday
Answer: (B)

26. When an error of 1% is made in the length and breadth of a rectangle, the
percentage error (%) in the area of a rectangle will be

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
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(D) 4
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Answer: (C)

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27. The next number in the series 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ? will be

(A) 74
(B) 75

(C) 76
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

28. There are 10 true-false questions in an examination. Then these questions

can be answered in
(A) 20 ways
(B) 100 ways
(C) 240 ways
(D) 1024 ways

Answer: (D)

29. What will be the next term in the following?

DCXW, FEVU, HGTS, ?
(A) AKPO

(B) ABYZ
(C) JIRQ
(D) LMRS
Answer: (C)

30. Three individuals X, Y, Z hired a car on a sharing basis and paid Rs. 1,040.
They used it for 7, 8, 11 hours, respectively. What are the charges paid by Y?
(A) Rs. 290
(B) Rs. 320
(C) Rs. 360

(D) Rs. 440

Answer: (B)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

31. Deductive argument involves

(A) sufficient evidence
(B) critical thinking

(C) seeing logical relations

(D) repeated observation
Answer: (C)

32. I nductive reasoning is based on or presupposes

(A) uniformity of nature

(B) God created the world
(C) unity of nature
(D) laws of nature
Answer: (A)

33. To be critical, thinking must be

(A) practical
(B) socially relevant
(C) individually satisfying

(D) analytical
Answer: (B)

34. Which of the following is an analogous statement?

(A) Man is like God

(B) God is great

(C) Gandhiji is the Father of the Nation
(D) Man is a rational being.
Answer: (A)
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Questions from 35 - 36 are based on the following diagram in which there are
three intersecting circles. H representing The Hindu, I representing Indian
Express and T representing The Times of India. A total of 50 persons were
surveyed and the number in the Venn diagram indicates the number of persons
reading the newspapers.

35. How many persons would be reading at least two newspapers?

(A) 23 (B) 25 (C) 27 (D) 29

Answer: (C)

36. How many persons would be reading almost two newspapers?

(A) 23 (B) 25 (C) 27 (D) 48
Answer: (A)

37. Which of the following graphs does not represent regular (periodic)
behaviour of the variable f(t)?

(A) 1

(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: (C)
178
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Study the following graph and answer the questions 38 to 40:

38. I n which year total number of patients registered in hospital X and hospital
Y was the maximum?
(A) 2003
(B) 2004
(C) 2005
(D) 2006

Answer: (C)

39. What is the maximum dispersion in the registration of patients in the two
hospitals in a year?
(A) 8000

(B) 6000
(C) 4000
(D) 2000
Answer: (A)

40. I n which year there was maximum decrease in registration of patients in

hospital X?
(A) 2003
(B) 2004
(C) 2005

(D) 2006
Answer: (D)
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41. Which of the following sources of data is not based on primary data
collection?
(A) Census of India

(B) National Sample Survey

(C) Statistical Abstracts of India
(D) National Family Health Survey
Answer: (C)

42. Which of the four data sets have more dispersion?

(A) 88 91 90 92 89 91
(B) 0 1 1 0 1 2
(C) 3 5 2 4 1 5
(D) 0 5 8 10 2 8

Answer: (D)

43. Which of the following is not related to information security on the Internet?
(A) Data Encryption (B) Water marking
(C) Data Hiding (D) Information Retrieval

Answer: (D)

44. Which is the largest unit of storage among the following?

(A) Terabyte (B) Megabyte
(C) Kilobyte (D) Gigabyte

Answer: (A)

45. bit stands for

(A) binary information term
(B) binary digit

(C) binary tree

(D) Bivariate Theory
180

Answer: (B)
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46. Which one of the following is not a linear data structure?

(A) Array (B) Binary Tree
(C) Queue (D) Stack

Answer: (B)

47. Which one of the following is not a network device?

(A) Router (B) Switch
(C) Hub (D) CPU

Answer: (D)

48. A compiler is used to convert the following to object code which can be
executed
(A) High-level language (B) Low-level language

(C) Assembly language (D) Natural language

Answer: (A)

49. The great Indian Bustard bird is found in

(A) Thar Desert of Rajasthan (B) Coastal regions of India

(C) Malabar Coast (D) Delta regions

Answer: (A)

50. The Sagarmanthan N ational Park has been established to preserve the eco-
system of which mountain peak?

(A) Kanchenjunga (B) Mount Everest

(C) Annapurna (D) Dhaulavira
Answer: (B)

51. Maximum soot is released from

(A) Petrol vehicles (B) CNG vehicles

(C) Diesel vehicles (D) Thermal Power Plants
181

Answer: (D)
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52. Surface Ozone is produced from

(A) Transport sector (B) Cement plants
(C) Textile industry (D) Chemical industry

Answer: (A)

53. Which one of the following non-conventional energy sources can be exploited
most economically?
(A) Solar (B) Wind

(C) Geo-thermal (D) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC)

Answer: (A)

54. The most recurring natural hazard in India is

(A) Earthquakes (B) Floods

(C) Landslides (D) Volcanoes

Answer: (B)

55. The recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for the

establishment of 1500 Universities is to

(A) create more teaching jobs

(B) ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education
(C) replace or substitute the privately managed higher education institutions by
public institutions
(D) enable increased movement of students from rural areas to urban areas

Answer: (B)

56. According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in

Parliament shall be transacted in
(A) English only

(B) Hindi only

(C) English and Hindi both
(D) All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
182

Answer: (C)
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57. Which of the following is more interactive and student centric?

(A) Seminar (B) Workshop
(C) Lecture (D) Group Discussion

Answer: (D)

58. The Parliament in India is composed of

(A) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President

(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President

(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats
Answer: (C)

59. The enrolment in higher education in India is contributed both by Formal

System of Education and by System of Distance Education. Distance education
contributes
(A) 50% of formal system
(B) 25% of formal system
(C) 10% of the formal system

(D) Distance education systems contribution is not taken into account while
considering the figures of enrolment in higher education
Answer: (B)

60. Assertion (A): The U.G.C. Academic Staff Colleges came into existence to
improve the quality of teachers.
Reason (R): University and college teachers have to undergo both orientation
and refresher courses.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct and (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
Answer: (A)
183
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UGC NET JUNE 2009

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
1. Good evaluation of written material should not be based on:
(A) Linguistic expression (B) Logical presentation

(C) Ability to reproduce whatever is read (D) Comprehension of subject

Answer: (D)

2. Why do teachers use teaching aid?

(A) To make teaching fun-filled

(B) To te ach within understanding level of students

(C) For students' attention
(D) To make students attentive
Answer: (B)

3. Attitudes, concepts, skills and knowledge are products of:

(A) Learning (B) Research
(C) Heredity (D) Explanation
Answer: (A)

4. Which among the following gives more freedom to the learner to interact?
(A) Use of film
(B) Small group discussion
(C) Lectures by experts
(D) Viewing country-wide classroom programme on TV

Answer: (B)

5. Which of the following is not a product of learning?

(A) Attitudes (B) Concepts
184

(C) Knowledge (D) Maturation

Answer: (D)
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6. How can the objectivity of the research be enhanced?

(A) Through its impartiality (B) Through its reliability
(C) Through its validity (D) All of these

Answer: (D)

7. Action-research is:
(A) An applied research
(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems

(C) A longitudinal research

(D) All the above
Answer: (B)

8. The basis on which assumptions are formulated:

(A) Cultural background of the country

(B) Universities
(C) Specific characteristics of the castes
(D) All of these
Answer: (A)

9. Which of the following is classified in the category of the developmental

research?
(A) Philosophical research (B) Action research
(C) Descriptive research (D) All the above

Answer: (D)

10. We use Factorial Analysis:

(A) To know the relationship between two variables
(B) To test the Hypothesis

(C) To know the difference between two variables

(D) To know the difference among the many variables
185

Answer: (C)
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Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:

While the British rule in India was detrimental to the economic development of
the country, it did help in starting of the process of modernizing Indian society
and formed several progressive institutions during that process. One of the most
beneficial institutions, which were initiated by the British, was democracy.
Nobody can dispute that despite its many shortcomings; democracy was and is
far better alternative to the arbitrary rule of the rajas and nawabs, which
prevailed in India in the pre-British days.

However, one of the harmful traditions of British democracy inherited by India

was that of conflict instead of cooperation between elected members. This was
its essential feature. The party, which got the support of the majority of elected
members, formed the Government while the others constituted a standing
opposition. The existence of the opposition to those in power was and is
regarded as a hallmark of democracy.
In principle, democracy consists of rule by the people; but where direct rule is
not possible, it's rule by persons elected by the people. I t is natural that there
would be some differences of opinion among the elected members as in the rest
of the society.

Normally, members of any organizations have differences of opinion between

themselves on different issues but they manage to work on the basis of a
consensus and they do not normally form a division between some who are in
majority and are placed in power, while treating the others as in opposition.
The members of an organization usually work on consensus. Consensus simply
means that after an adequate discussion, members agree that the majority
opinion may prevail for the time being. Thus persons who form a majority on
one issue and whose opinion is allowed to prevail may not be on the same side if
there is a difference on some other issue.
It was largely by accident that instead of this normal procedure, a two party
system came to prevail in Britain and that is now being generally taken as the
best method of democratic rule.
Many democratically inclined persons in India regret that such a two party
system was not brought about in the country. It appears that to have two
parties in India of more or less equal strength - is a virtual impossibility. Those
who regret the absence of a two-party system should take the reasons into
consideration.
When the two party system got established in Britain, there were two groups
among the rules (consisting of a limited electorate) who had the same economic
interests among themselves and who therefore formed two groups within the
selected members of Parliament.
There were members of the British aristocracy (which landed interests and
186

consisting of lord, barons etc) and members of the new commercial class
consisting of merchants and artisans. These groups were more or less of equal
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strength and they were able to establish their separate rule at different times.

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Answer the following questions:

11. I n pre-British period, when India was ruled by the independent rulers:
(A) Peace and prosperity prevailed in the society
(B) People were isolated from political affairs
(C) Public opinion was inevitable for policy making
(D) Law was equal for one and all
Answer: (B)

12. What is the distinguishing feature of the democracy practiced in Britain?

(A) End to the rule of might is right.
(B) Rule of the people, by the people and for the people.
(C) It has stood the test of time.
(D) Cooperation between elected members.

Answer: (B)

13. Democracy is practiced where:

(A) Elected members form a uniform opinion regarding policy matter.
(B) Opposition is more powerful than the ruling combine .
(C) Representatives of masses.
(D) None of these.
Answer: (B)

14. Which of the following is true about the British rule in India?

(A) It was behind the modernization of the Indian society.

(B) India gained economically during that period.
(C) Various establishments were formed for the purpose of progress.
(D) None of these.
Answer: (A)

15. Who became the members of the new commercial class during that time?
(A) British Aristocrats
(B) Lord and barons
(C) Political Persons
(D) Merchants and artisans
187

Answer: (D)
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16. Which one of the following Telephonic Conferencing with a radio link is very
popular throughout the world?
(A) TPS

(B) Telepresence
(C) Video conference
(D) Video teletext
Answer: (C)

17. Which is not 24 hours news channel?

(A) NDTV24x7
(B) ZEE N ews
(C) Aajtak
(D) Lok Sabha channel

Answer: (D)

18. The main objective of F.M. station in radio is:

(A) Information, Entertainment and Tourism
(B) Entertainment, Information and Interaction

(C) Tourism, Interaction and Entertainment

(D) Entertainment only
Answer: (B)

19. I n communication chatting in internet is:

(A) Verbal communication

(B) Non verbal communication
(C) Parallel communication
(D) Grapevine communication
Answer: (C)
188
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20. Match List-I with List-II and select List-I t the correct answer using the
codes gh List-II
(Artists) (Art)

(a) Pandit Jasraj (i) Hindustani vocalist

(b) Kishan Maharaj (ii) Sitar
(c) Ravi Shankar (iii) Tabla
(d) Udai Shankar (iv) Dance
Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

Answer: (C)

21. I nsert the missing number in the following:

3, 8, 18, 23, 33, ?, 48
(A) 37

(B) 40
(C) 38
(D) 45
Answer: (C)

22. I n a certain code, CLOCK is written as KCOLC. How would STEPS be written
in that code?
(A) SPEST
(B) SPSET
(C) SPETS

(D) SEPTS
Answer: (C)
189
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

23. The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this
relationship mark the right choice for the second set: BDFH : OMKI : : GHIK : ?
(A) FHJL

(B) RPNL
(C) LNPR
(D) LJHF
Answer: (C)

24. What was the day of the week on 1st January 2001?
(A) Friday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Sunday
(D) Wednesday

Answer: (Wrong question)

25. Find out the wrong number in the sequence. 52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
(A) 27
(B) 34

(C) 43
(D) 48
Answer: (B)

26. I n a deductive argument conclusion is:

(A) Summing up of the premises

(B) Not necessarily based on premises
(C) Entailed by the premises
(D) Additional to the premises
Answer: (C)
190
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27. 'No man are mortal' is contradictory of:

(A) Some man are mortal
(B) Some man are not mortal

(C) All men are mortal

(D) No mortal is man
Answer: (A)

28. A deductive argument is valid if:

(A) premises are false and conclusion true

(B) premises are false and conclusion is also false
(C) premises are true and conclusion is false
(D) premises are true and conclusion is true
Answer: (D)

29. Structure of logical argument is based on:

(A) Formal validity
(B) Mate rial truth
(C) Linguistic expression

(D) Aptness of examples

Answer: (A)

30. Two ladies and two men are playing bridge and seated at North, East, South
and West of a table. No lady is facing East. Persons sitting opposite to each
other are not of the same sex. One man is facing South. Which direction are
the ladies facing to?
(A) East and West
(B) North and West
(C) South and East

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)
191
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Questions 31 and 32 are based on the following venn diagram in which there
are three intersecting circles representing Hindi knowing persons, English
knowing persons and persons who are working as teachers. Different regions so
obtained in the figure are marked as a, b, c, d, e, f and g.

31. I f you want to select Hindi and English knowing teachers, which of the
following is to be selected?

(A) g
(B) b
(C) c
(D) e
Answer: (C)

32. I f you want to select persons, who do not know English and are not
teachers, which of the region is to be selected?
(A) e
(B) g

(C) b
(D) a
Answer: (B)
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Study the following graph carefully and answer questions 33 to 35.

33. I n which year the quantity of engineering goods' exports was maximum?
(A) 2005
(B) 2006
(C) 2004

(D) 2007
Answer: (B)

34. I n which year the value of engineering goods decreased by 50 percent

compared to the previous year?

(A) 2004
(B) 2007
(C) 2005
(D) 2006
Answer: (B)

35. I n which year the quantity of exports was 100 percent higher than the
quantity of previous year?
(A) 2004
(B) 2005

(C) 2006
(D) 2007
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Answer: (C)
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36. What do you need to put your web pages on the www?
(A) a connection to internet
(B) a web browser

(C) a web server

(D) all of the above
Answer: (D)

37. Which was the first company to launch mobile phone services in India?

(A) Essar (B) BPL

(C) Hutchison (D) Airtel
Answer: (B)

38. Chandrayan I was launched on 22nd October, 2008 in India from:

(A) Bangalore (B) Sri Harikota

(C) Chennai (D) Ahmedabad
Answer: (B)

39. What is blog?

(A) Online music

(B) Intranet
(C) A personal or corporate website in the form of an online journal
(D) A personal or corporate Google search
Answer: (C)

40. Which is not online Indian Matrimonial website?

(A) www.jeevansathi.com
(B) www.bharatmatrimony.com
(C) www.shaadi.com

(D) www.u.k.singlemuslim.com
194

Answer: (D)
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41. Environmental impact assessment is an objective analysis of the probable

changes in:
(A) physical characteristics of the environment
(B) biophysical characteristics of the environment
(C) socio-economic characteristics of the environment
(D) all the above
Answer: (D)

42. Bo g is a wetland that receives water from:

(A) nearby wate r bodies (B) melting
(C) rain fall only (D) sea only
Answer: (C)

43. Which of the following region is in the very high risk zone of earthquakes?
(A) Central Indian Highland (B) Coastal region
(C) Himalayan region (D) Indian desert
Answer: (C)

44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
List-I List-II
(I nstitutes) (Cities)
(a) Central Arid Zone Institute (i) Kolkata

(b) Space Application Centre (ii) New Delhi

(c) Indian Institute of Public Administration (iii) Ahmedabad
(d) Headquarters of Indian Science Congress (iv) Jodhpur
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
195

(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

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Answer: (A)

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45. I ndian coastal areas experienced Tsunami disaster in the year:

(A) 2005 (B) 2004 (C) 2006 (D) 2007
Answer: (B)

46. The Kothari Commission's report was entitled on:

(A) Education and National Development
(B) Learning to be adventure
(C) Diversification of Education
(D) Education and socialization in democracy
Answer: (A)

47. Which of the following is not a Dualmode University?

(A) Delhi University (B) Bangalore University

(C) Madras University (D) Indira Gandhi National Open University

Answer: (D)

48. Which part of the Constitution of India is known as "Code of

Administrators?
(A) Part I (B) Part II (C) Part III (D) Part IV
Answer: (D)

49. Which article of the constitution provides safeguards to Naga Customary

and their social practices against any act of Parliament?

(A) Article 371 A (B) Article 371 B

(C) Article 371 C (D) Article 263
Answer: (A)

50. Which one of the following is not the tool of good governance?

(A) Right to information (B) Citizens' Charter

(C) Social Auditing (D) Judicial Activism
Answer: (D)
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UGC NET DECEMBER 2008

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
1. According to Swami Vivekananda, teacher's success depends on:
(A) His renunciation of personal gain and service to others

(B) His professional training and creativity

(C) His concentration on his work and duties with a spirit of obedience to God
(D) His mastery on the subject and capacity in controlling the students
Answer: (A)

2. Which of the following teacher, will be liked most?

(A) A teacher of high idealistic attitude
(B) A loving teacher
(C) A teacher who is discipline d
(D) A teacher who often amuses his students

Answer: (B)

3. A teacher's most important challenge is:

(A) To make students do their home work
(B) To make teaching-learning process enjoyable

(C) To maintain discipline in the class room

(D) To prepare the question paper
Answer: (B)

4. Value-education stands for:

(A) making a student healthy

(B) making a student to get a job
(C) inculcation of virtues
(D) all-round development of personality
197

Answer: (C)
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5. When a normal student behaves in an erratic manner in the class, you would:
(A) pull up the student then and there (B) talk to the student after the class
(C) ask the student to leave the class (D) ignore the student

Answer: (B)

6. The research is always -

(A) verifying the old knowledge (B) exploring new knowledge
(C) filling the gap between knowledge (D) all of these

Answer: (D)

7. The research that applies the laws at the time of field study to draw more and
more clear ideas about the problem is:
(A) Applied research (B) Action research

(C) Experimental research (D) None of these

Answer: (C)

8. When a research problem is related to heterogeneous population, the most

suitable sampling method is:

(A) Cluster Sampling (B) Stratified Sampling

(C) Convenient Sampling (D) Lottery Method
Answer: (B)

9. The process not needed in experimental research is:

(A) Observation (B) Manipulation and replication

(C) Controlling (D) Reference collection
Answer: (A)

10. A research problem is not feasible only when:

(A) it is researchable (B) it is new and adds something to knowledge

(C) it consists of independent and dependent variables
198

(D) it has utility and relevance

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Answer: (C)

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Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 11 to 15:
Radically changing monsoon patterns, reduction in the winter rice harvest and
a quantum increase in respiratory diseases all part of the environmental
doomsday scenario which is reportedly playing out in South Asia. According to a
United Nations Environment Programme report, a deadly three-kilometer deep
blanket of pollution comprising a fearsome, cocktail of ash, acids, aerosols and
other particles has enveloped in this region. For India, already struggling to cope
with a drought, the implication of this are devastating and further crop failure
will amount to a life and death question for many Indians. The increase in
premature deaths will have adverse social and economic consequences and a
rise in morbidities will place an unbearable burden on our crumbling health
system. And there is no one to blame but ourselves. Both official and corporate
India has always been allergic to any mention of clean technology. Most
mechanical two wheelers roll of the assembly line without proper pollution
control system. Little effort is made for R&D on simple technologies, which
could make a vital difference to people's lives and the environment.
However, while there is no denying that South Asia must clean up its act,
skeptics might question the timing of the haze report. The Kyoto meet on
climate change is just two weeks away and the stage is set for the usual battle
between the developing world and the West, particularly the Unites States of
America. President Mr. Bush has adamantly refused to sign any protocol, which
would mean a change in American consumption level. U.N. environment report
will likely find a place in the U.S. arsenal as it plants an accusing finger towards
controls like India and China. Yet the U.S.A. can hardly deny its own dubious
role in the matter of erasing trading quotas.
Richer countries can simply buy up excess credits from poorer countries and
continue to pollute. Rather than try to get the better of developing countries,
who undoubtedly have taken up environmental shortcuts in their bid to catch
up with the West, the USA should take a look at the environmental profigacy,
which is going on within. From opening up virgin territories for oil exploration to
relaxing the standards for drinking water, Mr. Bush's policies are not exactly
beneficial, not even to America's interests. We realize that we are all in this
together and that pollution anywhere should be a global concern otherwise there
will only be more tunnels at the end of the tunnel.

11. Both official and corporate India is allergic to:

(A) Failure of Monsoon
(B) Poverty and Inequality

(C) Slowdown in Industrial Production

(D) Mention of Clean Technology
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Answer: (D)
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12. I f the rate of premature death increases it will:

(A) Exert added burden on the crumbling economy
(B) Have adverse social and economic consequences

(C) Make positive effect on our effort to control population

(D) Have less job aspirants in the society
Answer: (C)

13. According to the passage, the two wheeler industry is not adequately
concerned about:
(A) Passenger safety on the roads
(B) Life cover insurance of the vehicle owner
(C) Pollution control system in the vehicle
(D) Rising cost of the two wheelers

Answer: (B)

14. What could be the reason behind timing of the haze report just before the
Kyoto meet?
(A) United Nations is working hand-in-glove with U.S.A.

(B) Organizers of the forthcoming meet to teach a lesson to the U.S.A.

(C) Drawing attention of the world towards devastating effects of environment
degradation.
(D) U.S.A. wants to use it as a handle against the developing countries in the
forthcoming meet

Answer: (D)

15. Which of the following is the indication of environmental degradation in

South Asia?
(A) Social and economic inequality

(B) Crumbling health care system

(C) Inadequate pollution control system
(D) Radically changing monsoon pattern
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Answer: (D)
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16. Community Radio is a type of radio service that caters to the interest of:
(A) Local audience
(B) Education

(C) Entertainment
(D) News
Answer: (A)

17. Orcut is a part of:

(A) Intra personal Communication

(B) Mass Communication
(C) Group Communication
(D) Interpersonal Communication
Answer: (D)

18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
List-I List - II
(Artists) (Art)

(a) Amrita Shergill (i) Flute

(b) T. Swaminathan Pillai (ii) Classical Song
(c) Bhimsenjoshi (iii) Painting
(d) Padma Subramaniyam (iv) Bharat N atyam
Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

Answer: (A)
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19. Which is not correct in latest communication award?

(A) Salman Rushdie - Booker's Prize - July 20, 2008
(B) Dilip Sanghavi - Business Standard CEO Award July 22, 2008

(C) Tapan Sinha - Dada Saheb Falke Award, July 21, 2008
(D) Gautam Ghosh - Osians Lifetime Achievement Award July 11, 2008
Answer: (D)

20. Firewalls are used to protect a communication network system against:

(A) Unauthorized attacks

(B) Virus attacks
(C) Data-driven attacks
(D) Fire-attacks
Answer: (A)

21. I nsert the missing number in the following:

2/3, 4/7, ? , 11/21, 16/31
(A) 10/8
(B) 6/10

(C) 5/10
(D) 7/13
Answer: (D)

22. I n a certain code, GAMESMAN is written as AGMEMSAN. How would

DI SCLOSE be written in that code?
(A) IDSCOLSE
(B) IDCSOLES
(C) IDSCOLES
(D) IDSCLOSE

Answer: (A)
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23. The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this
relationship mark the right choice for the second set:
AST : BRU : : N QV : ?

(A) ORW
(B) MPU
(C) MRW
(D) OPW
Answer: (D)

24. On what dates of April 1994 did SUNDAY fall?

(A) 2,9,16,23,30
(B) 3,10,17,24
(C) 4,11,18,25

(D) 1,8,15,22,29
Answer: (B)

25. Find out the wrong number in the sequence:

125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165

(A) 130
(B) 142
(C) 153
(D) 165
Answer: (D)

26. There are five books A, B, C, D and E. The book C lies above D, the book E
is below A and B is below E. Which is at the bottom?
(A) E
(B) B

(C) A
(D) C
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Answer: (B)
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27. Logical reasoning is based on:

(A) Truth of involved propositions
(B) Valid relation among the involved propositions

(C) Employment of symbolic language

(D) Employment of ordinary language
Answer: (B)

28. Two propositions with the same subject and predicate terms but different in
quality are:
(A) Contradictory
(B) Contrary
(C) Subaltern
(D) Identical

Answer: (C)

29. The premises of a valid deductive argument:

(A) Provide some evidence for its conclusion
(B) Provide no evidence for its conclusion

(C) Are irrelevant for its conclusion

(D) Provide conclusive evidence for its conclusion
Answer: (D)

30. Syllogistic reasoning is:

(A) Deductive
(B) Inductive
(C) Experimental
(D) Hypothetical
Answer: (A)
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Study the following Venn diagram and answer questions nos. 31 to 33.
Three circles representing GRADUATES, CLERKS and GOVERNMENT
EMPLOYEES are intersecting. The intersections are marked A, B, C, e, f, g and
h. Which part best represents the statements in questions 31 to 33?

31. Some Graduates are Government employees but not as Clerks.

(A) h
(B) g

(C) f
(D) e
Answer: (C)

32. Clerks who are graduate s as well as government employees:

(A) e
(B) f
(C) g
(D) h
Answer: (D)

33. Some graduate s are Clerks but not Government employees.

(A) f
(B) g
(C) h

(D) e
Answer: (D)
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Study the following graph and answer questions numbered from 34 to 35:

34. Which of the firms got maximum profit growth rate in the year 2006?

(A) ab
(B) ce
(C) cd
(D) ef
Answer: (B)

35. Which of the firms got maximum profit growth rate in the year 2007?
(A) bdf
(B) acf
(C) bed

(D) ace
Answer: (A)

36. The accounting software 'Tally' was developed by:

(A) HCL

(B) TCS
(C) Infosys
(D) Wipro
Answer: (B)
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37. Errors in computer programmes are called:

(A) Follies
(B) Mistakes

(C) Bugs
(D) Spam
Answer: (C)

38. HTML is basically used to design:

(A) Web-page
(B) Web-site
(C) Graphics
(D) Tables and Frames
Answer: (A)

39. 'Micro Processing'is made for:

(A) Computer
(B) Digital System
(C) Calculator

(D) Electronic Goods

Answer: (B)

40. I nformation, a combination of graphics, text, sound, video and animation is

called:

(A) Multiprogramme
(B) Multifacet
(C) Multimedia
(D) Multiprocess
Answer: (C)
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41. Which of the following pairs regarding typical composition of hospital wastes
is incorrect?
(A) Plastic- 9-12%

(B) Metals- 1-2%

(C) Ceramic- 8-10%
(D) Biodegradable- 35-40%
Answer: (A)

42. Fres h water achieves its greatest density at:

(A) -4 C
(B) 0 C
(C) 4 C
(D) -2.5 C

Answer: (C)

43. Which one of the following is not associated with earthquakes?

(A) Focus
(B) Epicenter

(C) Seismograph
(D) Swells
Answer: (D)

44. The tallest trees in the world are found in the region :

(A) Equatorial region

(B) Temperate region
(C) Monsoon region
(D) Mediterranean region
Answer: (B)
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45. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
List-I List - II

(National Parks) (States)

(a) Periyar (i) Orissa
(b) Nandan Kanan (ii) Kerala
(c) Corbett National Park (iii) Rajasthan
(d) Sariska Tiger Reserve (iv) Uttarakhand

Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Answer: (A)

46. According to Radhakrishnan Commission, the aim of Higher Education is:

(A) To develop the democratic values, peace and harmony

(B) To develop great personalities who can give their contributions in politics,
administration, industry and commerce
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)

47. The N ational Museum at New Delhi is attached to:

(A) Delhi University
(B) a Deemed University
(C) a Subordinate Office of the JNU

(D) Part of Ministry of Tourism and Culture

Answer: (D)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given
below:
List-I List-II

(I nstitutions) (Locations)
(a) National Law Institute (i) Shimla
(b) Indian Institute of Advanced Studies (ii) Bhopal
(c) National Judicial Academy (iii) Hyderabad
(d) National Savings Institute (iv) Nagpur

Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Answer: (D)

49. Election of Rural and Urban local bodies are conducted and ultimately
supervised by:
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) State Election Commission
(C) District Collector and District Magistrate
(D) Concerned Returning Officer
Answer: (B)

50. Which opinion is not correct?

(A) Education is a subject of concurrent list of VII schedule of Constitution of
India
(B) University Grants Commission is a statutory body

(C) Patent, inventions, design, copyright and trademarks are the subject of
concurrent list
(D) Indian Council of Social Science Research is a statutory body related to
research in social sciences
Answer: (C)
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UGC NET JUNE 2008

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
1. The teacher has been glorified by the phrase "Friend, philosopher and guide"
because:

(A) He has to play all vital roles in the context of society

(B) He transmits the high value of humanity to students
(C) He is the great reformer of the society
(D) He is a great patriot
Answer: (B)

2. The most important cause of failure for teacher lies in the area of:
(A) inter personal relationship
(B) lack of command over the knowledge of the subject
(C) verbal ability
(D) strict handling of the students
Answer: (B)

3. A teacher can establish rapport with his students by:

(A) becoming a figure of authority
(B) impressing students with knowledge and skill
(C) playing the role of a guide (D) becoming a friend to the students
Answer: (B)

4. Education is a powerful instrument of:

(A) Social transformation (B) Personal transformation

(C) Cultural transformation (D) All the above
Answer: (D)

5. A teacher's major contribution towards the maximum self-realization of the

student is affected through:
(A) Constant fulfilment of the students' needs
(B) Strict control of class-room activities
(C) Sensitivity to students' needs, goals and purposes
211

(D) Strict reinforcement of academic standards

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Answer: (C)

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6. Research problem is selected from the stand point of:

(A) Researcher's interest (B) Financial support
(C) Social relevance (D) Availability of relevant literature

Answer: (C)

7. Which one is called non-probability sampling?

(A) Cluster sampling (B) Quota sampling
(C) Systematic sampling (D) Stratified random sampling

Answer: (B)

8. Formulation of hypothesis may NOT be required in:

(A) Survey method (B) Historical studies
(C) Experimental studies (D) Normative studies

Answer: (B)

9. Field-work based research is classified as:

(A) Empirical (B) Historical
(C) Experimental (D) Biographical

Answer: (A)

10. Which of the following sampling method is appropriate to study the

prevalence of AIDS amongst male and female in India in 1976, 1986, 1996 and
2006?

(A) Cluster sampling

(B) Systematic sampling
(C) Quota sampling
(D) Stratified random sampling
Answer: (B)
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Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:

The fundamental principle is that Article 14 forbids class legislation but permits
reasonable classification for the purpose of legislation which classification must
satisfy the twin tests of classification being founded on an intelligible differentia
which distinguishes persons or things that are grouped together from those that
are left out of the group and that differentia must have a rational nexus to the
object sought to be achieved by the Statute in question. The thrust of Article 14
is that the citizen is entitled to equality before law and equal prote ction of laws.
In the very nature of things the society being composed of unequals a welfare
State will have to strive by both executive and legislative action to help the less
fortunate in society to ameliorate their condition so that the social and economic
ine quality in the society may be bridged.
This would necessitate a legislative application to a group of citizens otherwise
unequal and amelioration of whose lot is the object of state affirmative action. In
the absence of the doctrine of classification such legislation is likely to flounder
on the bed rock of equality enshrined in Article 14. The Court realistically
appraising the social and economic ine quality and keeping in view the
guidelines on which the State action must move as constitutionally laid down in
Part IV of the Constitution evolved the doctrine of classification. The doctrine
was evolved to sustain a legislation or State action designed to help weaker
sections of the society or some such segments of the society in need of succour.
Legislative and executive action may accordingly be sustained if it satisfies the
twin tests of reasonable classification and the rational principle correlated to the
object sought to be achieved.
The concept of equality before the law does not involve the idea of absolute
equality among human beings which is a physical impossibility. All that Article
14 guarantees is a similarity of treatment contra-distinguished from identical
treatment. Equality before law means that among equals the law should be
equal and should be e qually administered and that the likes should be treated
alike. Equality before the law does not mean that things which are different
shall be as though they are the same. I t of course means denial of any special
privilege by reason of birth, creed or the like. The legislation as well as the
executive government, while dealing with diverse problems arising out of an
infinite variety of human relations must of necessity have the power of making
special laws, to attain any particular object and to achieve that object it must
have the power of selection or classification of persons and things upon which
such laws are to operate.

11. Right to equality, one of the fundamental rights, is enunciated in the

constitution under Part III, Article:
(A)12 (B) 13 (C) 14 (D) 15
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Answer: (C)
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12. The main thrust of Right to equality is that it permits:

(A) class legislation
(B) equality before law and equal protection under the law

(C) absolute equality

(D) special privilege by reason of birth
Answer: (B)

13. The social and economic inequality in the society can be bridged by:

(A) executive and legislative action

(B) universal suffrage
(C) identical treatment
(D) none of the above
Answer: (A)

14. The doctrine of classification is evolved to:

(A) Help weaker sections of the society
(B) Provide absolute equality
(C) Provide identical treatment

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

15. While dealing with diverse problems arising out of an infinite variety of
human relations, the government

(A) must have the power of making special laws

(B) must not have any power to make special laws
(C) must have power to withdraw equal rights
(D) none of the above
Answer: (A)
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16. Communication with oneself is known as:

(A) Group communication
(B) Grapevine communication

(C) Interpersonal communication

(D) Intrapersonal communication
Answer: (D)

17. Which broadcasting system for TV is followed in India?

(A) NTSE
(B) PAL
(C) SECAM
(D) NTCS
Answer: (B)

18. All India Radio before 1936 was known as:

(A) Indian Radio Broadcasting
(B) Broadcasting Service of India
(C) Indian Broadcasting Service

(D) All India Broadcasting Service

Answer: (C)

19. The biggest news agency of India is:

(A) PTI (B) UNI (C) NANAP (D) Samachar Bharati

Answer: (A)

20. Prasar Bharati was launched in the year:

(A) 1995 (B) 1997 (C) 1999 (D) 2001
Answer: (B)
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21. A statistical measure based upon the entire population is called parameter
while measure based upon a sample is known as:
(A) Sample parameter

(B) Inference
(C) Statistics
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)

22. The importance of the correlation co-efficient lies in the fact that:
(A) There is a linear relationship between the correlated variables.
(B) It is one of the most valid measure of statistics.
(C) It allows one to determine the degree or strength of the association between
two variables.

(D) It is a non-parametric method of statistical analysis.

Answer: (C)

23. The F-test:

(A) is essentially a two tailed test.

(B) is essentially a one tailed test.

(C) can be one tailed as well as two tailed depending on the hypothesis.
(D) can never be a one tailed test.
Answer: (C)

24. What will be the next letter in the following series?

DCXW, FGVU, HGTS
(A) AKPO
(B) JBYZ
(C) JIRQ

(D) LMRS
Answer: (C)
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25. The following question is based on the diagram given below. If the two small
circles represent formal class-room education and distance education and the
big circle stands for university system of education, which figure represents the
university systems?

Answer: (B)

26. The statement, 'To be non-violent is good' is a:

(A) Moral judgement
(B) Factual judgement

(C) Religious judgement

(D) Value judgement
Answer: (A)

27. Assertion (A): Man is a rational being.

Reason (R): Man is a social being.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Answer: (B)

28. Value Judgements are:

(A) Factual Judgements
(B) Ordinary Judgements

(C) Normative Judgements

217

(D) Expression of public opinion

Answer: (C)
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29. Deductive reasoning proceeds from:

(A) general to particular
(B) particular to general

(C) one general conclusion to another general conclusion

(D) one particular conclusion to another particular conclusion
Answer: (A)

30. AGARTALA is written in code as 14168171, the code for AGRA is:

(A) 1641 (B) 1416 (C) 1441 (D) 1461

Answer: (D)

31. Which one of the following is the most comprehensive source of population
data?

(A) National Family Health Surveys (B) National Sample Surveys

(C) Census (D) Demographic Health Surveys
Answer: (C)

32. Which one of the following principles is not applicable to sampling?

(A) Sample units must be clearly defined

(B) Sample units must be dependent on each other
(C) Same units of sample should be used throughout the study
(D) Sample units must be chosen in a systematic and objective manner
Answer: (B)

33. I f January 1st, 2007 is Monday, what was the day on 1st January 1995?
(A) Sunday
(B) Monday
(C) Friday

(D) Saturday
Answer: (A)
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34. I nsert the missing number in the following series:

4 16 8 64 ? 256
(A) 16 (B) 24 (C) 32 (D) 20

Answer: (A)

35. I f an article is sold for Rs. 178 at a loss of 11%; what would be its selling
price in order to earn a profit of 11%?
(A) Rs. 222.50 (B) Rs. 267

(C) Rs. 222 (D) Rs. 220

Answer: (C)

36. WYSIWYG - describes the display of a document on screen as it will actually

print:

(A) What you state is what you get

(B) What you see is what you get
(C) What you save is what you get
(D) What you suggest is what you get
Answer: (B)

37. Which of the following is not a Computer language?

(A) PASCAL (B) UNIX (C) FORTRAN (D COBOL
Answer: (B)

38. A key-board has at least:

(A) 91 keys (B) 101 keys (C) 111 keys (D) 121 keys
Answer: (B)

39. An E-mail addres s is composed of:

(A) two parts (B) three parts (C) four parts (D) five parts
Answer: (A)
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40. Corel Draw is a popular:

(A) Illustration programme (B) Programming language
(C) Text programme (D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

41. Human ear is most sensitive to noise in which of the following ranges:
(A) l-2 KHz (B) 100-500 Hz
(C) 10-12 KHz (D) 13-16 KHz

Answer: (Wrong question)

42. Which one of the following units is used to measure intensity of noise?
(A) decibel
(B) Hz

(C) Phon
(D) Watts/m2
Answer: (A)

43. I f the population growth follows a logistic curve, the maximum sustainable
yield:
(A) is equal to half the carrying capacity.
(B) is equal to the carrying capacity.
(C) depends on growth rates.
(D) depends on the initial population.

Answer: (A)

44. Chemical weathering of rocks is largely dependent upon:

(A) high temperature
(B) strong wind action

(C) heavy rainfall

(D) glaciation
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Answer: (C)
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45. Structure of earth's system consists of the following:

Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer.
List-I (Zone) List-II (Chemical Character)

(a) Atmosphere (i) Inert gases

(b) Biosphere (ii) Salt, fresh water, snow and ice
(c) Hydrosphere (iii) Organic substances, skeleton matter
(d) Lithosphere (iv) Light silicates
Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

Answer: (B)

46. N AAC is an autonomous institution under the aegis of:

(A) ICSSR
(B) CSIR

(C) AICTE
(D) UGC
Answer: (D)

47. National Council for Women's Education was established in:

(A) 1958
(B) 1976
(C) 1989
(D) 2000
Answer: (A)
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48. Which one of the following is not situated in New Delhi?

(A) Indian Council of Cultural Relations
(B) Indian Council of Scientific Research

(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training

(D) Indian Institute of Advanced Studies
Answer: (D)

49. Autonomy in higher education implies freedom in:

(A) Administration
(B) Policy-making
(C) Finance
(D) Curriculum development
Answer: (D)

50. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given
below:
List-I (Institutions) List-II (Locations)
(a) Dr. Hari Singh Gour University (i) Mumbai

(b) S.N.D.T. University (ii) Baroda

(c) M.S. University (iii) Jodhpur
(d) J.N. Vyas University (iv) Sagar
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(B) (i) (ii) (vi) (iv)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Answer: (A)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

UGC NET DECEMBER 2007

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
1. Verbal guidance is least effective in the learning of:
(A) Aptitudes

(B) Skills
(C) Attitudes
(D) Relationship
Answer: (B)

2. Which is the most important aspect of the teacher's role in learning?

(A) The development of insight into what constitutes an adequate performance
(B) The development of insight into what constitutes the pitfalls and dangers to
be avoided
(C) The provision of encouragement and moral support

(D) The provision of continuous diagnostic and remedial help

Answer: (A)

3. The most appropriate purpose of learning is:

(A) personal adjustment

(B) modification of behaviour

(C) social and political awareness
(D) preparing oneself for employment
Answer: (B)

4. The students who keep on asking questions in the class should be:
(A) encouraged to find answer independently
(B) advised to meet the teacher after the class
(C) encouraged to continue questioning
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(D) advised not to disturb during the lecture

Answer: (A)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

5. Maximum participation of students is possible in teaching through:

(A) discussion method (B) le cture method
(C) audio-visual aids (D) text book method

Answer: (A)

6. Generalised conclusion on the basis of a sample is technically known as:

(A) Data analysis and interpretation (B) Parameter inference
(C) Statistical inference (D) All of the above

Answer: (A)

7. The experimental study is based on:

(A) The manipulation of variables (B) Conceptual parameters
(C) Replication of research (D) Survey of literature

Answer: (A)

8. The main characteristic of scientific research is:

(A) empirical (B) theoretical
(C) experimental (D) all of the above

Answer: (D)

9. Authenticity of a research finding is its:

(A) Originality (B) Validity
(C) Objectivity (D) All of the above

Answer: (C)

10. Which technique is generally followed when the population is finite?

(A) Area Sampling Technique
(B) Purposive Sampling Technique

(C) Systematic Sampling Technique

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(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:

Gandhi's overall social and environmental philosophy is based on what human
beings need rather than what they want. His early introduction to the teachings
of Jains, Theosophists, Christian sermons, Ruskin and Tolstoy, and most
significantly the Bhagavad Gita, were to have profound impact on the
development of Gandhi's holistic thinking on humanity, nature and their
ecological interrelation. His deep concern for the disadvantaged, the poor and
rural population created an ambience for an alternative social thinking that was
at once far-sighted, local and immediate. For Gandhi was acutely aware that the
demands generated by the need to feed and sustain human life, compounded by
the growing industrialization of India, far outstripped the finite resources of
nature. This might nowadays appear naive or commonplace, but such
pronouncements were as rare as they were heretical a century ago. Gandhi was
also concerned about the destruction, under colonial and modernist designs, of
the existing infrastructures which had more potential for keeping a community
flourishing within ecologically-sensitive traditional patterns of subsistence,
especially in the rural areas, than did the incoming Western alternatives based
on nature-blind technology and the enslavement of human spirit and energies.

Perhaps the moral principle for which Gandhi is best known is that of active
non-violence, derived from the traditional moral restraint of not injuring another
being. The most refined expression of this value is in the great epic of the
Mahabharata, (c. 100 BCE to 200 CE), where moral development proceeds
through placing constraints on the liberties, desires and acquisitiveness
endemic to human life. One's action is judged in terms of consequences and the
impact it is likely to have on another. Jainas had generalized this principle to
include all sentient creatures and biocommunities alike. Advanced Jaina monks
and nuns will sweep their path to avoid harming insects and even
bacteria. Non-injury is a non-negotiable universal prescription.

11. Which one of the following have a profound impact on the development of
Gandhi's holistic thinking on humanity, nature and their ecological
interrelations?
(A) Jain teachings (B) Christian sermons

(C) Bhagavad Gita (D) Ruskin and Tolstoy

Answer: (C)

12. Gandhi's overall social and environmental philosophy is based on human

beings:

(A) need (B) desire

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(C) wealth (D) welfare

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Answer: (A)

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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

13. Gandhiji's deep concern for the disadvantaged, the poor and rural
population created an ambience for an alternative:
(A) rural policy

(B) social thinking

(C) urban policy
(D) economic thinking
Answer: (B)

14. Colonial policy and modernisation led to the destruction of:

(A) major industrial infrastructure
(B) irrigation infrastructure
(C) urban infrastructure
(D) rural infrastructure

Answer: (D)

15. Gandhi's active non-violence is derived from:

(A) Moral restraint of not injuring another being
(B) Having liberties, desires and acquisitiveness

(C) Freedom of action

(D) Nature-blind technology and enslavement of human spirit and energies
Answer: (A)

16. DTH service was started in the year:

(A) 2000 (B) 2002

(C) 2004 (D) 2006
Answer: (C)

17. N ational Press day is celebrated on:

(A) 16th November (B) 19th N ovember

(C) 21th November (D) 30th November
226

Answer: (A)
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18. The total number of members in the Press Council of India are:
(A) 28
(B) 14

(C) 17
(D) 20
Answer: (A)

19. The right to impart and receive information is guaranteed in the

Constitution of India by Article:
(A) 19 (2) (a)
(B) 19(16)
(C) 19(2)
(D) 19(1) (a)

Answer: (D)

20. Use of radio for higher education is based on the presumption of:
(A) Enriching curriculum based instruction

(B) Replacing teacher in the long run

(C) Everybody having access to a radio set
(D) Other means of instruction getting outdated
Answer: (C)

21. Find out the number which should come at the place of question mark
which will complete the following series: 5, 4, 9, 17, 35, ? = 139
(A) 149
(B) 79
(C) 49

(D) 69
Answer: (D)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Questions 22 to 24 are based on the following diagram in which there are three
interlocking circles I, S and P, where circle I stands for Indians, circle S for
Scientists and circle P for Politicians. Different regions in the figure are lettered
from a to f

22. The region which represents Non-Indian Scientists who are Politicians:
(A) f (B) d (C) a (D) c
Answer: (A)

23. The region which represents Indians who are neither Scientists nor
Politicians:
(A) g (B) c (C) f (D) a
Answer: (B)

24. The region which represents Politicians who are Indians as well as
Scientists:
(A) b (B) c (C) a (D) d
Answer: (C)
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25. Which number is missing in the following series?

2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, ?
(A) 63

(B) 65
(C) 67
(D) 69
Answer: (B)

26. The function of measurement includes:

(A) Prognosis
(B) Diagnosis
(C) Prediction
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

27. Logical arguments are based on:

(A) Scientific reasoning
(B) Customary reasoning

(C) Mathematical reasoning

(D) Syllogistic reasoning
Answer: (D)

28. I nsert the missing number: 4 : 17 : : 7 : ?

(A) 48 (B) 49 (C) 50 (D) 51

Answer: (C)

29. Choose the odd word:

(A) Nun (B) Knight (C) Monk (D) Priest

Answer: (B)
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30. Choose the number which is different from others in the group:
(A) 49
(B) 63

(C) 77
(D) 81
Answer: (D)

31. Probability sampling implies:

(A) Stratified Random Sampling

(B) Systematic Random Sampling
(C) Simple Random Sampling
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)

32. I nsert the missing number:

36/62 , 39/63, 43/61, 48/64, ?
(A) 51/65
(B) 56/60

(C) 54/65
(D) 33/60
Answer: (C)

33. At what time between 3 and 4 O'clock will the hands of a watch point in
opposite directions?
(A) 40 minutes past three
(C) 50 minutes past three
(B) 45 minutes past three
(D) 55 minutes past three

Answer: (C)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

34. Mary has three children. What is the probability that none of the three
children is a boy?
(A) 1/2 (B) 1/3

(C) 3/4 (D) 1

Answer: (Wrong question)

Description:
1. The probably of a boy are bbb, bbg, bgb, gbb, bgg, gbg, ggb, ggg, which is 8
'equally likely' cases, one meets desired criteria, probability of desired criteria is
1/8 .
2. Probability that first child is not boy= 1/2
Probability that second child is not boy= 1/2
Probability that third child is not boy= 1/2

Probability that none of the three children is a boy= 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2= 1/8

35. I f the radius of a circle is increased by 50 per cent. Its area is increased by:
(A) 125 per cent (B) 100 per cent
(C) 75 per cent (D) 50 per cent

Answer: (A)

36. CD ROM stands for:

(A) Computer Disk Read Only Memory
(B) Compact Disk Read Over Memory

(C) Compact Disk Read Only Memory

(D) Computer Disk Read Over Memory
Answer: (C)

37. The 'brain' of a computer which keeps peripherals under its control is called:

(A) Common Power Unit (B) Common Processing Unit

(C) Central Power Unit (D) Central Processing Unit
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Answer: (D)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

38. Data can be saved on backing storage medium known as :

(A) Compact Disk Recordable (B) Computer Disk Rewritable
(C) Compact Disk Rewritable (D) Computer Data Rewritable

Answer: (C)

39. RAM means:

(A) Random Access Memory (B) Rigid Access Memory
(C) Rapid Access Memory (D) Revolving Access Memory

Answer: (A)

40. www represents:

(A) who what and where
(B) weird wide web

(C) word wide web

(D) world wide web
Answer: (D)

41. Deforestation during the recent decades has led to:

(A) Soil erosion
(B) Landslides
(C) Loss of bio-diversity
(D) All the above

Answer: (D)

42. Which one of the following natural hazards is responsible for causing
highest human disaster?
(A) Earthquakes

(B) Snow-storms
(C) Volcanic eruptions
232

(D) Tsunami
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Answer: (D)

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43. Which one of the following is appropriate for natural hazard mitigation?
(A) International AID
(B) Timely Warning System

(C) Rehabilitation
(D) Community Participation
Answer: (B)

44. Slums in metro-city are the result of:

(A) Rural to urban migration

(B) Poverty of the city-scape
(C) Lack of urban infrastructure
(D) Urban-governance
Answer: (A)

45. The great Indian Bustard bird is found in:

(A) Thar Desert of India
(B) Coastal regions of India
(C) Temperate Forests in the Himalaya

(D) Tarai zones of the Himalayan Foot

Answer: (A)

46. The first Indian Satellite for serving the educational sector is known as:
(A) SATEDU (B) INSAT - B

(C) EDUSAT (D) INSAT-C

Answer: (C)

47. Exclusive educational channel of IGNOU is known as:

(A) GyanDarshan (B) Cyan Vani

(C) DoorDarshan (D) Prasar Bharati

233

Answer: (A)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

48. The head quarter of Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalaya

is situated in:
(A) Sevagram (B) New Delhi

(C) Wardha (D) Ahmedabad

Answer: (C)

49. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below:

List-I List-II
(I nstitutes) (Locations)
(a) Central Institute of English (i) Chitrakoot and Foreign
Languages
(b) Gramodaya Vishwavidyalaya (ii) Hyderabad

(c) Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies (iii) New Delhi

(d) IGNOU (iv) Dharmasala
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Answer: (A)

50. The aim of vocationalization of education is:

(A) preparing students for a vocation along with knowledge
(B) converting liberal education into vocational education
(C) giving more importance to vocational than general education
(D) making liberal education job-oriented

Answer: (D)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

UGC NET JUNE 2007

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
1. Teacher uses visual-aids to make learning:
(A) simple (B) more knowledgeable

(C) quicker (D) interesting

Answer: (D)

2. The teacher's role at the higher educational level is to:

(A) provide information to students

(B) promote self-learning in students

(C) encourage healthy competition among students
(D) help students to solve their personal problems
Answer: (B)

3. Which one of the following teachers would you like the most:
(A) punctual (B) having research aptitude
(C) loving and having high idealistic philosophy
(D) who often amuses his students
Answer: (B)

4. Micro teaching is most effective for the student-teacher:

(A) during the practice-teaching (B) after the practice-teaching
(C) before the practice-teaching (D) none of the above
Answer: (A)

5. Which is the least important factor in teaching?

(A) punishing the students (B) maintaining discipline in the class
(C) lecturing in impressive way
235

(D) drawing sketches and diagrams on the black-board

Answer: (A)
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6. To test null hypothesis, a researcher uses:

(A) t test (B) ANOVA (C) X2 (D) factorial analysis
Answer: (B)

7. A research problem is feasible only when:

(A) it has utility and relevance (B) it is researchable
(C) it is new and adds something to knowledge (D) all the above
Answer: (D)

8. Bibliography given in a research report:

(A) shows vast knowledge of the researcher
(B) helps those interested in further research
(C) has no relevance to research

(D) all the above

Answer: (B)

9. Fundamental research reflects the ability to:

(A) Synthesize new ideals (B) Expound new principles

(C) Evaluate the existing material concerning research

(D) Study the existing literature regarding various topics
Answer: (B)
10. The study in which the investigators attempt to trace an effect is known as:
(A) Survey Research

(B) 'Ex-post Facto' Research

(C) Historical Research
(D) Summative Research
Answer: (B)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:

All political systems need to mediate the relationship between private wealth
and public power. Those that fail risk a dysfunctional government captured by
wealthy interests. Corruption is one symptom of such failure with private
willingness-to-pay trumping public goals. Private individuals and business firms
pay to get routine services and to get to the head of the bureaucratic queue.
They pay to limit their taxes, avoid costly regulations, obtain contracts at
inflated prices and get concessions and privatised firms at low prices.

If corruption is endemic, public officials - both bureaucrats and elected officials

- may redesign programmes and propose public projects with few public benefits
and many opportunities for private profit. Of course, corruption, in the sense of
bribes, pay-offs and kickbacks, is only one type of government failure. Efforts to
promote 'good governance' must be broader than anti-corruption campaigns.
Governments may be honest but inefficient because no one has an incentive to
work productively, and narrow elites may capture the state and exert excess
influence on policy.
Bribery may induce the lazy to work hard and permit those not in the inner
circle of cronies to obtain benefits. However, even in such cases, corruption
cannot be confined to 'functional' areas. It will be a temptation whenever private
benefits are positive. It may be a reasonable response to a harsh reality but,
over time, it can facilitate a spiral into an even worse situation.

11. The governments which fail to focus on the relationship between private
wealth and public power are likely to become:
(A) Functional
(B) Dysfunctional
(C) Normal functioning
(D) Good governance

Answer: (B)

12. One important symptom of bad governance is:

(A) Corruption
(B) High taxes

(C) Complicated rules and regulations

(D) High prices
Answer: (A)
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13. When corruption is rampant, public officials always aim at many

opportunities for:
(A) Public benefits

(B) Public profit

(C) Private profit
(D) Corporate gains
Answer: (C)

14. Productivity linked incentives to public/private officials is one of the

indicatives for:
(A) Efficient government
(B) Bad governance
(C) Inefficient government

(D) Corruption
Answer: (A)

15. The spiralling corruption can only be containe d by promoting:

(A) Private profit

(B) Anti-corruption campaign

(C) Good governance
(D) Pay-offs and kick backs
Answer: (A)

16. Press Council of India is located at:

(A) Chennai
(B) Mumbai
(C) Kolkata
(D) Delhi

Answer: (D)
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17. Adjusting the photo for publication by cutting is technically known as:
(A) Photo cutting
(B) Photo bleeding

(C) Photo cropping

(D) Photo adjustment
Answer: (C)

18. Feed-back of a message comes from:

(A) Satellite
(B) Media
(C) Audience
(D) Communicator
Answer: (A)

19. Collection of information in advance before designing communication

strategy is known as:
(A) Feed-back
(B) Feed-forward

(C) Research study

(D) Opinion poll
Answer: (D)

20. The aspect ratio of TV screen is:

(A) 4:3 (B) 4:2 (C) 3:5 (D) 2:3

Answer: (A)

21. Which is the number that comes next in the sequence?

9, 8, 8, 8, 7, 8, 6,

(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 4

Answer: (C)
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22. I f in a certain language TRIVANDRUM is coded as 2 5 9 5 3 5 4 7 5 8, how

would MADRAS be coded?
(A) 834536

(B) 834538
(C) 834530
(D) 834539
Answer: (A)

23. The question to be answered by factorial analysis of the quantitative data

does not explain one of the following:
(A) Is 'X' related to 'Y'?
(B) How is 'X' related to 'Y'?
(C) How does 'X' affect the dependent variable 'Y' at different levels of another
independent variable 'K' or 'M'?
(D) How is 'X' by 'K' related to 'M'?
Answer: (D)

24. January 12, 1980 was Saturday, what day was January 12, 1979:

(A) Saturday
(B) Friday
(C) Sunday
(D) Thursday
Answer: (B)

25. How many Mondays are there in a particular month of a particular year, if
the month ends on We dnesday?
(A) 5
(B) 4

(C) 3
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
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26. From the given four statements, select the two which cannot be true but yet
both can be false.
Choose the right pair:

(i) All men are mortal

(ii) Some men are mortal
(iii) No man is mortal
(iv) Some men are not mortal
(A) (i) and(ii) (B) (iii) and (iv)

(C) (i) and(iii) (D) (ii) and(iv)

Answer: (D)

27. A Syllogism must have:

(A) Three terms (B) Four terms
(C) Six terms (D) Five terms
Answer: (B)

28. Copula is that part of proposition which denotes the relationship between:
(A) Subject and predicate (B) Known and unknown
(C) Major premise and minor premise (D) Subject and object
Answer: (A)

29. "E" denotes:

(A) Universal Negative Proposition (B) Particular Affirmative Proposition

(C) Universal Affirmative Proposition (D) Particular Negative Proposition

Answer: (A)
30. 'A' is the father of 'C, and 'D' is the son of 'B'. 'E' is the brother of 'A'. If 'C is
the sister of 'D', how is 'B' related to 'E'?
(A) daughter

(B) husband
(C) sister-in-law
(D) brother-in-law
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Answer: (C)
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31. Which of the following methods will you choose to prepare choropleth map
of India showing urban density of population:
(A) Quartiles (B) Quintiles

(C) Mean and SD (D) Break - point

Answer: (A)

32. Which of the following methods is best suited to show on a map the types of
crops being grown in a region?

(A) Choropleth (B) Chorochromatic

(C) Choroschematic (D) Isopleth
Answer: (A)

33. A ratio represents the relation between:

(A) Part and Part (B) Part and Whole

(C) Whole and Whole (D) All of the above
Answer: (D)

34. Out of four numbers, the average of the first three numbers is thrice the
fourth number. If the average of the four numbers is 5, the fourth number is:
(A) 4.5
(B) 5
(C) 2
(D) 4

Answer: (C)

35. Circle graphs are used to show:

(A) How various sections share in the whole?
(B) How various parts are related to the whole?

(C) How one whole is related to other wholes

(D) How one part is related to other parts?
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Answer: (B)
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36. On the keyboard of computer each character has an "ASCII" value which
stands for:
(A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange

(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

(C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
(D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change
Answer: (B)

37. Which part of the Central Processing Unit (CPU) performs calculation and
makes decisions:
(A) Arithematic Logic Unit (B) Alternating Logic Unit
(C) Alternate Local Unit (D) American Logic Unit
Answer: (A)

38. "Dpi" stands for:

(A) Dots per inch (B) Digits per unit
(C) Dots pixel inch (D) Diagrams per inch
Answer: (A)

39. The process of laying out a document with text, graphics, headlines and
photographs is involved in
(A) Deck Top Publishing (B) Desk Top Printing
(C) Desk Top Publishing (D) Deck Top Printing

Answer: (C)

40. Transfer of data from one application to another line is known as:
(A) Dynamic Disk Exchange
(B) Dodgy Data Exchange

(C) Dogmatic Data Exchange

(D) Dynamic Data Exchange
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Answer: (D)
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41. Tsunami occurs due to:

(A) Mild earthquakes and landslides in the oceans
(B) Strong earthquakes and landslides in the oceans

(C) Strong earthquakes and landslides in mountains

(D) Strong earthquakes and landslides in deserts
Answer: (B)

42. Which of the natural hazards have big effect on Indian people each year?

(A) Cyclones (B) Floods

(C) Earthquakes (D) Landslides
Answer: (B)

43. Comparative Environment Impact Assessment study is to be conducted for:

(A) the whole year (B) three seasons excluding monsoon

(C) any three seasons (D) the worst season
Answer: (A)

44. Sea level rise results primarily due to:

(A) Heavy rainfall (B) Melting of glaciers

(C) Submarine volcanism (D) Seafloor spreading
Answer: (B)

45. The plume rise in a coal based power plant depends on:

(i) Buoyancy
(ii) Atmospheric stability
(iii) Momentum of exhaust gases
Identify the correct code:
(A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only

(C) (i) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
244

Answer: (B)
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46. Value education makes a student:

(A) Good citizen (B) Successful businessman
(C) Popular teacher (D) Efficient manager

Answer: (A)

47. N etworking of libraries through electronic media is known as:

(A) Inflibnet (B) Libinfnet
(C) Internet (D) HTML

Answer: (A)

48. The University which telecasts interactive educational programmes through

its own channel is:
(A) B. R. Ambedkar Open University, Hyderabad

(B) I.G.N.O.U.
(C) University of Pune
(D) Annamalai University
Answer: (B)

49. The Government established the University Grants Commission by an Act of

Parliament in the year:
(A) 1980 (B) 1948
(C) 1950 (D) 1956
Answer: (D)

50. Universities having central campus for imparting education are called:
(A) Central Universities
(B) Deemed Universities
(C) Residential Universities

(D) Open Universities

Answer: (A)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

UGC NET DECEMBER 2006

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
1. Which of the following is not instructional material?
(A) Over Head Projector (B) Audio Casset
(C) Printed Material (D) Transparency
Answer: (D)

2. Which of the following statement is not correct?

(A) Lecture Method can develop reasoning
(B) Lecture Method can develop knowledge
(C) Lecture Method is one way process
(D) During Lecture Method students are passive
Answer: (A)

3. The main objective of teaching at Higher Education Level is:

(A) To prepare students to pass examination
(B) To develop the capacity to take decisions
(C) To give new information
(D) To motivate students to ask questions during lecture

Answer: (B)

4. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) Reliability ensures validity
(B) Validity ensures reliability
(C) Reliability and validity are independent of each other
(D) Reliability does not depend on objectivity
Answer: (C)
5. Which of the following indicates evaluation?
(A) Ram got 45 marks out of 200
(B) Mohan got 38 percent marks in English
(C) Shyam got First Division in final examination
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

6. Research can be conducted by a person who:

(A) has studied research methodology (B) holds a postgraduate degree
(C) possesses thinking and reasoning ability (D) is a hard worker

Answer: (A)

7. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Objectives of research are stated in first chapter of the thesis
(B) Researcher must possess analytical ability

(C) Variability is the source of problem

(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

8. Which of the following is not the Method of Research?

(A) Observation (B) Historical

(C) Survey (D) Philosophical
Answer: (A)

9. Research can be classified as:

(A) Basic, Applied and Action Research

(B) Quantitative and Qualitative Research
(C) Philosophical, Historical, Survey and Experimental Research
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

10. The first step of research is:

(A) Selecting a problem
(B) Searching a problem
(C) Finding a problem

(D) Identifying a problem

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Answer: (D)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Read the following passage and answer the question nos. 11 to 15:
After almost three decades of contemplating Swarovski-encrusted navels on
increasing flat abs, the Mumbai film industry is on a discovery of India and
itself. With budgets of over 30 crore each, four soon to be released movies by
premier directors are exploring the idea of who we are and redefining who the
other is. It is a fundamental question which the bling-bling, glam-sham and
disham-disham tends to avoid. It is also a question which binds an audience
when the lights go dim and the projector rolls: as a nation, who are we? As a
people, where are we going?
The Germans coined a word for it, zeitgeist, which perhaps Yash Chopra would
not care to pronounce. But at 72, he remains the person who can best capture
it. After being the first to project the diasporic Indian on screen in Lamhe in
1991, he has returned to his roots in a new movie. Veer Zaara, set in 1986,
where Pakistan, the traditional other, the part that got away, is the lover and
the saviour. In Subhas Ghais Kisna, set in 1947, the other is the English
woman. She is not a memsahib, but a mehbooba. In Ketan Mehtas The Rising,
the East India Englishman is not the evil oppressor of countless cardboard
characterisations, which span the spectrum from Jewel in the Crown to Kranti,
but an honourable friend.
This is Manoj Kumars Desh Ki dharti with a difference: there is culture, not
contentious politics; balle balle, not bombs: no dooriyan (distance), only
nazdeekiyan (closeness).
All four films are heralding a new hero and heroine. The new hero is fallible and
vulnerable, committed to his dharma, but also not afraid of failure - less of a
boy and more of a man. He even has a grown up name: Veer Pratap Singh in
Veer-Zaara and Mohan Bhargav in Swades. The new heroine is not a babe, but
often a bebe, dressed in traditional Punjabi clothes, often with the stereotypical
body type as well, as in Bride and Prejudice of Gurinder Chadha.

11. Which word Yash Chopra would not be able to pronounce?

(A) Bling + bling (B) Zeitgeist
(C) Montaz (D) Dooriyan
Answer: (B)

12. Who made Lamhe in 1991?

(A) Subhash Ghai (B) Yash Chopra
(C) Aditya Chopra (D) Sakti Samanta
248

Answer: (B)
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13. Which movie is associated with Manoj Kumar?

(A) Jewel in the Crown (B) Kisna
(C) Zaara (D) Desh Ki dharti

Answer: (D)

14. Which is the latest film by Yash Chopra?

(A) Deewar (B) Kabhi Kabhi
(C) Dilwale Dulhaniya Le Jayenge (D) Veer Zaara

Answer: (D)

15. Which is the dress of the heroine in Veer-Zaara?

(A) Traditional Gujarati Clothes
(B) Traditional Bengali Clothes

(C) Traditional Punjabi Clothes

(D) Traditional Madras Clothes
Answer: (C)

16. Which one of the following can be termed as verbal communication?

(A) Prof. Sharma delivered the lecture in the class room.

(B) Signal at the cross-road changed from green to orange.
(C) The child was crying to attract the attention of the mother.
(D) Dipak wrote a letter for leave application.
Answer: (A)

17. Which is the 24 hours English Business news channel in India?

(A) Zee News
(B) NDTV 247
(C) CNBC

(D) India News

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Answer: (C)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

18. Consider the following statements in communication:

(i) Hema Malini is the Chairperson of the Childrens Film Society, India.
(ii) Yash Chopra is the Chairman of the Central Board of Film Certification of
India.
(iii) Sharmila Tagore is the Chairperson of National Film Development
Corporation.
(iv) Dilip Kumar, Raj Kapoor and Preeti Zinta have all been recipients of Dada
Saheb Phalke Award.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iv) only
(D) (iii) only

Answer: (B)

19. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

(A) N. Ram: The Hindu (B) Barkha Dutt : Zee News
(C) Pranay Roy: NDTV 247 (D) Prabhu Chawla: Aaj taak

Answer: (B)

20. Because you deserve to know is the punchline used by:

(A) The Times of India (B) The Hindu
(C) Indian Express (D) Hindustan Times

Answer: (D)

21. I n the sequence of numbers 8, 24, 12, X, 18, 54 the missing number X is:
(A) 26
(B) 24

(C) 36
(D) 32
250

Answer: (C)
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22. I f A stands for 5, B for 6, C for 7, D for 8 and so on, then the following
numbers stand for 17, 19, 20, 9 and 8:
(A) PLANE

(B) MOPED
(C) MOTOR
(D) TONGA
Answer: (B)

23. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this
relationship, what is the right choice for the second set?
AST : BRU : : N QV : ?
(A) ORW
(B) MPU

(C) MRW
(D) OPW
Answer: (D)

24. I n a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35. In this code PAT is
written as:
(A) 30
(B) 37
(C) 38
(D) 39

Answer: (B)

25. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/4. If its perimeter is
52 cm, the length of the smallest side is:
(A) 9 cm

(B) 10 cm
(C) 11 cm
(D) 12 cm
251

Answer: (D)
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26. Which one of the following statements is completely non-sensical?

(A) He was a bachelor, but he married recently.
(B) He is a bachelor, but he married recently.

(C) When he married, he was not a bachelor.

(D) When he was a bachelor, he was not married.
Answer: (B)

27. Which of the following statements are mutually contradictory?

(i) All flowers are not fragrant.
(ii) Most flowers are not fragrant.
(iii) None of the flowers is fragrant.
(iv) Most flowers are fragrant.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (D)

28. Which of the following statements say the same thing?

(i) I am a teacher (said by Arvind)
(ii) I am a teacher (said by Binod)
(iii) My son is a teacher (said by Binods father)

(iv) My brother is a teacher (said by Binods sister)

(v) My brother is a teacher (said by Binods only sister)
(vi) My sole enemy is a teacher (said by Binods only enemy)
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:

(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
252

(C) (ii) and (vi) (D) (v) and (vi)

Answer: (B)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

29. Which of the following are correct ways of arguing?

(i) There can be no second husband without a second wife.
(ii) Anil is a friend of Bob, Bob is a friend of Raj, hence Anil is a friend of Raj.

(iii) A is equal to B, B is equal to C, hence A is equal to C.

(iv) If everyone is a liar, then we cannot prove it.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(A) (iii) and (iv)

(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (A)

30. Which of the following statement/s are ALWAYS FALSE?

(i) The sun will not rise in the East some day.
(ii) A wooden table is not a table.
(iii) Delhi city will be drowned under water.
(iv) Cars run on water as fuel. Choose the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(A) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(B) Only (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(D) (ii) alone

Answer: (A)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Study the following graph and answer question numbers 31 to 33:

31. I n the year 2000, which of the following Companies earned maximum
percent profit?
(A) a

(B) b
(C) d
(D) f
Answer: (D)

32. I n the year 2001, which of the following Companies earned minimum
percent profit?
(A) a
(B) c
(C) d

(D) e
Answer: (A)

33. I n the years 2000 and 2001, which of the following Companies earned
maximum average percent profit?

(A) f
(B) e
(C) d
(D) b
254

Answer: (A)
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34. Human Development Report for each of the year at global level has been
published by:
(A) UNDP (B) WTO

(C) IMF (D) World Bank

Answer: (A)

35. The number of students in four classes A, B, C, D and their respective mean
marks obtained by each of the class are given below:

Class A Class B Class C Class D

Number of students 10 40 30 20
Arithmetic mean 20 30 50 15
The combine d mean of the marks of four classes together will be:
(A) 32

(B) 50
(C) 20
(D) 15
Answer: (A)

36. LAN stands for:

(A) Local And National
(B) Local Area Network
(C) Large Area Network
(D) Live Area Network

Answer: (B)

37. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) Modem is a software
(B) Modem helps in stabilizing the voltage

(C) Modem is the operating system

(D) Modem converts the analog signal into digital signal and vice-versa
255

Answer: (D)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

38. Which of the following is the appropriate definition of a computer?

(A) Computer is a machine that can process information.
(B) Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and process both
qualitative and quantitative data quickly and accurate ly.
(C) Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and quickly process
only quantitative data.
(D) Computer is a machine that can store, retrieve and process quickly and
accurately only qualitative information

Answer: (B)

39. I nformation and Communication Technology includes:

(A) On line learning
(B) Learning through the use of EDUSAT

(C) Web Based Learning

(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

40. Which of the following is the appropriate format of URL of e-mail?

(A) www_mail.com
(B) [email protected]
(C) [email protected]
(D) www.mail.com
Answer: (B)

41. The most significant impact of volcanic eruption has been felt in the form of:
(A) change in weather
(B) sinking of islands

(C) loss of vegetation

(D) extinction of animals
Answer: (A)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

42. With absorption and decomposition of CO 2 in ocean water beyond desired

level, there will be:
(A) decrease in temperature

(B) increase in salinity

(C) growth of phytoplankton
(D) rise in sea level
Answer: (C)

43. Arrange column II in proper sequence so as to match it with column I and

choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Column I Column II
Water Quality pH Value
(a) Neutral (i) 5

(b) Moderately acidic (ii) 7

(c) Alkaline (iii) 4
(d) Injurious (iv) 8
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Answer: (A)

44. The maximum emission of pollutants from fuel sources in India is caused
by:
(A) Coal
(B) Firewood

(C) Refuse burning

(D) Vegetable waste product
257

Answer: (A)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

45. The urbanisation process accounts for the wind in the urban centres during
nights to remain:
(A) faster than that in rural areas (B) slower than that in rural areas

(C) the same as that in rural areas (D) cooler than that in rural areas
Answer: (A)

46. The University Grants Commission was constituted on the recommendation

of:

(A) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Commission (B) Mudaliar Commission

(C) Sargent Commission (D) Kothari Commission
Answer: (A)

47. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India safeguards
the rights of Minorities to establish and run educational institutions of their
own liking?
(A) Article 19 (B) Article 29
(C) Article 30 (D) Article 31
Answer: (C)

48. Match List - I (Institutions) with List - II (Functions) and select the correct
answer by using the code given below:
List - I (Institutions) List - II (Functions)
(a) Parliament (i) Formulation of Budget

(b) C & A.G. (ii) Enactment of Budget

(c) Ministry of Finance (iii) Implementation of Budget
(d) Executing Departments (iv) Legality of expenditure
(v) Justification of Income
Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) (v) (iii) (iv) (ii)
258

(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v)

Answer: (B)
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49. Foundation training to the newly recruited IAS (Probationers) is imparted by:
(A) Indian Institute of Public Administration
(B) Administrative Staff College of India

(C) L.B.S. National Academy of Administration

(D) Centre for Advanced Studies
Answer: (C)

50. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections

are settled by:
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) Joint Committee of Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Central Election Tribunal

Answer: (C)

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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

UGC NET JUNE 2006

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
1. Which of the following comprise teaching skill?
(A) Black Board writing

(B) Questioning
(C) Explaining
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

2. Which of the following statements is most appropriate?

(A) Teachers can teach.
(B) Teachers help can create in a student a desire to learn.
(C) Lecture Method can be used for developing thinking.
(D) Teachers are born.

Answer: (B)

3. The first Indian chronicler of Indian history was:

(A) Megasthanese
(B) Fahiyan

(C) Huan Tsang

(D) Kalhan
Answer: (D)

4. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Syllabus is a part of curriculum.

(B) Syllabus is an annexure to curriculum.
(C) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a
particular university.
260

(D) Syllabus is not the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a

particular university.
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Answer: (A)

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5. Which of the two given options is of the level of understanding?

(I) Define noun.
(II) Define noun in your own words.

(A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II
Answer: (B)

6. Which of the following options are the main tasks of research in modern
society?

(I) to keep pace with the advancement in knowledge.

(II) to discover new things.
(III) to write a critique on the earlier writings.
(I V) to systematically examine and critically analyse the investigations/sources
with objectivity.

(A) IV, II and I (B) I, II and III (C) I and III (D) II, III and IV
Answer: (A)

7. Match List-I (Interviews) with List-II (Meaning) and select the correct answer
from the code given below:

List - I (Interviews) List - II (Meaning)

(a) structured interviews (i) greater flexibility approach
(b) Unstructured interviews (ii) attention on the questions to be
answered
(c) Focused interviews (iii) individual life experience

(d) Clinical interviews (iv) Pre determined question

(v) non-directive
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(C) (v) (ii) (iv) (i)
(D) (i) (iii) (v) (iv)
261

Answer: (A)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

8. What do you consider as the main aim of inter disciplinary research?

(A) To bring out holistic approach to research.
(B) To reduce the emphasis of single subject in research domain.

(C) To over simplify the problem of research.

(D) To create a new trend in research methodology.
Answer: (A)

9. One of the aims of the scientific method in research is to:

(A) improve data interpretation (B) eliminate spurious relations

(C) confirm triangulation (D) introduce new variables
Answer: (B)

10. The depth of any research can be judged by:

(A) title of the research. (B) objectives of the research.

(C) total expenditure on the research. (D) duration of the research.
Answer: (B)

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:

The superintendence, direction and control of preparation of electoral rolls for,
and the conduct of, elections to Parliament and State Legislatures and elections
to the offices of the President and the Vice - President of India are vested in the
Election Commission of India. It is an independent constitutional authority.
Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive
interference is ensured by a specific provision under Article 324 (5) of the
constitution that the chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his
office except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme
Court and conditions of his service shall not be varied to his disadvantage after
his appointment.

In C.W.P. No. 4912 of 1998 (Kushra Bharat Vs. Union of India and others), the
Delhi High Court directed that information relating to Government dues owed by
the candidates to the departments dealing with Government accommodation,
electricity, water, telephone and transport etc. and any other dues should be
furnished by the candidates and this information should be published by the
election authorities under the commission.
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

11. The text of the passage reflects or raises certain questions:

(A) The authority of the commission cannot be challenged.
(B) This would help in stopping the criminalization of Indian politics.

(C) This would reduce substantially the number of contesting candidates.

(D) This would ensure fair and free elections.
Answer: (D)

12. According to the passage, the Election Commission is an independent

constitutional authority. This is under Article No.
(A) 324
(B) 356
(C) 246
(D) 161

Answer: (A)

13. I ndependence of the Commission means:

(A) have a constitutional status. (B) have legislative powers.
(C) have judicial powers. (D) have political powers.

Answer: (A)

14. Fair and free election means:

(A) transparency (B) to maintain law and order
(C) regional considerations (D) role for pressure groups

Answer: (B)

15. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office under
Article :
(A) 125

(B) 352
(C) 226
263

(D) 324
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Answer: (D)

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16. The function of mass communication of supplying information regarding

the processes, issues, events and societal developments is known as:
(A) content supply

(B) surveillance
(C) gratification
(D) correlation
Answer: (A)

17. The science of the study of feedback systems in humans, animals and
machines is known as:
(A) cybernetics (B) reverse communication
(C) selectivity study (D) response analysis
Answer: (A)

18. N etworked media exist in inter-connected:

(A) social environments (B) economic environments
(C) political environments (D) technological environments
Answer: (D)

19. The combination of computing, telecommunications and media in a digital

atmos phere is referred to as:
(A) online communication (B) integrate d media
(C) digital combine (D) convergence

Answer: (D)

20. A dialogue between a human-being and a computer programme that occurs

simultaneously in various forms is described as:
(A) man-machine speak

(B) binary chat

(C) digital talk
(D) interactivity
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Answer: (D)
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21. I nsert the missing number:

16/32, 15 /33, 17/31, 14/34 ?
(A) 19/35

(B) 19/30
(C) 18/35
(D) 18/30
Answer: (D)

22. Monday falls on 20th March 1995. What was the day on 3rd November
1994?
(A) Thursday
(B) Sunday
(C) Tuesday

(D) Saturday
Answer: (A)

23. The average of four consecutive even numbers is 27. The largest of these
numbers is:

(A) 36
(B) 32
(C) 30
(D) 28
Answer: (C)

24. I n a certain code, FHQK means GIRL. How will WOMEN be written in the
same code?
(A) VNLDM
(B) FHQKN

(C) XPNFO
(D) VLNDM
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Answer: (A)
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25. At what time between 4 and 5 O'clock will the hands of a watch point in
opposite directions?
(A) 45 min. past 4 (B) 40 min. past 4

(C) 50 4/11 min. past 4 (D) 54 6/11 min. past 4

Answer: (D)

26. Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on statement

given below?

Statement: Most teachers are hard working.

Conclusions:
(I) Some teachers are hard working.
(II) Some teachers are not hard working.
(A) Only (I) is implied (B) Only (II) is implied

(C) Both (I) and (II) are implied (D) Neither (I) nor (II) is implied
Answer: (C)

27. Who among the following can be asked to make a statement in Indian
Parliament?

(A) Any MLA (B) Chief of Army Staff

(C) Solicitor General of India (D) Mayor of Delhi
Answer: (C)

28. Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on statement

given below?
Statement: Most of the Indian states existed before independence.
Conclusions:
(I) Some Indian States existed before independence.
(II) All Indian States did not exist before independence.

(A) only (I) is implied (B) only (II) is implied

(C) Both (I) and (II) are implied (D) Neither (I) nor (II) is implied
Answer: (B)
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29. Wate r is always involved with landslides. This is because it:

(A) reduces the shear strength of rocks
(B) increases the weight of the overburden

(C) enhances chemical weathering

(D) is a universal solvent
Answer: (B)

30. Direction for this question:

Given below are two statements (a) and (b) followed by two conclusions (i) and
(ii). Considering the statements to be true, indicate which of the following
conclusions logically follow from the given statements by selecting one of the
four response alternatives given below the conclusion :
Statements:

(a) all businessmen are wealthy.

(b) all wealthy people are hard working.
Conclusions:
(i) All businessmen are hard working.
(ii) All hardly working people are not wealthy

(A) Only (i) follows (B) Only (ii) follows

(C) Only (i) and (ii) follows (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) follows
Answer: (A)

31. Using websites to pour out one's grievances is called:

(A) cyber venting (B) cyber ranting

(C) web hate (D) web plea
Answer: (A)

32. I n web search, finding a large number of documents with very little relevant
information is termed:
(A) poor recall (B) web crawl
(C) poor precision rate (D) poor web response
267

Answer: (A)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

33. The concept of connect intelligence is derived from:

(A) virtual reality (B) fuzzy logic
(C) Bluetooth technology (D) value added networks

Answer: (D)

34. Use of an ordinary telephone as an Internet applicance is called:

(A) voice net
(B) voice telephone

(C) voice line

(D) voice portal
Answer: (C)

35. Video transmission over the Internet that looks like delayed livecasting is
called:
(A) virtual video
(B) direct broadcast
(C) video shift
(D) real-time video

Answer: (D)

36. Which is the smallest North-east State in India?

(A) Tripura (B) Meghalaya
(C) Mizoram (D) Manipur

Answer: (A)

37. Tamilnadu coastal belt has drinking water shortage due to:
(A) high evaporation
(B) sea water flooding due to tsunami

(C) over exploitation of ground water by tube wells

(D) seepage of sea water
268

Answer: (D)
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

38. While all rivers of Peninsular India flow into the Bay of Bengal, Narmada
and Tapti flow into the Arabian Sea because these two rivers:
(A) Follow the slope of these rift valleys

(B) The general slope of the Indian peninsula is from east to west
(C) The Indian peninsula north of the Satpura ranges, is tilted towards the west
(D) The Indian peninsula south of the satpura ranges is tilted towards east
Answer: (A)

39. Soils in the Mahanadi delta are less fertile than those in the Godavari delta
because of:
(A) erosion of top soils by annual floods
(B) inundation of land by sea water
(C) traditional agriculture practices

(D) the derivation of alluvial soil from red-soil hinterland

Answer: (A)

40. Which of the following institutions in the field of education is set up by the
MHRD Government of India?

(A) Indian council of world Affair, New Delhi

(B) Mythic Society, Bangalore
(C) National Bal Bhawn, New Delhi
(D) India International Centre, New Delhi
Answer: (C)

41. Assertion (A): Aerosols have potential for modifying climate

Reason (R): Aerosols interact with both short waves and radiation
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
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Answer: (A)
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42. 'SITE' stands for:

(A) System for International technology and Engineering
(B) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment

(C) South Indian Trade Estate

(D) State Institute of Technology and Engineering
Answer: (B)

43. What is the name of the Research station established by the Indian
Government for 'Conducting Research at Antarctic?
(A) Dakshin Gangotri
(B) Yamunotri
(C) Uttari Gangotri
(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

44. Minis try of Human Resource Development (HRD) includes:

(A) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy
(B) De partment of Secondary Education and Higher Education

(C) Department of Women and Child Development

(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

45. Parliament can legislate on matters listed in the State list:

(A) With the prior permission of the President.

(B) Only after the constitution is amended suitably.
(C) In case of inconsistency among State legislatures.
(D) At the request of two or more States.
Answer: (D)
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The following pie chart indicates the expenditure of a country on various sports
during a particular year. Study the pie chart and answer it Question Number
46 to 50.

46. The ratio of the total expenditure on football to that of expenditure on

hockey is :
(A) 1:15 (B) 1:1 (C) 15:1 (D) 3:20
Answer: (B)

47. if the total expenditure on sports during the year was Rs. 1,20,000,00 how
much was spent on basket ball?
(A) Rs. 9,50,000 (B) Rs. 10,00,000
(C) Rs. 12,00,000 (D) Rs. 15,00,000
Answer: (D)

48. The chart shows that the most popular game of the country is :
(A) Hockey
(B) Football
(C) Cricket
(D) Tennis

Answer: (C)
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49. Out of the following country's expenditure is the same on :

(A) Hockey and Tennis
(B) Golf and Basket ball

(C) Cricket and Football

(D) Hockey and Golf
Answer: (B)

50. I f the total expenditure on sport during the year was Rs. 1,50,00,000 the
expenditure on cricket and hockey together was:
(A) Rs. 60,00,000
(B) Rs. 50,00,000
(C) Rs. 37,50,000
(D) Rs. 25,00,000

Answer: (A)

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UNIT 1
Teaching Aptitude
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Teaching Aptitude
Ability of Adaptability:

Q1) If the persons living in flats are not contributing for its maintenance
charges, what will you decide and take action to solve the discord
Options:
A) You will convene an urgent meeting of the members and request them
collectively to extend their support
B) You will threat them of the building's collapse
C) You will take revenge and debar them from co-operation
D) You will withdraw your own active support to the committee

Q2) Suppose your principal is penalizing you deliberately. You do your best
efforts to make him happy. But he deals with you as his enemy. What would
you do under this situation?
Options:
A) You will always abuse him and try to impose upon him
B) You will not do anything because you have elderly honour for him
C) You will always find faults in him
D) You will never bow to his wrong will

Q3) It is said that political power defeated the administrative power. You are
also an eye witness of it. How could you accommodate yourself under these
pressures?
Options:
A) You will follow the proverb-'Do as the Romans do'
B) You will try your best to remain confirm to your duties
C) You will do herculean efforts to win the politics through moral triumph
D) You will repress your consciousness
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Q4) If your colleague deliberately neglect you inspite of your courteous

invitation, the reasonable cause of it may be

Options:
A) Withdrawal due to inferiority complexes
B) A voidance due to feelings of superiority
C) Rivalries in relation to professional dignity
D) Personal conflicts in family

Q5) If you have taken a house on rent you would like to build good relations
with your land lord through
Options:
A) Adaptation and accommodations
B) Maintaining submissive attitude
C) Maintaining dominating attitude
D) Social adaptation

Q6) If you take your mid-day meal to school, what will be your mode of taking
meal during recess hour?
Options:
A) You share your meal with others because other's food is tastier
B) You take food with your friend in canteen
C) You take food in isolation due to family customs and personal inhibitions
D) You share your food with all the staff members and enjoy it in your group

Q7) Suppose your junior colleague expects some financial support from you on
the occasion of his marriage. What decision will you take in this situation?
Options:

A) I f marriage is at your place, you will give him full support

B) You will think it against your, honour to assist the juniors
C) You make lame excuses
D) You will be weighing the support in relation to intimacy of relations
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Q8) In general, it seems that the schools have become the place of politics
instead of teaching in modern age. Suppose you get appointment in such a
school, what would you do in this situation?
Options:
A) You will accept the membership of the active political group
B) You will be continuing to make favourable efforts so that teaching
environment can be retained in school
C) You will free yourself from political activities and pressures
D) You will try to crush the teachers politics with the help of students

Q9) Suppose a few teachers are busy in cracking filthy jokes during their leisure
time in school, you are also member of that group but unable to stop them.
What would you like to do to avoid it?
Options:
A) You persuade them not to waste their leisure time in filthy jokes
B) You change the group or live in isolation because you don't relish it
C) You instruct them to mind their language while cracking jokes in school
D) You criticise and remind them of their noble profession

Q10) When your parents visit your house, you give them more respect than your
in-laws. Under these conditions what will be expected by your life?
Options:

A) She will ask for equal treatment to her parents because she gives due respect
to your parents
B) She has no right to ask for similar treatment
C) Because your parents are higher in social status, so have a right of high
res pect
D) She will remain in a neutral position

Q11) The maxim of maintaining good relations with others is

Options:
A) Sycophancy
B) Kaleidoscopic per
C) Attractive features and mental make p
D) Control over emotions
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Q12) Suppose your friend has just left the home on scooter along with his son,
immediately you hear the news that they met a road accident. What will you do
in this case?

Options:
A) You will mock at him because you have poor relations with him
B) You will rush immediately and extend all possible help keeping in mind that
this is not the time of personal enmity
C) You will leave the place immediately so that nobody can blame you later on
D) You will visit them next day and give an impression that you knew it just now
from neighbourhood

Q13) Suppose a colleague is living in your mohalla but you have no affinity with
him, the reason of it may be

Options:
A) His miserable behaviour and rural back ground
B) His religious faith
C) His social rejection
D) His selfishness

Q14) When your friend invites you on feast then what do you in these
conditions?
Options:
A) You go only when you have class affinity
B) You must go because one should give due honour to invitation
C) You go at one or two houses of friends only
D) Make lame excuses on next day

Q15) Suppose your colleague either commits theft or torn out your postage from
school due to jealously. How would you overcome this problem?
Options:
A) You catch the culprit red-handed and abuse him
B) You try to take a revenge by tearing his letters just to teach him a lesson
C) Once you catch him and warn him severely
D) You insult him in public
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Q16) When girl-students make a request, the other male students are annoyed
with you on the pretext that you have been easily approached by them and do a
favour. In such a situation how would you like to control them and the class?

Options:
A) You will clarify that it is difficult for you to refute the request made by the girl
students
B) You will justify that most of the girl students are more sincere towards their
studies than the boys
C) You will tell the boys that girl students have no option except to depend on
the school teacher for their academic assistance
D) You will try to improve the interaction in the class without emphasizing
gender discrimination

Q17) If your neighbour knows about your blood group, all of a sudden his child
fell down to a road accident, and he request you to donate blood to save his
child's life, what decision would you like to take?
Options:
A) You will refuse immediately
B) You will create a fear of same serious disease to avoid it
C) You will immediately agree to donate your blood
D) You will suggest him to arrange blood from a Blood-bank

Q18) If you have all the potentialities to become an efficient teacher but the
school's adverse conditions do not help you. How could you adjust with this
reality?
Options:
A) You will continue excellent efforts because you believe that unfavourable
conditions lead to some solutions
B) You will try force the administrative machinery to control the conditions
C) You will work unwillingly under these prevailing situations
D) You will not even try to think about its solution

Q19) You are very busy in your personal work mean while your neighbouring
retired person visits you in a relaxed and gossiping mood. In such a time how
would you like to behave with that person?
Options:
A) You exhibit passive attitude in order to discourage his conversation
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B) You enjoy the company by thinking that you too feel relaxed with him
C) You give due honour but tell him about the time-limit
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D) You sit as an idle person and think of his departure

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Q20) As the age is increasing you become anxious for your old age. What would
you do to eliminate the anxiety?

Options:
A) Timely preparation for the age to avoid the tensions
B) Involvement in other activities to divert your attention
C) Learn yoga to control undesirable emotions
D) You don't waste present while thinking for future unnecessarily

Q21) If you have the habit of book-lifting from library, how would you solve this
typical problem behaviour?
Options:
A) Gradually you will leave this habit because you know that it is very painful
experience to the individual who is in dire need of it
B) You realise it as an immoral act but have no alternative
C) You will try to purchase it
D) You will try to get it from other students

Q22) You become rash when some inadequate behaviour is shown by others.
When you show such behaviour in relation to others, what do you think?
Options:
A) Those persons should be irritated because it is the echo-like behaviour
B) You are elder have the right to behave in such a manner
C) Behave as you expect from others
D) You always become rash in case of maltreatment given by others, so try to
control yourself

Q23) If a girl student prefers you beyond the ethical limits then how would you
control your own emotions?
Options:
A) You will try to sublimate her emotions, as she is passing through the
adolescent stage
B) You will like to repress her intentions through strict measures
C) You will relish her emotionality
D) You will have in mind the similar emotions but afraid of social dignity
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Q24) The government has the provision to appoint a family member after
sudden death of an employee. Suppose you have no child, in this case how far
do you agree with this scheme?

Options:
A) It is a foolish scheme because mishaps can occur with anybody at anytime
B) It is more obligatory than the welfare activity
C) To think about it is baseless under any condition
D) It is favourable scheme for the families in a great tragedy

Q25) If some students enter your room and abuse you harshly, at that time how
would you control your emotions?
Options:
A) You will react in similar tone and try to assault them physically
B) First you will try to pacify their emotions, then ask politely about their
problems
C) You will feel ashamed among your colleagues
D) You will report the case to the principal with recommendation of rustication

Q26) If your colleague entangles you in the act of negligence of duties with the
help of principal how would you behave with him?
Options:
A) Revengeful and will give physical and mental shock to him
B) You will neglect him
C) You will insult him among the colleagues
D) You will keep yourself alert and make his efforts unfruitful

Q27) When your motor-bike is out of order all of sudden then what will you do
in this situation?

Options:
A) You will immediately get the bike repair because you feel inferiority to go to
the institute without it
B) You will not touch it because it saves you from the unusual expense of petrol
and repairing
C) You will get it repaired immediately otherwise it will be deteriorated
D) You will become neutral as you believe to face every condition
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Q28) Suppose a teacher has acute stammering problem but he wins the favour
through sycophancy. Therefore, he goes to any extent to seek favour from the
administration. The other colleagues have great jealousy with him. Because he
climbed all the progressive ladder through that quality. How would you like
such a person in your company?
Options:
A) You treat him like your 'Guru' as he is the most successful teacher
B) You criticise and abuse him
C) You will treat him as his best friend
D) You tell him the difference between right and wrong things, to enhance his
moral courage

Q29) When you are in dispute with your wife on some family issues but realize
that she has adequate reasoning in those matters, then how would you like to
solve these disputes?
Options:
A) You accept the reasoning and withdraw yourself
B) You never crumble down your own ego
C) You attempt to assault her physically and mentally
D) You try to solve the dispute within reasonable limits before it aggravates

Q30) One of the senior colleagues is trying to exercise his power through
majority in the school. Sometimes you fell that the colleague has power
mongering attitude and therefore, realising it in his own favour. In such a
condition how would you like to adjust with him?
Options:
A) You remain in the group but create obstacles in channelizing his powers
B) You try to pass your time in more creative manner
C) You establish another strong group against his party
D) You put forth the principles of upright behaviour

Q31) When you are invited for a feast, then you have the idea that
Options:

A) Do wastage of food in order to pay the gift or money on the occasion

B) It is an opportunity to take food outside home, therefore, enjoy it with whole
family
C) That families should join such parties on the basis of relations and affinity
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D) Never waste any food particle whether you are at home or in feast
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Q32) Now-a-day the Government has given priority to social welfare schemes,
therefore, it has launched various schemes like Age-old Pension scheme, Widow
Pension scheme etc. Your personal opinion towards all these schemes is

Options:
A) The schemes are fruitful to raise the standard and support the economy of
backward sections of the society
B) It is a kind of governmental obligation for the weaker sections
C) These schemes deprive the beneficiaries from social sympathy
D) These people live a dignified life like others along with 'A'

Q33) While you come-out of home for some purpose, and you are being crossed
by a handicapped person, then you think
Options:

A) About bad omen

B) That all human beings are equal
C) With hatredness
D) That they are incomplete and awkward

Q34) How would you maintain good association with such a colleague who is
clear in heart but very aggressive in behaviour?
Options:
A) You restrict your personal relations
B) You maintain relations but whenever he cools down, tell him his mistakes
politely
C) You snap your relations
D) You maintain personalized relations

Q35) You would like to prefer to join a teaching profession

Options:
A) By giving bribery for your appointment in village or town school
B) By exalting your excellence in national level competition
C) By any means as job conditions are very difficult
D) By seeking political support
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Q36) If a teacher requests you to do a favour in a girl student's evaluation, what

would you like to do in this situation?
Options:

A) You will teach him a moral lesson against injustice

B) You will scold him that he is a wicked fellow as he loose the sanctity of
evaluation
C) You will remind him the grace and morality of being a teacher
D) You will evaluate the answer-book honestly and give marks accordingly

Q37) How would you solve the problem of your child, if he takes extra-interest in
late night films on TV?
Options:
A) By persuading the child that he cannot reach to school early in the morning
due to late night sleep
B) By convincing him that late night films are not useful for young children
C) By scolding him and discouraging for it
D) By going to sleep before schedule in order to force him to early sleep

Q38) You are travelling in far-off places of India through advanced Railway's
reservation. When a lady enters with a request to give her a seat, what will be
your reaction?
Options:
A) You refuse flatly that you cannot share the seat
B) You give a second thought if the lady is young and beautiful
C) You will ask her to sit for same time
D) You will leave your seat and make alternative arrangement for yourself

Q39) In a society, what type of role do you feel for yourself to resurrect values in
it?
Options:
A) Effective
B) Un-effective
C) Normal
D) Nothing to contribute
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Q40) How could you accommodate with your age-old parents, inspite of the fact
that they always complain for their difficulties for no apparent reasons
Options:

A) You will feel sorry but not communicate to them

B) You will find out the ways to become free from their responsibilities
C) You will focus your attention on the genuine problems due to senility
D) Do favourable efforts to find out remedies for their troubles

Q41) When your exercises his powers with an altitude of malice how would you
avoid confrontation under this condition?
Options:
A) You become furious but crumble down your emotions due to the superiority
of the person
B) You think to kill him to take revenge
C) You imagine that god must give him punishment for his untrue act
D) You keep promise not to surrender against the wickedness

Q42) When a co-worker is blessed with a son and he desires some financial
assistance from you, then how would you extend your co-operation to him?
Options:
A) You just formally ask for any sort of assistance desired by him
B) You extend all types of support as you have intimate relationship
C) You try to hide your face during this time
D) You put forward some lame excuses

Q43) How would you behave with student's parents on the eve of parent-teacher
association being observed in the school?
Options:

A) Poorly, full of selfishness and forced them to oblige with gifts etc.
B) Nicely, so the parents can feel satisfied that the teacher has given due care
C) Passively because you feel that the students are only for one year with you so
it is better to exploit them
D) Uninteresting devoid of emotionality
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Q44) You are being pressurized by your colleagues to take the membership of
the teacher's union. How could you take decision in this situation?
Options:

A) You will give priority to social relations, therefore, you accept the offer
B) You will have faith in unity so you accept the membership
C) You will think it is better to disaffiliate yourself from the colleagues instead of
enmity with the management
D) You will try best to go against their will by hook or crook

Q45) If somebody is mal-treating the aged persons, what action would you like
to take against the individual?

Options:
A) Threat him face the consequences
B) You will request him to stop the mal-treatment
C) You will maltreat that individual to take revenge
D) You will not involve yourself unnecessarily

Q46) When a co-worker gives you a mental shock, then. What will you do?
Options:

A) You will develop enmity with him

B) You will wait for your turn to put him in the same state
C) You will fight in a decent manner D) You think do good and forget it

Q47) In contemporary society with deteriorating values, the excellent education

will be that which
Options:
A) Works for re-establishment of humanitarian and cultural values
B) Enables to earn in an easy manner
C) Exaggerates the competition in the society
D) Accelerates the social-change in society

Q48) When you met an accident with the bicycle of a tiny school-going child,
then what will you do?
Options:
A) You will run away from the place immediately
B) You will take care of your-self but not of the child's injuries
C) You will scold the child and take advantage of being an elder
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D) You will accept your mistake and extend whole hearted, support to the young
child
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Q49) When the Mohalla Samiti asks to donate some money for the repairing
works of Hand pipe in the vicinity, then what will you do?
Options:

A) You will not contribute as it has no utility for you

B) You will contribute according to your will in a selfless manner
C) You will find faults in the samiti and its collections
D) You will pay some money in order to warn them not to pay visit in future

Q50) If a friends instigates you to participate actively in the strike but you
disagree with them, then how will you react in this situation?
Options:
A) You indirectly co-operate them but not with the issues
B) You will not participate actively as your consciousness does not allow you
C) You first do your duties then something else
D) You will launch a movement against your friends to resolve the conflict

Q51) If you get an opportunity to serve a central school, but in turn you miss
the opportunity to enjoy your home town. How would you accommodate in these
conditions?
Options:
A) You will think yourself lucky enough that you got an opportunity to mix-up
with the people of different states
B) You will never forget your home town and for this curse your central school
services
C) You will feel free as having least family resistance and obligations
D) You will have great pride in thinking yourself a powerful link in national
integration

Q52) You became aggressive on those parental issues which you feel inadequate
because
Options:
A) It has heavy impact on your brain and create obstacles in your life
B) You have lost sympathy in their inappropriate behaviour
C) You cannot rationalize their thinking
D) You have developed the negative attitude
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Q53) What will you do in case of a sudden death occur at the place of your
friend?
Options:

A) After getting intimation, you avoid to go

B) You go on the next day with your wife
C) You rush immediately at such occasions
D) You do not observe this courtesy even such tragedy occurs at your friends
house

Q54) You will demonstrate your impartial behaviour through

Options:

A) Maintaining your own high self-esteem and egoistic behaviour

B) Criticising the teacher' community as a whole
C) Assaulting the teachers in the midst of students
D) Making your own behaviour more balanced and fair

Q55) If a colleague belongs to the minority group but quite progressive in views,
the basis of maintenance of healthy relations will be the realisation of that
Options:

A) The throat-cut competition as you assume that he is having cultural

handicaps
B) High selfishness- because you fell that the person will go to any extent for his
vested interests
C) High jealous attitude-assuming that he is relishing all benefits due to
minority groups
D) The hard-work he has done to achieve the status

Q56) If you live on rent in your friend's house, it will be perceived by you as
Options:
A) Sacrifice of mutual relations
B) Development of more warmth in relations
C) Exposure of personal weaknesses and end of relations
D) Meeting with a good co-worker who cooperate from home to school

Q57) Whenever you give an order for tea in staff room, then you remember
Options:
A) Minimum expenses B) More members and lesser number of tea
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C) Health of the colleagues D) The total number of people

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Q58) If you invite your colleagues in your marriage ceremony, the procedure of it
will be
Options:

A) Only personal invitation will be extended to most dear colleague

B) Only a specific group of teachers will be invited
C) Extend invitation to all the teachers without any distinction
D) You will invite all the personnel of the school

Q59) How would you like to behave with your students, in comparison to your
children?
Options:
A) Just like own children
B) Equal treatment is not possible to all the students
C) Repressed treatment
D) It is better to lend them a free hand

Q60) When you deal with others, you expect that

Options:

A) They deal according to your nature in order to get your appreciation

B) You restore only superficial dealings otherwise it becomes a sad affair of
relations
C) You estimate others with reference to your own behaviour
D) You do not develop deep intimacy

Answers:
Q1) A, Q2) D, Q3) B, Q4) D, Q5) D,
Q6) D, Q7) A, Q8) C, Q9) A, Q10) A,
Q11) C, Q12) B, Q13) D, Q14) B, Q15) C,
Q16) B, Q17) C, Q18) B, Q19) C, Q20) A,
Q21) A, Q22) D, Q23) A, Q24) D, Q25) B,
Q26) D, Q27) C, Q28) C, Q29) D, Q30) D,
Q31) C, Q32) D, Q33) B, Q34) B, Q35) B,
Q36) D, Q37) B, Q38) C, Q39) A, Q40) C,
Q41) D, Q42) B, Q43) B, Q44) B, Q45) B,
Q46) B, Q47) A, Q48) D, Q49) B, Q50) C,
Q51) A, Q52) B, Q53) C, Q54) D, Q55) D,
Q56) D, Q57) C, Q58) C, Q59) A, Q60) C
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Attitude Towards Children:

Q1) If students alleged you for making favouritism in evaluation, how can you
deal with this problem?
Options:

A) Giving threat to fail them

B) Making efforts to reveal the position fairly
C) Adopting punitive measures
D) Showing the student's answer-books in order to satisfy them

Q2) If you join your class on the very first day of opening the session, and take
introduction of the students, the primary objective of this introduction(for you)
will be
Options:
A) Exploration of potential students who serve you throughout the session
B) Development of friendly relations with the students of administrative class
C) Selection of those students who can do the school job for you
D) To know about student's potentialities along with their family status

Q3) If you give the student physical punishment upto his nervous breakdown,
what will you do?
Options:
A) Pray to god, to forgive you
B) Repent over your foolishness
C) Never repeat such behaviour
D) Accept the fault and try to control him

Q4) Your school building is just adjacent to a Cinema Hall. It generates

delinquency and spoil the young mind badly. Therefore, there is utter chaos in
the school in the name of discipline. What alternative will you have in your mind
to fight with this menace?
Options:
A) Prepare the list of the delinquents and isolate them from class
B) Make a discipline committee to watch out such students and give them
rigorous punis hment
C) Start a movement for shifting of school building
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D) Raise your voice for student's welfare

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Q5) Suppose you are checking student's answer books, all of a sudden you have
finished red refill. You call an student and order him to bring a refill. What
would you like to do in such a situation?

Options:
A) You will give him required money for the purpose
B) You will return the money when student show courteous gesture
C) You think that students money is teachers own money
D) You will feel ashamed when you will be paying for such a small amount

Q6) If some student's parent make a complaint that the child has developed the
excessive habit of telling-a-lie and never give due importance to home work, you
will do
Options:

A) After due confirmation, be vigilant towards the child in future

B) Forget about the child's problem as parent has become vigilant
C) Insult the child along with his parent
D) Speaking high about your skills to deal with the child

Q7) Generally the teachers do not take pains on students postures in the class-
room. What will you do for their improvement?
Options:
A) You will enforce proper posture training in the class-room
B) You will not be observant towards them
C) Sometimes you take note of them otherwise you forget it
D) You will inform the physical instructor

Q8) It is the daily routine that some students bring undesirable food items from
the school-gate. You are full of sorrow to see this condition of your students.
What is its remedy?
Options:
A) You will force to leave the peddlers of eatables from the school gate
B) You will force the students to remain within the gate
C) Inform the principal
D) Announcing on the prayer ground in the morning and ask them to avoid
such practices
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Q9) A scheduled caste student is visiting the class only to get his scholarship.
What provisions will you make to attract his attention towards e ducation?
Options:

A) I nsulting remarks on the caste and the parents

B) Tell him about the importance of education in one's life
C) Rebuking the child
D) Think about the irrationality of the scheme

Q10) Spare the rod and spoil the child. It is a famous saying. Its contribution in
modern class-room serves our purpose in a
Options:
A) Better way B) Worst way
C) Effective manner D) Exclusive manner

Q11) A child is a back -bencher and is unable to watch the black-board clearly,
therefore he stands, see and sit repeatedly. It disturbs the nearby classmates,
what inference will you draw with reference to the student's difficulty?
Options:

A) The child has poor eye-sight

B) The child may has defective eyes
C) The black-board may has shining effect of light
D) None of the above

Q12) If a student becomes unconscious during the period, what will you like to
do?
Options:
A) Hurriedly rushing to the principal's office and canvassing for help impatiently
B) Giving first aid to the student and try to contact the school 's doctor
C) Sending message to student's home and awaiting for his parents
D) Making arrangements to send the student to his home

Q13) If you would be a teacher, how would you like a behave with your
students?

Options:
A) Autocratic B) Democratic
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C) Laissez-faire D) As the conditions permit

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Q14) When you are mal-treated in your class as a new-comer then how will deal
with the students?
Options:

A) Through tough punitive measure

B) Through warning of expulsion
C) Through improving your qualities
D) You leave the class

Q15) Ge nerally an adolescent is full of anxiety, anger and tension. How would
you sublimate his stress and strain?
Options:
A) Through friendly relations, sharing his private life and giving due emotional
comforts
B) Through repressing measures
C) Through rejection and leave him in isolation
D) By making a mockery as a philosopher

Q16) If you select a monitor in your class, which criteria will be followed by you
in this selection?
Options:
A) On the basis of democratic(Through election)
B) On the basis of physical make-up
C) On the basis of superiority in the class
D) On the basis of personal preference

Q17) Suppose you are hurriedly rushing to your school in the morning.
Meanwhile your eyes go across the road, where your student met an accident.
What decision will you take under this critical condition of the student>

Options:
A) You will go away from the accident's site in anonymity
B) You reach the site, look after the student, after giving him first-aid, report to
the police station and rush towards hospital
C) You are escaping because you do not want to take risk unnecessarily
D) You are expressing the accident as an adventurous game
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UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude

Q18) Suppose an intelligent student became mal-adjusted due to some family

problems. As he has deep faith in you, he comes to you for its solution. What
action will you take in this condition?

Options:
A) You protect yourself as you fear your insult in such a issue
B) You think patiently and suggest some favourable remedy
C) You solve out your selfishness by knowing his family's weakness
D) You leave the child without interfering in his problem

Q19) If a student wants to share his problems with his teacher, he visits his
teacher for the same at home, In such a condition the teacher should
Options:
A) Exte nd reasonable help and boost his morale
B) Suggest him to escape from his family
C) Contact the student's parents and solve his problem
D) Warn him, never visit his home

Q20) Our students are having exact mirror-image of the modern society's
corruption and indulge in anti-social acts. What will you do to cope with it in
these circumstance?
Options:
A) You will attempt to emerge as a big political reformer
B) You will try to keep them away from such maladies
C) You will control them through disciplinary rules
D) Before giving them lessons. Make your personal life to emerge as an ideal
teacher

Q21) If you get an opportunity to teach a blind student along with normal
students, what type of treatment would you like to give him in the class?
Options:
A) Take care of him sympathetically in the class-room
B) Arranging a seat in the front row and try to keep teaching pace according to
him
C) Not giving extra attention because majority suffers otherwise
D) You think that blindness is the result of his sins, so what can you do against
God's will
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Q22) How would you change the behaviour of a tobacco addict student in t