1.
Zero order kinetics is seen in all except:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
CBRT-26.07.2015 (AN)
PHARMACEUTICAL SCIENCES
Salicylates
Barbiturates
Phenytoin
Ethanol
2.
Which one of the following is not a prodrug?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Chloral hydrate
Diazepam
Enalapril
Oxcarbazepine
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Morphine
Lithium
Warfarin
Heparin
3.
Which one of the following drugs does not cross the placental barrier?
4.
The evidence which indicates that a drug is stored extravascularly is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Small clearance
Small apparent volume of distribution
Large apparent volume of distribution
Large clearance
5.
Which one among the following drugs can be given safely during pregnancy?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Tetracycline
Chloroquine
Thalidomide
Primaquine
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Atrial Flutter
Atrial Fibrillation
PSVT
Ventricular tachycardia
6.
Lignocaine is used in the treatment of :
7.
Which one among the following drugs is used in AV block?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Isoprenaline
Propranolol
Dopamine
Disopyramide
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Gluconeogenesis
Glycogen synthesis
Lipolysis
Sodium reabsorption
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Tungsten lamp
Sodium lamp
Deuterium lamp
None of these
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Electronic excitation
Resonance
Dissociation
Molecular vibrations
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Aldehydes
Alcohols
Ethers
Amides
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Imidazole ring
Triazole ring
Tetrazole ring
Thiazole ring
8.
Mineralocorticoids cause:
9.
In UV spectrophotometer, the light source is:
10.
The principle of infrared spectra is based upon:
11.
Williamson Synthesis is used for the preparation of:
12.
Ketoconazole structure contains :
13.
Vitamin containing steroidal moiety is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Vitamin D
Vitamin A
Vitamin E
Vitamin B12
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Carbohydrates
Alkaloids
Flavonoids
Proteins
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ascorbic acid
Thiamine
Pyridoxine
Folic acid
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Theophylline and dimethylamine
Caffeine and theophylline
Theophylline and ethylenediamine
Caffeine and ethylenediamine
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Pyridine and imidazole
Pyrimidine and imidazole
Piperidine and pyrazole
Piperidine and imidazole
14.
Dragendorffs reagent is employed for the identification of :
15.
In which one among the following is Pteridine ring system present?
16.
Aminophylline is a combination of:
17.
Purine ring system is a fusion of:
18.
Furosemide contains the following heterocycle:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Furan
Thiophene
Pyrrole
Imidazole
19.
Term of every patent in India (under Indian Patent Act) from the date of filing is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
10 years
14 years
20 years
24 years
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Rickets
Hypoparathyroidism
Postmenopausal osteoporosis
Intestinal osteodystrophy
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Deoxyribonucleic acid
Ribonucleic acid
Protein
Lipid
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
List of drugs which are habit forming and likely to be misused
Standards for ophthalmic preparations
Requirements for the Good Manufacturing Practices
Life period of drugs
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Renal excretion rate
Active renal secretion
Glomerular filtration rate
Tubular reabsorption
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Hydroxypropyl cellulose phthalate
Sodium carboxymethyl cellulose
Ethyl cellulose
Starch
20.
Raloxifene is indicated for use in:
21.
Immunoglobulin gamma (Ig G) is a:
22.
Schedule X of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and Rules deals with:
23.
Creatinine clearance is used as a measurement of:
24.
Which one of the following is an enteric polymer?
25.
Ingredient that may be used as a suspending agent is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Sodium lauryl sulphate
Lactose
Methyl cellulose
Cellulose acetate phthalate
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Breast carcinoma
Prostatic carcinoma
Medical termination of pregnancy
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ondansetron
Aprepitant
Bosentan
Metoclopramide
26.
Mifepristone is used in the management of:
27.
Which one of the following drugs is an antagonist at NK1 receptors and is used to prevent or
reduce chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting?
28.
Aldosterone is secreted by:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Adrenal Medulla
Zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex
Zona fasciculata of adrenal cortex
Zona reticularis of adrenal cortex
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Increased glycolysis
Increased insulin release from pancreas
Decreased gluconeogenesis
Increased insulin binding to its receptors
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Glargine
Lispro
Aspart
Glulisine
29.
Biguanides act by the following mechanisms except:
30.
Long acting insulin is:
31.
Thyroxine is synthesized from:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Cysteine
Tyrosine
Arginine
Alanine
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Prostaglandin E1 analogue
Prostaglandin E2 analogue
Anti progestin
Prostaglandin antagonist
32.
Misoprostol is a :
33.
CPCSEA deals with:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
34.
Serendipity is:
Good Laboratory Practice
Good Clinical Practice
Good Manufacturing Practice
Ethical issues of use of laboratory animals
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Serious adverse events
Toxicity
Observation by chance
Anaphylactic shock
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Clarithromycin
Azithromycin
Rifabutin
Isoniazid
35.
Once a week administration of which one of the following drugs has prophylactic activity
against bacteraemia caused by Mycobacterium avium complex in AIDS patients ?
36.
Clinical trials for the import and manufacture of new drugs are to be carried out as per:
(a) Schedule C and C1
(b) UGC guidelines
(c) Schedule Y
(d) INSA guidelines
37.
Phase IV of clinical trial is performed:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Before drug approval
After drug approval
During pharmacological screening
During pharmacokinetic study
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
WHO guidelines
OECD guidelines
Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, Government of India guidelines
ISO guidelines
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Test Facility Management
Study Director
Principal investigator
QA department
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ergotamine
Sumatriptan
Propranolol
Domperidone
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Cefotaxime
Cefoperazone
Gentamicin
Benzyl penicillin
38.
Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) works on the basis of:
39.
As per GLP certification, the responsibility of archiving the data and samples in a Clinical
Trial is with:
40.
Which one of the following drugs is useful in the prophylaxis of migraine?
41.
Which one of the following drugs is not primarily eliminated through kidney?
42.
Which one of the following antihistaminics does not prolong QTc interval?
(a) Terfenadine
(b) Mizolastine
(c) Astemizole
(d) Ebastine
43.
Which one of the following drugs is used to treat bradycardia or heart block during
anaesthesia?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Atropine
Ipratropium
Propantheline
Glycopyrrolate
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Benzathine penicillin
Ethambutol
Azithromycin
Kanamycin
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Vitamin E
Folic acid
Thiamine
Iron
44.
Which one of the following antibacterial drugs will remain in body for longest duration after
single dose administration?
45.
Which one of the following must be given to a pregnant lady to prevent spina bifida?
46.
For the eradication of [Link] malaria, which one of the following drugs is used?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Mefloquine
Sulphadoxine
Primaquine
Pyrimethamine
47.
Morphine administration produces all of the following effects except:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Diarrhoea
Miosis
Bradycardia
Respiratory depression
48.
The drug of choice for filariasis is:
(a) Piperazine
(b) Diethylcarbamazine
(c) Albendazole
(d) Ivermectin
49.
Parenteral products with an osmotic pressure less than that of blood or 0.9% sodium
chloride are referred to as:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Isotonic solutions
Hypertonic solutions
Hypotonic solutions
Neutral solutions
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Phase I
Phase II
Phase III
Phase IV
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Death
Prolongation of hospitalization
Permanent disability
ECG changes
50.
Micro dosing studies are done before the start of which one of the following phases of a
Clinical Trial ?
51.
All of the following are serious adverse events (SAEs) in Clinical Trials except:
52.
Sulphasalazine is a prodrug that is activated in the intestine by bacterial enzymes. The
enzyme responsible is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Methyl transferase
Acetyl transferase
Azoreductase
Pseudo cholinesterase
53.
The process of sterilization can be best defined as:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Total destruction or elimination of all living microorganisms
Elimination of pyrogens only
Elimination of pathogenic microorganisms
Elimination of pyrogens and carbon dioxide
54.
Which one of the following best describes a cofactor that is firmly bound to an apoenzyme?
(a) Holoenzyme
(b) Coenzyme
(c) Prosthetic group
(d) None of these
55.
Schedule S of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 applies to:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Requirement of factory premises
List of poisons
Life period of drugs
Standard for cosmetics
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Chemoheterotrophs
Chemoautotrophs
Photoheterotrophs
Photoautotrophs
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Soyabean casein digest media
Fluid thioglycollate media
Eosin-methylene blue agar media
Mannitol salt agar media
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Phthalate polymers
Cellulose polymers
Acrylate polymers
Amide polymers
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Paddle type
Reciprocating cylinder
Basket type
Paddle over disc
56.
All fungi are:
57.
Which one of the following is anaerobic media?
58.
Eudragits are:
59.
USP Dissolution Apparatus-I is:
60.
Dew point is defined as the temperature to which a given mixture of:
(a) Air and water must be cooled to become unsaturated
(b) Air and water vapour must be heated to become saturated
(c) Air and water must be heated to become unsaturated
(d) Air and water vapour must be cooled to become saturated
61.
All of the following statements are true about Sitagliptin except:
(a) It is an inhibitor of dipeptidyl peptidase -4 (DPP-4), the enzyme that degrades
incretin.
(b) It increases circulating levels of GLP-I and GIP.
(c) It has short half life and low oral bioavailability.
(d) It decreases postprandial glucose excursions by increasing glucose mediated
insulin secretion and decreasing glucagon levels.
62.
Ball mill works on the principle of :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Impact and attrition
Impact only
Shearing and friction
Crushing and friction
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Turbine
Triple roller mill
Planetary
Agitator
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Sedimentation
Filtration
Centrifugation
Viscosity
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Fractional distillation
Steam distillation
Destructive distillation
Distillation under reduced pressure
63.
The mixer used for the purpose of mixing solid powder in ointment base is:
64.
Darcys law is related to:
65.
Distillation of two immiscible liquids is done by:
66.
For a drug that obeys first order kinetics and fits into one-compartment model of
elimination, which one of the following is not correct?
(a) Its rate of elimination is proportional to its plasma concentration
(b) After stopping the I .V. infusion of the drug, the plasma concentration declines
exponentially
(c) The composition of drug products excreted is independent of dose
(d) The elimination half life is proportional to the dose administered
67.
Which one of the following drugs is not used in the treatment of chronic alcoholism?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Naltrexone
Acamprosate
Disulfiram
Fomepizole
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Phenobarbitone
Zopiclone
Chlordiazepoxide
Clozapine
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
World Health Organization, Delhi Office
Indian Council of Medical Research, New Delhi
Institute of Clinical Research, New Delhi
Central Drugs Standard Control Organization, New Delhi
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Form 11
Form 20
Form 21
Form 29
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Dadra & Nagar Haveli
Jammu & Kashmir
Andaman & Nicobar Islands
Puducherry
68.
Which one of the following drugs does not produce its effect through action on GABAbenzodiazepine receptor complex?
69.
The Clinical Trial Registry in India is maintained by:
70.
The licence to import drug for the purpose of examination and test of analysis is issued on
which one of the following Forms?
71.
The Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act 1954 applies to all
except:
72.
Drying of blood products and enzyme based preparation is carried out by:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Vacuum drying
Fluidized bed drying
Lyophilization
Tunnel drying
73.
The mode of action of ethylene oxide as a sterilization agent is by:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Oxidation
Reduction
Alkylation
Protein precipitation
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Chipping
Mottling
Double impression
Lamination
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
R-CO-R
R-COOR
R-O-R
R-COOH
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
4-amino acetophenone
4-chloro butyrophenone
4-bromo propiophenone
4-hydroxy propiophenone
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Restriction endonuclease
Restriction ribonuclease
Interleukin
Trypsin
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
1.0
2.0
6.0
3.5
74.
The term used to describe unequal distribution of colour on a tablet is:
75.
Which one of the following functional groups is most susceptible to hydrolysis?
76.
Dienostrol is synthesized from:
77.
Any enzyme that cleaves deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA ) at a specific site is called:
78.
Aspirin (pKa = 3.49) will be most soluble at pH:
79.
The drug pioglitazone was banned by Government of India due to:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Increased risk of bladder cancer only
Risk of heart failure and increased risk of bladder cancer
Risk of heart failure only
Risk of decrease in mobility
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Alpha radiations
Gamma radiations
Beta radiations
None of these
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ayurvedic, Siddha and Unani medicines
Ophthalmic preparations
Parenteral preparations
Allopathic medicines
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
NPPA
CSIR
DBT
ICMR
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Area under the curve is proportional to the dose
Elimination half-life remains constant
Area under the curve is not proportional to the dose
Amount of drug excreted remains constant
80.
Which of the following is used in nuclear medicine imaging?
81.
Schedule T of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act prescribes GMP specifications for manufacture
of :
82.
Drugs (Price Control) Order 1995 and related orders from time to time are enforced by:
83.
The characteristics of non-linear pharmacokinetics include:
84.
Inulin is used as marker for measurement of :
(a) Glomerular filtration rate
(b) Active renal secretion
(c) Active renal reabsorption
(d) Passive renal absorption
85.
Which one of the following enzymes is most likely to be deficient in Gray Baby Syndrome?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Azoreductase
Methyl transferase
Glucuronyl transferase
Acetyl transferase
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Rate of excretion method
Wagner Nelson method
Michaelis Menten equation
Sigma Minus plot
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Area under the plasma drug concentration versus time curve
Total body clearance
Fraction of drug excreted unchanged in the urine
Apparent volume of distribution and desired drug concentration in plasma
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
12 hours
8 hours
16 hours
10 hours
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
1600 mg/L
20 mg/L
0.2 mg/L
160 mg/L
86.
The absorption rate constant is calculated by:
87.
The loading dose of a drug is determined on the basis of:
88.
How long after the drug administration is 75% of the drug eliminated from the patients
body if the elimination half life is 4 hours?
89.
An antibiotic was given at a dose of 10 mg/kg by a single intravenous bolus injection to a 62
year old woman who weighed 80 kg. The antibiotic followed the pharmacokinetics of a onecompartment model and has an elimination half-life of 4 hours. The apparent volume of
distribution is 0.50 L/kg. What is the initial plasma drug concentration in the woman?
90.
A drug is 55% bound to plasma proteins. The concentration of drug in a patients body after
10 hours was found to be 20 mg/L. The apparent volume of distribution was found to be
0.60 kg/L for an 80 kg patient. What is the total amount of drug present in the patients
body after 10 hours?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
120 mg
960 mg
1.5 mg
20 mg
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Lactose
Microcrystalline cellulose
Ethyl cellulose
Eudragit RL 100
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
X-ray diffractometry
Raman spectroscopy
Differential scanning calorimetry
Thermogravimetric analysis
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
1 to 4
4.8 to 5.2
6.8 to 7.4
6 to 7
91.
Which one of the following is a solid dosage form excipient which can play the role of a
diluent, a disintegrant, a glidant, a lubricant and a pore/channel former?
92.
Which one of the following techniques is used to determine glass transition temperature?
93.
For increased production of penicillin by fermentation, the pH is maintained between:
94.
Newer insulins are:
(a) Acidic
(b) Neutral
(c) Alkaline
(d) Monomers
95.
Which one of the following classes exists inside a certified horizontal or vertical laminar air
flow hood?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Class 1000
Class 100
Class 10
Class 1
96.
Which one of the following treatments should be instituted immediately in a child
presenting to medical emergency with severe acute lead poisoning with signs and
symptoms of encephalopathy?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Succimer
Penicillamine
Deferoxamine
EDTA
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
AUC to AUMC
AUMC to AUC
AUC to Vd
AUMC to Vd
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Cytochrome P 450 3 A4
P-glycoproteins
Cytochrome P 450
Carrier for active transport
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Aldehydes
Aminoacids
Fatty acids
Hydrocarbons
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Attrition
Levigation
Trituration
Pulverization by intervention
97.
MRT is defined as the ratio of:
98.
The proteins which are ATP dependent pumps and facilitate the efflux of drug molecules
from the cell are known as:
99.
Ion-exchange chromatography is used for the separation of:
100.
Which one of the following techniques is used to mill camphor?
101.
Blood and blood products are governed by which Schedule of the Drug and Cosmetics Act,
1940?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Schedule B
Schedule C and C1
Schedule G
Schedule W
102.
Live attenuated vaccines are better immunizing agents because:
(a) Live attenuated vaccines require multiple doses
(b) Live attenuated vaccines can be given to immuno-compromised persons
(c) Replication of organism in a live attenuated vaccine increases the stimulation of
the immune system and a lower dose is often required.
(d) All of these
103.
The Chairman of Drug Technical Advisory Board is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Drug Controller General of India, Government of India
Director General, Indian Council of Medical Research, Government of India
Director General of Health Services, Government of India
President, Pharmacy Council of India, Government of India
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Gravimeter
Geiger counter
Densitometer
Visual comparison
104.
In quantitative TLC, radioactive material can be studied by:
105.
Which one of the following is not a correct statement?
(a) DNA polymerase is an enzyme that cleaves DNA at sequence-specific site.
(b) Recombinant DNA is a hybrid DNA that is formed when pieces of DNA from
different sources are joined
(c) Interferon is a glycoprotein produced by animal cells in response to viral
infection.
(d) Hybridoma is a hybrid cell produced by the fusion of a myeloma cell and a
specific antibody produced B-lymphocyte
106.
Which one of the following drugs has low first pass metabolism?
107.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Verapamil
Morphine
Propranolol
Isosorbide mononitrate
When the investigators and relevant governing bodies ( such as Institutional Review Board)
approve a protocol deviation before initiating the study, it is called:
(a) Minor protocol deviation
(b) Major protocol deviation
(c) Minor protocol violation
(d) Protocol exception
108.
All of the following are true about active transport except:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Active transport utilises energy.
Active transport is a carrier mediated transport process.
The carrier system is not saturated at high drug concentration.
In active transport, drug molecules move against a concentration gradient.
109.
In case of clinical trial injury, who decides the quantum of compensation?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Sponsor
Investigator
Licensing Authority
Medical Superintendent of the hospital where injury occurs
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, Government of India
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India
Ministry of Law and Justice, Government of India
Central Bureau of Investigation, Government of India
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Pertussis
Mumps
Poliomyelitis
Rabies
110.
Pharmacovigilance Programme of India (PvPI) is under the control of:
111.
All are viral vaccines except:
112.
Centchroman belongs to which category of drugs?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
113.
Oral anticoagulant
Oral contraceptive
Oral antidiabetic
Oral haematinic
Which one of the following drugs can be used in a patient who develops severe
thrombocytopenia in response to treatment with unfractionated heparin and still requires
parenteral anticoagulation?
(a) Vitamin K1
(b) Abciximab
(c) Cilostazol
(d) Lepirudin
114.
Heterocyclic rings present in pilocarpine are:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Imidazole and dihydrofuran
Imidazole and quinoline
Imidazole and thiazole
Quinoline and phenanthrene
115.
Precursor for the biosynthesis of Tropane group of alkaloids is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Leucine
Lysine
Tyrosine
Ornithine
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ketoconazole
Phenobarbitone
Rifampicin
Alcohol
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Anticoagulant agent
Antiplatelet agent
Xanthine oxidase inhibitor
Contraceptive pill
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Roxithromycin
Rifabutin
Ethambutol
INH
116.
All the following drugs induce cytochrome P 450 except:
117.
Febuxostat is:
118.
Which one of the following drugs is not used in the treatment of MAC complex?
119.
According to Kozeny Carmen equation, a 10% change in porosity can produce:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Three fold change in rate of flow
Two fold change in rate of flow
Ten fold change in rate of flow
Hundred fold change in rate of flow
120.
A drug of low water solubility when given orally is absorbed up to 90% of the administered
dose. The drug belongs to which class according to BCS classification?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Class III
Class I
Class II
Class IV
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Estrogen
Human chorionic gonadotropin
Follicle-stimulating hormone
Luteinizing hormone
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Decreases the risk of ovarian tumour
Acts as a pure estrogen antagonist in all human tissues
Renders benefit in males with oligospermia
Enhances the risk of multiple pregnancy
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Sodium taurocholate
Tween 80
Sodium chloride
Caprylic acid
121.
Pregnancy test kits are designed to detect:
122.
Which one of the following facts is not true about Clomiphene Citrate?
123.
Which one of the following is not a penetration enhancer?
124.
Somatostatin inhibits all except:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Growth harmone
Epinephrine
Insulin
Thyroxine
125.
Which one of the following is not effective in the treatment of anaerobic infections?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Clindamycin
Erythromycin
Metronidazole
Chloramphenicol
126.
Which part of the sentence Please tell to him to do his work. is incorrect?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
please
tell to him
to do
his work
127.
Which part of the sentence His friends blamed him for being a coward person. is
incorrect?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
his friends
blamed him
for being
a coward person
128.
Which part of the sentence If I was knowing why he was absent, I would have informed
you. is incorrect?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
if I was knowing
why he was absent
I would have
informed you
129.
Which part of the sentence The robber hit Mahesh suddenly and hardly. is incorrect?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
the robber
hit Mahesh
suddenly
and hardly
130.
Which part of the sentence This latest machine is more efficient than any other
equipments in the laboratory. is incorrect?
(a) this latest machine
(b) is more efficient
(c) than any other equipments
(d) in the laboratory
131.
None of us is sure why she is wanting to see him. Which one of the following is the
appropriate substitution to correct the underlined part of the above sentence?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
she wants
is she wanting
she want
she has a want
132.
When he will arrive, we will submit our complaint. Which one of the following is the
appropriate substitution to correct the underlined part of the above sentence?
(a) After he will arrive
(b) If he would arrive
(c) When he arrives
(d) When he has arrived
133.
I dont remember exactly when did I go to Chennai last year. Which one of the following
is the appropriate substitution to correct the underlined part of the above sentence?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
when I had been going
when I was going
when I went
when had I gone
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
was living
had been living
has been living
lived
134.
Gopal is living in this house for the past ten years. Which one of the following is the
appropriate substitution to correct the underlined part of the above sentence?
135.
If you will come with me I shall be happy. Which one of the following is the appropriate
substitution to correct the underlined part of the above sentence?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
come with me
had come with me
came with me
have come with me
136.
It is not what you say that __________ , but what you do. Which one of the following is
an appropriate word for filling in the blank in the above sentence?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
matches
implies
matters
moves
137.
My grandfather is _______ weak to open the door. Which one of the following is an
appropriate word for filling in the blank in the above sentence?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
very
far
much
too
138.
Saritas ______ as an officer is not quite satisfactory. Which one of the following is an
appropriate word for filling in the blank in the above sentence?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
acting
doing
deed
record
139.
You havent had your lunch yet, ________ you? Which one of the following is an
appropriate word for filling in the blank in the above sentence?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
140.
are
arent
have
havent
The Minister hoped to bring the __________ to a satisfactory conclusion. Which one of the
following is an appropriate word for filling in the blank in the above sentence?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
quarrel
negotiations
conflicts
concession
141.
Which virus spreads in application software?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Macro virus
Boot virus
File virus
Anti virus
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
C++
Word processor
Spreadsheet program
Web browser
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Data base management
Web design
Word processing
Spreadsheet design
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Word processor
Browser
Protocol
Spreadsheet
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Edit
View
Tool
Format
142.
Which one of the following is not an application program?
143.
What is the overall term for creating, editing, storing, retrieving and printing a document?
144.
A program for viewing web pages is called:
145.
Spell check is under which menu in Microsoft Word?
146.
Which one of the following is not an option of edit menu in Microsoft Word?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Cut
Copy
Page setup
Paste
147.
An act of copying or downloading a program from a network and making multiple copies of
it is called:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Plagiarism
Software piracy
Network piracy
Site-license piracy
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Control
Function
Arrow
Space bar
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Companion code
Program code
Macro virus
Boot sector virus
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Batch processing system
Real time system
On-line system
Expert system
148.
Which key of the key board is used in combination with another key to perform a specific
task?
149.
An antivirus is a :
150.
Railway reservation system currently operational in India can be classified as a:
