Airbus Tech Quiz 2
A330 Specific
A340-300 Specific
ETOPS
Limitations
Miscellaneous/Operational
Performance, Weight and Balance
Air Conditioning - Pressurisation
Autoflight - FMGS
Comm
Electrical
Fire Protection
Flight Controls
Fuel
Hydraulics
Ice and Rain
Indicating Recording System
Landing Gear
Navigation
Oxygen
APU - Pneumatics
Power Plant
ATA21 Air Conditioning - Pressurisation
What does the pack anti-ice valve do after a pack controller dual channel
failure:
•It controls the corresponding pack outlet temperature at 5 Degrees C +/- 4
Degrees C.
•It runs to the full cold position.
•It runs to the full hot position.
1.21.10 p10
On the ground with passengers on board:
•Two ground air conditioning units should be connected.
•It is not recommended to exceed a duration of 20 minutes without air
conditioning.
•Ground air conditioning must be connected if APU is INOP.
3.04.21 p1
Pack flow should be selected to:
•LO if the APU is supplying air to the packs.
•HI for abnormally Hot or humid conditions.
•LO if less than 175 seats in economy class are occupied.
Since changed – 3.03.06 p4
How is the bulk cargo compartment temperature controlled?
•Depending on the temperature selected from the bulk cargo temperature
selector, hot or cold air is pumped into the bulk compartment via the trim air
valve or cold air valve.
•If the temp sensor indicates the bulk compartment is cooler than what has
been selected via the overhead temp selector, then an electric heater will
operate at all times on the ground or in the air.
•Air from the cabin passes through an electric heater which only operates
when the temp sensor indicates that the compartment temperature is less
than the selected temperature and the BULK cargo door is closed.
1.21.40 p3
In the event of a PACK 1 + 2 FAULT, which is correct?
•The FAULT light will extinguish when the respective pack is selected off.
•The rate of cabin altitude increase can be minimised by closing the CARGO
ISOL VALVES.
•RAM AIR should be selected on when DIFF PR/5-1 PSI and below 10,000ft
3.02.21 p3
What will happen if, on the ground with LP Ground Air connected, all doors
closed, the DITCHING pb is selected ON?
•Pressurization will not be possible.
•The outflow valves will be driven fully open.
•A differential pressure will build up.
1.21.20 p12
Where does the cockpit air supply come from?
•It is supplied with fresh air from the mixer unit.
•It is supplied directly from Pack 2.
•It is supplied from the recirculation fans.
1.21.10 p2
What condition(s) could trigger ENG 1(2) BLEED FAULT?
•An overheat, over- pressure or low pressure condition.
•A Low pressure condition coupled with a loss of the backflow protection
function.
•Selection of the X - BLEED valve to "CLOSE".
1.36.20 p7
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ATA22 Auto Flight / FMGS
With all engines operating, and autothrust disconnected, and regardless of
thrust lever positions, alpha floor is:
•Available from lift-off to 100 ft RA on approach at speeds < M.53.
•Only available when the aircraft is above 100 ft RA and the flaps are
retracted, provided de-rated takeoff thrust is not selected.
•Not available at speeds < M.53.
1.22.30 p88
The windshear detection function is active:
•At all times.
•Below 2,000 ft RA with the aircraft configured for landing.
•On landing, between 1300 ft and 50 ft RA, with at least Config 1.
1.22.40 p5
In order to access BACKUP NAV mode on the MCDU MENU, it is necessary to
have the FM source select switch in position:
•Both on 1.
•Both on 2.
•NORM position.
4.06.10 p5
To intercept a glideslope from above:
•Select V/S, set FCU target altitude above the aircraft crossing altitude and
descend to the glideslope.
•Select the FCU target altitude above the aircraft crossing altitude, and pull
for OP DES to maintain thrust at idle.
•Select NAV and OPEN DES.
Not quite correct – FCTM 6.40.2
When are the ADF frequencies autotuned:
•Never.
•If an NDB approach has been selected, or if the TO or FROM waypoint is an
NDB.
•At any time that a manual selection has not been made.
1.22.20 p16
During an ILS approach, when does data lock prevent selection of another
ILS frequency?
•When established and below 1,500 ft RA.
•At 700 ft RA.
•At 400 ft RA.
3.04.91 p23
For non precision approaches:
•FPD shall be used.
•The approach should be manually flown, with FD OFF and HDG V/S selected
on the HDG/VS-TRK/FPA changeover button.
•The approach must be managed, with the autopilot engaged.
3.03.19 p5
When making an approach using A/THR, if the thrust levers are moved
forward of the CL detent, but below TOGA detent, and then returned to the
CL detent, would A/ THR remain engaged?
•Providing the RA is below 100ft the A/THR will disconnect and the thrust
would increase to a climb thrust level of power.
•If the RA is below 100ft the A/THR would disconnect when above the CL
detent, however it would re-engage when the lever is replaced in the CL
detent.
•In all circumstances the A/THR remains engaged providing the thrust lever
is not placed in the IDLE detent.
Scenario: The aircraft is above the glideslope, and the glideslope capture
from above procedure is to be used. Which situation, presented on the
graphics A, B or C, will ensure that the aircraft does not go below the
glideslope?
•A
•Either A or B
•Either A or C
(a)
There are numerous flight guidance principles used in DES mode depending
on different descent scenarios (e.g. different rates of descent for above and
below profile, etc.) The 'TOO STEEP PATH' message occurs when the FM
predicts that the descent path is impossible to fly in what configuration?
•Planned descent speed in clean configuration.
•Planned descent speed with half speedbrake extended.
•Planned descent speed with full speedbrakes extended.
4.03.30 p12 4.05.60 p8 1.22.30 p37
With all engines operating, autothrust disconnected, and regardless of thrust
lever positions, when will ALPHA FLOOR be available?
•From lift-off to 100 ft RA on approach at speeds < M.53.
•When the aircraft is above 140 ft RA and the flaps are retracted, provided
de-rated takeoff thrust is not selected.
•From lift-off to 100 ft RA on approach, even with A/THR failure.
1.22.30 p88
The vertical profile intercept point symbol indicates the position where it is
predicted the aircraft will be back on the descent profile. If the aircraft is
above the descent profile, what assumption is the prediction based on?
•That with no configuration change the descent path will be intercepted.
•That no configuration change is required unless specifically asked to do so
by an 'EXTEND SPD BRK' msg on the ND.
•That the pilot will extend half speed brakes.
1.22.30 p5
There are 3 types of holding pattern available to the pilot. Which statement
is correct in regards our normally used 'hold with manual termination'?
•If engaged, DES mode commands IDLE thrust, but will not descend below
an altitude constraint farther down the flight path.
•VDEV on the PFD and PROG page are referenced to the altitude the a/c
should be at, at the exit fix, in order to be positioned properly on the
descent path.
•If IMM EXIT is depressed, the aircraft will always complete the full holding
pattern and then exit and resumes its navigation.
1.22.30 p36
What does it mean if the MCDU message 'PLEASE WAIT' is displayed on the
MCDU scratch pad?
•The MCDUs have gone into independent mode. Switch one MCDU off and
back on again.
•One FMGS has failed and the pilot should select FMGS 3.
•A resynchronization between both FMGCs is in progress. The pilot should
not use the MCDU with this message displayed.
4.03.30 p8
On the Position Monitor page of the MCDU, the IRS 1, 2 and 3 deviations
are:
•Deviation in nm from the Mix IRS position.
•Deviation in nm from the on-side FMGC position.
•Always the same on both MCDU 1 and 2.
4.4.03.20 p83
Which statement is correct, if, while flying a fully managed non-precision
approach, you receive a NAV ACCURACY DOWNGRADE message (FMA mode
is in FINAL APP)?
•You must revert to selected guidance, and continue the approach.
•You can continue to fly a managed approach if raw data indicates that the
guidance is satisfactory.
•In IMC, you must immediately initiate a missed approach.
3.03.19 p3
The FMGS is certified for Required Navigation Performance RNP/RNAV
operations. When GPS Primary mode is available, the minimum RNP's for
approach have been demonstrated to be?
•0.3 nm (0.31 nm in some aircraft) when AP or FD are used or AP and FD
OFF.
•0.5 nm (0.51 nm in some aircraft) when AP or FD are used and 1.0 nm in
manual control.
•0.3 nm (0.31 nm in some aircraft) when AP or FD are used.
3.01.22 p1
Which of the following must the pilot check before commencing a GPS
approach?
•GPS PRIMARY is displayed on the ND
•At least 1 GPS is operating
•Both GPS are in NAV on the GPS Monitor page
QRH 3.03
The FM database may contain an altitude constraint window (2 altitudes
between which the aircraft must fly passing a given waypoint). When can
the pilot enter such a constraint?
•Can only enter such a constraint on the ground.
•Can only enter such a constraint during flight phase 6.
•Cannot enter such a constraint manually.
4.03.20 p50
When will a time constraint, entered in the F-PLN, be automatically deleted?
•Entering a holding pattern, or in the event of an engine failure.
•If either FMGEC fails.
•When an OPT STEP is inserted.
4.03.30 p11
Which of the following statements is correct in regards to the GO AROUND
phase of flight?
•According to the FMGS, prediction are available.
•GA TRACK will automatically sequence to NAV provided the TO waypoint
has been sequenced.
•In order to engage NAV mode, the HEADING knob must be pushed.
4.05.80 p4
The SRS flight guidance laws provide speed targets in SRS and includes
some attitude protection. In the case of windshear, what maximum attitude
does the guidance law reduce the aircraft nose-up attitude to, during
takeoff?
•17.5 degrees.
•22.5 degrees.
•30 degrees.
1.22.30 p56
There are 4 main different navigation modes to update the FM position. (In
decreasing priority they are: IRS-GPS, IRS-DME/VOR, IRS-VOR/DME, IRS
ONLY.) In IRS ONLY navigation mode which statement is true concerning
estimated Position Error (EPE)?
•EPE increases continuously at 8 nm / hour for the first 21 minutes and 2
nm / hour thereafter.
•EPE increases at 8 nm / hour for the first 21 minutes and 2 nm / hour
thereafter until a maximum predetermined maximum EPE is reached.
•Because of the high EPE there will never be a NAV ACCY HIGH indication on
the PROGRESS Page.
1.22.20 p9
An aircraft encountering windshear (below a certain energy threshold) will
generate a signal. When is this detection
function active?
•At all times that the aircraft is configured with flaps/slats extended.
•At takeoff when up to 1,000 ft RA or, below 2,000 ft with the aircraft
configured for landing.
•Lift off to 1300 ft on takeoff, and 1300 ft to 50 ft on landing, with at least
Config 1 selected.
1.22.40 p5
For a circling approach, which of the following statements is correct?
•The secondary flight plan should be a copy of the active with the landing
runway revised and this should be activated by the PNF on downwind.
•The secondary flight plan should have the route and approach to the
alternate, and this should be activated by the PNF on downwind in case
visual reference is lost.
•It is recommended to disengage the autopilot as soon as visual reference is
established.
FCTM 6.6.1
How is the failure of an ILS transmitter (after LOC and G/S Capture) initially
indicated?
•Red LOC and G/S flags on the PFD and ND.
•Amber LOC and G/S flags on the PFD and ND.
•FD bars, LOC and G/S scales flashing, deviation indices lost.
4.05.70 p16
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ATA23 Comm
In later aircraft an ATSU is installed which manages ADS, datalink
communication on the DCDU (CPDLC), and the ACARS function. The ATSU
transmits through various communication links, one of which is VHF3. If this
fails will CPDLC (and other functions) still be available?
•Yes, available using VHF 2 or SATCOM.
•Yes, available using SATCOM or HF1 (If HF Datalink Installed).
•No, not available.
1.23.45 p1 1.46.10 p2
Must the pilot do anything in order to inform ATC that the aircraft is capable
of Datalink Communications?
•ATS Facilities Notification (AFN) is necessary, however no pilot action is
required.
•A CPDLC downlink message must be sent to each applicable ATC centre.
•AFN is necessary and the pilot initiates this.
V2P2 3-1-6 5.3 [Ops Man Pt A 8.3.13.23.1]
Which statement is correct concerning Automatic Dependent Surveillance
(ADS)?
•It must be manually armed by the crew before ATC centres can connect.
•It is normally armed but the crew can select it off on the CONNECTION
STATUS page.
•It is normally armed and the crew can connect themselves to up to 4 ATC
centres.
1.46.55 p1
What message will occur in the case of a Datalink Communication loss
between the aircraft and ground?
•A COM DATALINK STBY ECAM message is displayed.
•A pulsing green DATALINK STBY memo message is displayed.
•A steady green DATALINK STBY memo message is displayed.
1.46.20 p2
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ATA24 Electrical
The No Break Power Transfer (NBPT) function:
•Avoids bar power interruptions on the ground only.
•May take up to 5 seconds for the APU GEN, with GPU connected.
•Is available on the ground and in flight.
1.24.10 p7
Following a DC BUS 2 FAULT, the PRIM 2 (A340) / SEC 2 (A330) FAULT light
on the overhead panel is illuminated. A PRIM 2 / SEC 2 reset:
•Should NOT be attempted, as this light is unduly illuminated.
•Should be attempted after checking on the ECAM STATUS page that it is
not forbidden.
•Should be attempted, as this is normal procedure and is called for in the
ECAM procedure.
3.02.24 p18
With the APU running and external power A and B available:
•External Power A supplies the left side and External Power B supplies the
right side.
•The APU supplies the left side and External Power A supplies the right side.
•The APU supplies the left side and External Power B supplies the right side.
1.24.10 p10
With EMER EXIT LTS set to ARM, when will the cabin emergency lighting
automatically illuminate?
•Only when the DC ESS bus fails.
•Only when the normal aircraft electrical power fails.
•Both of the above failures will cause automatic illumination.
1.33.30 p4
What would occur if the MAN ON Pb on the EMER ELEC PWR panel is pressed
while the green hydraulic system is pressurized?
•The RAT would deploy whether the aircraft is on the ground or in flight.
•The emergency generator starts running and connects to the electrical
network whether on the ground or in flight.
•The emergency generator would connect the charging circuit to the bus
bars if the battery voltage is less than 23.5V.
1.24.20 p10
Once the EMERG GEN is running, when and how can it be turned "OFF"?
•It can be manually selected off by the crew, after landing during the taxi
phase.
•It cannot be manually selected off by the crew.
•It can be deselected by the crew, once normal electrical power has been
restored.
No direct reference – infer from 1.24.10 p18
Which statement is true regarding the IDG Pb?
•It must be held for at least 3 seconds to ensure proper IDG disconnection.
•It contains a Fault light, which illuminates when oil temperature falls below
a pre-determined value.
•It should not be held for more than about 3 seconds to ensure proper IDG
disconnection.
1.24.20 p5
When and, by whom, does the pre flight Battery voltage check need to be
performed?
•The PNF, if the aircraft has not been electrically supplied (i.e. Full Electrical
Power Up required).
•The PNF, on every crew change or when transiting Hong Kong.
•It is not considered a crew duty as this is a maintenance procedure.
3.04.24 p2
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ATA26 Fire Protection
Pushing and releasing an ENG FIRE Pb will perform numerous functions,
these include:
•Silence the aural fire warning, closes the low and high pressure fuel valves,
arms the fire extinguisher squibs, closes the hydraulic fire valve and closes
the pack flow control valve.
•Silence the aural fire warning, closes the high pressure fuel valve, arms the
fire extinguisher squibs, closes the hydraulic fire valve and closes the pack
flow control valve.
•Silence the aural fire warning, closes the low pressure fuel valve, arms the
fire extinguisher squibs, closes the hydraulic fire valve and closes the pack
flow control valve.
1.26.20 p5
In the event of smoke in the cabin:
•The cockpit window should not be opened unless dense smoke is in the
cockpit.
•The cockpit window should not be opened before the RAM AIR Pb is
selected OFF.
•Packs should be selected to LO to reduce ventilation.
Barry Badenhorst said (a)
If an APU fire is detected in flight:
•An automatic APU shutdown and agent discharge will occur.
•An automatic APU shutdown will occur; manual agent discharge is required.
•The APU Fire Pb must be pressed.
(c)
What operations/actions are required for smoke detected in the avionics
compartment?
•When smoke is detected immediate actions include setting the Vent Extract
pb to OVRD with or without ECAM activation, however, after the ECAM is
displayed the ECAM checklist must be followed even if non avionics smoke is
suspected.
•When air conditioning smoke is suspected the crew should set the Vent
Extract pb to OVRD and may continue with the paper checklist or switch to
the ECAM procedure when displayed.
•The Vent Extract pb should be set to OVRD once Emergency Electrical
Configuration has been established.
QRH 1.10 – not well written
In the event of smoke in the cabin, several actions are available. Which of
the following apply?
•The cockpit window should not be opened unless dense smoke persists in
the cockpit and the aircraft is at FL100.
•The cockpit window should not be opened before the RAM AIR Pb is
selected to "OFF" and the aircraft altitude is FL100.
•Packs should be selected to LO to reduce ventilation and decrease the cabin
altitude.
QRH 1.12
How are aural or visual warnings cancelled with an ENG FIRE?
•The aural warning stops when the ENG MASTER switch is selected OFF.
•The ENG FIRE Pb light will extinguish when the Pb is pressed.
•The aural warning stops when the ENG FIRE Pb is pushed.
1.26.20 p7
During an engine fire procedure how would the crew ascertain that the fire
has been extinguished?
•The aural warning stops when fire conditions no longer exist.
•The ENG FIRE pushbutton light extinguishes when fire conditions no longer
exist.
•In any event AGENT 1 must be discharged regardless of the state of the
warning.
1.26.20 p5 3.02.26 p2
Which of the following statements correctly represent the operation of the
agent Squib light?
•The SQUIB light illuminates white when the flight crew release the ENG
FIRE button.
•The SQUIB light illuminates white when the AGENT Pb is pressed, with or
without a detected fire.
•The SQUIB light illuminates amber when the associated fire extinguisher
bottle has lost pressure.
1.26.20 p5
Why should the Fire pb not be pushed during a Tailpipe Fire?
•This would disable the engine fire bottles from discharging.
•The fire pushbutton shuts off the engine bleed valves shutting off starter
air.
•This would de-energize FADEC and prevent the motoring sequence.
1.36.10 p3 QRH 2.25
How can the Smoke Detection System be reset in flight?
•Pull FWC 1 reset button, wait 3 seconds then push it. Then perform the
same action with FWC 2.
•Simultaneously pull SDCU 1 and 2 reset buttons wait 3 seconds, then push
them.
•Pull SDCU 1 and SDCU 2 reset buttons, wait 1 second then push them.
QRH 2.35 TR
While operating an Olympus Class aircraft, what occurs if smoke is detected
in the air extraction duct of the Inflight Entertainment Centre?
•An ECAM smoke warning is triggered and a red SMOKE light comes on in
the IFEC pushbutton on the overhead panel.
•The power to the IFEC is shutdown immediately.
•Visual and Aural warnings are provided in the cabin, the power to the IFE
Centre has to be switched off at the VCC.
1.26.56 p1
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ATA27 Flight Controls
The "A LOCK" message:
•Replaces the F symbol when a wing tip brake is applied to the flaps.
•Appears when speed falls below 148 kt if the flaps are up.
•Replaces the S symbol when the alpha/speed lock function has been
activated.
1.27.50 p9
During a GA from the runway in CONF FULL, after application of TOGA, the
crew would expect:
•Continuous Repetitive Chime, Master Warning and ECAM CONFIG FLAPS
NOT IN TO CONFIG.
•FLAP/MCDU DISAGREE message.
•No warnings due flight phase inhibit.
FCTM 7.20.3
"USE MAN PITCH TRIM" message is displayed on the PFD:
•In amber when in Direct Law.
•Indicates that manual pitch trim must be used to control the aircraft
attitude in pitch.
•Indicates that the alpha floor function, Overspeed and Stall Warnings are
inoperative.
1.1.27.30 p5
When and where does the "A LOCK" message appear?
•Replaces the F symbol when a wing tip brake is applied to the flaps.
•Replaces the S symbol when speed falls below 148 kt if the flaps are
already up.
•Replaces the S symbol when the alpha/speed lock function has been
activated, preventing flap retracting from 1 to 0.
1.27.50 p7
When is the overspeed ECAM warning provided?
•At VMO.
•At VMO + 4 Knots.
•At VMO + 6 Knots.
1.27.20 p6
When does the sidestick priority "Red Arrow" illuminate in front of a pilot?
•When that pilot has lost authority.
•When that pilot has regained authority.
•When the opposite sidestick is not at neutral.
1.27.40 p7
Condition shown in [deleted] graphic: After Take-Off, with trailing edge flaps
at a CONF 1 + F configuration. Which is correct for the conditions/ actions
stated?
•Correctly indicating above 200 kt, speed increasing select flaps to "Zero".
•Correctly indicating above 210 kt, speed increasing select flaps "UP" as
soon as the flaps "F" begins retracting.
•Correctly indicating at 215 kt, speed increasing, trailing edge flaps will
automatically retract and be confirmed on the flap indication.
1.27.50 p4
Which statement is correct if one SFCC is inoperative?
•Flaps and Slats operate at half normal speed.
•Flaps and slats both operate at normal speed.
•Slats operate normally, but the flaps operate at half speed.
1.27.50 p2
When does the pitch flight control laws change from flare mode to ground
mode?
•When RA is < 50 Feet.
•Immediately the wheels are on the ground.
•5 seconds after the ground condition has been confirmed, provided pitch
attitude is < 2.5 Degrees.
1.27.20 p1
Which statement is correct in relation to the Flap Load Relief System (FLRS)?
•It is available in CONF 1, 2, 3 and FULL.
•In case of FLRS activation, an Flashing overspeed warning is provided on
ECAM.
•The upper ECAM shows a flashing "RELIEF" message when the FLRS is
activated.
1.27.50 p4
If the rudder pedals become jammed, what is the recommended procedure
for directional control on landing?
•Use nosewheel steering handle as soon as the nosewheels touch down.
•Use asymmetric reverse thrust ASAP.
•Use differential braking ASAP.
QRH 2.02
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