No.
If the function has more than one x-intercept then there are more than one values of x for which y = 0. This means that, for the inverse function, y = 0 should be mapped onto more than one x values. That is, the inverse function would be many-to-one.
But a function cannot be many-to-one. So the "inverse" is not a function. And tat means the original function is not invertible.
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if a certain abscissa corresponds to more than one ordinate, then it is not a function.
No, it is not. A function can only have one output per input. (If it has more than one, it is still maths, but it cannot be called a "function". It would probably be called an equation or a formula etc...).
No. A function has only one output per input.
No, it does not. You can tell if something is a function or not by using the vertical line test. If there is more than one point at any vertical line, it is not a function.
false