VIBGYOR HIGH

Second Term Examination

2019 - 2020
FRENCH

Grade : VIII Max. Marks : 80

Date : 24/03/2020 Time Allowed : 3 hours

INSTRUCTIONS:-

• Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.

• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the
answers.
• The intended marks for the questions or parts of questions are given in
brackets [ ].

Répondez à toutes les questions

Question 1 [20]
Écrivez en français une rédaction d’environ 200 mots sur un des sujets
suivants :

(i) Les fêtes indiennes.

(ii) La mousson en Inde.
(iii) Anglais – une langue mondiale.
(iv) Mon premier voyage en avion.
(v) Faites une description de l’image donnée ci-dessous ou décrivez ce
qu’elle vous suggère.

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 Question 2 [15]
Écrivez en français une lettre d’environ 150 mots sur un des sujets
suivants :
(i) Ecrivez une lettre à votre ami francophone dans laquelle vous décrivez
votre région où vous habitez.
(ii) Ecrivez une lettre à votre mère en décrivant la nouvelle école où vous
avez enregistrée et lui décrivez comment votre vie a changé.

Question 3 [10]
Lisez l’extrait suivant et répondez aux questions qui suivent sans répéter
les mots du texte :
La fête des mères

Le jour des mères est une fête célébrée en honneur des mères, dans le monde
entier. Les mères reçoivent souvent des cadeaux ce jour. C’est une tradition
française, inaugurée par Napoléon, qui a commencé à célébrer en 1950. Ce jour
qui honore des mères raconte à la Grèce antique. La fête est célébrée dans des
nombreux pays.

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 En France, la tradition réclame une variété d’honneurs pour la mère. Elle pourrait
recevoir des cadeaux de ses enfants, ou elle peut se détendre. En France, il y a,
en général, un grand dîner en honneur de la maman. Ces dîners sont une affaire
importante de la famille.
Le point principal, c’est un jour où, tout commence en Amérique, les mères ne
travaillent pas ; elles sont libres de faire ce qu’elles veulent. Les mères obtiennent
également des cartes de vœux et des fleurs. Parfois, les enfants écrivent les
poèmes courts pour leur maman.

Répondez aux questions suivantes :

[2]
(i) Pourquoi célèbre-t-on la fête des mères ?

(ii) Qui a commencé la tradition de la fête des mères en France ? [2]

(iii) Que font les enfants pour leurs mamans ce jour-là ? [2]

(iv) Quel est le point principal ? [2]

(v) Qu’est-ce que les enfants font ce jour en France ? [2]

Question 4 [15]
A. Conjuguez les verbes au temps convenable : [4]
(i) Je (prendre) une douche tous les jours.
(ii) Hier, ma sœur (aller) au cinéma.
(iii) La semaine prochaine, nous (voyager) à Paris.
(iv) Ne (perdre) pas ton temps.

B. Remplacez les mots soulignés par des pronoms convenables : [5]

(i) Il vient de donner les bonbons aux enfants.
(ii) Je vais chez ma tante.
(iii) Il faut ajouter du sucre à la fin.
(iv) Ne va pas au théâtre.
(v) Il m’a écrit cette lettre.

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 C. Mettez au comparatif : [2]
(i) Les lions sont (grand) les éléphants.
(ii) Ce restaurant est (bon) dans mon quartier.

D. Mettez les phrases au féminin : [2]

(i) Le nouveau directeur est paresseux.
(ii) Mon vieil oncle est mort.

E. Remplissez les tirets par les pronoms possessifs : [2]

(i) (i) Mon lycée est très loin de _________________.
(ii) (ii) Nous avons fini nos exercices ; ont – ils fini ________________ ?

Question 5

(a) Traduisez en français : [5]

Today Denis is very happy. He is celebrating his fifteenth birthday. His old aunt
sent him a small boat as a gift. His cousins gave him a beautiful book as he likes
to read as Denis loves to read .But unfortunately he lost his new book in the
school.

(b)Traduisez en anglais :
Avez-vous pris de bonnes résolutions pour cette nouvelle année ? La santé, c’est
la chose la plus importante dans la vie et nous devons tout faire pour la garder. [5]
Pour être en bonne santé, il faut d’abord nourrir son corps avec de bonnes
nourritures. Manger des fruits et des légumes frais, consommé produits laitiers,
manger des fibres et des protéines c’est une bonne façon d’être saine.

(c) Vous êtes à l’entrée d’un musée. Rédigez un dialogue entre vous et un
employé.
[10]
(l’horaire, mode de paiement, disponibilité de guide)

*****

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 VIBGYOR HIGH
Second Term Examination
2019-2020
GEOGRAPHY
Grade: VIII Max. Marks : 80

Date : 19/03/2020 Time Allowed:2 hours

INSTRUCTIONS:-

• Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.

• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing
the answers.
• The intended marks for the questions or parts of questions are given
alongside the questions.
• Map given at the end of this paper must be fastened with you answer
booklet.
• All sub – sections of each question must be answered in the correct order.
• Attempt seven questions in all.
• Part 1 is compulsory. All questions from Part I to be attempted.
• A total of five questions are to be attempted from Part II.

Part I (30 Marks)

(All questions are compulsory)
Question 1 [20]
Answer the following question.

a) Define ‘Scale’ and name any two types. [2]

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PTO
 b) What is fire line? [2]

c) What does the word ‘Brackish’ mean? Where does these conditions [2]
occur and why?
d) Draw the conventional signs and symbol using relevant colours for the [2]
following:
i) Metre Gauge

ii) Tube Well

e) What do white patch and green wash on toposheet represent? [2]

f) Study the table given below and answer the following questions :-

16 Jegol
(Red)

15

(Red)
14 PO

13 X (Red)

12 Dantrai
(Red)

11
20 21 22 23 24 25

i) Give four figure grid reference of settlement Jegol and deserted village. [2]

ii) Identify the type of road which joins Dantrai to Jegol. Name any two [2]
other types of roads that can be used.
iii) What is the cardinal direction of PO from Dantrai and Jegol? [2]

iv) Calculate the RF of the given map with the given scale as 2cm = 5km [2]

v) Draw the conventional symbol for Temple and Graves, using appropriate [2]
colours.

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Question 2 [10]
Mark and label the following on the outline map of India.

a) Tropic of Cancer [1]

b) Western Ghats [1]

c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands [1]

d) River Narmada [1]

e) River Yamuna [1]

f) Gulf of Kutch [1]

g) Delhi [1]

h) Chennai [1]

i) Lake Chilika [1]

j) Aravalli Hills [1]

Part II (50 Marks)

(Attempt Any Five Questions)
Question 3 [10]

a. Define Disaster. Name any two types of Natural Disaster. [2]

b. Name the instrument which is used for measuring earthquake. Name [2]
two countries which experience frequent earthquakes.

c. Discuss in detail the measures of disaster management. [3 points] [3]

d. Mention any three ways in which the government plays an important role [3]
during a disaster.
PTO
Question 4 [10]

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 a. Define [2]
i. Magma
ii. Lava
b. Draw a neat and well labelled diagram of the Structure of a Volcano. [2]

c. What are the different types of Volcano on the basis of their frequency of [3]
eruption? Explain each type with appropriate example.

d. Explain the following terms: [3]

i. Geyser
ii. Volcanic Cone
iii. Caldera
Question 5 [10]

a. Define: [2]
i. Earthquake
ii. Seismic Focus

b. Name two belts where most of the earthquakes occur. [2]

c. Give geographical reason for each of the following: [3]

i. Primary waves are the first earthquake waves to be recorded on

a seismogram.
ii. Most of the earthquakes occur along the plate boundaries.
iii. Earthquakes trigger Tsunami.

d. Mention any three destructive effects of volcanoes in detail. [3]

Question 6 [10]

a. Define the following: [2]

i. Pollution
ii. Pollutant

b. Differentiate between Quantitative and Qualitative pollution. [2]

c. Discuss in detail the three main sources of Air Pollution. [3]

d. Define Water Pollution. Discuss how industries are responsible for [3]
polluting water.
Question 7 [10]

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 a. Mention any two effects of air pollution on plants. [2]

b. What is noise pollution? Discuss its effects on animals. [2]

c. What is Biomagnification? Give a detailed example of Biomagnification. [3]

d. Discuss any three effects of soil pollution on environment. [3]

Question 8 [10]

a. Write two principles of organic farming. [2]

b. What are fossil fuels? Why should we use them judiciously? [2]

c. State any three advantages of having a ‘No Smoking zone’. [3]

d. What is carpooling? Discuss any four advantages of carpooling. [3]

Question 9 [10]

a. What is a subcontinent? Give an example. [2]

b. Give the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India. [2]

c. Write any three differences between Himadri and Himachal. [3]

d. How are the Northern Plains of India formed? What are its subdivisions? [3]

Question10 [10]

a. Name two rivers of India which drain into the Arabian Sea. [2]

b. Why does the Eastern Coastal Plain receive rainfall in winter? [2]

PTO

c. Give geographical reason for the following: [3]

i. Delhi experiences extreme climate whereas Mumbai has

equable climate.
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 ii. Tropical deciduous trees shed their leaves before summer.
iii. Plants in thorn forests grow only one to two meters in height.

d. Mention any three characteristics of Tropical Evergreen Forest. [3]

Question11 [10]

a. Name the following: [2]

i. Hot and dry winds which blow over the Northern Plains in in
summer.
ii. The violent storm which is experienced in Assam and West
Bengal during summer.

b. What are tidal forests also known as? Name any two trees found here. [2]

c. What are National Parks? Mention any two conservation strategies for [3]
wildlife.
d. Differentiate between Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats.[any three] [3]

*****

Name: ___________________________________Roll No. ________Grade/Div: ______

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Question 2

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 VIBGYOR HIGH
Second Term Examination

2019-2020

HINDI
Grade: VIII Max. Marks : 80

Date : 27/03/2020 Time Allowed : 3 hour

___________________________________________________________________________________
Instructions: -

• Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.

• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the
answers.
• This paper comprises two sections- Section A and Section B.
• Attempt all questions from Section A.
• Attempt any four questions from Section B, answering at least one question each
from the two books you have studied and any two other questions.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

SECTION A [40 MARKS]

Q.1 Write a short composition in Hindi of approximately 250 words on any [15]
One of the following topics:-
fuEufyf[kr fo”k;ksa esa ls fdlh ,d fo”k; ij fganh esa yxHkx 250 ‘kCnksa essa
laf{kIr ys[k fyf[k, :-
(i) daI;wVj vkSj eksckby Qksu vkt ds ;qx dh vfuok;Zrk cu x;k gSA daI;wVj dh mi;ksfxrk
,oa bldh lhekvksa dh leh{kk dhft,A
(ii) jsYos LVs’ku ij fcrkbZ xbZ ,d jkr crkb, fd ml le; vki dgk¡ tk jgs Fks\ vkids
lkFk dkSu & dkSu Fks vkSj vkidk le; fdl izdkj O;rhr gqvk\
(iii) ^ftldh ykBh mldh HkSl
a * yksdksfDr dks vk/kkj cukrs gq, dksbZ ekSfyd dgkuh fyf[k,A
(iv) ,d ,slh ekSfyd dgkuh fyf[k, ftldk var izLz rqr okD; ls fd;k x;k gks&vkSj
eSaus jkgr dh lk¡l ysrs gq, lkspk fd vkt esjk ekuo thou lQy gks x;kA
(v) uhps fn, x, fp= dks /;ku ls nsf[k, vkSj fp= dks vk/kkj cukdj mldk ifjp;

Page 1 of 6
 nsrs gq, dksbZ ys[k] ?kVuk vFkok dgkuh fyf[k,] ftldk lh/kk o Li”V lac/a k fp=
ls gksuk pkfg,A

Q.2 Write a letter in Hindi in approximately 120 words on any one of the topics [07]
given below:-
fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlh ,d fo”k; ij fganh esa yxHkx 120 ‘kCnksa es i=
fyf[k, :-
(i) vius fe= dks jkT; dh twfu;j fØdsV Vhe esa pqus tkus ij c/kkbZ nsrs gq, i= fyf[k,A
vFkok
(ii) vius {ks= ds Fkkuk izHkkjh dks i= fy[kdj {ks= esa c<+rs gq, vijk/kkas dh vksj /;ku
vkdf”kZr dhft,A

Q.3 Read the passage given below and answer in Hindi the questions that follow, [10]
using your own words as far as possible:-
fuEufyf[kr xn~;ka’k dks /;ku ls if<+, rFkk mlds uhps fy[ks iz’uks ds mRrj fganh
esa fyf[k,A mRrj ;FkklaHko vkids vius ‘kCnksa esa gksus pkfg, :-
fdlh ou eas ,d cw<+s _f”k dk vkJe FkkA ijyksd xeu dk le; fudV vkrk ns[k] mUgsa
;g fpark lrkus yxh fd muds ckn vkJe dh ftEesnkjh dkSu l¡Hkkysxk\ ;w¡ rks muds ,d
ls c<+dj ,d f’k”; Fks] ftuesa lat;] e`R;at
q ;] /kuat; rFkk fnokdj uked f’k”; vR;ar
fon~oku FksA _f”k us bu pkjksa eas ls fdlh ,d dks xq:in nsuk pkgk] ysfdu xq: tSls loksZPp
in ds fy, dsoy osn ‘kkL=ksa dk Kku vkSj dyk dkS’ky gh dkQh ugha cfYd dqN ijks{k
ln~xq.kksa dk Kku Hkh vko’;d gSA ;g lkspdj _f”k us vius pkjksa f’k”;ksa dks viuh bPNk

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 ls voxr djkdj dgk & iq=ka!s eSa rqe pkjksa ls dsoy ,d iz’u d:¡xk] ftldk mRrj
lek/kku dkjd gksxk ogha xq: in dk vf/kdkjh gksxkA
f’k”;ksa us ,d Loj eas dgk & iz’u iwNus dh —ik dhft, xq:nso!
_f”k us dgk & ;fn Hkxoku rqe yksxksa dks n’kZu nsdj oj ek¡xus dks dgsxa s rks D;k ek¡xksxs\
lat; cksyk & xq:nso] eSa rks lalkj ds leLr fo|kvksa dks izkIr djus dk oj ek¡x¡wxk]
rkfd eq>ls cM+k iafMr dksbZ u gks ldsA e`R;at
q ; cksyk & xq:oj] eSa leLr fnO; vL=ksa
dh ek¡x d:¡xk] rkfd fo’o dk ‘kfDr’kkyh iq:”k gks ldw¡A
/kuat; cksyk & xq:oj] eSa rks bZ’oj ls foiqy /kulaink ek¡x¡wxk] ftlls esjk vkSj esjh
Hkkoh ih<+h dk thou ,s’o;Z ls lq[kiwoZd chrsA
fnokdj dqN {k.k pqi jgkA fQj _f”k dks iz.kke dj cksyk & vkpk;Z] eSa rks
vkthou HkfDr rFkk vkRe larks”k dk oj ek¡xwxkA blds vfrfjDr dqN Hkh ughaA fnokdj
dk mRrj lqudj _f”k xnxn gks mBs vkSj mls xys yxkdj cksy]s oRl! rw gh esjk loZJs”B
f’k”; gSA xq:in ij rw gh ‘kksfHkr gks ldrk gSA _f”k us fnokdj dks Hkkoh xq: cuk fn;kA
Js”B iq:”k ogh gS tks viuh mUufr ds lkFk & lkFk lHkh dh mUufr dh dkeuk djaAs

(i) ijyksd xeu dk le; vkus ij xq: dks D;k fpark gqbZ vkSj D;ksa\ [2]

(ii) xq: ds izeq[k f’k”; dkSu & dkSu ls Fks rFkk _f”k us f’k”;ksa ls D;k iz’u iwNk\ [2]

(iii) igys] nwljs vkSj rhljs f’k”; us xq: ds iz’u dk D;k mRrj fn;k\ la{ksi esa crkb,A [2]

(iv) pkSFks f’k”; us xq: ds iz’u dk D;k mRrj fn;k\ [2]

(v) xq: dks fdldk mRrj loksZRre yxk vkSj D;ksa\ blls vkidks D;k f’k{kk feyrh gS\ [2]

Q.4 Answer the following according to the instructions given :- [8]

fuEufyf[kr iz’uksa ds mRrj funsZ’kkuqlkj fyf[k, :-

(i) fuEufyf[kr ‘kCnks esa ls fdUgha nks ‘kCn ds foykse fyf[k, %& [2]
rhoz
nqcZy
fuEu
iki

(ii) fuEufyf[kr fdlh ,d eqgkojs dk vFkZ fyf[k, :- [1]

jksxa Vs [kM+s gks tkuk
igkM+ VwV iMuk

Page 3 of 6
 (iii) fuEufyf[kr ‘kCnksa esa ls fdlh ,d ‘kCn ds nks i;kZ;okph ‘kCn fyf[k, :- [1]
iRuh
ckny
u;k

(iv) fuEufyf[kr ‘kCnksa esa ls dkjd Hksn igpkudj fyf[k, :- [2]

djheu Nr ls fxj xbZA
jlksb, us gyok cuk;kA

(v) fuEufyf[kr ‘kCnksa esa ls fdUgh nks ‘kCnksa ls Hkkookpd laKk cukb, :- [2]
pquuk
fudV
y?kq
mM+uk

SECTION B [40 MARKS]

¼ ladYi ½
Q.5 Read the extract given below and answer in Hindi the questions that [10]
follows :-
fuEufyf[kr xn~;ka’k dks if<+, vkSj mlds uhpss fy[ks iz’uksa ds mRrj fganh esa fyf[k, :-

^^ ,d fnu eSua s Hkh r; dj gh fy;k fd tc iwjs ‘kgj ds dqN iq:”k ,oa cgqr lh
efgyk,¡ ogk¡ tkrs gS] rks eSa Hkh viuh tUei=h dks Bksdj ekj gh nw¡A
¼ ^thou n¨ fnu dk* & 'kjn rSyax ½
(i) ys[kd us D;ksa vkSj dgk¡ tkus dk fu’p; dj fy;k\ [2]

(ii) ys[kd us ogk¡ u tkus ij yksxks us mUgsa fdl rjg ds fo’ks”k.kksa ls lEekfur fd;k\ [2]

(iii) ikB ds ‘kh”kZd dh lkFkZdrk fln~/k dhft,A [3]

(iv) ikB ds var esa ys[kd us D;k fu.kZ; fy;k vkSj D;ksa\ [3]

Q.6 Read the extract given below and answer in Hindi the questions that [10]
follows :-
fuEufyf[kr in~;ka’k dks if<+, vkSj mlds uhpss fy[ks iz’uksa ds mRrj fganh esa fyf[k, :-

Page 4 of 6
 “म ाँ मुझे आने दे ,डर मत आने दे |”

(म ाँ ! मुझे आने दे -मद

ृ ल
ु जोशी )

(i) प्रस्तुत कवित में म ाँ को आश्ि शन कौन दे रह है और क्यों ? [2]

(ii) अजन्मी बच्ची घर क सन्न ट ककस तरह तोड़न च हती थी ? [2]

(iii) किययत्री क न म बत ते हुए शीर्षक की स थषकत स्पष्ट कीजजए | [3]

(iv) सम ज में लड़क लड़की के अनप

ु त की विर्मत बढ़ने क क्य क रण है ? [3]

Q.7 Read the extract given below and answer in Hindi the questions that [10]
follows :-
fuEufyf[kr xn~;ka’k dks if<+, vkSj mlds uhpss fy[ks iz’uksa ds mRrj fgUnh esa fyf[k, :-

^^[kkyk fcxM+ xbZ] mUgksaus iapk;r djus dh /kedh nhA tqEeu g¡ls] ftl rjg dksbZ
f’kdkjh fgju dks tky dh rjQ tkrs ns[kdj eu & gh & eu g¡lrk gSA**

¼ ^iap ijes'oj* & eqa’kh ize

s pan ½

(i) [kkyk dkSu gS\ mlus iapk;r tkus dh /kedh D;ksa nh\ [2]

(ii) tqEeu ds g¡lus dk D;k dkj.k Fkk\ f’kdkjh ‘kCn fdlds lanHkZ esa iz;qDr [2]
gqvk gS\ le>kb,A
(iii) dgkuh esa vk, eq[; ik=ksa ds uke crkrs gq, fdlh ,d dk pfj= fp=.k Hkh dhft,A [3]

(iv) ikB ds vk/kkj ij crkb, fd lPph fe=rk dk ewyea= D;k gS\ [3]

Q.8 Read the extract given below and answer in Hindi the questions that [10]
follows :-
fuEufyf[kr xn~;ka’k dks if<+, vkSj mlds uhpss fy[ks iz’uksa ds mRrj fgUnh esa fyf[k, :-

nh?kZrek esa fon~oRrk dwV & dwVdj Hkjh gqbZ FkhA mUgsa ?kaVksa lekf/k yxkus dk vH;kl
FkkA blls mudh fparu’kfDr vlk/kkj.k :i ls c<+ xbZ FkhA
¼^n¨ fnO;kax foHkwfr;k¡* &ladfYkr ½

(i) nh?kZrek dkSu Fks\ mUgsa vkSj fdu & fdu ukeksa ls tkuk tkrk gS\ [2]

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 (ii) ikB ds vk/kkj ij crkb, fd ‘krphZ fdls dgk tkrk Fkk\ [2]

(iii) ikB esa of.kZr nwljh fnO;kax foHkwfr dkSu gS\ mUgsa ^elhgk* D;ksa dgk x;k gS\ [3]

(iv) ikB ds ‘kh”kZd dh lkFkZdrk fln~/k dhft,A [3]

Q.9 Read the extract given below and answer in Hindi the questions that [10]
follows :-
fuEufyf[kr xn~;ka’k dks if<+, vkSj mlds uhpss fy[ks iz’uksa ds mRrj fgUnh esa fyf[k, :-
gj dejs esa ,dk/k dysMa j t:j gksrk FkkA dHkh & dHkh rks nhokj Hkjh gskrh FkhA
dyaMs j dk ykuk vkSj yxkuk e/;oxhZ; ‘kkSd FkkA
¼ ^dysaMj dykdkj* &losZ'oj n;ky lDlsuk ½
(i) ikB ds vk/kkj ij dysM a j dh mi;ksfxrk le>kb, vkSj crkb, fd vkt ds le; esa [2]
dysM
a j dh ek¡x esa deh D;ksa vkbZ gS\
(ii) igys ds le; esa fdu & fdu ds dysM
a j yxk, tkrs Fks\ [2]

(iii) vkt ds le; esa jktusrkvksa ds dysM

a j dh ek¡x D;ksa ugha gS\ [3]

(iv) ys[kd us fdl mnkgj.k ds ek/;e ls le>k;k gS fd lekt vius uSfrd iru dh vksj [3]
tk jgk\
Q. 10 Read the extract given below and answer in Hindi the questions that [10]
follows :-
fuEufyf[kr in~;ka’k dks if<+, vkSj mlds uhpss fy[ks iz’uksa ds mRrj fgUnh esa fyf[k, :-

FkksM+k & lk oDr pqjkdj cfr;k;k gS

dHkh & dHkh f’kdk;r u djusokyh
xqelqe cw<+h i`Foh Lks mldk nq[k\
vxj ugha] rks {kek djuk!
eq>s rqEgkjs vkneh gksus ij lansg gS!
¼ ^cw<+h i`Foh dk nq[k* & fueZyk iqrqy ½

(i) cw<+h fo’ks”k.k fdlds fy, iz;ksx fd;k x;k gS vkSj D;ksa\ [2]

(ii) bl dfork ds ek/;e ls dof;=h us fdl cM+h leL;k dh vksj gekjk /;ku vkdf”kZr [2]
fd;k gS\ ml leL;k dks nwj djus ds mik; crkb,A
(iii) ^[kwu dh myfV;k¡ djrs* iafDr dk vk’k; Li”V dhft,A [3]

(iv) dof;=h us ,slk D;ksa dgk gS fd] ^^eq>s rqEgkjs vkneh gksus ij lansg gS!!Þ\ [3]

Page 6 of 6
 VIBGYOR HIGH
Second Term Examination
2019-2020
HISTORY and CIVICS
Grade: VIII Max. Marks: 80
Date: 23/03/2020 Time Allowed: 2 hours
___________________________________________________________________
INSTRUCTIONS:-

• Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided

separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing
the answers.
• The intended marks for the questions or parts of questions are given
alongside the questions.

• This paper contains 5 pages.

This paper is divided into 2 parts. Part I is compulsory. A total of five questions are to be

are to be attempted from Part II, two out of three questions from Section A and three out of

three out of five questions from Section B.

Part I (30 Marks)

Attempt all questions from this Part
Question 1

(a) Which day is celebrated as United Nations Day? [1]

(b) Where is the International Court of Justice located? [1]

(C) What policy does the UNESCO follow in preventing war? [1]

(d) Which is the chief administrative organ of the UN? [1]

1
 (e) Why were the specialized agencies of the UN established? [1]

(f) What do you mean by veto? [1]

(g) Where are the headquarters of UNESCO located? PTO [1]

(h) What does WHO stand for? [1]

(i) What do the olive branches on the UN flag symbolize? [1]

(j) Mention any one long term goal of the UNICEF. [1]

Question 2

(a) Name any two revenue collection systems introduced by the British. [2]

(b) How did the transport and communication system benefit the Indians? [2]

(C) Who was known as the ‘Vidyasagar of South India’? Mention any one [2]
cause that he fought for.
(d) Who was the first woman teacher of modern Maharashtra? Name the [2]

society organized by her husband.

(e) Name any two leaders of the early nationalist phase. [2]

(f) When and why was Bengal partitioned? [2]

(g) Mention the two principles that Satyagraha is based upon. [2]

(h) Name the Ali brothers who launched the Khilafat Movement. [2]

(i) Mention the oath taken by Subhash Chandra Bose. What was the [2]

primary objective of the INA?

(j) Why was the Cripps Mission sent to India? [2]

Part II (50 Marks)

SECTION A (20 Marks)
Attempt any two questions from this section
Question 3

2
The United Nations has six main organs. In this context, answer the following:

(a) Write any three functions of the General Assembly. [3]

(b) Explain the composition of the Security Council. [3]

(C) Mention the important functions of the ECOSOC. [4]

Question 4

A number of specialized agencies of the UN have been set up in the interest of human
affairs. In this context, answer the following:

(a) What is the full form of UNESCO? Enlist any two of its functions. [3]

(b) What is the composition of the ICJ? [3]

(C) Enlist the projects supported by WHO. [4]

Question 5

With reference to the UN, discuss the following:

(a) Mention any three endeavours of UNICEF to achieve its goals. [3]

(b) What does the acronym UNICEF stand for at present? Where are the [3]
headquarters of the UNICEF located? Why was it originally established?
(C) Write any four objectives of the UN. [4]

SECTION B (30 Marks)

Attempt any three questions from this section

Question 6

With reference to the changes introduced in the Indian educational and revenue
system, answer the following:

(a) What was the purpose behind the introduction of Western education in [3]
India?
(b) Enlist any three advantages of the Permanent Settlement of Bengal. [3]

3
 (C) Explain how (i) Western education and (ii) the English language led to [4]
the rise of a spirit of nationalism among the Indians.

Question 7

Many Indians realized the need for social and religious reforms to arrest the stagnation
of Indian society. With respect to this, answer the following:

(a) Explain the ideas propagated by Raja Ram Mohan Roy based on [3]
rationalism and the philosophy of the Vedas.
PTO
(b) Write a short note about the reform among the Parsees. [3]

(C) Elaborate upon Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar’s views and contributions [4]
towards education.

Question 8

With respect to the first phase of the Indian National Movement, answer the following
questions.

(a) What was the objective and results of the Lucknow Pact? [3]

(b) State the main objectives of the Muslim League. [3]

(C) Distinguish between the beliefs and objectives of the early [4]
nationalists and the assertive nationalists.
Question 9

With respect to the Indian National

Movement, answer the following questions:

4
 (a) Identify the person in the above picture. Discuss his views on social [3]

justice.

(b) List the programme of the Non Cooperation Movement. [3]

(C) Write a short note on the Salt Satyagraha. [4]

Question 10

With respect to the Indian National Movement, answer the following questions:

(a) When did India become an independent dominion? Mention any two [3]

objectives of the Forward Bloc.

(b) What was the impact of the Quit India Movement? [3]

(c) Why do Indians still respect and revere Netaji? [4]

*****

5
 VIBGYOR HIGH

Second Term Examination

2019-2020

MARATHI

Grade: VIII Max. Marks : 40

Date : 27/03/2020 Time Allowed: 1 Hour 15 Mins.

INSTRUCTIONS

• Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.

• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• The intended marks for the questions or parts of questions are given alongside the
questions.
• This question paper contains 3 printed pages.
• Attempt all questions.

Ikz’u 1 [kkyhy iz’ukaph FkksMD;kr mRrjs fygk- [2x5]

1½ d.kkZdMs ykdMs ekfxrY;koj R;kus dk; dsys\ [2]

2½ ^egky{eh eafnj* ;k LFkGkph FkksMD;kr ekfgrh fygk- [2]
3½ Xkq#aps ekuoh thoukrhy egRRo Li"V djk- [2]
4½ >kMs yko.;kps dks.krsgh nksu Qk;ns fygk- [2]
5½ xq# iwwtukpk fnol dks.krk vkgs\ xq#aps iwtu dks.k dks.kR;k [2]
fBdk.kh dsys tkrs\
Ikz’u 2 v½ [kkyhy iz’ukaph ,dk okD;kr mRrjs fygk- [1x4]

1½ doh eksBs >kY;koj dk; pk[k.kkj vkgs\ [1]

 2½ JhÑ".kkus dks.kkP;k mnkji.kkph Lrqrh dsyh\ [1]

3½ ^eqacbZ* uko dks.kR;k nsohP;k ukoko:u iMys\ [1]

4½ uotkr ckydkph izFke xq# d¨.k vlrs\ [1]

vk½ [kkyhy iz’ukaph ,dk ’kCnkr mRrjs fygk- [1x3]

1½ eqacbZrhy yksdfiz; [ksG dks.krk vkgs\ [1]

2½ JhÑ".kkyk fdrh ’ksj ykdMs feGkyh\ [1]

3½ ^>kMs ykow;k* ;k dforsps doh dks.k vkgsr\ [1]

b½ fjdkE;k tkxh ;ksX; ’kCn Hkjk- [1x3]

1½ rqeps pkaxys----------- Fkkacow udk- [1]

2½ eqacbZP;k [kknîk laL—rhr --------------yk egRRo vkgs- [1]

3½ ------------ ikSf.kZek Eg.kts Xkq#ikSf.kZek- [1]

Ikz’u 3 v½ dforsP;k vksGh iw.kZ djk- [2x2]

1½ ,d >kM------- fe=k] [2]

R;kyk -------- d:-

eksBs ---------- ] Qqys
-------------- Hk: -
2½ ,d ------------ ykow fe=k] [2]

R;kyk ---------- ?kkyw-

--------- >kY;koj] R;kP;k
---------------- [ksGw-
vk½ dks.k dks.kkl Eg.kkys rs fygk- [1x2]

1½ ^^èkeZjktgh rso<sp mnkj vkgsr-** [1]

2½ ^^pkaxY;k oLrw eksMw udk-** [1]

 [1x3]
b½ [kkyhy okD;s pwd dh cjkscj rs fygk-
1½ Òxoku JhÑ".kkauh Xkq#aP;k Äjh ykdMs okfgyh- [1]

2½ vtqZukyk d.kkZph mnkjrk iVyh ukgh- [1]

3½ lfpu rsaMqydjpk tUe eqacbZRk >kyk- [1]

Ikz’u 4 v½ lekukFkhZ ’kCn fygk- [1x2]

1½ <x & ----------------- 2½ ik.kh & --------------------

vk½ fo:n~/kkFkhZ ’kCn fygk- [1x2]

1½ iz’u X -------------------- 2½ laiw.kZ X --------------------

b½ fyax cnyk- [1x2]

1½ dq=k & ---------------------- 2½ vkth & ---------------------

Ikz’u 5 v½ v’kqn~/k ’kCn ’kqn~/k d:u fygk- [1x3]

1½ FkZukizk & ---------------

2½ Pkk;Zvk & ------------------

3½ ’kkKL= & ------------------

vk½ okD;kr mi;ksx djk- [1x2]

1½ mnkj & --------------------------------------------------------------

2½ eqacbZ & ---------------------------------------------------------------

******************
 VIBGYOR HIGH
Second Term Examination
2019-2020
MATHEMATICS

Grade: VIII Max. Marks: 80

Date:09.03.2020 Time Allowed: 2hours 30 mins.

______________________________________________________________________________
INSTRUCTIONS:-
• Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the
answers.
• The intended marks for the questions or parts of questions are given
alongside the questions.
• All working, including rough work, must be clearly shown and must be done
on the same sheet as the rest of the answer.
• Omission of essential working will result in loss of marks.
• Attempt ALL questions from SECTION (A) (Questions 1 to 4).
• Attempt ANY 4 questions from SECTION (B) (Question 5 to 11).
• This question paper contains 6 printed pages.
• Geometrical figures to be constructed wherever applicable.
• For geometry, figures should be copied to the answer script.
______________________________________________________________________________
SECTION A
(All questions are compulsoryfrom this Section)

Q. 1 a. Factorize: (2x+3y)2 − 5(2x+3y) – 14. [3]

1
 b. 2𝑥+1 9 [3]
Solve for x: = .
3𝑥−2 10

c. If 56 men can do a piece of work in 42 days. How many men will do it

in 14 days? [4]

Q. 2 a. In an examination,40 boys secured the following marks:

8,11,20,37,40,15,29,31,27,8,7,13,1,29,25,42,37,30,10,9,27,18,
25,9,2,17,47,32,11,29,6,15,41,37,10,40,21,39,13,15.
Represent the data in the form of frequency distribution table by taking
class intervals 0-10,10-20,……,40-50. [3]

b. In the given figure, the length of AB=12cm, CD=4cm,AC =13cm.If

∠ABD is 900 , find the length of AD.
𝐷

4cm

𝐶
13cm

[3]
B 12cm 𝐴
c. The diagonals of a rectangle ABCD intersects at O. If ∟BOC=680, find
[4]
∠ODA.

Q3 a Find the amount on ₹12,000 for 2 years at 10% per annum [3]
compounded annually.
b Construct a rectangle ABCD,if each diagonal is 8cm and angle
between them is 600. [3]

c A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days, B and C in 15 days, C and

A in 20 days. How many days will be required to finish the work if:
[4]
i. A works alone

2
 ii. B works alone
iii. C works alone
iv. A, B and C work together

Q4 a 17 cards numbered 1,2,3,….,17 are put in a box and mixed

thoroughly. One person draws a card from the box. Find the probability
that the number on the card is:
(i) a prime .
(ii) divisible by 3.
(iii) divisible by 3 and 2 both.
[3]

b Find the number of sides in a regular polygon, if its interior angle is [3]
equal to its exterior angle.

c Let U={x:x Є N ,x<50},A={x:x2 Є U},B={x:x =n2,n Є N} and C={x:x is a

factor of 36}.List the elements of each of the sets A,B and C. Also,
State whether the statement n(A)< n(C) is true or false.
[4]

SECTION B
(Answer any four Questions from this Section)

Q5 a Ram Singh buys a refrigerator for ₹ 4,000 on credit. The rate of

interest for the first year is 5% and of the second year is 15%. How
much will it cost him if he pays the amount after two years? [3]
b Construct a rectangle ABCD; if AB = 5 cm and a diagonal AC =6.7 cm [3]

c The denominator of a fraction is 9 more than its numerator. If the

numerator and the denominator both are increased by 7, the new
7 [4]
fraction becomes . Find the original fraction.
10

Q6 a If U={0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}, A={0,1,3,5,7,9,10}, B={2,4,5,7}

Find

3
 (i) A-B (ii) A U B (iii) (B − 𝐴)′ [3]
b In ∆ABC,∠B = 900 and D is the midpoint of BC.
Prove that AC2=AD2+3CD2. [3]
c Factorize the following :
(i) x2– y+xy-x
[4]
(ii) x2 –a2+4a-4

Q7 a ABCD is a rhombus. If ∠BCA = 350 , find ∠ADC.

[3]
b The percentage of marks obtained by a student in different subjects
are given below:
Subject Hindi Science English Mathematics
Percentage of marks 35 60 15 75
obtained
[3]
Draw a bar graph to represent the above data.

c 15 boys earn ₹900 in 5 days, how much will 20 boys earn in 7 days? [4]

Q8 a After 12 years I shall be 3 times as old as I was 4 years ago. Find my

[3]
present age.
b The result declared by a school was as under :

Passes in Passes in Passed in Failed

First Second Third
division Division Division
25% 45% 20% 10%
Represent the above data by pie chart. [3]

c Two unbiased coins are tossed simultaneously. Find the probability of

getting :
i. two heads.
ii. atleast one head.
4
 iii. atmost one head.
[4]
iv. no head.

Q9 a Construct a rhombus PQRS where diagonal PR=6.6cm and diagonal

[3]
QS=5.0cm.
b Find the compound interest on ₹1,25,000 at 12% per annum for
[3]
112 years, compounded half-yearly.
c One of the diagonals of a rhombus is equal to one of its sides. Find the
angles of the rhombus.
[4]

Q 10 a Factorize : 14𝑥 2 − 23𝑥 + 8

[3]
b Construct a parallelogram ABCD, AB=3.6cm, BC=5.4cm and ∠ABC =
[3]
600 .
c A ladder 50dm long is placed so as to reach a window 48dm high and
on turning the ladder over to the other side of the street, it reaches a
point 14dm high. Find the breadth of the street. [4]

Q 11 a Maria invested ₹93,750 at 9.6% per annum for 3 years and the interest
is compounded annually. Calculate the amount standing to her credit
at the end of the second year. [3]
b Draw a Venn diagram to show the relationship between two
overlapping sets A and B. Now shade the region representing.
(i) 𝐴 ∩ 𝐵
(ii) 𝐴 ∪ 𝐵
(iii) 𝐵 − 𝐴 [3]

c In a parallelogram ABCD, X and Y are point on diagonal BD such that

[4]
DX=BY. Prove that AXCY is a parallelogram.

*****

5
 VIBGYOR HIGH
Second Term Examination
2019-2020
PHYSICS
Grade : VIII Max. Marks : 80
Date : 16/03/2020 Time Allowed: 2 hours

INSTRUCTIONS:
• Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the
answers.
• The intended marks for the questions or parts of questions are given alongside
the question.
• The question paper contains 8 pages.
_______________________________________________________________________

Section I (40 Marks)

(Attempt all questions from this section)

Question 1
a Choose the correct answer. [2]
I. A man can hear the sound of frequency
(i) 1 Hz
(ii) 1000 Hz
(iii) 200 kHz
(iv) 5 MHz

II. The speed of sound in air at 0°C is nearly

(i) 1450 ms-1

1
 (ii) 450 ms-1
(iii) 5100 ms-1
(iv) 330 ms-1

b State Newton’s 2nd law of motion and write its mathematical [2]
expression.

c (i) Name the type of motion of the following: [2]

1. A body moving with a constant speed in a straight line

2. Circular motion

(ii) Name the graph, the slope of which represents acceleration.

d Define the following: [2]

(i) Potential difference.
(ii) Current.

e Study the given figure and answer the following questions.

[2]

The I-V graph is shown for a good conductor.

(i) What does the slope of the graph represent?

State the SI unit of the quantity represented by the slope of
(ii)
the graph.

Question 2 [2]
a (i) Define acceleration.
(ii) Define speed.

2
b Show the difference between distance and displacement with [2]
the help of a diagram.

c Differentiate between mass and weight. [2]

d What do you mean by the term frequency of a wave? State

[2]
it’s S.I. unit.

e A charge of 0.5 C passes through a cross section of a [2]

conductor in 5 s. Find the current.

Question 3
a Name the S.I. unit of force and define it. [2]

b Define the following: [2]

(i) Acceleration due to gravity.
(ii) Displacement.

c A bulb is connected to a cell. How is the resistance of circuit

affected if another identical bulb is connected (i) in series (ii) [2]
in parallel, with the first bulb?

d State two applications of ultrasound. [2]

e The resistance of filament of a bulb will increase, remain

unchanged or decrease when it glows. Give reason to [2]
support your answer.

Question 4
a [2]
(i) Define Gravitational constant ‘G’.
(ii) Define force.

3
b Define non - contact forces? Give an example. [2]

c ‘The value of (g) remains same at all places on the earth [2]
surface’. Is this statement true? Give reason for your answer.

d Describe two ways for the efficient use of energy. [2]

e The separation between two consecutive crests in a

transverse wave is 100 m. If wave velocity is 20 ms-1, find the [2]
frequency of wave.

Section II (40 Marks)

(Attempt any four questions from this section)
Question 5
a An observer sitting in line of two tanks, watches the flashes of [3]
two tanks firing at each other at the same time, but he hears
the sounds of two shots 2 s and 3.5 s after seeing the
flashes. If distance between the two tanks is 510 m, Find the
speed of sound.

b Draw symbol and state function of each of the following [3]

components in an electric circuit:
(i) Cell
(ii) Ammeter
(iii) Rheostat

c In Fig. the displacement of a body is shown at different times.

[2]

4
 Calculate the velocity of the body as it moves for

(i) 0 to 5 s

(ii) 5 s to 7 s

(ii) What is a seconds pendulum? State its frequency. [2]

Question 6
a A ball is thrown vertically upwards. It goes to a height of 20 m [3]
and then returns to the ground. Taking acceleration due to
gravity g to be 10 ms-2. Find:
(i) The initial velocity of the ball.
(ii) The final velocity of the ball on reaching the ground.
(iii) The total time of journey of the ball.

b Suppose a ball of mass m is thrown vertically upwards with

an initial speed v, its speed decreases continuously till it
becomes zero. Therefore, the ball begins to fall downward
and attains the speed v again before striking the ground. It [3]
implies that the magnitude of initial and final momenta of the
ball are same. Yet, it is not an example of conservation of
momentum. Explain why.

5
c [4]
(i) What is meant by the term inertia?
(ii) Name the two kinds of inertia.
(iii) Name the factor on which inertia of a body depends.
(iv) Two equal and opposite forces act on a moving object. How
is its motion affected? Give reason.

Question 7
a How are the wave velocity 'v', frequency 'f' and wavelength 'λ' [3]
of a wave related? Derive the relationship.
b A car travels with a uniform velocity of 25 ms-1 for 5 s. The [3]
brakes are then applied and the car is uniformly retarded and
comes to rest in further 10 s. Find:
(i) The distance which the car travels before the brakes are
applied.
(ii) The retardation.
(iii) The distance travelled by the car after applying the brakes.

c Derive the following equations mathematically for a uniformly [4]

accelerated motion:
(i) v = u + at
(ii) v2 = u2 + 2as

Question 8
a Give reason for the following: [3]

Athlete often lands on sand (or foam) after taking a high

(i)
jump.
(ii) On shaking(giving jerks to) the branches of a tree, the fruits
fall down.

(iii) When a hanging carpet is beaten with a stick, the dust

particles start falling out of it.

6
b State any three differences between propagation of sound
[3]
waves and light waves.

c [4]
(i) A pebble thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity 50
ms-1comes to a stop in 5 s. Find the retardation.

(ii) A particle initially at rest, moves with an acceleration 5 ms-2

for 5 s. Find the distance travelled in 4 s and in 5 s.

Question 9

a Distinguish between speed and velocity. [3]

b Explain the following: [3]

(i) Why does a person fall when he jumps out from a moving
train?
(ii) Why does a glass vessel break when it falls on a hard floor,
but it does not break when it falls on a carpet?
(iii) To move a boat ahead in water, the boatman has to push the
water backwards by his oar.

c [4]
(i) State Ohm’s law. Give it’s mathematical expression .
(ii) Explain any two factors on which the resistance of a wire
depends.

Question 10

a How long will sound take to travel in (a) an iron rail and (b) [3]
air, both 3.3 km in length? Take speed of sound in air to be
330 ms-1 and in iron to be 5280 ms-1.

7
b (i) In the displacement-time graph given below, what information [3]
do you get about the velocity.

(ii) In the displacement – time graph of two vehicles given below,

A and B are moving along a straight road. Which vehicle is
moving faster?

(iii) State the type of motion represented by the graph shown

below.

c [4]

8
(i) Define linear momentum. State its S.I. unit.
(ii) Explain kilogram force and derive the relation : 1 kgf = 9.8 N.

*****

9
 VIBGYOR HIGH
Second Term Examination
AY 2019-2020
ART
Grade: VIII Max. Marks : 80
Date 12/03/2020 Time Allowed: 2 hours

Instructions:
• Candidate’s Roll Number and name must be written clearly on the top right hand
corner of the reverse side of the paper.
• Ensure that the quality of the composition, feeling and originality are the main
objectives of this paper.
• No credit will be given for small drawing.
• This question paper consists of single printed paper.

Q. 1 Attempt any one [80]

a) 2 D Design
Draw a design for Lampshade. The height of the Lampshade should
not be less then 25cm.Select a beautiful shape for the Lampshade
and use following units.
❖ Two Squares
❖ Two Circles
❖ Two or Three curved lines.
❖ Two decorative forms of Butterfly or Fish.
❖ Colour the design in an attractive colour scheme.
❖ Medium: Use Poster colour or any medium.
❖ (Mechanical devices can be used)
OR

b) Logo design
Create an interesting Logo of the size 25cm by 20 cm rectangle for a
‘Sports Brand’ for example :- NIKE ,ADIDAS, PUMA, etc.
❖ Colour or Paint the Logo design with any suitable colour scheme.

❖ Medium: Water/Poster colour or mixmedia.

1
❖ (Mechanical devices can be used.)
*******

2
 VIBGYOR HIGH
Second Term Examination
AY 2019-2020
BIOLOGY
Grade: VIII Max. Marks : 80
Date : 26 /03/2020 Time Allowed: 2 hour

INSTRUCTIONS:

• Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.

• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the
answers.
• The intended marks for the questions or parts of questions are given alongside
the questions.
• Attempt all questions from Section I and any four from Section II.
___________________________________________________________________

SECTION I (40 marks)

Attempt all questions from this section.

Question 1. [5]
a) Name the following.
i. Group of nectar secreting cells in a flower. [1]
ii. Region of axis below the cotyledons. [1]
iii. A common phase in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. [1]
iv. Compound formed by combination of carbon dioxide with haemoglobin. [1]
v. A disease caused due to Plasmodium [1]

State True or False and correct the false statement by changing the
b) [5]
first/last word only.
i. Stamens of Petunia flower are polyadelphous. [1]
Self-pollination occurs when anther and stigma of a flower mature at the
ii. [1]
same time.
iii. Coleorhiza is the protective covering of the radicle in maize grain. [1]
iv. End product of anaerobic respiration in plants is lactic acid. [1]
v. Scavengers feed on dead animal and plant material. [1]

1
c) Match the columns. [5]
1. Ovule i) Protozoa [1]
2. Carbolic acid ii) C- shaped rings [1]
3. Lungs iii) Absorbs oxygen [1]
4. Trachea iv) Seed [1]
5. Malaria v)Thoracic cavity [1]
vi)Virus
vii) Prevent bacterial decay

d) Choose the odd one out. [5]

i. Dahlia, Sweet pea, Maize, China rose [1]
ii. Seed coat, Coleorhiza, Embryo, Coleoptile [1]
iii. Stomata, Lenticels, Petals, Root surface. [1]
iv. Influenza, Measles, AIDS, Chikunguniya [1]
v. Plants, Microorganism, Animals, Soil. [1]

e) Observe the diagram and answer the questions that follow. [5]

Name the above structure shown in the figure. Name the part of the
i. [1]
flower on which the above structure is found at this stage.
ii. Label 1, 3, 4 and 5. [2]
iii. What is the function of the part labelled 4? [1]
iv. What happens to the part labelled 5 during the process? [1]

f) Choose the correct alternative from the choices given. [5]

Transfer of pollen from the anther to stigma of another flower of the same
i. [1]
plant is known as (geitonogamy / autogamy).
ii. Chemical used to absorb oxygen is (soda lime / pyrogallic acid). [1]
iii. The entrance to the trachea is guarded by (epiglottis / pharynx). [1]
The idea of vaccination was conceived by (Edward Jenner/Louis
iv. [1]
Pasteur)
v. Lichens provide a good example of (parasitism / symbiosis) [1]

g) Rearrange and rewrite in a logical sequence. [5]

i. Ovary, Style, Stigma, Anther, Pollen sac. [1]
Cotyledons pushed above the ground, Radicle grows downwards, Seed
ii. [1]
coat bursts, Hypocotyl elongates.
iii. Pyruvate, 38 ATP, Krebs cycle, Glycolysis [1]

2
 iv. Embryo, Seed, Zygote,Germination [1]
v. Snake, Plant, Peacock, Rat. [1]

h) State the function of the following: [5]

i Corolla [1]
ii Testa [1]
iii Cotyledons [1]
iv Pleural fluid [1]
v Micropyle [1]

SECTION II (40 marks)

Attempt any four questions from this section

Question 2.
a) Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow. [5]

i. What is the function of soda lime in the given setup? [1]

ii. Why is lime water placed in bottle ‘A’? [1]
iii. What change will you expect to observe in bottle ‘B’? [1]
iv. Name the physiological process being studied through the setup and give [2]
the chemical equation for the process.

b) Differentiate between the following pairs on the basis of what is [5]

given in the bracket.
i. Staminate flower and pistillate flower (Parts of floral structure) [1]
ii. Epigeal germination and hypogeal germination (Location of cotyledons) [1]
iii. Aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration (ATP released) [1]
iv. Inspiration and Expiration (Shape of diaphragm) [1]
v. Communicable and Non Communicable Disease.(Name of the disease) [1]

Question 3.
a) Answer the following questions. [5]
i. What are monoecious plants? [1]
ii. State how temperature affects the germination of a seed. [1]
iii. How is the respiratory passage kept free of dust particles? [1]
iv. How can we control spreading of diseases by mosquitoes and housefly [1]
v. Define the term flora and fauna of an ecosystem. [1]

b) Briefly answer the following questions. [5]

3
 i. Name and explain the role of two abiotic components in an ecosystem. [2]
ii. Why does a person feel breathlessness at higher altitudes. [2]
iii. Define diadelphous condition. Give one example. [1]

Question 4
a) Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow. [5]

i. Label parts 1,2,3,4 [2]

ii. Give the function of plumule and radicle in a seed. [1]
iii. What is the role of micropyle in germination of seed? [1]
iv. What type of seed is depicted in the diagram? [1]

b) Draw a neat well labelled diagram of a bisexual flower and answer [5]
the questions that follow.
[3]
i. Define placentation. [1]
ii. Why are the Ray florets of Sunflower called neuter flowers? [1]

Question 5.
a) Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow. [5]

i. Name the insect given the diagram [1]

ii. Which disease is caused by this insect [1]
iii. Name the causative agent of this disease [1]
iv. Name the causative agent and vector of Dengue [2]

b) Explain the terms. [5]

i. Ornithophily [1]
ii. Epicotyl [1]
iii. Catabolism [1]
iv. Vaccination [1]
v. Parasitism [1]

Question 6
a) Give biological term : [5]
i. The protective coverings of the ovules. [1]

4
 ii. The outermost layer of endosperm in maize grain. [1]
iii. The setup in which the condition under study is missing. [1]
iv. It is an artificial way of achieving protection by introducing weakend or [1]
dead germs
v. Organisms that obtain nutrition by absorbing nutrients from dead organic [1]
matter.

b) Draw a neat well labeled diagram of monocotyledonous seed [5]

[2]
i. What type of germination is seen in this type of seed? Define it. [2]
ii. Name the layer rich in protein covering the endosperm [1]

Question 7.
a) Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that [5]
follow.

i. Label the parts numbered 1-4. [2]

ii. What do the arrows 5 and 6 indicate? [1]
iii. Name the organ where the above process occurs? [1]
iv. Name the process by which gaseous exchange occurs in this part. [1]

b) Give reason for the following [5]

i. Stigma is covered with hair or glandular papillae [1]
ii. Seeds sown very deep in soil fail to germinate. [1]
iii. In experiments on respiration in green plants, the jar is covered with a [1]
black cloth.
iv. Gaseous exchange continue in the lungs even during expiration. [1]
v. No ecosystem can survive without light. [1]

**************

5
6
 VIBGYOR HIGH
Second Term Examination

2019-2020

CHEMISTRY

Grade: VIII Max. Marks : 80

Date : 11/03/2020 Time allowed : 2 hours

INSTRUCTIONS:

• Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.

• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the
answers.
• The intended marks for the questions or parts of questions are given
alongside the questions.
• This question paper contains 8 printed pages.

SECTION I [40 marks]

Attempt all Questions from this section

Question 1

A. Complete the following: [5]

(i) Thermal dissociation unlike thermal decomposition is a________
reaction. [1]
(ii) Permanent hard water is one whose hardness cannot be removed
[1]
by________.
(iii) ____________ substances, on exposure to atmosphere absorb moisture
[1]
and change into a saturated solution.
(iv) Diamond has a sparkling brilliance due to_______________. [1]

1
 (v) A mixture of 95% oxygen and 5% carbondioxide is known
[1]
as__________.

B. Answer the following: [5]

(i) Which disease may be caused by consumption of contaminated water? [1]
(ii) What is an amphoteric oxide? [1]
(iii) Which type of elements form positive ions? [1]
(iv) Why is carbon monoxide gas highly poisonous? [1]
(v) What do you mean by allotropy? [1]

C. Choose the correct answer: [10]

(i) Which of the following metals do not displace hydrogen from dilute
[1]
acids?
(a) Al
(b) Zn
(c) Ag
(d) Ca

(ii) Select the immiscible mixture: [1]

(a) Alcohol and water
(b) Glycerine and water
(c) Milk and water
(d) Kerosene and water

(iii) Which one is not a property of carbon dioxide? [1]

(a) Colourless and odourless gas
(b) Slightly sour in taste
(c) Insoluble in water
(d) 1.5 times heavier than air

(iv) Diamond is used for: [1]

(a) Making the electrodes of electric furnaces
(b) Making crucible for melting metals

2
 (c) Cutting and drilling rocks and glass
(d) Making carbon brushes for electric motors

(v) A nitrogen molecule is formed as a result of sharing of electrons between

[1]
two reacting nitrogen atoms. Bonding in nitrogen will be:
(a) Ionic
(b) Electrovalent
(c) Covalent
(d) Molecular

(vi) Which gas is released when carbon is burnt in a limited supply of air? [1]
(a) Water gas
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Producer gas
(d) Carbon dioxide

(vii) The given gases are absolutely stable, except: [1]

(a) Oxygen
(b) Neon
(c) Krypton
(d) Xenon

(viii) Number of valence electrons in hydrogen atom: [1]

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

(ix) In combined state carbon occurs as: [1]

(a) Coal
(b) Diamond
(c) Graphite
(d) Petroleum

3
 (x) CO is a/an_______ oxide. [1]
(a) Acidic
(b) Neutral
(c) Basic
(d) Amphoteric

D. State your observation when: [5]

(i) Magnesium ribbon is burnt in carbon dioxide gas. [1]
(ii) Carbon dioxide gas is passed through lime water solution in excess. [1]
(iii) Blue crystals of copper sulphate are heated. [1]
(iv) Wood charcoal is added to a solution of blue ink. [1]
(v) Aqueous solution of ferric chloride is added to sodium hydroxide solution. [1]

E. Match the following: [5]

A B
(i) Green vitriol a. Hygroscopic
(ii) A tetravalent atom b. Peat
(iii) A mineral carbonate c. Carbon
(iv) Inferior quality coal d. Heptahydrate
(v) Calcium oxide e. Limestone

F. Write a balanced equation for each of the following reactions: [5]

(i) Thermal decomposition of potassium nitrate. [1]
(ii) Reaction of washing soda and calcium sulphate. [1]
(iii) Reaction of carbon dioxide with ammonia gas to form a nitrogenous
[1]
fertilizer.
(iv) Reduction of zinc oxide to zinc by wood charcoal. [1]
(v) Reaction of water with sodium oxide. [1]

G. Answer the following: [5]

(i) Why is water called as a universal solvent? [1]
(ii) What is the role of a catalyst in a chemical reaction? [1]

4
 (iii) How is pure dry carbon dioxide gas collected during its lab preparation? [1]
(iv) How is lampblack obtained? [1]
(v) What is electrovalent bond? [1]

SECTION II [40 Marks]

Attempt any four Questions from this section

Question 2

A. Identify the type of reaction: [5]

(i) CaO + H2O Ca(OH)2 [1]
(ii) NaCl + AgNO3 NaNO3 + AgCl [1]
(iii) 2KClO3 Heat 2KCl + 3O2 [1]
(iv) Zn + CuSO4 ZnSO4 + Cu [1]
(v) NaOH + HCl NaCl + H2O [1]

B. Answer the following: [5]

(i) How does the solubility of gases in water change with respect to
[1]
temperature of water?
(ii) How is coal formed? [1]
(iii) Why do atoms form chemical bonds with each other? [1]
(iv) What is activity series? [1]
(v) What is the function of concentrated sulphuric acid taken in a washer
[1]
bottle during the preparation of carbon dioxide?

Question 3
Draw atomic orbit structure diagram to show the formation of calcium
A. [2]
oxide.

B. Give two uses of the following: [3]

(i) Carbon monoxide [1]
(ii) Graphite [1]
(iii) Coal [1]

5
C. Write balanced chemical equation for the following: [5]
(i) Action of carbon monoxide on heated nickel. [1]
(ii) Heating of coke in presence of air. [1]
(iii) Dehydration of glucose by concentrated sulphuric acid. [1]
(iv) Decomposition of zinc hydroxide. [1]
(v) Reaction of calcium with water. [1]

Question 4

A. Give reasons for the following: [6]

(i) Washing soda can be used to remove both temporary and permanent
[2]
hardness in water.
(ii) Copper does not react with dilute acids. [2]
(iii) On opening a bottle of soda, a fizz sound is heard. [2]
B. Mention two points of difference between: [4]
(i) An acidic oxide and a basic oxide. [2]
(ii) Diamond and graphite [2]

Question 5

A. Consider three substances: [5]

Lampblack, wood charcoal, coke

(i) What is the common element present in all the three? [1]
(ii) When steam is passed through wood charcoal, a mixture of gases is
[1]
formed. Write the balanced chemical equation involved.
(iii) Identify the substance that is used in printer ink. [1]
(iv) Which property of coke makes it useful in iron and steel production? [1]
(v) Why is wood charcoal used as an adsorbent? [1]

B. Name the following: [5]

(i) An electrovalent compound formed by transfer of one electron from a
metallic atom to a non-metallic atom. [1]
(ii) Process of random movement of colloidal particles. [1]

6
 (iii) The carbon compound used in soda acid fire extinguishers. [1]
(iv) A substance added to the catalyst to increase its efficiency. [1]
(v) A superior type of coal which burns with non-smoky flame. [1]

Question 6

A. Write balanced equations for each of the following reactions: [5]

(i) Preparation of carbon dioxide by action of dilute hydrochloric acid on
[1]
calcium carbonate.
(ii) Reaction of iron with steam. [1]
(iii) Formation of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen gases. [1]
(iv) Passage of carbon dioxide through lime water resulting in formation of an
[1]
insoluble compound.
(v) Reaction of sulphur trioxide with water.

A metal ‘X’ revolves on the surface of water and burns with a golden
B. [5]
yellow flame and results in the formation of an alkali ‘Y’.
(i) Name the metal ‘X’. [1]
(ii) Name the alkali ‘Y’. [1]
(iii) Give balanced equation for the reaction between metal ‘X’ and water to
[1]
give ‘Y’.
(iv) What type of reaction is this- Exothermic or Endothermic? [1]
(v) Is solid alkali ‘Y’ an efflorescent or deliquescent substance? [1]

Question 7
The figure given below represents the arrangement of the apparatus for
A. [5]
the preparation of carbon monoxide gas, using liquids ‘X’ and ‘Y’.

7
 (i) If liquid ‘X’ is concentrated sulphuric acid, name ‘Y’. Also give equation of
[2]
reaction between ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
(ii) Name the solution ‘Z’ and mention it’s function in this process. [2]
(iii) Why is carbon monoxide gas collected by downward displacement of
[1]
water?

B. Define covalent compound. Give one suitable example. [2]

C. The representation below shows the outline formation of a compound: [3]

X Y [ X 1+ Y 1- ]

If the atomic number of element ‘X’ is 11 and of element ‘Y’ is 17:

(i) What type of bond is formed between ‘X’ and ‘Y’? [1]
(ii) Does ‘Y1-‘ have a stable or an unstable electronic configuration? [1]
(iii) State why an electron is transferred from ‘X’ to ‘Y’ during the formation of
[1]
‘XY’?
*****

8
 Review No:4 / AY 2020-21
Centre Code & Name: VH!0202 NIBM Board & Grade: CISCE_GRADE 8

Subject: Computer Max. Marks: 40

Date: 25/02/2021 Units: Introduction to Python, Max. Time: 1 hour 30 mins

Advanced Features in Python
(only operators), Networks

INSTRUCTIONS:

• The intended marks for the questions or parts of questions are given
alongside the questions.
• All the questions given in Section A are compulsory.
• Attempt any two questions from Section B.
• The question paper contains 3 pages.

SECTION A
All questions are compulsory

Question 1 Fill in the blanks: [5]

a A ............................... is the smallest individual unit of a program.

b ............................... are the symbols used to perform computation on

the operands.
c ..............................operators are used to compare two values or
expressions.
d In a ............................... topology, the computers and other devices
are connected to a single cable.

e ……………………. …………………refers to the layout of a computer

network that specifies how a computer network is configured to
facilitate information exchange and resource sharing.

1
Question 2 Name the following: [5]

a A private computer network owned by a company or an organisation

and is accessible only to its employees.
b A networking device used for interconnecting two or more networks.

c The operator that gives the remainder on dividing the two operands.

d The non-executable statements that are used in a program to

increase its readability.
e The identifiers whose values do not change during program
execution.

Question 3 State whether the following statements are True or False [5]

a Python is a case-sensitive language.

b In Python, strings are represented by single quotes only.

c
The unary plus (+) operator has higher precedence than the
exponentiation (**) operator.

d Wi-Fi stands for Wireless Federation.

e Ethernet cable is used to connect two devices in a network.

Question 4 Define the following [5]

a Computer network

b Arithmetic operators

c Modem

d Set

e List

2
 SECTION B

Attempt any two question from Section B

Answer the following:

Question 5 [10]

a Define network architecture. What are the two major types of [3]
network architectures?
b Differentiate between logical AND and logical OR operators. [2]

c Write a Python program to input the length and breadth of a [5]

rectangle and then print its perimeter and area. Add single-line
comment in the beginning of the program.
[ Hint: Perimeter= 2*( Length + Breadth) Area= Length * Breadth ]
[10]
Question 6 Answer the following:

a Explain the 5 important features of the Python language. [5]

b Define network topology. Briefly describe any 3 different types of [5]
topologies.

Answer the following: [10]

Question 7
a List any two types of sequence data type available in Python and [5]
discuss 3 data types used to store numeric values in Python.

b How computer networks are categorized? Explain about three [5]

different types of computer networks.

*****

3
 VIBGYOR HIGH
Second Term Examination

2019-20

English Language

Grade: VIII Max. Marks: 80

Date: dd/mm/yyyy Time Allowed: 2 hours

__________________________________________________________________________________

INSTRUCTIONS:

• Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.

• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing
the answers.
• The intended marks for the questions or parts of questions are given
alongside the questions.
• Attempt all five questions.
• This paper consists of seven printed pages.

Question 1 (Do not spend more than 30 minutes on this question.) [20]
Write a composition (300-350 words) on any one of the
following:
(a) While taking a stroll one evening, you came across an open drain

1
 and heard the desperate cry of a little boy. Describe how you went
about rescuing the little child.
(b) As a part of your school project, you had spent a day with the slum
children near your school/near your building. Narrate your
experience of the same.
(c) Write an original story that begins with the words "I have had
enough. I refuse to……”
(d) ‘History bears testimony to the fact that women are as brave as
men’. Express your views for or against the given statement.
(e) Study the picture given below. Write a short story or a description or
an account of what it suggests to you. Your composition may be
about the subject of the picture or you may take suggestions from it;
however, there must be a clear connection between the picture and
your composition.

Question 2 (Do not spend more than 20 minutes on this question.) [10]
Select any one of the following:
(a) For the first time in your life, you have been on a Ferris wheel. Write
a letter to your friend sharing your experience.

2
 (b) Post Diwali, there has been an increase in the level of air pollution in
your city. Write a letter to the Municipal Commissioner expressing
your concern about the same.

Question 3 [10]
(a) Draft a notice to be displayed on your school notice board informing
students about the school carnival to be held in the school campus.
(b) Your school is going to organise an Inter-School Singing
competition. Draft a notice for your school notice board inviting
names of all the interested students.

Question 4 Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions [20]
that follow:
The boy was idling in the market place on the lookout for mischief.
All at once he saw it beckoning him. Workmen had been slating the
church spire and their ladders stretched invitingly from earth to
steeple.
All children like scrambling up to high places to see if the world looks
any different from an apple tree or a stable loft. Over and above his
love for climbing, Michael had a longing to do things that had never
been done before. As he gazed at the spire, crowned by a golden
ball and weather-vane, an idea crept into his mind. He would be the
first person in Flushing to stand on the golden ball beneath the
weather- vane.
He glanced around. No one was looking. Michael began to climb up
the ladder. At the top of the tower there rose a slated spire crowned
by a golden ball and weather-vane. At last Michael found himself
squatting on top of the ball, holding on to the vane.
He heard workmen moving below. He did not peer over or speak. He
was not going to be hauled down before Flushing had seen him.

3
The voices died away and Michael sat resting.
Someone must have cast a casual glance up at the vane and seeing
his little figure, cried out. In a minute or two Michael was delighted to
see the market place full of people who had rushed out of their
shops and houses to gaze at the dizzy sight. It was splendid to have
all those eyes and hearts glued upon you!
But Michael did not intend to stay there until he was fetched down, to
be handed over to his father and cuffed before the crowd. After a
while he prepared to descend of his own free will.
He leaned over the ball. The ladder had gone. The workmen had
taken it away! A sudden feeling of sickness and giddiness came over
Michael, which he got under control. To wait for rescue was a
humiliating end to his escapade. He would come down alone, even if
it cost him his life.
The spire at the base of the ball was only half slated and Michael
saw some hope of gaining a foothold on the old part. He clasped his
arms round the top of the ball and let his body swing down. He was
just able to feel the first slate with his toes. Michael kicked with his
armored toes till the slate crashed and fell in. He then got a foothold
on the wooden laths beneath.
He rested for a minute, with aching arms and a stiff body. He must
change his grip on the ball, which was too big for him to slide his
arms down. He must get clear of it, and somehow grasp the spire
beneath. One false move and he would be hurled to death on the
cobbles below.
Slowly, he began to slide his hands together at the top of the ball
and then downward over its bulging face. Every inch was packed
with peril. Every inch pushed him backward towards death. It
seemed to him that he would be too weak to hold on when the time
came for him to grasp the spire.

4
 But at last, the steady deadly creeping of his fingers brought him to a
point where he could bend forward. With a sudden snatch he caught
the base of the ball.
The next moment he was kicking out a stairway in the old tiles and
swarming swiftly down. He reached the foot of the spire, lifted the
trapdoor of the tower, ran down the steps and was caught by his
father in the organ loft.

(a) Give the meaning of the following words as used in the [3]
passage:
(i) beckoning
(ii) gazed
(iii) hauled

(b) Answer the following questions briefly in your own words: [9]
(i) What was Michael doing in the market place? What attracted his [2]
attention then?
(ii) What did Michael long to do? What did he plan to do to accomplish [2]
this?
(iii) Which sight filled Michael’s heart with delight? [2]
(iv) What came over Michael when he realised that the ladder had [2]
disappeared? Why?
(v) Which sentence in the passage means ‘a wrong step and that would [1]
be his end’?
(c) In not more than 50 words of your own, trace Michael’s [8]
descent from the top of the ball to the foot of the spire.

Question 5
(a) Fill in each of the numbered blanks with the correct form of the [4]
word given in brackets. Do not copy the passage, but write in

5
 correct serial order the word or phrase appropriate to the blank
space.
Example: (0)heard
Suddenly the clang of arms was (0) _____ (hear). The ladies rushed
(1) ___ (secure) the door of the room, but alas! The bolts and bars
had gone and only the empty staples remained. Meanwhile King
James seized the tongs and (2) _____ (tear) up a board in the floor
to let himself down into a vault below. But before there was time to
replace the board, the murderers came rushing along. Then
Catherine Douglas, one of the Queen’s ladies, (3) ____ (fly) to the
door and thrust her arm through the empty staples, thus (4) ____
(gain) time to allow her sovereign to escape. The brave arm was but
a frail bar and was soon (5) ____ (break) and the traitors burst into
the room to find no signs of King James.
Sadly the King was unable to get out of the vault. The ladies then
made ropes of sheets and (6) _____ (try) to pull him up but the noise
(7) ____ (hear) by the ruffians. They again rushed into the room and
the unfortunate monarch was (8) _____ (murder).

(b) Fill in each blank with an appropriate word: [4]

(i) The car crashed ____ a wall.
(ii) We are hoping ___ a revision in salary.
(iii) The company has taken _____ a number of small firms.
(iv) I came _____ a good article in a magazine.
(v) The girl takes ___ her mother.
(vi) I ran ____ George yesterday.
(vii) They admire him ___ his courage.
(viii) Julie aimed the gun ___ the target.

(c) Join the following sentences to make one complete sentence [4]

6
 without using ‘and’, ‘but’ or ‘so’.
(i) Mona had been ill for a month. She stood first in the examination.
(ii) Ishita is very happy. It is obvious.
(iii) Some students stay on the side walk. Some students cut across the
grass.
(iv) I have seen many cruel acts. This was the most cruel act I have ever
seen.

(d) Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions [8]

given after each. Make other changes that may be necessary,
but do not change the meaning of each sentence.
(i) The people were cheering the patriot. (Begin: The patriot…….)
(ii) Blood is thicker than water. (Change into an interrogative sentence)
(iii) As soon as we received your message, we heaved a sigh of relief.
(Begin: No sooner…..)
(iv) He is too fickle minded to be trusted. (Rewrite without using too)
(v) She is the girl with blue eyes. (Add a question tag)
(vi) The cow is one of the most useful animals. (Begin: Very few….)
(vii) The old man said to the police, “Please show me the way to the
temple.” (Change the speech)
(viii) Though Rima got an expensive gift, she was not happy. (Begin:
Despite…)
*****

7
 VIBGYOR HIGH
Second Term Examination
SAMPLE PAPER
ENGLISH LITERATURE
Grade: VIII Max. Marks: 80
Date: DD/MM/YYYY Time Allowed: 2 hours

INSTRUCTIONS:

• Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.

• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the
answers.
• The intended marks for the questions or parts of questions are given alongside
the questions.
• Attempt any five questions in all. You must attempt at least one question from
each of the Sections A, B and C and two other questions.
• This paper contains 5 printed pages.

SECTION – A
(DRAMA- A Midsummer Night’s Dream - Shakespeare)

Q.1 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [16]
You do advance your cunning more and more.
When truth kills truth, O devilish holy fray!
These vows are Hermia’s. Will you give her o'er?

a Where are the four lovers? Why is Helena upset? [3]

b What is the kind of relationship between Lysander and Demetrius? [3]
c Discuss the theme of Reality versus Dreams in the play. [3]

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 d What is dramatic Irony? Comment on the use of dramatic irony in the scene. [3]
e This scene is the climax of the play. Explain with the help of story mountain [4]
the progress of events.

Q2 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [16]
Monsieur Cobweb, good monsieur, get you your weapons in your hand and
kill me a red-hipped humble-bee on the top of a thistle. And, good monsieur,
bring me the honey bag.

a Who is the speaker? Where is he? [3]

b Is Bottom the actual protagonist of the play? Justify your answer. [3]
c How does the Theme ‘Dream’ play a pivotal role in taking the play forward? [3]
d What does Theseus decide to do about the four Athenian lovers? [3]
e What was the speaker’s most rare vision/dream? Elaborate. [4]

Q3 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [16]
THESEUS
I wonder if the lion be to speak.
DEMETRIUS
No wonder, my lord. One lion may when many asses do.
a What are Theseus and Demetrius discussing? Where are they? [3]
b How are the people of Athens celebrating the wedding of Theseus and [3]
Hippolyta?
c What does Philocrats tell Theseus about the play that the craftsmen are [3]
going to present?
d Why does Theseus wish to see the play by the craftsmen? How does [3]
Hippolyta react to the play?
e Is the ending of the play justified? Could there be another end to the play? [4]
What would you suggest?

SECTION-B
(POETRY)

Q4 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [16]

2
 And on the pedestal these words appear:
‘My name is Ozymandias, King of Kings;
Look on my works, Ye mighty and despair!”
a Where is the traveler and what did he see there? [3]
b Describing the ‘visage’, state what it reveals of the sculptor and the ruler. [3]
c Discuss any one theme of the poem in detail. [3]
d What message does the poem convey? [3]
e Why is the inscription on the pedestal ironic? [4]

Q5 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [16]
No head from the leaf-fringed sill
Leaned over and looked into his grey eyes,
Where he stood perplexed and still.
But only a host of phantom listeners
That dwelt in the lone house then
Stood listening in the quiet of the moonlight
To that voice from the world of men:

a Name the poet of the above lines. Identify two words used from the given
[3]
lines that give the poem an eerie atmosphere.
b What is the significance of the above lines? [3]
c Provide evidence from the poem to prove that the traveler was impatient,
[3]
perplexed and lonely.
d Explain the theme of the poem. [3]
e Whose voice from the world of men is referred to here? Where has he come
[4]
to and why?

Q6 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [16]
“My Captain does not answer, his lips are pale and still,
My father does not feel my arm, he has no pulse nor will,
The ship is anchor’d safe and sound, its voyage closed and done,
From fearful trip the victor ship comes in with object won;”
a Name and explain the style of the poem. What is everyone celebrating? [3]
b Who is the captain referred to in the above extract and what does the ship [3]

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 represent? What does the ‘object won’ represent?

c What is the rhyme scheme of the poem? What does the poet immortalize [3]
through the expression “O Captain! My Captain!”?
d Why does the captain not answer? Why was the trip fearful? What did the [3]
captain contribute towards his nation?
e ‘The context of the poem raises the bar.’ Do you agree? Discuss with [4]
reference to the poem.

SECTION – C
(PROSE)

Q7 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [16]
His wife looked at his astonished and panic- stricken face and realized that
he was not joking.
"9499?" she asked, turning pale and dropping the folded tablecloth on the
table.
“Yes, yes…it really is there!’’
(The Lottery Ticket-Anton Chekov)
a Where are Ivan and Masha? What did Ivan’s wife want him to check in [3]
newspaper? Why was the number 9499 important?
b What was Ivan’s initial reaction to the thought that they may have won the [3]
ticket? What plans did Ivan make to utilize the prize money?
c Describe the happy visions of summer time that crowded Ivan’s mind. [3]
Mention any two themes depicted in the prose.
d When Ivan planned to go abroad, where did he want to go? What kind of [3]
thoughts emerged in his mind about his wife? What had brought up this
vision?
e What happened at the end of the story? Which aspects of human nature [4]
does this story highlight? What lesson does the story convey to its readers?

Q8 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [16]
“Go away,” she said, to the Baroness, “I am not lonely anymore, I am one of
a great old family…”
“I think she is dying,” said the Baroness when she had rejoined her guests.
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 “I suppose we must send for a doctor….”

a Mention the story and the author of the above extract. Whom was she [3]
addressing?
b Give an account of the events that followed sequentially when Amalie was [3]
about to die.
c Describe any two themes as depicted in the story. Give relevant examples [3]
for the same.
d Describe the character traits of the Baroness and Amalie (Governess). [3]
e What does the newspaper notice, at the end of the story, imply? How has
[4]
the author commented on the shallowness of the upper-class society?

Q9 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [16]
“Can you feed me?” I asked. “Can you cook?” he countered. “I can
cook,” I lied. “If you can cook,” he said, “I’ll feed you.”
(The Thief - Ruskin Bond)

a Where did Arun take him? What happened that night? How did Arun react? [4]
b Do you think that the title of the story is appropriate? Justify your answer [4]
with relevant examples.
c What was the narrator’s idea about robbing a greedy, a rich and a poor [8]
man? What, according to the narrator, is a child’s play?
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