Guide complet sur les tests et évaluations
Guide complet sur les tests et évaluations
F ull S y ll ab us
d d
B B
rks &
dksbZ ugha
fXyljhu dk vk;ru çlkj xq.kkad gSA
rki esa dh o`f) gksus ij ?kuRo esa fHkUukRed
ifjorZu gS
'kwU;
rFkk v'kqf)
fefJr gS
v'kqf) fefJr gS
rFkk
rFkk
rFkk
rFkk
vk;fur gkbMªkstu ijek.kq vkSj leku laosx okys −
d.k ,d fLFkj pqacdh; {ks= ds yacor ços'k djrs
gSaA muds iFkksa dh f=T;kvksa dk vuqikr gksxk
/kkfjrk cjkcj gS
buesa ls dksbZ ugha
,d la/kkfj= dks dh cSVjh ls tksM+k
x;k gS] vc ge cSVjh dks gVkrs gSa vkSj ,d vU;
leku la/kkfj= dks ml vkosf'kr la/kkfj= ls tksM+rs gSaA
bl iwjh çfØ;k esa fdruh ÅtkZ u"V gksrh gS
ck;ha vksj
vuUr
nka;h vksj
nka;h vksj
46. dFku (I) : ν ¼v ¾ mRlftZr ,Dl&js dh vko`fÙk½ 46. Statement (I) : A plot of ν (v =
(2) dFku&I vkSj dFku& II nksuksa lR; gSaA (2) Both Statement I and Statement II
are true
(3) dFku&I vkSj dFku& II nksuksa vlR; gSaA (3) Both Statement I and Statement II
are false
(4) dFku&I vlR; gS ysfdu dFku&II lR; gSA
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II
is true
47. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk fo|qr_.kkRedrk Øe 47. Which of the following electronegativity
xyr gS\ order is incorrect?
(1) Al < Mg < B < N
(1) Al < Mg < B < N
(2) Al < Si < C < N
(2) Al < Si < C < N
(3) Mg < Be < B < N
(3) Mg < Be < B < N
(4) S < Cl < O < F
(4) S < Cl < O < F
15
48. fuEufyf[kr ;kSfxdksa dks muds f}/kzoq vk?kw.kZ ds c<+rs 48. Arrange the following compounds in
Øe esa O;ofLFkr djsAa increasing order of their dipole moment:
HBr, H2S, NF3 and CHCl3 HBr, H2S, NF3 and CHCl3
(1) NF3 < HBr < H2S < CHCl3 (1) NF3 < HBr < H2S < CHCl3
(2) HBr < H2S < NF3 < CHCl3 (2) HBr < H2S < NF3 < CHCl3
(3) H2S < HBr < NF3 < CHCl3 (3) H2S < HBr < NF3 < CHCl3
(4) CHCl3 < NF3 < HBr < H2S (4) CHCl3 < NF3 < HBr < H2S
49. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ;qXe lelajpukRed gS\ 49. Which of the following pair of species are
isostructural?
(1) BCl3, PCl3 (2) CH4, NH+4
(1) BCl3, PCl3 (2) CH4, NH+4
(3) SF4, CH4 (4) PCl3, ICl3 (3) SF4, CH4 (4) PCl3, ICl3
50. H2O, NH3 vkSj CH4 ds laca/k esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls 50. Which of the following statement is true
dkSu lk dFku lR; gS\ with respect to H2O, NH3 and CH4?
A. lHkh v.kqvksa ds dsUæh; ijek.kq sp ladfjr gksrs
3 A. The central atoms of all the
gSaA molecules are sp hybridized.
3
B. mijksä v.kqvksa esa H–O–H, H–N–H vkSj B. The H–O–H, H–N–H and H–C–H
angles in the above molecules are
H–C–H dks.k Øe'k% 104.5°, 107.5° vkSj
104.5°, 107.5° and 109.5° respectively.
109.5° gSaA
C. The increasing order of dipole
C. f}/kwo
z vk?kw.kZ dk c<+rk Øe CH4 < NH3 < H2O
moment is CH4 < NH3 < H2O.
gSA
D. Both H2O and NH3 are Lewis acids and
D. H2O और NH3 दोनों लुईस अम्ल हैं और CH4 एक
CH4 is a Lewis base
लुईस �ार है E. A solution of NH3 in H2O is basic. In
E. H2O esa NH3 dk foy;u {kkjh; gksrk gSA bl this solution NH3 and H2O act as
foy;u esa NH3 vkSj H2O Øe'k% yksjh&czksaLVsM Lowry-Bronsted acid and base
vEy vkSj {kkj ds :i esa dk;Z djrs gSaA respectively.
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mÙkj pqusa% Choose the correct answer from the
(1) dsoy A, B vkSj C options given below:
16
51. fuEufyf[kr esa ls Hkwjs jax dk vEyh; v‚DlkbM dkSu 51. Brown colour acidic oxide among the
lk gS\ following is:
(1) N2O (2) NO2 (1) N2O (2) NO2
(3) N2O3 (4) N2O5 (3) N2O3 (4) N2O5
52. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lslfDov‚DlkbM cuk ldrk 52. Which of the following can form a
gS\ sesquioxide?
(1) Na (2) B (1) Na (2) B
(3) F (4) H (3) F (4) H
53. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku xyr gS\ 53. Which of the following statements is
incorrect?
(1) LisDVªksjklk;fud Js.kh fyxS.Mks dks muds {ks=h; (1) Spectrochemical series arranges
lkEHk;Z ds vk/kkj ij Øec) djrh gSA ligands based on their field strength.
(2) Strong field ligands form high spin
(2) izcy {ks= fyxS.M~l mPp pØ.k ladqy cukrs gSA
complexes.
(3) nqcZy {ks= fyxS.M~l mPp pØ.k ladqy cukrs gSA (3) Weak field ligands form high spin
complexes.
(4) fØLVy {ks= foikVu ds dkj.k d-d{kdksa dk (4) d-orbitals split due to crystal field
foikVu gksrk gSA splitting
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-V, E-IV (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-V, E-IV
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV, E-V (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV, E-V
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-V, E-IV (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-V, E-IV
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II, E-V (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II, E-V
17
55. AgCI ds vo{ksi.k ds vk/kkj ij PdCl2.4NH3 esa /kkrq 55. Based on AgCI precipitation, what is the
56. Zn, Cd, vkSj Hg dh ok"I'khyrk de D;ksa gksrh gS 56. Why do Zn, Cd, and Hg have low volatility
and are not regarded as transition
vkSj bUgsa laØe.k rRo D;ksa ugha ekuk tkrk?
elements?
(1) muds lHkh vkWDlhdj.k voLFkkvksa esa d-d{kd (1) They have completely filled
iwjh rjg ls Hkjs gksrs gSA d-orbitals in all oxidation states
(2) They have high melting and boiling
(2) muds xyukad vkSj DoFkukad mPp gksrs gSA
points
(3) muds ikl v;qfXer d-bysDVªkWu gksrs gSA (3) They have unpaired d-electrons
(4) os jaxhu ;kSfxd cukrs gSA (4) They form coloured compounds.
57. tc KMnO4 foy;u dks vkWDlSfyd vEy foy;u esa 57. When KMnO4 solution is added to oxalic
feyk;k tkrk gS rks izkjEHk esa bldk fojathdj.k /khek acid solution, the decolouration is slow in
gksrk gS] ijUrq dqN le; ckn ;g rkR{kf.kd gks tkrk the beginning but becomes
gS D;ksafd& instantaneous after some time because
(1) mRikn ds :i esa CO2 curh gSA (1) CO2 is formed as the product.
(2) vfHkfØ;k m"ek{ksih gSA (2) Reaction Is exothermic.
(3) MnO vfHkfØ;k dks mRizsfjr djrk gSA
−
4 (3) MnO4− catalyses the reaction.
(4) Mn2+ Lor% mRizjs d ds :i esa dk;Z djrk gSA (4) Mn2+ acts as auto catalyst.
ls ,sfDVukWbMksa ds 6d d{kd esa ,d bysDVªkWu gksrk gSA of the following actinoids have one
(i) U (ijek.kq la[;k 92) electron in 6d orbital?
(ii) Np (ijek.kq la[;k 93) (i) U (Atomic no. 92)
(iii) Pu (ijek.kq la[;k 94) (ii) Np (Atomic no. 93)
(iv) Am (ijek.kq la[;k 95) (iii) Pu (Atomic no. 94)
(iv) Am (Atomic no. 95)
(1) dsoy (i) rFkk (ii)
(2) (i), (ii) rFkk (iii) (1) Only (i) and (ii)
(2) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) rFkk (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(4) dsoy (ii) rFkk (iii)
(4) Only (ii) and (iii)
18
59. dFku (A): ysM ØksesV (PbCrO4) dk ihys jax dk 59. Assertion (A): Yellow-colored precipitate
vo{ksi xeZ lksfM;e gkbMªkWDlkbM foy;u eas of lead chromate (PbCrO4) is soluble in
?kqyu'khy gksrk gSA hot sodium hydroxide solution.
dkj.k (R): CrO vk;u xeZ lksfM;e gkbMªkWDlkbM
2− Reason (R): CrO24− ions react with hot
4
foy;u ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k djds Pb(OH)₂ cukrs gSA sodium hydroxide solution to form
Pb(OH)₂.
mijksDr dFkukas ds vk/kkj ij lgh mRrj dk p;u
In the light of the above statements,
djs:a
choose the most appropriate answer
(1) (A) vkSj (R) nksukas lgh gS vkSj (R), (A) dk lgh from the options given below:
Li"Vhdj.k gSA (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R)
(2) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gS ysfdu (R), (A) dk is the correct explanation of (A).
lgh Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSA (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is
(3) (A) lgh gS ysfdu (R) xyr gSA not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) xyr gS ysfdu (R) lgh gSA
(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
60. Br⁻ vk;uksa ds ijh{k.k ds fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu 60. Which of the following statements is/are
Hkwjk vo{ksi izkIr gksrk gSA bromide salt with AgNO₃ gives brown
precipitate.
(d) czkmu fjax VsLV Br⁻ vk;uksa ds fy, ,d fuf'pr
(d) Brown ring test is a confirmatory test
ijh{k.k gSA
for Br⁻ ions.
fodYi:
(1) dsoy a vkSj d Options:
19
61. vEyh; ek/;e esa KMnO4, vk;ksMkbM dks vk;ksMhu 61. In the acidic medium, KMnO4, oxidises
esa vkWDlhd`r dj nsrk gS bl vfHkfØ;k esa eSXuht dh iodide into Iodine. The change in
62. ,d vkn'kZ xSl ds izfrn’kZ ds fy, tc bldk rki 62. For a sample of perfect gas when its
T1 ls T2 esa lenkch; :i ls ifjofrZr gksrk gS rks temperature is changed isobarically from
,UVªkWih ifjorZu fn;k tk;sxk& T1 to T2, the entropy change is given by
T
T
(1) ∆S =nRln 2 (1) ∆S =
nRln 2
T1 T1
T T
(2) ∆S =nCV ln 2 (2) ∆S =
nCV ln 2
T1 T1
T T
(3) ∆S =nCP ln 2 (3) ∆S =
nCP ln 2
T1 T1
T T
(4) ∆S =nCPRln 2 (4) ∆S =
nCPRln 2
T1 T1
63. fuEu foy;uksa dks cuk;k x;k : 63. The following solutions were prepared by
250 ml ty esa 30g Xywdksl (C6H12O6) dks ?kksydj dissolving 30g of glucose (C6H12O6) in
(P1), 250 ml ty esa 10 g ;wfj;k (CH4N2O) dks 250ml of water (P1), 10g of urea (CH4N2O)
20
64. dFku A: lehdj.k ∆rG° = –nFE°cell, eas ∆rG° dk 64. Assertion A: In equation ∆rG° = –nFE°cell,
eku n ij fuHkZj djrk gSA value of ∆rG° depends on n.
dkj.k R: 1.1 V ekud lSy foHko okys Msfu;y lSy Reason R: For Daniel cell with standard
2.2F 2.2F
ds fy, n keq = − gSA cell potential 1.1 V, n keq = −
RT RT
(1) A rFkk R nksuks lR; gS rFkk R, A dh lgh O;k[;k (1) Both A and R are true and R is the
djrk gSA correct explanation of A
(2) A rFkk R nksuks lR; gS ijUrq R, A dh lgh (2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
O;k[;k ugh djrk gSA correct explanation of A
(3) A lR; gS rFkk R vlR; gSA (3) A is true but R is false
(4) A vlR; gS ijUrq R lR; gSA (4) A is false but R is true
o o o o
65. fn;k gS ECr 3+
/Cr
−0.72V,EFe
= 2+
/Fe
−0.42V.
= 65. Given ECr 3+
/Cr
−0.72V,EFe
= 2+
/Fe
−0.42V.
=
(2) 0.339 V
(2) 0.339 V
66. tc 100 ml 0.1 M CH3COOH vEy dks NaOH ls 66. When 100 ml 0.1 M CH3COOH acid
iw.kZr;k mnklhu fd;k tkrk gS] rks ifj.kkeh foy;u completely neutralise by NaOH. The
dk pH gksxk& resultant pH of formed solution is -
(1) 7 (1) 7
(2) < 7 (2) < 7
(3) > 7 (3) > 7
(4) dqN ugha dgk tk ldrk (4) Cannot say anything
21
67. dFku: dksfV ,oa vkf.odrk ,dleku gksrh gSaA 67. Assertion: Order and molecularity are same.
Reason: Order is determined
dkj.k: dksfV dk fu/kkZj.k iz;ksx }kjk gksrk gS rFkk
experimentally and molecularity is the
vkf.odrk osx fuèkkZjd izkFkfed pj.k esa sum of the stoichiometric coefficient of
rate determining elementary step.
jllehdj.kferh; xq.kkad dk ;ksx gksrh gSA
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct
(1) dFku vkSj dkj.k nksukas lgh gSa vkSj dkj.k dFku and the reason is correct explanation
(4) dFku xyr gS ijUrq dkj.k lgh gSA (4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is
correct.
68. dFku (A): fLFkj nkc vkSj fLFkj rki ij PCl5 ds 68. Assertion (A): In the dissociation of PCl5 at
fo;kstu esa lkE; ij ghfy;e feykus ls PCl5 ds constant pressure and temperature addition
fo;kstu esa o`f) gks tkrh gSA of helium at equilibrium increases the
dkj.k (R) : ghfy;e fØ;k&{ks= ls Dyksjhu dks gVk dissociation of PCl5.
nsrk gSA Reason (R) : Helium removes Cl2 from the
(1) A vkSj R nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj R,A dh lgh O;k[;k field of action.
djrk gS (1) Both A and R are true and R is correct
O;k[;k ugha djrk gSA (2) Both A and R are true but R is not
69. 0.5 eksyj 'kdZjk dk foy;u ds lkFk vkblksVksfud 69. 0.5 molar sugar solution is isotonic with
gS: (1) 1.0 molar glucose solution
(1) 1.0 eksyj Xywdkst foy;u
(2) 1.2 molar potassium chloride solution
(2) 1.2 eksyj iksVfs ’k;e DyksjkbM foy;u
(3) 0.5 molar urea solution
(3) 0.5 eksyj ;wfj;k foy;u
(4) 5% ;wfj;k foy;u (4) 5% urea solution
22
70. vfHkfØ;k M2O → 2M(s) + ½O2(g); ds fy, 70. For reaction M2O → 2M(s) + ½O2(g);
∆H = 30 KJ mol–1 rFkk ∆H = 30 KJ mol–1 and
∆S = 0.07 KJ K–1 mol–1 at 1 atm.
∆S = 0.07 KJ K–1 mol–1 gSA fdl rkieku ij ;g
At what temperature the reaction would
vfHkfØ;k Lor% ugha gksxhA
not be spontaneous.
(1) 429.5 K (2) 475 K (1) 429.5 K (2) 475 K
(3) 857 K (4) 400 K (3) 857 K (4) 400 K
23
73. vR;fèkd lkafær H2SO4 foy;u ds fo|qr vi?kVu 73. During the electrolysis of highly
74. He+ ds fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr 74. Which of the following is false statement
(1) bysDVªkWu dh xfrt ÅtkZ ?kVrh gS tcfd (1) K.E. of electron decrease, whereas
the potential energy increases as the
fLFkfrt ÅtkZ n ds eku esa o`f) ds lkFk c<+rh
value of n increase.
gSA
(2) Energy gap between the consecutive
(2) yxkrkj ÅtkZ d{kdksa ds chp dk varj n ds eku
energy orbits decrease as the value of
esa o`f) ds lkFk ?kVrk gSA
n increase.
(3) Velocity of electron decreases,
(3) N-dks’k ls L-dks’k esa tkus ij bysDVªkWu dk osx
moving from ‘N–shell’ to ‘L–shell;
?kVrk gSA
(4) The number of waves made by
(4) bysDVªkWuksa }kjk fufeZr rjaxks dh la[;k n esa o`f)
electron increase with increase in ‘n’
ds lkFk c<+rh gSA
75. fuEufyf[kr feJ.kksa esa ls dkSulk cQj dh rjg 75. Which of the following mixtures can act
O;ogkj djrk gS? as a buffer ?
(i) HCl + CH3COONa (1 : 2 eksyj vuqikr) (i) HCl + CH3COONa (1 : 2 molar ratio)
(ii) CH3COOH + NaOH (2 : 1 eksyj vuqikr) (ii) CH3COOH + NaOH (2 : 1 molar ratio)
(iii) CH3COOH + NaOH (3 : 1 eksyj vuqikr) (iii) CH3COOH + NaOH (3 : 1 molar ratio)
(iv) CH3COOH + NaOH (1 : 1 eksyj vuqikr) (iv) CH3COOH + NaOH (1 : 1 molar ratio)
(1) (i) rFkk (ii) fdUrq (iii) rFkk (iv) ugha (1) (i) and (ii) but not (iii) and (iv)
(2) (ii) rFkk (iii) fdUrq (i) rFkk (iii) ugha (2) (ii) and (iii) but not (i) and (iii)
(3) (ii) rFkk (i) fdUrq (i) rFkk (iv) ugha (3) (ii) and (i) but not (i) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii) rFkk (iii) fdUrq (iv) ugha (4) (i), (ii) and (iii) but not (iv)
24
76. fuEufyf[kr ijh{k.kksa vkSj voyksdu ds vk/kkj ij 76. The structure of compound ‘X’ (C8H11NO)
;kSfxd ‘X’ (C8H11NO) dh lajpuk gS% based on the following tests and
77. vkblksgsDlsu ds eksuksDyksjhuhdj.k ij çkIr laoS/kkfud 77. Number of constitutionally different alkyl
(3) 6 (4) 3
X OEt X OEt
NaOEt NaOEt
78. 78.
Y Y Y Y
vfHkfØ;k dh nj vf/kd rhoz ns[kh tkrh gS ;fn% Faster rate of reaction is observed if.
(1) X = I & Y = NO2 (1) X = I & Y = NO2
(2) X = Cl & Y = OCH3 (2) X = Cl & Y = OCH3
(3) X = Br & Y = OCH3 (3) X = Br & Y = OCH3
25
79. fuEufyf[kr esa ls] mPpre vkSj fuEure DoFkukad 79. Among the following, the compounds
okys ;kSfxd Øe'k% gSa% with highest and lowest boiling points
respectively are:
80. VkyqbZu ds czksehuhdj.k esa fufeZr çeq[k e/;orhZ dks 80. The structure that represents the major
of toluene is:
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
26
81. 2,4&MkbfuVªksQsfuygkbMªsftu (2,4-DNP) ds lkFk 81. An organic compound on reaction with 2,4-
vfHkfØ;k djus ij ,d dkcZfud ;kSfxd ,d ihyk dinitrophenylhydrazine (2,4-DNP) gives a
vo{ksi nsrk gSA ;g veksfud`r AgNO3 ds lkFk yellow precipitate. It also gives silver mirror
vfHkfØ;k djus ij flYoj niZ.k Hkh nsrk gSA ;g lkaæ on reaction with ammonical AgNO3. It gives
NaOH ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k djus ij ,d dkcksZfDlfyd
an alcohol and sodium salt of a carboxylic
vEy dk vYdksgy vkSj lksfM;e yo.k nsrk gSA {kkjh;
acid on reaction with concentrated NaOH. It
KMnO4 ds lkFk xeZ djus ij ;g
yields benzene-1,2- dicarboxylic acid on
csathu&1,2&MkbdkcksZfDlfyd vEy nsrk gSA
heating with alkaline KMnO4. The structure
fuEufyf[kr esa ls ;kSfxd dh lajpuk gS%
of the compound among the following is:
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
82. fuEufyf[kr dkcZ/kuk;uksa ds fy, fLFkjrk dk lgh Øe 82. The CORRECT order of stability for the
gS% following carbocations is:
⊕ ⊕
IV IV
(1) I < III < IV < II (1) I < III < IV < II
(2) II < III < IV < I (2) II < III < IV < I
(3) II < IV < III < I (3) II < IV < III < I
(4) IV < III < I < II (4) IV < III < I < II
27
83. 'kdZjk dks vipf;r djus okyk fØ;kRed lewg tks 83. The functional group(s) in reducing sugar
V‚ysu vfHkdeZd ds lkFk ldkjkRed ijh{k.k djrk that tests positive with Tollen's reagent
gS% is (are)
(A) ,fYMgkbM (B) fdVkWu (A) Aldehyde (B) Ketone
(C) gseh&,flVsy (D) ,flVsy (C) Hemi-acetal (D) Acetal
(E) gseh&dhVsy (F) dhVsy (E) Hemi-ketal (F) Ketal
(1) A & C (2) A, B and C
(1) A & C (2) A, B and C
(3) A, B, C & E (4) A, B, C, D & E
(3) A, B, C & E (4) A, B, C, D & E
84. fn, x, :ikarj.k ds fy, mi;qä vfHkdeZd gS% 84. Suitable reagent for the given conversion:
CH=O COOH CH=O COOH
OH OH OH OH
(1) CrO3Cl– (1) CrO3Cl–
N⊕ N⊕
| |
H H
85. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;kvksa esa ;kSfxd A rFkk B dh 85. Identify compounds A and B in the
igpku djsa% following reactions:
O Θ O
|| Θ
HgSO4 OH. PhCHO HgSO4 || OH. PhCHO
A C6H5–C–CH3 B (izeq[k) A C6H5–C–CH3 B (Major)
ruq H2SO4 20°C Dil H2SO4 20°C
(1) A. C6H5–CH=CH2 B. C6H5– CH –CH2– CH –C6H5 (1) A. C6H5–CH=CH2 B. C6H5– CH –CH2– CH –C6H5
| || | ||
OH O OH O
(2) A. C6H5–C≡CH B. C6H5– CH –CH2– CH –C6H5 (2) A. C6H5–C≡CH B. C6H5– CH –CH2– CH –
| || | ||
OH O OH O
(3) A. C6H5–C≡CH B. C6H5
C6H5 C–C6H5
||
O
(3) A. C6H5–C≡CH B.
C6H5 C–C6H5
||
O O
||
(4) A. C6H5–C≡CH B. C–C6H5 O
||
(4) A. C6H5–C≡CH B. C–C6H5
C6H5
C6H5
28
86. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk vYdksgy NaBH4 ds lkFk 86. Which of the following alcohol can not be
,fYMgkbM ;k dhVksu ds vip;u ls rS;kj ugha fd;k prepared by the reduction of aldehyde or
tk ldrk gS\
OH
ketone with NaBH4?
(1) (2) OH
(1) (2)
OH
OH
(3) (4)
OH
HO (3) (4)
OH
HO
Br
O Br
OH O OH
KOH O 1. Aq.KOH
87. NH X KOH O 1. Aq.KOH
2. H3O+ 87. NH X
2. H3O+
O
O
mijksDr vfHkfØ;k esa X gS:
OH X in the above reaction is:
OH
(1) || (2) OH OH
O || OH
O (1) || (2) OH
O ||
NH2 O
OH
(3) OH (4) NH2
|| Br O OH
O (3) OH (4)
|| Br O
O
88. 1. 2eq.NaH
88. 1. 2eq.NaH
HO COOH 2. 1eq CH3CH2–Br X HO COOH 2. 1eq CH3CH2–Br X
3. H3O+ 3. H3O+
X gS: X is:
(1)
HO COOH2CH3 (1)
HO COOH2CH3
(2)
HO COOH (2)
HO COOH
(3)
O COOH (3)
O COOH
(4)
HO COOH (4)
HO COOH
29
Hx Hx
CH3–CH=CH2 CH3–CH2–CH2–X CH3–CH=CH2 CH3–CH2–CH2–X
PhC–O–OC–Ph PhC–O–OC–Ph
89. O O
89. O O
NaI NaI
CH3–CH2–CH2–I+Nax CH3–CH2–CH2–I+Nax
Acetone Acetone
bl vfHkfØ;k esa cuus okyk Nax gS% Nax formed in this reaction is:
P. – + P. – +
Br+CH3ONa I. E2 Br+CH3ONa I. E2
R. – + R. – +
ONa+CH3–Br III. SN1 ONa+CH3–Br III. SN1
S. Heat S. Heat
Br+C2H5OH IV. E1 Br+C2H5OH IV. E1
30
Hkkx-C: tho foKku PART-C: BIOLOGY
91. Liksjksiksysfuu ds ckjs es fuEu es ls dkSulk dFku xyr 91. Which of the following statements about
gS% sporopollenin is wrong
(1) ,Dlkbu Liksjksiksysfuu dh cuh gksrh gSA (1) Exine is made up of sporopollenin
(2) Liksjksiksysfuu fdlh Kkr ,atkbe ls u"V ugh gksrs (2) Sporopollenin is not degraded by any
gSA known enzyme
(3) Liksjksiksysfuu dsoy tuu fNæ {ks= es gh ik;s (3) Sporopollenin occurs in the area of
tkrs gSA germ pores only
(4) Liksjksiksysfuu lcls vf/kd izfrjks/kh dkcZfud (4) Sporopollenin is most resistant
inkFkZ gS organic material
(1) çhLVys (2) C.V. uhy (1) Priestley (2) C.V. Niel
(3) Sachs (4) None of these
(3) lSpl~ (4) mijksDr dksbZ ugha
93. vlR; dFku dk p;u djsa & 93. Select the wrong statement
(1) tc 'olu esa VªkbikekfVu dk mi;ksx ,d (1) When tripalmitin is used as a
fØ;kèkkj dh rjg djrs gSa rc bldk 'olu substrate in respiration, the RQ is 0.7.
xq.kkad 0.7 gksrk gS (2) One glucose molecule yields a net
gain of 2 ATP molecules during
(2) fd.ou ds le; ,d v.kq Xywdkst ls 'kq) nks
fermentation.
ATP v.kqvksa dk ykHk gksrk gS
(3) The intermediate compound which
(3) Xykbdksfyfll vkSj ØsCl pØ ds chp e/;LFk links glycolysis with Kreb’s cycle is
;kSfxd eSfyd vEy gksrk gS malic acid.
(4) vkDlh'olu ds le; ,d v.kq Xywdkst ls 'kq) (4) One glucose molecule yields a net
38 ATP vq.kvksa dk ykHk gksrk gS gain of 38 ATP molecules during
aerobic respiration
94. ewyxksi ls dqN fefyehVj Åij tM+ks dk og {ks= tks 94. The region of root few millimetres above
iryh fHkfÙk;ksa rFkk l?ku dksf’kdknzO; lfgr cgqr the root cap possessing very small cells
with thin walls and dense protoplasm is
lw{e dksf’dkvkssa ;qDr gksrk gS] og gS
(1) Root hair zone
(1) ewyjkse {ks=
(2) Region of elongation
(2) nh?khZdj.k {ks=
(3) Region of meristems
(3) foHkT;ksÙkdks dk {ks=
(4) Region of maturation
(4) ifjiDou {ks=
95. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlus iqf"V dh fd vf/kd çtkfr;ksa 95. Which of the following confirmed that
okys leqnk; de çtkfr;ksa okys leqnk;ksa dh rqyuk esa communities with more species tend to
be more stable than those with less
vf/kd fLFkj gksrs gSa\
species?
(1) vysDtsM
a j o‚u gEcksYV
(1) Alexander von Humboldt
(2) MsfoM fVyeSu
(2) David Tilman
(3) i‚y ,fyZp (3) Paul Ehrlich
(4) ,MoMZ foYlu (4) Edward Wilson
31
96. fuEufyf[kr feykuksa ij fopkj djsa vkSj xyr feyku 96. Consider the following matches and
dh igpku djsAa identify the incorrect match.
(1) ckáijthfo&ekuo 'kjhj dh tw¡ (1) Ectoparasites–Human body lice
(2) var%ijthfo&vfj=ikn (2) Endoparasites–Copepods
(3) Parasitism–Cuscuta
(3) ijthfork&dqLdqVk
(4) Brood parasitism–Cuckoo and Crow
(4) v.M ijthfork ¼czwM iSjkflfVTe½&dks;y rFkk dkSvk
97. uhps nks dFku fn;s x;s gS% ,d dFku (A) gS vkSj nwljk 97. Given below are two statements; one is
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
dkj.k (R) gSA labelled as Reason (R).
dFku (A) : vuko`Ùkchth fo"kechtk.kqd gksrs gSA Assertion (A) : The gymnosperms are
heterosporous.
dkj.k (R) : vuko`Ùkchth ikni nks fHkUu çdkj ds chtk.kqvksa Reason (R) : Gymnosperrms produce two
dk mRiknu djrs gS] xq:chtk.kq ,oa y?kqchtk.kqA kind of spores, macro (large) and micro
(small) spores.
uhps fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lgh mÙkj pqfu, :
Correct answer from the options given
(1) A vkSj R nksuksa lR; gS ijUrq R, A dh lgh O;k[;k below:
(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the
ugha gSA
correct explanation of A.
(2) A lR; ijUrq R vlR; gS (2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A vlR; ijUrq R lR; gS (3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the
(4) A vkSj R nksuksa lR; gS R, A dh lgh O;k[;k gSA
correct explanation of A.
98. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku eSFksukstsu ds fy, lgh 98. Which of the following statements is not
ugha gS? correct for methanogens?
(1) os vk| cSDVhfj;k gSaA (1) They are archaebacteria.
(2) They live in marshy areas.
(2) os nynyh {ks=ksa esa jgrs gSaA
(3) They are responsible for the
(3) os tUrqvksa ds xkscj ls feFksu ¼ck;ksxSl½ ds mRiknu ds
production of methane (biogas) from
fy, mÙkjnk;h gSaA
the dung of animals.
(4) os lHkh tkuojksa dh vkar esa ekStwn gksrs gSaA
(4) They are present in the guts of all
animals.
99. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu lR; fodYi gS - 99. Which of the following is correct
100. vi?kVu ds fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl pj.k esa lw{ethoksa 100. Which of the following steps of
dh fØ;k dh vko';drk ugha gksrh gS\ decomposition does not need action of
32
101. ,d fo'ks"k le; ij çR;sd iks"kh Lrj ij thfor inkFkZ 101. Each trophic level has a certain mass of
dk ,d [kkl ek=k gksrh gS ftls [kM+h Qly dgk living material at a particular time called as
tkrk gS] bls bl çdkj ekik tkrk gS & the standing crop, it is measured as the:
(1) ,d bdkbZ {ks= esa thfor thoksa dk æO;eku vkSj (1) mass of living organisms and used
energy in a unit area.
ç;qä ÅtkZA
(2) number of trophic level and mass of
(2) iks"kh Lrj dh la[;k vkSj futhZo lkexzh dk
non-living material.
æO;ekuA
(3) number and weight of the organic
(3) dkcZfud inkFkZ dh la[;k vkSj HkkjA
material.
(4) thfor thoksa dk æO;eku ;k ,d bdkbZ {ks= esa
(4) mass of living organism or the number
la[;kA in a unit area.
102. llhedsUædh esa thu vfHkO;fDr dk fu;eu dbZ Lrj 102. In eukaryotes, the regulation of gene
ij gks ldrk gS tSls :- expression could be exerted at :-
I. vuqy[ s ku Lrj I. Transcriptional level
103. DNA ds ,d [kaM esa ;fn nksuksa DNA jTtqdksa dk 103. If both strands of DNA in a given segment
vuqy[s ku gks tk, rks blls cuus okys RNA dSls of DNA are transcribed then the two RNA
gksx
a s? molecules formed will be :-
(1) Parallel and complementary
(1) lekukUrj o iwjd
(2) Parallel and identical
(2) lekukUrj o leku
(3) Antiparallel and complementary
(3) çfrlekukUrj o iwjd
(4) Antiparallel and identical
(4) çfrlekukUrj o leku
104. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS\a 104. Which one is incorrect statement?
(1) Protista have photosynthetic and
(1) çksfVLVk esa iks"k.k çdk'k la'ys"kh vkSj fo"keiks"kh çdkj
heterotrophic modes of nutrition.
gksrs gSaA
(2) Some fungi are edible.
(2) dqN dod [kk| ;ksX; gksrs gSaA
(3) Nuclear membrane is present in
(3) dsUæd f>Yyh txr eksusjk esa mifLFkr gksrh gSA
kingdom Monera.
(4) ,fuesfy;k esa dksf'kdk fHkfÙk vuqifLFkr gksrh gSA
(4) Cell wall is absent in Animalia.
105. th;k est dh caMy'khFk dksf'kdkvksa ds fo"k; esa D;k 105. What is not true about bundle sheath
lR; ugha gS : cells of Zea maize :
(1) muesa vla[; gfjryod gksrs gSaA (1) They have numerous chloroplast
(2) varjk dks'khdh; LFkku vuqifLFkr gksrs gSaA (2) Intercellular spaces absent
(3) mudh fHkfRr;k¡ xSl folj.k ds fy, vikjxE; (3) Their walls are not impervious to
ugha gksrh gSA gaseous exchange
(4) mudh fHkfRr;k¡ eksVh gksrh gSAa (4) Their walls are thick
33
106. PS II esa vfHkfØ;k dsUæ gksrk gS : 106. The reaction centre in PS II is :
(1) P500 (2) P680 (1) P500 (2) P680
(3) P780 (4) P400 (3) P780 (4) P400
107. nh?khZdj.k {ks= ds lanHkZ es xyr dFku dk p;u 107. Choose Incorrect statement with respect
fdft;s to the region of elongation
(1) dksf’kdk,¡ foHksfnr gksrh gS rFkk /khjs&/khjs ifjiDo (1) Cells differentiate and mature
gradually
gksrh gSA
(2) Situated proximal to meristematic
(2) foHkT;ksrdh {ks= ds fudV fLFkr gksrk gSA
zone
(3) tM+ks dh yackbZ esa o`f) ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gksrk gSA
(3) Responsible for root growth in length
(4) dksf’kdk,¡ l?ku dksf’kdknzO; ;qDr gksrh gS ijUrq
(4) Cells have dense cytoplasm but are
dsUnzh; rFkk fjfDrdk&foghu gksrh gS nucleated and non-vacuolated
108. o`{k vkSj ?kkl ds eSnku ds ikfjfLFkfrdh ra= ds fy,] 108. For Tree and grassland ecosystem,
tSoHkkj dk fijkfeM gS - pyramid of biomass is -
(1) lh/kk (1) Upright
(2) myVk (2) Inverted
(3) rdqZ vkdkj (3) Spindle shape
(4) lh/kk ;k mYVk gks ldrk gS (4) May upright or inverted
109. fn;s x;s fp=ksa dks igpkfu;s ,oa lgh feyku dk irk 109. Recognise the given figures and find out
yxkb;s : the correct match :
34
110. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gSa : 110. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Wind pollination is quite rare
dFku – I : ?kklksa esa ok;qijkx.k cgqr de gksrk gSaA in grasses
Statement II : Pollination by water is
dFku - II: iq"ih ikniksa esa ty }kjk ijkx.k cgqr
common in flowering plants
lkekU; gksrk gSA Choose the correct answer from the
option given below:
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mÙkj pqusa (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I correct but Statement II
is incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA
(3) Statement I is incorrect but
112. vk;q fijkfeM ds laca/k esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk /ls 112. Which among the following is/are correctly
113. lwph-I dks lwph-II ds lkFk lqesfyr dhft;s : 113. Match List-I with List-II :
lwp h -I lwp h -II List-I List-II
(A) ,fYtu (i) ikbul (A) Algin (i) Pinus
(B) ,xkj&,xkj (ii) ,DVksdkiZl (B) Agar-agar (ii) Ectocarpus
(C) (iii) lkbdl (C) Mycorrhiza (iii) Cycas
dod ewy
(D) Coralloid roots (iv) Gelidium
(D) çoky ewy (iv) tsfyfM;e
Choose the correct answer from the
Ukhps fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lgh mÙkj pqfu, :
options given below :
(1) (A)-(i); (B)-(iii); (C)-(iv); (D)-(ii)
(1) (A)-(i); (B)-(iii); (C)-(iv); (D)-(ii)
(2) (A)-(iv); (B)-(iii); (C)-(ii); (D)-(i)
(2) (A)-(iv); (B)-(iii); (C)-(ii); (D)-(i)
(3) (A)-(i); (B)-(ii); (C)-(iii); (D)-(iv)
(3) (A)-(i); (B)-(ii); (C)-(iii); (D)-(iv)
(4) (A)-(ii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(i); (D)-(iii)
(4) (A)-(ii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(i); (D)-(iii)
35
114. vlR; dFku dks vafdr dhft, - 114. Mark the incorrect statement -
(1) DNA çfrÑfrdj.k ds nkSjku] DNA ds nksuksa (1) During DNA replication, both strands
jTtqdksa dh çfrfyfi curh gSA of DNA are copied.
(2) vuqy[s ku ds nkSjku DNA dk ,d jTtqd m- (2) In transcription one of the DNA
strands is transcribed into m-RNA.
RNA esa vuqyfs [kr gksrk gSA
(3) In transcription a single gene can be
(3) vuqy[s ku esa ,d ,dy thu dk dbZ ckj
transcribed several times.
vuqy[s ku gks ldrk gSA
(4) During transcription unwinding of
(4) vuqy[s ku ds nkSjku DNA dk vdqaMyu gsfydst
DNA is carried out by helicase
}kjk fd;k tkrk gSA
115. fuEufyf[kr essa ls fdl Qy dk fuekZ.k FkSyes l ds 115. In which of the following fruit, thalamus
116. fn;s x;s ikniksa esa ls fdrus ikni og i.kZfoU;kl 116. How many of the given plants show
n’kkZrs gS] ftlesa izR;sd ioZlaf/k ij ,d gh i.kZ mRiUu phyllotaxy, where single leaf arises at
gksrh gS\ each node?
117. prq"dksf.k; fLFkfr lkekU;r% dqy esa ekStwn gksrh gS 117. Tetradynamous condition usually present in
(1) czSfldslh (2) ekyoslh Family
(3) QScslh (4) ,LVsjslh (1) Brassicaceae (2) Malvaceae
(3) Fabaceae (4) Asteraceae
118. eos’kh cxqyk vkSj pkj.k eosf’k;ksa esa fudV laca/k 118. The cattle egret and grazing cattle in
bldk ,d mR—"V mnkgj.k gSA close association is a classic example of.
(1) vUrjtkrh; (1) Ammensalism
(2) lgHkksftrk (2) Commensalism
36
121. dFku (A): vUrjkfir thu O;oLFkk laHkor% thukse ds 121. Assertion (A): The split gene arrangement
iwoZ :i dks O;Dr djrk gSA represents probably the ancient feature
dkj.k (R): leca/ku dh izfØ;k RNA txr ds izHkqRo of genome.
dks n’kkZrh gSA Reason (R): The process of splicing
represents the dominance of RNA world.
(1) nksuksa (A) vkSj (R) lR; gS vkSj (R), (A) dk lgh
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
Li"Vhdj.k gSA
the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) nksuksa (A) vkSj (R) lgh gS (R), (A) dk lgh
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSA
not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) lgh gS ysfdu (R) xyr gSA
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) nksuksa (A) vkSj (R) xyr gSA (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
122. dFku: i{kh;ksa esa larfr dk fyax eknk ds fyax xq.klw=ksa 122. Assertion: In birds sex of the progeny is
determined by the sex chromosomes of
ls fuèkkZfjr gksrk gSA
the female.
dkj.k: eknk i{kh fo"ke;qXedh gksrh gSA Reason: female bird is heterogametic.
(1) dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa lR; gSa rFkk dkj.k dFku (1) Both assertion and reason are true
dh lgh O;k[;k gSA and reason is the correct explanation
(2) dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa lR; gSa fdUrq dkj.k dFku of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true
dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA
but reason is not the correct
(3) dFku lR; gS fdUrq dkj.k vlR; gSaA
explanation of assertion.
(4) dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa xyr gSaA (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
123. lgh dFkuksa dks pqfu,: 123. Pick out the correct statements.
a. fgeksfQfy;k ,d fyax–lgyXu vçHkkoh y{k.k gSA a. Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive
b. Mkmu flaMªkse cgqxqf.krk ds dkj.k gksrk gSA character.
c. Qhukby fdVksuwfj;k ,d vfyaxh vçHkkoh thu b. Down's syndrome is due to Polyploidy.
fodkj gSA c. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal
d. Qhukby fdVksuwfj;k ,d vfyaxh çHkkoh thu recessive gene disorder.
fodkj gSA d. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal
124. es.My us çHkkfor dk fu;e rFkk i`FkDdj.k dk fu;e 124. Mendel proposed law of dominance and
fuEu esa ls fdlds vk/kkj ij çfrikfnr fd;k : law of segregation based on his
observations on :
(1) ,dyladj ladj.k
(1) Monohybrid crosses
(2) f}ladj ladj.k
(2) Dihybrid crosses
(3) ijh{k.k ladj.k
(3) Test crosses
(4) cfg% ladj.k
(4) Out crosses
37
125. fdl dkj.k RNA, DNA ls de LFkkbZ gS: 125. RNA is less stable than DNA, due to :
(1) 2'–OH lewg dh mifLFkfrA (1) Presence of 2'—OH groups.
(2) Mhv‚Dlhjkbckst dh mifLFkfrA (2) Presence of deoxyribose.
(3) Fkkbehu dh txg ;qjsfly dh mifLFkfrA (3) Presence of uracil instead of thymine.
(4) nksuksa (1) rFkk (3) (4) Both (1) and (3)
126. dkSulk mUuk;d ls lEcfU/kr ugha gS: 126. Which does not belong to promoter :
(1) lajpukRed thu ds 5'–fljs ij mifLFkr gksrk (1) Located towards 5'-end of structural
gSA gene.
(2) ;g RNA i‚yhejst dk ca/ku LFky gksrk gSA (2) It is binding site of RNA polymerase.
(3) dksfMax rFkk VsEiysV jTtwdksa dks ifjHkkf"kr djrk (3) Define the coding and template
gSA strands.
(4) lekiu esa lgk;d gSA (4) Help in termination.
127. thu ds ckjs esa dkSulk lgh gS: 127. Which is correct about gene :
(1) Functional unit of inheritance.
(1) oa'kkxfr dh fØ;kRed bdkbZA
(2) Located on DNA.
(2) DNA ij mifLFkr
(3) DNA sequence coding for tRNA or
(3) DNA vuqØe tks tRNA vFkok rRNA vFkok
rRNA or mRNA.
mRNA dk dwV ys[ku djrk gSA
(4) More than one options are correct.
(4) ,d ls vf/kd fodYi lgh gSA
128. tSoHkkj ds fijkfeM ds laca/k esa xyr feyku dh 128. Identify the incorrect matching regarding
igpku djsAa pyramid of biomass.
(1) ?kkl dk eSnku & lh/kk (1) Grassland – Upright
(2) ou & lh/kk (2) Forest - Upright
(3) rkykc & lh/kk (3) Pond – Upright
(4) o`{k & lh/kk (4) Tree - Upright
129. xyr lqesfyr tksM+h dks igpkusa\ 129. Identify the incorrectly matched pair?
(1) J&vkdkj dk oØ & rkfdZd o`f) (1) J-shaped curve – Logistic growth
(2) S&vkdkj dk oØ & lhfer lalk/ku fLFkfr;ksa esa (2) S-shaped curve – Represented under
n'kkZ;k x;k gSA limited resource conditions.
(3) e`R;q nj & e`R;q nj (3) Mortality – Death rate
(4) tUe nj & tUe nj (4) Natality – Birth rate
130. lwph-I dks lwph-II ls feyku djsa : 130. Match List I with List II.
lwp h -I lwp h -II List I List II
A. lgksidkfjrk i. dksihiksM~l rFkk A. Mutualism i. Copepods and
leqæh eNyh Marine fish
B. lgHkksftrk ii. csysul rFkk B. Commensalism ii. Balanus and
Chathamalus
pSFksesyl
C. Parasitism iii. Egret and cattle
C. ijthfork iii. cxqyk rFkk eos'kh
D. Competition iv. Fig and wasp
D. çfrLièkkZ iv. vathj rFkk cjZ
Choose the correct answer from the
uhps fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lgh mÙkj pqusa :
options given below.
A B C D
A B C D
(1) iv iii i ii
(1) iv iii i ii
(2) iii i ii iv
(2) iii i ii iv
(3) iv ii i iii
(3) iv ii i iii
(4) ii i iii iv
(4) ii i iii iv
38
131. xzsxj t‚gu es.My us m|ku eVj ij ladj.k ç;ksx 131. Gregor John Mendel conducted
fd;s:– hybridisation experiments on garden pea.
(1) lkr lky (1865 – 1872) (1) Seven years (1865 - 1872)
(2) lkr lky (1856 – 1863) (2) Seven years (1856 - 1863)
(3) lkr lky (1853 – 1860) (3) Seven years (1853 - 1860)
(4) Fourteen years (1853 - 1867)
(4) pkSng lky (1853 – 1867)
132. vuqçokg lalk/ku çfØ;k ls lEcfU/kr gSa & 132. Down streaming processing associated
(1) i`FkDdj.k (2) 'kqf)dj.k with
(3) PCR (4) (1) o (2) nksuksa (1) Separation (2) Purification
(3) PCR (4) Both (1) and (2)
133. ekbØksbUtsD'ku dk mi;ksx fdl dk;Z ds fy;s fd;k 133. Microinjection is used for :
tkrk gS:& (1) Energy production from sewage
(1) ey ty ¼lhost½ ls ÅtkZ dk mRiknu (2) Gene transfer without a vector
(2) fcuk fdlh osDVj ds thu LFkkukarj.k (3) Biodiesel production
(3) ck;ksMhty mRiknu
(4) Seedless fruit production
(4) chtjfgr Qy mRiknu
134. iksesVks dks fodflr djus esa dkSulk rjhdk mi;ksx esa 134. Which method is used for development of
fy;k x;k \ pomato?
(1) p;u (1) Selection
(2) RNA i
(2) RNA i
(3) Somatic hybridization
(3) dkf;d ladj.k
(4) Mutation
(4) mRifjorZu
135. IykfTeM okgd dk ,d çfrtSfod çfrjks/kh thu tks 135. An antibiotic resistance gene of plasmid
fotkrh; ¼alien½ DNA ds fuos'ku ls fuf"Ø; ugha vector which don't get inactivated due to
insertion of alien DNA, helps in the
gksrk gS] fdlds p;u esa enn djrk gS :
selection of :
(1) :ikUrjt
(1) Transformants
(2) iqu;ksxZ t
(2) Recombinants
(3) xSj& iqu;ksx
Z t (3) Non-recombinants
(4) (1) o (3) nksuksa (4) (1) and (3) both
136. ,d izfrj{kh v.kq esa gksrh gS% 136. An antibody molecule have:
(1) 3 y/kq J`¡[kyk rFkk 1 nh/kZ J`¡[kyk (1) 3 light chain and 1 heavy chain
(2) 1 y/kq J`¡[kyk rFkk 3 nh/kZ J`¡[kyk (2) 1 light chain and 3 heavy chain
(3) 2 y/kq J`¡[kyk rFkk 2 nh/kZ J`¡[kyk (3) 2 light chain and 2 heavy chain
(4) 2 y/kq J`¡[kyk rFkk 4 nh/kZ J`¡[kyk (4) 2 light chain and 4 heavy chain
137. fuEufyf[kr LrEHkksa dks lqesfyr dhft, : 137. Match the following columns :
LrEHk-I LrEHk-II Column-I Column-II
a. fçfLVl i. bysfDVªd vkxZu a. Pristis i. Electric organ
b. VªkWbxu ii. ¶ykbax fQ'k b. Trygon ii. Flying fish
c. Carcharodon iii. Saw fish
c. dkjdsjksMkWu iii. Lkk fQ'k
d. Torpedo iv. Great white
d. VkWjihMks iv. xzsV ºokbV lkdZ
shark
e. ,DlkslhV~l v. fLVax js e. Exocoetus v. Sting ray
(1) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-ii, e-i (1) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-ii, e-i
(2) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-i, e-ii (2) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-i, e-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-v, e-ii (3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-v, e-ii
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv, e-v (4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv, e-v
39
138. dksf'kdk laf/k ds laca/k esa lgh dFku dk p;u dhft,A 138. Choose correct statement regarding cell
junctions.
(1) varjky laf/k vkl&ikl dh dksf'kdkvksa dks ,d (1) Gap junctions perform cementing to
lkFk j[kus ds fy, lhesfa Vax djrs gSaA keep neighbouring cells together.
(2) n`< laf/k inkFkksaZ dk Ård ds vkj&ikj fjlko dks (2) Tight junctions help to stop substances
from leaking across a tissue.
jksdus esa enn djrh gSA
(3) Adhering junctions facilitate
(3) layXu laf/k dksf'kdkvksa dks muds dksf'kdknzO; ls
communication between cells by
tksM+dj muds chp lapkj dh lqfo/kk iznku djrh
connecting their cytoplasm.
gSA
(4) Tight junctions and adhering junctions
(4) n`<+ laf/k vkSj vklath laf/k nksuksa gh dksf'kdkvksa
both allow rapid transfer of ions and
ds chp vk;uksa vkSj NksVs v.kqvksa ds rsth ls small molecules between cells.
LFkkukarj.k dh vuqefr nsrs gSaA
139. dFku (A): i‚Ul n{krk iw.kZ ,sfPNd xfr ,oa vuSfPNd 139. Assertion (A): The Pons is related with
fØ;k tSls 'kjhj larqyu vkfn ls lEcfU/kr gSA skill full voluntary movement and
dFku (R): i‚Ul i'p efLr"d dk Hkkx gSA involuntary activity like body balance etc.
(1) nksuksa (A) ,oa (R) lgh gSa ysfdu (R), (A) dh Reason (R): Pons is the part of hind brain.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA
not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) lgh ugh gS ysfdu (R) lgh gSA
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(3) (A) lgh gSa ysfdu (R) lgh ugh gSA
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) nksuksa (A) ,oa (R) lgh gSa ysfdu (R), (A) dh
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
lgh O;k[;k gSA the correct explanation of (A)
140. vÝhdk esa ik, x, gksfefuM ds thok'e dh fuEufyf[kr 140. A fossil of hominid found in Africa with
fo'ks"krkvksa ds lkFk igpku dh tk ldrh gS: following features can be identified as :
i. 600 cc diky {kerk okyk NksVk efLr"d i. Small brain with 600 cc cranial capacity
ii. f'kdkj ds fy, dqan iRFkjksa dk bLrseky djrs Fks ii. Used blunt stones for hunting but
ysfdu vfuok;Z :i ls Qy [kkrs Fks essentially ate fruits
iii. çFke ekuo vuq:i iii. First homonid
(1) v‚LVªSyksisfFkdl (1) Australopithecines
(2) gkseks gSfcfyl (2) Homo habilis
141. PCT ds lanHkZ esa vlR; dFku dks pqusa: 141. Choose the incorrect statement regarding
PCT:
(1) cksesu lEiqV dk fupyk Hkkx PCT esa [kqyrk gSA (1) Lower part of Bowman’s capsule lead
(2) ;g vR;f/kd dq.Mfyr vkSj ifjufydk jDr into PCT
dsf'kdk ls f?kjh gksrh gSA (2) It is highly coiled and surrounded by
(3) PCT ?kukdkj midyk ls vLrkfjr gksrh peritubular blood capillaries
gSA (3) PCT is lined by cuboidal epithelium
(4) PCT ds lw{ekdqj i`f"B; {ks= dks de djrk gSA (4) PCT has microvilli for reducing the
surface area.
40
142. lfØ;.k ÅtkZ 142. Activation energy
(1) ‘S’ :i ds vkSlr ÅtkZ ?kVd o laØe.k voLFkk (1) is the difference in the average energy
esa varj gSA content of 'S' from that of its
(2) mRikn esa ifjofrZr gksus ls iwoZ fØ;kdkjd , transition state
(2) helps to change reactants into
vLFkk;h laØe.k voLFkk esa ifjorZu gksus esa
unstable transition state before they
lgk;d gSA
can be converted into products
(3) fØ;kdkjd dh ÅtkZ ck/kk dks de djus ;k
(3) is the minimum energy required from
vfHkfØ;k dks çkjaHk djus ds fy, vko';d
outside to overcome the energy
U;wure ÅtkZ gSA
barrier of reactant or to start a
(4) mijksä lHkh lgh gSA reaction
(4) all are correct
143. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa: 143. Given below are two statements:
dFku I: ihfu;y xzafFk vxzefLr"d ds i`"Bh; Hkkx ij Statement I: The pineal gland is located
on the dorsal side of forebrain.
fLFkr gksrh gSA
Statement II: Pineal gland secretes a
dFku II: ihfu;y xzafFk esykVksfuu uked gkeksuZ dk hormone called melatonin.
lzko djrh gSA In the light of the above statements,
mijksä dFkuksa ds vk/kkj ij] uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa choose the most appropriate answer
from the options given below:
ls lcls mi;qä mÙkj pqfu,:
(1) Statement I is correct, but statement
(1) dFku I lgh gS] ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA II is incorrect.
(2) dFku I xyr gS] ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (2) Statement I is incorrect, but
statement II is correct.
(3) dFku I vkSj II nksuksa vlR; gSaA
(3) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(4) dFku I vkSj II nksuksa lgh gSaA (4) Both statement I and II are correct.
144. v.MksRlxZ ds le;] v.Mk.kq dk fodkl fdl çkoLFkk 144. At the time of ovulation, development of
esa :dk jgrk gS & ovum is arrested in the form of:-
(1) v.Mk.kq ekr` dksf'kdk (1) Oogonia
(2) çkFkfed v.Mk.kq dksf'kdk (2) Primary oocyte
145. dFku (A): dSalj dksf’dk,a foHkkftr gksuk tkjh j[k 145. Assertion (A): Cancerous cell just
dksf’kdkvksa dk HkaMkj [kM+k dj nsrh gS] ftls vcqnZ continue to divide giving rise to masses of
dgrs gSA cell called tumour.
dkj.k (R): dSalj dksf'kdkvksa us laLi'kZ laneu dk xq.k Reason (R): Cancer cells appears to have
[kks fn;k gSaA lost property of contact inhibition.
(1) (A) vkSj (R) nksuks lgh gS vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
O;k[;k ugha djrk gSA not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) lgh gS ijUrq (R) lgh ugha gSA (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) lgh ugha gS ijUrq (R) lgh gSA (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) (A) vkSj (R) nksuks lgh gS vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A)
O;k[;k djrk gSA
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146. Bt. fo"k ds fy, D;k lgh gS\ 146. What is true about Bt. toxin?
(1) lacaf/kr csflyl esa çfrfo"k gSA (1) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins.
(2) fuf"Ø; çkd~&fo"k dhV dh vkgkjuky esa lfØ; (2) Inactive protoxin gets converted into
active form in the insect gut.
:i esa cny tkrk gSA
(3) Bt. protein exists as active toxin in the
(3) csflyl esa Bt. çksVhu lfØ; fo"k ds :i esa
Bacillus.
mifLFkr jgrk gSA
(4) The activated toxin enters the ovaries
(4) lfØ; fo"k dhV ds vaMk'k; esa bls ck¡> djus ds
of the pest to sterilise it and stop
fy, ços'k djrk gS rkfd bldk xq.ku #d ldsA multiplication
148. fuEu lajpukRed lw= fdlls lacaf/kr gSA 148. The structural formula belongs to
(2) Vhfu;k eqä thoh gksrk gSA (2) Taenia is free living.
(3) Members of chondrichthyes have
(3) dks.MªhDFkht ds lnL;ksa ds 'kjhj ij IysdksbM
placoid scales on their body.
'kYd gksrs gSaA
(4) Notochord in chordates is located
(4) d'ks:fd;ksa esa uksVksd‚MZ] ikpu uky rFkk raf=dk
between digestive canal and nerve
jTtq ds chp mifLFkr gksrh gSA
cord.
150. eksukslkbV~l dqy WBC dk______gSaA 150. Monocytes are _______ of the total WBC.
(1) 1-2% (1) 1-2%
(2) 12-20% (2) 12-20%
(3) 6-8% (3) 6-8%
(4) 2-3% (4) 2-3%
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151. fuEu dFkuks dks if<+;s & 151. Read the following statements :
(a) cgqr yEcs le; ls ;g fo'okl fd;k tk jgk Fkk (a) for a long time it was also belived that
dh thou vi?kVhr] lM+s xys inkFkZ tSls dhpM+] life came out of decaying & rotting
?kkl Qwl vkfn ls mRiUu gqvk gS ;g Lor% tuu matter like, mud, straw etc., this was
theory of spontaneous generation.
dk fl)kUr FkkA (b) Alfred wallace, a naturalist who
(b) vYÝsM osysl ,d çk—frdfon~ ftUgksus ekys worked in malay archipelago had also
vkphZfiykxks esa dk;Z fd;k mUgksus Hkh ogh fu"d"kZ come to same conclusion as darwin
fudkyk tks ml le; MkfoZu us fn;k FkkA around the same time.
(c) thou dh mRifÙk iwoZ mifLFkr thou ls gh gks (c) The idea that life originates from pre-
ldrh gS bldk fopkj vthokr~ thoksRifÙk existing life is referred as abiogenesis
fl)kUr esa mYysf[kr gSA theory
(d) origin of universe took place almost
(d) czEgk.M dh mRifÙk yxHkx 20mya iwoZ gqbZ
20mya.
lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft, ftles lgh dks (X) o Select the correct option stating which
xyr dks (Y) ls fu:fir fd;k gSA one is true (X) and which one is false (Y)
(1) (a)-X, (b)-X, (c)-Y, (d)-X (1) (a)-X, (b)-X, (c)-Y, (d)-X
(2) (a)-X, (b)-X, (c)-X, (d)-X (2) (a)-X, (b)-X, (c)-X, (d)-X
(3)(a)-X, (b)-X, (c)-Y, (d)-Y (3)(a)-X, (b)-X, (c)-Y, (d)-Y
(4) (a)-Y, (b)-Y, (c)-X, (d)-X (4) (a)-Y, (b)-Y, (c)-X, (d)-X
152. o`Dd ds varjkyh rjy dh dkWVDsZ l ls Hkhrjh esMwyk 152. The interstitial fluid of the kidney has an
rd ijklj.krk c<+rh gSA bl ijklj.kh; foHko dks increasing osmolarity from cortex to the
cuk;s j[kk tkrk gS :- inner medulla. This gradient is mainly
(1) Na+, K+ }kjk caused by :
(2) NaCl rFkk ;wfj;k (1) Na+, K+
(2) NaCl and Urea
(3) NaCl, ty, HCO3−
(3) NaCl, Water, HCO3−
(4) ;wfj;k, K+, HCO3−
(4) Urea, K+, HCO3−
153. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu 'okluyh dks fipdus ls cpkrk 153. Which of the following prevents
gS? collapsing of trachea?
(1) ek¡lisf'k;k¡ (1) Muscles
(2) Mk;kÝke (2) Diaphragm
(3) ilfy;k¡ (3) Ribs
(4) mikfLFky oy; (4) Cartilaginous rings
154. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ¼a&d½ ij fopkj dhft, vkSj 154. Consider the following statements (a-d)
dsoy lHkh lgh dFkuksa okyk ,d fodYi pqfu,% and select the option which includes all
(a) çlo ,d tVhy raf=varL=koh çØe }kjk çsfjr the correct ones only:
(a) Parturition is induced by a complex
gSA neuro- endocrine mechanism
(b) çlo ds fy, ladsr iw.kZfodflr xHkZ ,oa vijk esa (b) The signals for parturition originate
from the fully developed foetus and
mRiUu gksrs gSa] tks gYds xHkkZ'k; ladqpuksa dks the placenta which induced mild
çsfjr djrs gSaA ftUgsa xHkZ mY{ksi.k çfrorZ dgrs uterine contractions called foetal
gSaA ejection relex.
(c) Progesteron, hCG, hPL and estrogens
(c) dsoy xHkkZoLFkk ds le; gh efgyk esa çkstsLVsj‚u] are produced in women only during
hCG] hPL vkSj ,sLVªkstu dk L=ko.k gksrk gS pregnancy
(d) The first movement of the foetus and
(d) xHkkZoLFkk ds rhljs ekl ds nkSjku xHkZ esa çFke
appearance of hairs on the head are
xfr'khyrk vkSj flj ij cky mRiUu gks tkrs gS usually observed during the third
(1) dFku (a), (c) vkSj ¼d½ month of pregnancy
(2) dFku (a), (b) vkSj ¼c½ (1) Statements (a), (c) and (d)
(3) dsoy dFku (a) vkSj (b) (2) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
(4) lHkh dFku (a), (b), (c) vkSj (d) (3) Only statements (a) and (b)
(4) All statements (a), (b), (c) and (d)
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155. iwjh nqfu;k esa gj lky yxHkx __a__ fefy;u 155. Nearly __a___ million MTPs are performed in
fpfdRldh; lxHkZrk lekiu djk, tkrs gS tks fd a year all over the world which counts to
lalkj Hkj dh ,d lky esa gksus okyh dqy lxHkZrkvksa ___b___ of the total number of conceived
dk __b__ Hkkx gS & pregnancies is a year:
157. vuqokaf'kd vfHk;kaf=dh dk fuEu ds mRiknu ds fy, 157. Genetic engineering has been
lQyrkiwoZd mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS& successfully used for producing
(1) euq"; esa mi;ksx djus ls igys iksfy;ks oSDlhu (1) Transgenic mice for testing safety of
polio vaccine before use in human
dh lqj{kk dk ijh{k.k djus ds fy, VªkaltSfud
(2) Transgenic cow-Rosie which
pwgs mRiknu essAa
produces high fat milk for making
(2) VªkaltSfud xk; jksth dk tks vf/kd olk okyk
ghee
nw/k nsrh gS] tks ?kh cuus ds fy, ç;ksx gksrk gSA
(3) Animals like bulls for farm work as
(3) [ksrksa esa dke djus ds fy, tSls&cSy tarq gsrq
they have super power
D;ksfa d muesa vR;f/kd 'kfä gksrh gSA (4) All of these
(4) mijksä lHkhA
158. ,sythZ ds y{k.k dks ?kVkus ds fy;s fuEu esa ls dkSu 158. Which of the following drug is used to
lh vkS"kf/k dk mi;ksx djrs gS% reduce the symptoms of allergy:
(1) fgLVkfeu, fljksVksfuu, LVsjkW;M (1) Histamine, Serotonin, Steroid
(2) ,aVh-fgLVkfeu, fljksVksfuu, LVsjkW;M (2) Anti-histamine, Serotonin, Steroid
(3) ,aVh-fgLVkfeu, ,fMªusfyu, LVsjkW;M (3) Anti-histamine, Adrenalin, Steroid
(4) ,fMªusfyu, fgLVkfeu, LVsjkW;M (4) Adrenalin, Histamine, Steroid
159. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu es<a +d ds lacaèk esa Hkwfe ij 159. Which of the following does not act as
organ of respiration on land w.r.t. frog?
'olu vax ds :i esa dk;Z ugha djrk gS?
(1) Lungs
(1) QsQM+s
(2) Moist skin
(2) ue Ropk
(3) Buccal cavity
(3) eq[k xqgk
(4) Cloaca
(4) voLdj
44
160. uhps fn;s x;s thoksa dk muds y{k.kksa ds lkFk feyku 160. Match the following organisms with their
dhft, % respective characteristics :
A ikbyk i mRlthZ ra= A Pila i Excretory system
vuqifLFkr absent
161. dkSu lk dFku ,atkbe dk fof'k"V y{k.k gS? 161. Which of the following are unique
(1) ;s ,atkbe, ekè; vfHkfØ;k }kjk [kpZ ugh gksrs features about the enzyme?
gSA (1) They are not consumed by the
(2) ;s ,atkbe, ekè; vfHkfØ;k }kjk ifjofrZr ugh enzyme- mediated reaction
(2) They are not altered by the enzyme-
gksrs gSA
mediated reaction
(3) ;s lfØ;.k ÅtkZ ?kVkrs gSA
(3) They have lower the activation energy
(4) mijksä lHkh
(4) All of these
162. uhps ,d egklkxj ds ry dk fufoZokn çeq[k Lrj dk 162. The diagram below shows undisturbed
fp= n'kkZ;k x;k gS Lrj B esa ik;s x;s thok'e Lrj sedimentary strata at the bottom of an
A esa ik;s thok'eksa ls feyrs tqyrs gS rks ;g lekurk ocean. The fossils found in layer B
O;ä djrh gS resemble the fossils found in layer A. This
similarity suggests that
45
163. uj tuu ra= ds lacaèk esa lwph-I dks lwph-II ls lqesfyr 163. Match List-I with List-II regarding male
dhft,: reproductive system:
lwph-I lwph-II List-I List-II
A 'kqØtud I iks"k.k çnku A Seminiferous I Provide
ufydk djuk tubule nutrition
B Intrstitial II 250
B varjkyh II çR;sd o`"k.k esa
spaces compartments
vodk'k 250 dks"B
in each testis
C lVksy Z h III yhfMx dksf'kdk,sa
C Sertoli cells III Leydig cells
dksf'kdk,sa D Testicular IV 1-3 in each
D o`"k.k ikfydk,sa IV çR;sd o`"k.k lobules testicular
ikfydk esa 1-3 lobule
uhps fn, x, fodYi esa ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u djsa: Choose the correct answer from the
(1) A → IV; B → III; C → II; D → I option given below:
(2) A → I; B → II; C → III; D → IV (1) A → IV; B → III; C → II; D → I
(3) A → IV; B → III; C → I; D → II (2) A → I; B → II; C → III; D → IV
(4) A → III; B → IV; C → I; D → II (3) A → IV; B → III; C → I; D → II
(4) A → III; B → IV; C → I; D → II
164. vfHkdFku (A): f}rh;d izfrj{kk vuqfØ;k,a izkFkfed 164. Assertion (A): Secondary immune
response is quicker and stronger than the
ls rhoz vkSj etcwr gksrh gSA
primary one.
dkj.k (R): gekjs 'kjhj dks izFke eqBHksM+ dh Le`fr Reason (R): Our body appears to have
gksrh gS vkSj ckn esa mlh jksxtud ls lkeuk gksus ij memory of first encounter and subsequent
mPp rhozrk dh vuqfØ;k gksrh gSA encounter with same pathogen elicits a
highly intensified response.
(1) (A) vkSj (R) nksuks lgh gS vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
O;k[;k ugha djrk gSA not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) lgh gS ijUrq (R) lgh ugha gSA (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) (A) lgh ugha gS ijUrq (R) lgh gSA
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
(4) (A) vkSj (R) nksuks lgh gS vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh
the correct explanation of (A)
O;k[;k djrk gS
165. fuEu esa vlR; dFku dk p;u dhft;sA 165. Select the incorrect statement –
(1) piVs —fe;ksa esa vkgkj uky nks fNæksa ds ek/;e (1) Platyhelminthes have double opening
ls ckgj [kqyrh gS] vr budk ikpura= viw.kZ of digestive system, so it is called
gksrk gSA incomplete.
(2) [kqyk ifjlapj.k esa dksf'kdk,sa jä ds lh/ks lEidZ (2) In open circulatory system, cell bath
in blood.
esa jgrh gSaA
(3) Sponges are mostly asymmetrical.
(3) vf/kdka'k Liat vlefer gksrs gSaA
(4) In adult echinodermata, radial symmetry
(4) o;Ld ,dkbuksMesV Z k esa vjh; lefefr gksrh gSA is present.
166. frypês dh ia[k lajpuk ds laca/k esa dkSu lk dFku 166. Which statement is true regarding the
lR; gS\ wing structure of cockroaches?
(1) ia[kksa dk igyk ;qXe vxz o{k ls mRié gksrk gSA (1) The first pair of wings arises from the
prothorax.
(2) i'p ia[k vikjn'khZ vkSj peM+s tSls gksrs gSaA
(2) The hind wings are opaque and
(3) vxz ia{k ikjn'khZ gksrs gSa vkSj mM+ku esa mi;ksx
leathery.
fd, tkrs gSaA
(3) The forewings are transparent and
(4) vxz ia[kksa dks VsfXeuk dgk tkrk gS vkSj fojke
used in flight.
voLFkk esa i'p ia[kksa dh vkPNkfnr djrs gSaA
(4) The forewings are called tegmina and
cover the hind wings at rest.
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167. ÅÙkdks a ds jklk;fud la xBu ds fo'ys "k.k ds 167. Lipid comes under acid insoluble fraction
nkSjku vEy vfoys ; va'k es a fyfiM gksr k gSA during analysis of the chemical
(1) bldk v.kqHkkj de gksrk gSA (1) It has low molecular weight
(2) It has high molecular weight
(2) bldk v.kqHkkj vf/kd gksrk gSA
(3) It is polymer
(3) ;g cgqyd gSA
(4) On grinding, the biomembranes are
(4) ihlus ij tSo f>Yyh VqdM+ksa esa VwV tkrh gS rFkk
broken into pieces and form insoluble
vfoys; iqVd cukrh gSA
vesicles
168. vfHklkfjr vuqdwyu esa fodkl gksrk gS \ 168. Adaptive convergence is the development of-
(1) Common set of characters in groups
(1) fofHkUu iwoZtks ds lewg esa y{k.kks dk leku lewg
of different ancestry
(2) fudV laca/kh lewg esa y{k.kksa dk leku lewg
(2) Common set of characters in closely
(3) fudV laca/kh lewg esa fHkUu y{k.kks dk lewg related groups
(4) ;knfPNd eSFkqu (3) Dissimilar characters in closely
related groups
(4) Random mating
169. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk xyr gS\ 169. Which is incorrect in the following ?
170. çR;sd Jks.kh vfLFk] fdruh vfLFk;ks ds lay;u ls 170. Each coxal bone is formed by fusion of :-
curh gS :&
(1) 2 vfLFk;k¡ (2) 3 vfLFk;k¡ (1) 2 bones (2) 3 bones
(3) 1 bone (4) 4 bones
(3) 1 vfLFk (4) 4 vfLFk;k¡
171. fuEufyf[kr LraHkksa dk feyku djsa vkSj lgh fodYi 171. Match the following columns and choose
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172. uhps fn;s x;s fp= dks igpkus vkSj A]B]C vkSj D ds 172. Recognise the figure given below and find
#i es ukekafdr fd, x, gkeksUZ l ds ckjs es lgh feyku out the correct matching about hormones
dk irk yxk,¡ labelled as A,B,C and D
B B
173. xHkZfujks/kd Mk;Ýke ds fo"k; esa lgh dFku dk p;u 173. Select the correct statements regarding
diaphragm as contraceptive device from
dhft,A
the given options:
(i) 'kqØk.kq ços'k ds fy, HkkSfrdh vojks/k dh rjg
(i) They act as physical barrier for sperm
dk;Z djrh gSA entry.
(ii) eSFkwu ds nkSjku xzhok Hkkx ij j[kh tkrh gSA (ii) They are placed to cover the cervical
(iii) vkjksi.k dks jksdus ds fy, xHkkZ'k; esa ços'k region during coitus.
djok;h tkrh gSA (iii) They are introduced into the uterus to
prevent implantation.
(iv) xHkZ fujks/kd {kerk dks c<+kus ds fy, 'kqØk.kquk'kd
(iv) They act as spermicidal agents to
inkFkZ dh rjg dk;Z djrh gSA increase their contraceptive
(1) (i), (ii) dsoy (2) (i), (iv) dsoy effectiveness
(3) (ii), (iii) dsoy (4) (iii), (iv) dsoy (1) (i), (ii) only (2) (i), (iv) only
(3) (ii), (iii) only (4) (iii), (iv) only
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175. fuEu esa ls dkSulk lgh gS\ 175. Which of the following is correct?
(1) gfjr Økafr [kk| vkiwfrZ dks rhu xq.kk djus esa (1) The Green Revolution succeeded in
lQy jgh gSA tripling the food supply.
(2) The increased yield of crops have
(2) Qlyksa dh c<+h gqbZ iSnkokj vkf'kad :i ls
partly been due to the use of
la'kksf/kr Qlyksa dh fdLeksa ds mi;ksx ls ijarq
improved crop varieties, but mainly
eq[; :i ls csgrj çca/ku fof/k;ksa vkSj —f"k due to the use of better management
jlk;uksa ds mi;ksx ds dkj.k gqbZA practices and use of agrochemicals.
(3) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa (3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) vk/kqfud çtuu rduhdksa dh rqyuk esa ikjLifjd (4) Conventional breeding techniques
rduhdksa ds QyLo:i mRiknu vf/kd gksrk gSA results in more crop yield than the
modern techniques.
176. eè; iVfydk cuh gksrh gSA 176. Middle lamella is made up for:
(1) flfydk (1) Silica
(2) dSfYl;e dkcksuZ sV (2) Calcium Carbonate
(3) dSfYl;e vkWfDlysV (3) Calcium Oxalate
177. çksdSfj;ksV~l dksf'kdkvksa esa varfoZ"V fi.M ds fy, lgh 177. Select right statement for cell inclusions
dFku dk p;u dhft, & in prokaryotes –
(1) ;s Q‚LQksfyfiM rFkk çksVhu dh ,dy f>Yyh ds (1) they are covered by single membrane
}kjk vkofjr jgrs gSaA of phospholipid and protein
(2) ;s vthfor inkFkZ gSa tks laxzfgr HkksT; inkFkZ gks (2) they are non-living substance that
ldrs gSaA may be as reserve food
(3) jkbckslkse dks dksf'kdk varfoZ"V fi.M ds :i esa (3) ribosome include as cell inclusions
esa lfEefyr fd;k tkrk gSA (4) both (1) and (2)
(4) nksuksa (1) rFkk (2)
178. f>Yyhjfgr dksf'kdkax tks ¶ysftyk dh vk/kkjh; 178. Without membranous cell organelle use
lajpuk ds fuekZ.k esa mi;ksx gksrk gS: to prepare basal body of flagella:
(1) Ribosome (2) ER
(1) jkbckslkse (2) ER
(3) Centrosome (4) Golgi body
(3) rkjddk; (4) x‚Ythdk;
179. lelw=h foHkktu gksrk gS] esa : 179. Mitosis occurs in:
(1) vxqf.kr tho (1) Haploid individuals
(2) f}xqf.kr tho (2) Diploid individuals
(3) nksuksa (1) o (2) (3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) dsoy thok.kq (4) In bacteria only
180. dqN d'ks:dh çkf.k;ksa ds v.M+ks esa, _____ efguksa ;k 180. In oocytes of some vertebrates, _____ can
o"kksZ rd cuh jg ldrh gS : last for months or years
(1) ;qXeiV~V (2) ruqiV~V (1) Zygotene (2) Leptotene
(3) ikjxfrØe (4) f}iV~V (3) Diakinesis (4) Diplotene
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