Vy, ( TAI LIEU ON THI VSTEP B1, B2, C1 Oo oe C — Phone: ee C WMUC LUC Y chinh... Test 1 Test 2, Test 3 Test 4, Test 5..... Test 6..... Tir vung... Test 1. Smog... Test 2. Autism... Test 3. Parasitic Plants ... Test 4. Edna Ferber Test 5. Animal Congregation Test 6. Chromium Compounds Test 7. New World Epidemic: Test 8. Horatio Alger, Jr. .. Test 9..... Test 10... Test 11 Test 12 Test 13 Test 1. Lake Baikal... Test 2. The Postage stamp... Test3. The Clovis. Test 4. Brown Dwarfs..... Test 5. Flatfish.Test 6. Limestone Caves Test 7. Wrigley’s Chewing Gum... Test 8. Dissociative Identity Disorder... Test 9 Test 10... Al Test MD oceccsscesseneesenten Estelle Tledaled 43 RES ta ee e Pelee eae 45 Tet 13..occccscesneseennee diaslsacalaalaledalaaba el ileal sone AT THONG TIN SUY RA. Test 1. Tiger Moths....... Leelee Dele 50 Test 2. Test 3. Test 4. The Filibuster..... Estelle Fated 53 a lela Tllelalala 55 TeSt 6.ccecceseesseseentetee Leelee Pletal 56 TS Teele ea Peel ee 57 Test 8..... 58 Test 9..... 59 Test 10. 61 Test 11 Cae dang khac Test 1. Camoutflage........ alata Pater 64 Test 2. Post-it® Notes... alec Joel 65 Test 3. The Pulitzer Prize Estelle Fated 67 Test 4. Competition and Cooperation........... ee feablee en 69 Test 5. Popcorn... Test 6. Lions..... Test 7. Accidental Inventions Test 8. Uranium.Test 9. Xerography. Test 10. Demographic Change ... Test 11. The Hubble Telescope «........-.:.-+: Test 12. Territoriality .. DOC TONG HOP Test 1. Map Legends...... Lele Tledaled 82 Test 2. Marketing.......... Pelee ele 84 TSE Fla lletclecdaledeoachataladealadaalaluelchlushalecadaladtelaldeelachathhadalei cone 86, Tet 4, ececssseesteseeetneen aeleteta Etats 88 Test 5. Wild pigs.......... Leelee eller 90 Test 6. Test 7. Migration. Test 8. Birth Order........ Patella Fated 98 Test 9. Ketchup... eletaledala allel 102 Dap an... Y chinh... Test 1... Test 2..... Test 3..... Test 4. Test 5 Test 6, Tir vung... Test 1. SmOg eee desler desler 11 Test 2. Autism... eletaledala allel 112 LI a LIS LIT Test 6. Chromium compounds.....c.ne saeeee 18 Test 3. Parasitic Plants Test 4. Edna Ferber..... Test 5. Animal Congregation...Test 7. New World Epidemics... Tllelalala 119 Test 8. Horatio Alger, Jr... Test 9..... Test 10. Test 11... Test 12 Test 13 Test 14. ccscesseseentee Thong tin chi tiét Test 1. Lake Baikal Test 2. The Postage stamp Test3. The Clovis...... Test 4. Brown Dwarfs... Test 5. Flatfish. Test 6. Limestone caves Test 7. Wrigley’s Chewing Gum ju... eee 136 Test 8. Dissociative Identity Disorder............... Test 9..... Test 10, 141 Test 11 Test 12 Test 13 Thong tin suy ra Test 1. Tiger Moths....... Patella Fated 147 Tet 2. aecscnsssesserteetetee lela Tllelalala 149 Test 3..... 152 Test 4. Filibuster ...... 15S Test 5..... ASD Test 6, - area 7 area 7 pspesrsas peat 162Test 7. L nae 7 nae 7 Lee 7 164 Test 8..... Test 9..... Test 10, Test 11... Cae dang khac 7 Test 1. Camouflage........ Beaeae eae 178 Test 2. Post-it® Notes .......c..ccsccssssneeseeeesnnee soseeeeeeneonnnnsneenees see 79 Test 3. The Pultizer Prize beak 7 teabadestada 181 Test 4. Competition and Cooperation........... a beeen 184 Test 5. Popcom Test 6. Lions. Test 7. Accidental Inventions laskeakal 7 Leskeakadeshedea 188 Test 8. Uranium... lalallala elalatalalala 188 Test9. Xerography....... beter Etat 188 Test 10. Demographic Change .....s:esne saeeee 189 Test 11. The Hubble telescope..... Test 12. Territoriality.... Doc tong hgp... Test 1. Map legends Test 2. Marketing Test 3 Test 4, Leelee Test 5. Wild pigs... Test 6, Test 7. Migration... Test 8. Birth order...... Test 9...Y CHINH Test 1. One identifying characteristic of minerals is their relative hardness, which can be determined by scratching one mineral with another. In this type of test, a harder mineral can scratch a softer one, but a softer mineral is unable to scratch the harder one. The Mohs' hardness scale is used to rank minerals according to hardness. Ten minerals are listed in this scale, ranging from talc with a hardness of | to diamond with a hardness of 10. On this scale, quartz (number 7) is harder than feldspar (number 6) and is therefore able to scratch it; however, feldspar is unable to make a mark on quartz, 1. Which of the following best states the subject of this passage? A. The hardness of diamonds B. Identifying minerals by means of a scratch test C. Feldspar on the Mohs' scale D. Recognizing minerals in their natural state 2. The main idea of this passage is that A. the hardness of a mineral can be determined by its ability to make a mark on other minerals B. diamonds, with a hardness of 10 on the Mohs’ scale, can scratch all other minerals. Ca D. tale fter mineral cannot be scratched by a harder mineral is the first mineral listed on the Mohs ale Test 2. Hurricanes generally occur in the North Atlantic from May through November, with the peak of the hurricane season in September; only rarely will they occur from December through April in that part of the ocean. The main reason for the occurrence of hurricanes during this period is that the temperature on the water’s, surface is at its warmest and the humidity of the air is at its highest Of the tropical storms that occur each year in the North Atlantic, only about five, on the average are powerful enough to be called hurricanes. To be classified as a hurricane, a tropical storm must have winds reaching speeds of at least 117 kilometers per hour, but the winds are often much than that; the winds of intense hurricanes can easily surpass 240 kilometers per hour. 1. The passage mainly discusses A. How many hurricanes occur each year B. The strength of hurricanesC. The weather in the North Atlantic D. Hurricanes in one part of the world 2. The best title for this passage would be A. The North Atlantic Ocean B, Storms of the Northern Atlantic C. Hurricanes: The Damage and Destruction D. What happens from May through November Test 3. Because different tree species adapted to different climates and soil types have evolved over millennia, many kinds of forests occupy the earth today. The primitive forests of several hundred million years ago consisted of fewer kinds of trees. In fact, the earliest “trees,” which grew nearly 500 million years ago, were like giant club mosses. They lacked true roots and consisted of a tangle of specialized branches that clambered over rocky ground. Fifty million years later came the dense forests of tree tems that prevailed in tropical climates of that era. The forerunners of modern conifers were on the scene 300 million years ago, when plant life abundantly colonized marshy land, building the tremendous coal and oil reserves so important today. By the time the dinosaurs roamed the earth some 180 million years ago, during the Cretaceous period, seed-bearing trees had evolved that shed their leaves in winter; from these have sprung the angiosperms and our present deciduous forests. 1. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Conifers are the oldest trees in today’s forests. B, Climate affected the development of trees over millennia. C. The predecessors of today’s forests were giant club mosses and tree ferns. D. The variety of trees in today’s forests are a result of millions of years of evolution.Test 4. Birds have two basic types of sounds: songs and calls, Songs are usually more complex than calls and are utilized primarily by adult males during the breeding season to establish territories or attract mates, Calls are normally simple notes, single or repeated, vocalized by males and females in all seasons to express alarm or maintain contact with mates, offspring, or other birds of the same species. All songs and most calls are distinctive, and with concentrated study and practice, bird watchers can learn to identity many birds by their sounds and to call them as well 1. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Bird calls and songs are distinctive, meaningful, and identifiable. B, Bird songs are complicated and used mainly by males to attract mates. C. Birds have their own language by which they maintain contact D. Birdwatchers can identity many bird calls and their meanings and learn to mimic them as well Test 5. Strictly speaking, cartography is the drawing or compiling of maps. The explorers and surveyors go out and make the measurements and gather the information from which the cartographers draw their maps. Sometimes the fieldwork and the creation of the map are done by the same person. But when the scope is broad and the sources of information many, maps are more often a compilation of that information. They represent the accumulated work of many people, brought together under the supervision of one person, the compiler. The value of the map depends, of course, on the expertise of the compiler, who must sift through available information, select the most accurate data, and come up with a thoughtful and accurate synthesis of the geographic knowledge of the region. 1, What is the main idea of the passage? A. The definition of cartography is the drawing or compiling of maps. B, Maps are the product of a group effort brought together usually by one person. C. Notall of the information initially compiled for maps is accurate D. The compiler’s task is more important than that of the explorers and surveyors.Test 6. Hawaii was originally settled by the natives of the South Pacific, who arrived in the islands in canoes laden with breadfruit, yams, taro, coconut, bananas, pigs, and chickens. Supplementing these foods were over a hundred different edible fishes and 40 kinds of seaweed from the surrounding waters. Hawaiian food was eaten raw or wrapped in taro leaves, seasoned with coconut, and cooked. In the early 1800s, the whalers and missionaries introduced stews, chowders, curries, coed beef, dried beef, salt salmon, and Indian and comstarch puddings. Most likely, pipkaula (jerked beef), lomi lomi salmon, and haupia (coconut pudding) evolved during this period. In the late nineteenth century immigrants from China, Japan, and Korea were brought to Hawaii to work the sugar plantations. The Chinese brought rice, soybeans, and vegetables and their ways of cooking them. The Japanese brought sukiyaki and teriyaki, among many other foods. Settlers from the Continental United States also brought their favorite recipes and in the spirit of aloha, the Hawaiians have accepted each group’s offerings and drawn the best from them. Thus a Hawaiian feast is a gastronomic experience, the essence of Hawaii and its many cultures. 1, What is the main topic of the passage? A. Whalers and missionaries introduced new kinds of foods to the people of Hawaii B, Sugar plantations were worked by immigrants from Asia, who brought their native foods with them. C. Hawaiian food is a combination of the foods of many peoples and a reflection of Hawaii's history. D. The natives of the South Pacific who first settled in Hawaii ate raw food, whereas other immigrants cooked theirs. 10TU VUNG Test 1. Smog The oxidation of exhaust gases is one of the primary sources of the world’s pollution. The brown haze that is poised over some of the world’s largest cities is properly called photochemical smog; it results from Chemical reactions that take place in the air, using the energy of sunlight. The production of smog begins when gases are created in the cylinders of vehicle engines. It is there that oxygen and nitrogen gas combine as the fuel bums to form nitric oxide (NO), a colorless gas. The nitric oxide is forced out into the air through the vehicle tailpipe along with other gases When the gas reaches the air, it comes into contact with available oxygen from the atmosphere and combines with the oxygen to produce nitrogen dioxide (N02), which is a gas with a brownish hue. This nitrogen dioxide plays a role in the formation of acid rain in wetter or more humid climates and tends to decompose back into nitric oxide as it releases an oxygen atom from each molecule; the released oxygen atoms quickly combine with oxygen (02) molecules to form ‘ozone (03). The brownish colored nitrogen dioxide is partially responsible for the brown color in smoggy air; the ozone is the toxic substance that causes irritation to eyes. 1. The word “poised” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. interacting B. sitting C. blowing D. poisoning 2. The phrase “take place A. position themselves B. put C. are seated D. occur 3. The word “forced” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. obliged B. required C. pushed D. commanded 4. The word ‘hue’ in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. colorB. odor C. thickness D. smoke 5. The phrase “plays a role A. makes fun of B. serves a function in C. acts the part of D. moves about in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to Test 2. Autism Autism is a developmental disorder that is characterized by severe behavioral abnormalities across all primary areas of functioning. Its onset is often early; it generally makes itself known by the age of two and one-half. It is not a single disease entity but is instead a syndrome defined by patterns and characteristics of behavior; it, therefore, most likely has multiple etiologies rather than a single causative factor. Autism is not fully understood and thus is controversial with respect to diagnosis, etiology, and treatment strategies. 1. The word “primary” in the passage could best be replaced by A. elementary B. main C. introductory D. primitive 2. The word “onset” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. placement B. arrangement C. support D. beginning 3. The word “syndrome” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. concurrent set of symptoms B. feeling of euphoria C. mental breakdown D. repetitive task 4. The word “etiologic A. symptoms B. patterns C. causes D. onsets in the passage is closest in meaning to5. The phrase “with respect to” in the passage could best be replaced by A. with dignity toward B. in regard to C. irrespective of D. out of politeness for Test 3. Parasitic Plants Parasitic plants are plants that survive by using food produced by host plants rather than by producing their own food from the Sun’s energy. Because they do not need sunlight to survive, parasitic plants are generally found in umbrageous areas rather than in areas exposed to direct sunlight. Parasitic plants attach themselves to host plants, often to the stems or roots, by means of haustoria, which the parasite uses to make its way into the food channels of the host plant and absorb the nutrients that it needs to survive from the host plant. The world’s heaviest flower, a species of rafflesia, is a parasite that flourishes among, and lives off of, the roots of jungle vines. Each of these ponderous blooms can weigh up to 15 pounds (7 kg) and can measure up to 3 feet (Im) across. 1. The word “umbrageous” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. moist B. well lit C. shaded D. buried 2. “Haustoria” in paragraph 1 are most likely A. offshoots from the parasite B. seeds of the host plant C. fruits from the host plant D. food from the parasite 3. The phrase “make its way into” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. develop B. penetrate C. outline D. eat 4. The word “ponderous” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to A. smelly B. hiddenC. mature D. heavy 5. The word “across” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by A. in diameter B. on the other side C. at a distance D. inside and out Test 4. Edna Ferber Edna Ferber (1887-1968) was a popular American novelist in the first half of the twentieth century. She embarked on her career by working as a newspaper reporter in Wisconsin and soon began writing novels. Her first novel, Dawn O'Hara, the Girl Who Laughed, was published in 1911, when she was only twenty-four years old. Her big break came with the novel So Big (1924), which was awarded the Pulitzer Prize in Literature. The main conflict in the novel is between a mother who places a high value on hard work and honor and a son who repudiates his mother’s values, instead preferring the easier path to fortune and celebrity. Like many of Ferber’s novels, this novel features a tenacious female protagonist with strong character who struggles to deal with ethical dilemmas about the importance of status and money. Probably the best known of Ferber’s novels was Show Boat (1926), which tells the story of a Southem woman married to a charismatic but irresponsible man who leaves her with a daughter she must take great pains to support. In 1927, the novel was made into a musical that has endured to the present. Other well-known novels by Ferber include Cimarron (1930) and Giant (1952), both of which were made into movies. These were epic novels about the settlement and growth of the West, centering on strong female lead characters who marry men lacking the same strength of character. 1. The phrase “embarked on” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. took a trip to B. started out on C. improved upon D. had an opinion about 2. The word “break” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by 4A. rupture B. revelation C. opportunity D. rest 3. The word “places” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by A. locates. B. puts C. recites D. positions 4. The word “repudiates” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to A. refuses to accept B. lives up to C. tries to understand D. makes the best of 5. The word “protagonist” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to A. arch enemy B. voracious reader C. skilled worker D. lead character 6. The phrase “take great pains” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to A. work diligently B. recognize hurtfully C. accept unequivocally D. hurt agonizingly 7. The word “endured” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to A. lasted B. tested C. waited D. limited 8. The word “epic” in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by A. lengthy narrative B. detailed non-fictional C. emotionally romantic D. rousing Western 9. The phrase “centering on” in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by A. circling around B. pointing toC. focusing on D. arranging for Test 5. Animal Congregation Many types of animals combine the advantages of family association with those conferred by membership in still larger groups. Bees congregate in hives; some fish move in schools; ants gather in mounds; wolves live in packs; deer associate in herds. The main advantage of membership in a mass community is the safety that it provides. A large group of prey may be easier for a predator to find at any given point than is a small one, and a predator may think twice before taking on such a group; if a predator does decide to challenge a large group, it may merely encounter a confusing mass of moving bodies and possibly may not succeed in its primary goal 1. The word “those” in the passage refers to A. types B. animals C. advantages D. groups 2. The word “it” in line 4 refers to A, advantage B. membership C. community D. safety 3. The word “one” in the passage refers to A. group B. prey C. predator D. point 4. The word “it” in line 7 refers to A. predator B. group C. mass D. goalTest 6. Chromium Compounds Most chromium compounds have brightly colored hues, and as a result they are widely used as coloring agents, or pigments, in paints, In addition to having a pleasing color, a paint must protect the surface to which it is applied and be easy to apply ina thin, uniform coat. All paints consist of two parts. One is a powder of solid particles that is the source of the color and the opaqueness and is known as the pigment. The other, called the binder, is the liquid into which the pigment is blended. The binder used in some paints is made from oily solvents such as those derived from Petroleum resources. When applied, these solvents evaporate, leaving deposits of pigment on the surface. 1. The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to A. chromium compounds B. brightly colored hues C. coloring agents D. pigments 2. The word “it” in paragraph I refers to A. a pleasing color B. a paint C. the surface D. a thin, uniform coat 3. The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to A. a-powder B. solid particles C. the source D. the color 4. The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to A. powder B. paint C. liquid D. pigment 5. The word “those” in paragraph 2 refers to A. some paints B. oily solvents C. Petroleum resources D. deposits of pigmentTest 7. New World Epidemics A huge loss of life resulted from the introduction of Old World diseases into the Americas in the early sixteenth century. The inhabitants of the Americas were separated from Asia, Africa, and Europe by rising oceans following the Ice Ages, and, asa result, they were isolated by means of this watery barrier from numerous virulent epidemic diseases that had developed across the ocean, such as measles, smallpox, pneumonia, and malaria. Pre-Columbian Americans had a relatively disease-free environment but also lacked the antibodies needed to protect them from bacteria and viruses brought to America by European explorers and colonists. A devastating outbreak of disease that strikes for the first time against a completely unprotected population is known as a Virgin soil epidemic. Virgin soil epidemics contributed to an unbelievable decline in the population of native inhabitants of the Americas, one that has been estimated at as much as an 80 percent decrease of the native population in the centuries following the arrival of Europeans in the Americas. 1. The word “they” in the passage refers to A. the inhabitants B. epidemic diseases C. rising oceans D. the Ice Ages 2. The word “that” in the passage refers to A. a disease-free environment B. this watery barrier C. virulent epidemic diseases D. the ocean 3. The word “them” in the passage refers to A. pre-Columbian Americans B. the antibodies C. bacteria and viruses D. European explorers and colonists 4. The word “one” in the passage refers to A. a Virgin soil epidemic B. an unbelievable decline C. the population of native inhabitants D. the arrival of Europeans 18Test 8. Horatio Alger, Jr. Horatio Alger, Jr. (1832-1899) was the author of more than 100 books for boys in the second half of the nineteenth century that focused on the theme of success coming to those who work hard to achieve it. The son of a minister, Alger came from a prominent Massachusetts family. He graduated with honors from Harvard in 1852 and graduated from the Cambridge Divinity School eight years later. He served as a minister for a short time before moving to New York City in 1866 to devote his time to writing it spirational books for boys In many of his books, he wrote about the poor and homeless children of the slums of New York City, seeing them as unfortunate pawns of society who, if only given the opportunity, could improve their lot. A general plotline that he followed often was of a poor boy who managed to achieve a respectable and successfill life by working hard and taking advantage of opportunities presented. Though his writing style was characterized by simplicity and repetition, it was well received by his target audience; his books were enormously popular, selling millions of copies well into the first few decades of the twentieth century. 1. The word “that” in paragraph I refers to A. author B. books C. boys D. half 2. The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to A. the second half B. the nineteenth century C. 100 D. success 3. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to A. books B. children C. slums D. pawns 4. The word “who” in paragraph 2 refers A. slums B. society C. pawns D. opportunity5. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to A. style B. simplicity C. repetition D. audience Test 9. George Lucas’s Star Wars changed the direction of American film with some of the most ingenious special eftects contrived for movies of its time. Twenty-two months were spent on the special etfects, including the six months needed to design the equipment and the more than 1,000 story boards for the effects sequences, A special computerized camera, called a Dykstraflex, was designed to give the illusion of real screen movement. This system, controlled by the camera operator, enabled him or her to pan, tilt, and track around the model, always keeping it in focus. The breakthrough was the camera’s ability to repeat the identical movements from shot to shot; thus the eftects sequences could be built like a music track, layer upon layer. The illusion was complete: 10 none of the spaceships in Star Wars ever moved - only the camera did. The star-field backdrop in space was made by punching holes in black plexiglass. More than 75 models were constructed, with astonishing detail work. On the rebel blockade runner artists built a tiny cockpit, all done to scale. The miniaturized laser canons were fully motorized to swivel and tilt by remote control. The light sabers were four-sided blades coated with 15 reflective aluminum, attached to a small motor. When rotated, they created a flashing light later enhanced by animation. 1. The word “some” in paragraph | refers to A. American film B. direction C. movies D. special effects 2. In paragraph 1, the word “contrived” could be best replaced with which of the following? A. Discovered B. Created C. Performed D. utilized 203. In paragraph 2, “this system” refers to A. the creation of an illusion B. screen movement C. panning and tilting around a model D. a special computerized camera 4, The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to the A. model B. camera C. focus D. system 5. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to the A. miniaturized laser cannons B. artists C. four-sided blades D. seventy-five models Test 10. There are three main types of sedimentary rocks, which are classified according to the origin and size of their particles. One type, called evaporftes, is formed from chemically derived sediments. For example, an inland sea might evaporate and leave a deposit of rock salt. The second type is derived entirely from organic material. Since it is a fossil in its own right, it is called fossitiferous rock. Fossiliferous rocks, such as limestones and chalks, are formed from calcium-based skeletons of tiny organisms deposited on the seabed. Some limestones are fossilized corals; others, known as tufa, are derived from mosses and other plants that grow beside hot springs. Carbon-based rocks, such as coal and jet, are the remains of plant material laid down in huge quantities. The remains of sponges and microscopic diatoms constitute rocks such as chert and tlint The third type of sedimentary rock is clastic. It is formed from eroded particles of other rocks and is graded according to the size of these particles. Fine shales are perhaps the most signiticant sedimentary rocks covering the earth. The sedimentary rocks most likely to contain fossils are those that were laid down in places where there was abundant life and where deposition was rapid enough to bury the organisms before their bodies were broken up and decomposed. The sandy bottoms of shallow, calm seas, river deltas, lagoons, and deserts are the most likely places to give rise to fossils. The finer the sediment, the finer the detail 21recorded in them, Details such as the fur of those reptilian flyers, the pterosaurs, are only visible because they were fossilized in exceptionally fine limestone 1. In paragraph 1 the word “their” refers to A. particles B. sedimentary rocks C. origin and size D. classitication 2. As used in this passage, the word “material” refers to. A. Cloth B. articles C. matter D. values 3. The word “others” in in paragraph 2 refers to A. fossilized corals B. limestones C. tiny organisms D. mosses 4. To which of the following does the word “those” in paragraph 4 refer? ‘A. Sedimentary rocks B. Fossils C. Organisms D. Fine shales 5. The word “them" in paragraph 4 refers to A. sediments B. fossils C. details D. limestones 22Test 11. On a drop shot, a tennis player “drops” the ball just over the net, hoping that his or her opponent won’t get to it at all or will just barely reach it, thus making a weak return. The drop shot works well in a number of situations. It can be used to tire an opponent, to bring a baseline player to the net, to win points outright when an opponent is slow in moving forward or is out of position, or to substitute for the approach shot. A perfect situation for a drop shot occurs when a player’s opponent is far out of court and hits well to the inside of the service line. A good drop shot is 2 sure winner, but a bad one is equally certain disaster. The opponent who gets to the ball early has been handed the net position, which is a distinet advantage for the net rusher who will usually win the point in short order. ‘There are two types of drop shots, each requiring a distinct stroke. The first is used to drop slow balls descending from the peak of the bounce. The second is used on rising balls. These shots require excellent timing and a simple stroke, such as the swing on waist-high volleys 1. The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to A. his or her opponent B. the ball C. the net D. a weak return 2. In paragraph 2, the word “one” refers to A. A disaster B. a sure winner C. the service line D. a drop shot 3. The word “who" in paragraph 2 refers to A. the net rusher B. the net position C. the advantage D. the opponent 4. In paragraph 2, the word “which” refers to A. the opponent B. a distinct advantage C. the net position D. the winning point 235. The word “distinct” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. Difficult B. Comparable C. Definite D. Practiced Test 12. Every year in late December, a southward-moving current warms the water along the Pacific coast of Peru. Because the warm current arrives around Christmas, the Peruvians named it El Nino, “boychild.” Until the mid-1970s, El Nino was an unrecognized local phenomenon, until scientists began to realize that El Nino, later named El Nino Southern 5 Oscillation (ENSO), is part of a huge ocean and atmosphere System that is felt as far away as Australia and Indonesia. Every few years the El Nino current is warmer than normal, causing greater ocean warming and consequently changes in the normal pattems of sea and surface temperatures. The resulting changes in atmospheric pressure affect trade wind speeds and the location of the largest thunderstorms, thus affecting weather patterns around the world. The shift in location of the Pacific’s largest thunderstorms, which usually occur from the Western Pacific to the Central Pacific, changes global weather patterns because the thunderstorms pump air into the atmosphere in different places than normal. The result is a shift in the location of high- and low-pressure areas, wind patterns, and the paths followed by storms. From 1982 to 1983 the El Nino condition caused greater than average precipitation along the U.S. West Coast and sent five hurricanes to French Polynesia, which normally goes years without hurricanes. That same year, El Nino was linked to floods in Louisiana, Florida, Cuba, Ecuador, Peru, and Bolivia, and to droughts in Hawaii, Mexico, Southem Africa, the Philippines, Indonesia, and Australia In response to the 1982-83 global weather disruption, the World Meteorological Organization initiated the Tropical Ocean and Global Atmosphere (TOGA) program, The goal of the 10-year program is to gain a better understanding of El Nino so scientists can forecast future El Nino episodes and their likely results. 1. In paragraph 1, the word “it” refers to A. December B. the warm current 24C. Christmas D. the coast of Peru 2. To what does the word “that” In paragraph I refer? A. A local phenomenon B. An ocean and atmosphere System C. The El Nino Southern Oscillation D. Scientists 3. In paragraph 2, the word “which” refers to A. shifts in location B. global weather patterns C. the atmosphere D. thunderstorms 4. In paragraph 4, the word “initiated” could best be replaced with which of the following? A. Produced B. Established C. Disrupted D. Responded to 5. The word “their” in paragraph 4 refers to A. scientists B. future events C. EI Nino episodes D. results 25Test 13. There are about two dozen species of seahorses, all of which are aquatic. Their tails are prehensile and very agile, but do not propel them fast enough to catch the living food they need. Therefore seahorses have evolved another method of catching their prey. They use extremely strong suction that whips animals such as brine shrimp into their open mouths. Seahorses have eyes that move independently of each other, which enable them to spot potential food, and predators, more casily. The seahorse’s genus name is Hippocampus, which translates as “horse Caterpillar.” 1. The word “their” in the passage refers to A. the tails of seahorses B. aquatic animals C. sources of food D. species of seahorses 2. As used in the passage the word “evolved” means ‘A. grown B. developed C. produced D. changed 3. The word “they” in the passage refers to A. prehensile tails B. prey C. seahorses D. methods 4. In the passage, the word “them” refers to A. eyes B. predators C. seahorses D. brine shrimp 5. In the passage the word “which” refers to A. potential food B. Hippocampus C. horse Caterpillar D. a translation 26Test 14. Planes are subjected to drag forces because an object moving forward through the air is hampered by it to a greater or lesser extent, since the air or any gas has friction. A plane in subsonic flight is preceded by the pressure waves it creates as it makes its way through the air. These pressure waves push away the air in front of the plane so there is less drag than 5 would otherwise be the case. But when a plane reaches sonic speed, or the speed of sound, the pressure waves no longer precede the plane. They no longer push away any of the air in front of the craft, so the drag forces become much greater. The large rise in drag as the plane approaches Mach 1, or the speed of sound, is referred to as the Sonic barrier. Even a conventional subsonic plane traveling at a speed below Mach 1 can encounter an extreme rise in drag. This is because the pressure over the wing is decreased as the wing moves through the air. This results from the increase in the speed of the air stream over the wing in accordance with the law of physies called Bernoulli's principle 1. The word “subjected” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. affected B. hampered C. confronted D. exposed 2. In paragraph 1 the word “it” refers to A. drag force B. an object C. the air D. a plane 3. The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to A. a plane in subsonic flight B. a pressure wave C. air or any gas D. drag force 4, In paragraph 1, the word “they” refers to A. planes reaching Sonic speed B. pressure waves C. drag forces D. conventional subsonic planes 275. To which of the following does the word “this” in paragraph 2 refer? A. A decrease in pressure over the wing B. An increase in the speed of the air stream over the wing C. Pressure waves preceding the plane D. A rise in drag encountered by a subsonic plane 28THONG TIN CHI TIET Test I. Lake Baikal Crescent-shaped Lake Baikal, in Siberia, is only the ninth largest lake in area at 385 miles (620 km) in length and 46 miles (74 km) in width, yet it is easily the largest body of fresh water in the world. It holds one-fifth of the world’s total fresh water, which is more than the total of all the water in the five Great Lakes; it holds so much fresh water in spite of its less-than-impressive area because it is by far the world’s deepest lake. The average depth of the lake is 1,312 feet (400 meters) below sea level, and the Olkhon Crevice, the lowest known point, is more than 5,250 feet (1,600 meters) deep. Lake Baikal, which today is located near the center of the Asian peninsula, is most likely the world’s oldest lake, It began forming 25 million years ago as Asia started splitting apart in a series of great faults. The Baikal Valley dropped away, eventually filling with water and creating the deepest of the world’s lakes. 1. What is stated in paragraph 1 about the shape of Lake Baikal? A. It is wider than it is long. Itis circular in shape. Its width is one-half of its length. It is shaped like a new moon. indicated in paragraph 1 that the area of Lake Baikal B. c. D. 2.1 A. is less than the area of eight other lakes B. Cc. D is one-ninth the area of Siberia is greater than the area of any other freshwater lake is equal to the area of the five Great Lakes 3. According to paragraph 1, Lake Baikal A. holds one-fifth of the world’s water B, holds five times the water of the Great Lakes C. holds one-ninth of the world’s water D. holds 20 percent of the world’s fresh water 4. According to paragraph 1, the Olkhon Crevice is A. outside of Lake Baikal B, 400 meters below sea level C. the deepest part of Lake Baikal D. 5,000 meters deep . It is mentioned in paragraph 2 that Lake Baikal A. is not as old as some other lakes 29B, formed when sections of the Earth were moving away from each other C. was fully formed 25 million years ago D. is today located on the edge of the Asian peninsula Test 2. The Postage stamp The postage stamp has been around for only a relatively short period of time. The use of stamps for postage was first proposed in England in 1837, when Sir Rowland Hill published a pamphlet entitled “Post Office Reform: Its Importance and Practicability” to put forth the ideas that postal rates should not be based on the distance that a letter or package travels but should instead be based on the weight of the letter or package and that fees for postal Services should be collected in advance of the delivery, rather than after, through the use of postage stamps. The ideas proposed by Hill went into effect in England almost immediately, and other countries soon followed suit. The first English stamp, which featured a portrait of then Queen Victoria, was printed in 1840. This stamp, the “penny black,” came in sheets that needed to be separated with scissors and provided enough postage for a letter weighing 14 grams or less to any destination. In 1843, Brazil was the next nation to produce national postage stamps, and various areas in what is today Switzerland also produced postage stamps later in the same year. Postage stamps in five- and ten-cent denominations were first approved by the U.S. Congress in 1847, and by 1860 postage stamps were being issued in more than 90 governmental jurisdictions worldwide. 1. According to paragraph 1, postage stamps were first suggested A. in the first half of the eighteenth century B. in the second half of the eighteenth century C. in the first half of the nineteenth century D. in the second half of the nineteenth century 2. It is indicated in paragraph | that Sir Rowland Hill believed that postage fees A. should be paid by the sender B. should be related to distance C. should have nothing to do with how heavy a package is D. should be collected after the package is delivered 3. What is stated in paragraph 2 about the first English postage stamp? A. It was designed by Queen Victoria. 30B. It contained a drawing of a black penny. C. It was produced in sheets of 14 stamps. D. It could be used to send a lightweight letter. 4, According to paragraph 2, Brazil introduced postage stamps A. before England B. before Switzerland C. after the United States D. after Switzerland 5. Iti A. postage stamps were in use in 90 different countries B. it cost fifteen cents to mail a letter in the United States C. two different denominations of postage stamps were introduced in the United States D. the U.S. Congress introduced the “penny black” stamp Test 3. The Clovis Culture Archeologists have found sites all over North America that contain similar tools dating from a period about 12,000 years ago. The culture that developed these tools has been named Clovis after the site near Clovis, New Mexico, where the first tools of this sort were discovered in 1932. The tools are quite sophisticated and are unlike any tools that have been found in the Old World. mentioned in paragraph 2 that in 1847 In the years since the first tools of this sort were discovered in New Mexico, archeologists have discovered Clovis tools in areas ranging from Mexico to Montana in the United States and Nova Scotia in Canada. All of the Clovis finds date from approximately the same period, a fact which suggests that the Clovis spread rapidly throughout the North American continent From the evidence that has been discovered, archeologists have concluded that the Clovis were a mobile culture. They traveled in groups of 40 to 50 individuals, migrating seasonally and returning to the same hunting camps each year. Their population increased rapidly as they spread out over the continent, and they were quite possibly motivated to develop their sophisticated hunting tools to feed their rapidly expanding populace. 1, What is stated in paragraph 1 about Clovis tools? A. They date from around 10,000 B.C. B. They have been in use for 12,000 years. C. They have been found at only one location.D. They were discovered by archeologists hundreds of years ago. 2. According to paragraph 1, the town of Clovis A. is in Mexico B. was founded in 1932 C. is where all members of the Clovis culture lived D. is where the first remnants of an ancient culture were found 3. It is indicated in paragraph 1 that the tools ound near Clovis, New Mexico, were A. very rudimentary B. similar to others found prior to 1932 C. rather advanced D. similar to some found in Africa and Europe 4. According to paragraph 2, what conclusion have archeologists drawn from the Clovis finds? A. That the Clovis tended to remain in one place B. That the Clovis expanded relatively quickly C. That the Clovis lived throughout the world D. That the Clovis were a seafaring culture 5. It is mentioned in paragraph 3 that it is believed that the Clovis A. lived in familial groups of four or five people B. had a relatively stable population C. lived only in New Mexico D. spent summers and winters in different places Test 4. Brown Dwarfs A brown dwarf is a celestial body that has never quite become a star. A typical brown dwarf has a mass that is 8 percent or less than that of the Sun. The mass of a brown dwarf is too small to generate the internal temperatures capable of igniting the nuclear burning of hydrogen to release energy and light. A brown dwarf contracts at a steady rate, and after it has contracted as much as possible, a process that takes about | million years, it begins to cool off. Its emission of light diminishes with the decrease in its internal temperature, and after a period of 2 to 3 billion years, its emission of light is so weak that it can be difficult to observe from Earth. Because of these characteristics of a brown dwarf, it can be easily distinguished from stars in different stages of formation. A brown dwarf is quite distinctive because its surface temperature is relatively cool and because its internal 32composition - approximately 75 percent hydrogen - has remained essentially the same as it was when first formed. A white dwarf, in contrast, has gone through a long period when it burns hydrogen, followed by another long period in which it bums the helium created by the burning of hydrogen and ends up with a core that consists mostly of oxygen and carbon with a thin layer of hydrogen surrounding the core, It is not always as easy, however, to distinguish brown dwarfs from large planets. Though planets are not formed in the same way as brown dwarfs, they may in their current State have some of the same cl teristics as a brown dwarf. The planet Jupiter, for example, is the largest planet in our solar System with a mass 317 times that of our planet and resembles a brown dwarf in that it radiates energy based on its internal energy. It is the mechanism by which they were formed that distinguishes a high-mass planet such as Jupiter from a low-mass brown dwarf. 1. It is stated in the passage that the mass of an average brown dwarf A. is smaller than the mass of the Sun B. generates an extremely high internal temperature C. is capable of igniting nuclear burning D. causes the release of considerable energy and light 2. According to paragraph 2, a brown dwarf cools off A. within the first million years of its existence B. after its contraction is complete C. at the same time that it contracts D. in order to begin contracting 3. What is stated in paragraph 2 about a brown dwarf that has cooled off for several million years? A. Its weak light makes it difficult to see from Earth. B. It no longer emits light. C. Its weak light has begun the process of restrengthening D. Scientists are unable to study it. 4. It is indicated in paragraph 3 that A. the amount of hydrogen in a brown dwarf has increased dramatically B. a brown dwarf had far more hydrogen when it first formed C. three-quarters of the core of a brown dwarf is hydrogen D. the internal composition of a brown dwarf is always changing 5. According to paragraph 3, a white dwarf A. is approximately 75 percent hydrogenB, still burns a considerable amount of hydrogen C. creates hydrogen from helium D. no longer has a predominantly hydrogen core 6. What is mentioned in paragraph 4 about brown dwarfs? A. They are quite different from large planets. B, They are formed in the same way as » large planets C. They can share some similarities with large planets D. They have nothing in common with large planets 7. It is indicated in paragraph 4 that Jupiter A. radiates far less energy than a brown dwarf B. is a brown dwarf C. formed in the same way as a brown dwarf D. is in at least one respect similar to a brown dwarf Test 5. Flatfish Members of the flatfish family, sand dabs and flounders, have an evolutionary advantage over many colourfully decorated ocean neighbors in that they are able to adapt their body coloration to different environments. These aquatic chameleons have flattened bodies that are well-suited to life along the ocean floor in the shallower areas of the continental shelf that they inhabit. They also have remarkably sensitive color Vision that registers the subtlest gradations on the sea bottom and in the sea life around them. Information about the coloration of the environment is carried through the nervous System to chromatophores, which are pigment-carrying skin cells. These chromatophores are able to accurately reproduce not only the colors but also the texture of the ocean tloor. Each time that a sand dab or flounder finds itself in a new environment, the pattern on the body of the fish adapts to fit in with the color and texture around it. 1, It is NOT stated in the passage that sand dabs A. are a type of flattish B, are in the same family as flounders C. have evolved D. are colourfully decorated 2. According to the passages, i A. have flattened bodies B. live along the ocean floor C. live in the deepest part of the ocean D. live along the continental shelf is NOT true that sand dabs and flounders 343. All of the following are stated about the Vision of sand dabs and flounders EXCEPT that they are overly sensitive to light able to see colors able to see the sea bottom . aware of their surroundings NOT true that chromatophores .. are skin cells carry pigment adapt to surrounding colors . change the ocean floor NOT mentioned in the passage that sand dabs and flounders move to new environments adapt their behavior can change color ). adapt to textures around them vow> Ps n VOPR oUND> Test 6. Limestone Caves Limestone caves can be spectacular structures tilled with giant stalactites and stalagmites. These caves are formed when rainwater, which is a weak acid, di down into cracks, enlarging them into caves. Some of the lime is then redeposited ves calcite, or lime, out of limestone. Over time, the lime-laden water drips to form stalactites and stalagmites. Stalactites, which grow down from cave ceilings, are formed in limestone caves when groundwater containing dissolved lime drips from the root of the cave and leaves a thin deposit as it evaporates. Stalactites generally grow only a traction of an inch each year, but over time a considerable number may grow to be several yards long. In cases where the supply of water is seasonal, they may actually have growth rings resembling those on tree trunks that indicate how old the stalactites are. Stalagmites are formed on the floor of a limestone cave where water containing dissolved lime has dripped either from the cave ceiling or from a stalactite above. They develop in the same way as stalactites, when water containing dissolved limestone evaporates. In some limestone caves with mature limestone development, stalactites and stalagmites grow together, creating limestone pillars that stretch from the cave floor to the cave ceiling1. It is indicated in paragraph 1 that all of the following are part of the process of forming limestone caves EXCEPT that A. rainwater dissolves lime from limestone B. the lime-tilled water seeps into breaks in the ground C. the lime in the water evaporates D. the cracks in the ground develop into caves 2. According to paragraph 2, it is NOT true that stalactites A. enlarge cave ceilings B. are found in limestone caves C. grow ina downward direction D. grow quite slowly 3. It is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 A. how long stalactites may grow B. how the age of a stalactite is determined C. what one of the effects of a limited water supply is D. what causes stalactites to disappear 4. According to paragraph 3, stalagmites are NOT formed A. on cave floors B. from lime dissolved in water C. above stalactites D. as water containing lime evaporates 5. It is NOT indicated in paragraph 3 that limestone pillars A. result when a stalactite and a stalagmite grow together B. are attached to both the floor and the ceiling of a cave C. are relatively aged limestone formations D. are more durable than stalactites and stalagmites Test 7. Wrigley’s Chewing Gum Wrigley’s chewing gum was actually developed as a premium to be given away with other Products rather than as a primary product for sale. As a teenager, William Wrigley Jr. was working for his father in Chicago selling soap that had been manufactured in his father’s factory. The soap was not very popular with merchants because it was priced at five cents, and this selling price did not leave a good profit margin for the merchants. Wrigley convinced his father to raise the price to ten cents and to give away cheap umbrellas as a premium for the merchants. This worked successfully, confirming to Wrigley that the use of premiums was an effective sales tool 36Wrigley then established his own company; in his company he was selling soap as a wholesaler, giving baking soda away as a premium, and using a cookbook to promote each deal. Over time, the baking soda and cookbook became more popular than the soap, so Wrigley began a new operation selling baking soda. He began hunting for a new premium item to give away with sales of baking soda; he soon decided on chewing gum. Once again, when Wrigley realized that demand for the premium was stronger than the demand for the original product, he created the Wm. Wrigley Jr, Company to produce and sell chewing gum. Wrigley started out with two brands of gum, Vassar and Lotta Gum, and soon introduced Juicy Fruit and Spearment. The latter two brands grew in popularity, while the first two were phased out. Juicy Fruit and Spearment are two of Wrigley’s main brands to this day. 1. It is NOT indicated in paragraph 1 that young William was working A. in Chicago B. for his father C. asa soap salesman D. in his father’s factory 2. According to paragraph 1, i Wrigley was selling ‘A. was originally well-liked B. was originally priced at five cents C. originally provided little profit for merchants D. eventually became more popular with merchants 3. According to paragraph 2, it is NOT true that, when Wrigley first founded his own company, he was A. selling soap B. selling chewing gum C. giving away cookbooks D. using baking soda as a premium 4. It is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 that Wrigley later A. sold baking soda B. used chewing gun as a premium to sell baking soda C. sold chewing gum D. used baking soda as a premium to sell chewing gum 5. According to paragraph 3, the Wm. Wrigley Jr. Company did all of the following EXCEPT A. begin with two brands of gum NOT true that the soap that youngB, add new brands to the original two C. phase out the last two brands D. phase out the first two brands Test 8. Dissociative Identity Disorder Dissociative identity disorder is a psychological condition in which a person’s identity dissociates, or fragments, thereby creating distinct independent identities within one individual. Each separate personality can be distinct from the other personalities in a number of ways, including posture, manner of moving, tone and pitch of voice, gestures, facial expressions, and use of language. A person suffering from dissociative identity disorder may have a large number of independent personalities or perhaps only two or three ‘Two stories of actual women suffering from dissociative identity disorder have been extensively recounted in books and films that are familiar to the public. One of them is the story of a woman with 22 separate personalities known as Eve. In the 1950s, a book by Corbett Thigpen and a motion picture starring Joanne Woodward, each of which was titled The Three Faces of Eve, presented her story; the title referred to 3 faces, when the woman known as Eve actually experienced 22 different personalities, because only 3 of the personalities could exist at one time. Two decades later, Carolyn Sizemore, Eve’s 22nd personality, wrote about her experiences in a book entitled I’m Eve. The second well- known story of a woman suffering from dissociative personality disorder is the story of Sybil, a woman whose 16 distinct personalities emerged over a period of 40 years. A book describing Sybil’s experiences was written by Flora Rheta Schreiber and was published in 1973; a motion picture based on the book and starring Sally Field followed. 1. It is NOT stated in paragraph 1 that someone suffering from dissociative identity disorder has ‘A. a psychological condition B. a fragmented identity C. a number of independent identities D. some violent and some nonviolent identities 2. It is indicated in paragraph 1 that distinct personalities can differ in all of the following ways EXCEPT ‘A. manner of dressing B. manner of moving C. manner of speaking 38D. 3.1t A B. Cc. D. 4. It AL B. Cc. D. manner of gesturing is indicated in paragraph 2 that it is NOT true that Eve suffered from dissociative identity disorder starred in the movie about her life had 22 distinct personalities had only 3 distinct personalities at any one time is NOT stated in paragraph 2 that The Three Faces of Eve was based on the life of a real woman was the title of a book was the title of a movie was made into a movie in 1950 5. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 2 about Carolyn Sizemore EXCEPT that she A B. Cc. D. wrote I’m Eve was one of Eve’s personalities wrote a book in the 1970s was familiar with all 22 personalities 6. According to paragraph 2, it is NOT true that Sybil AL B. Cc. D 7.1t was a real person suffered from dissociative identity disorder developed all her personalities over 16 years developed 16 distinctive personalities over a long period of time is NOT indicated in paragraph 2 that the book describing Sybil’s experiences A B. Cc. D. . took 40 years to write was written by Flora Rheta Schreiber appeared in the 1970s was made into a movieTest 9. Hermit crabs occupy the empty shells of dead sea snails for protection while still retaining their mobility. They are capable of discriminating among a selection of shells of various sizes and species, and they choose the one that fits the body most closely. Hermit crabs change shells as they grow, although in some marine environments a large enough variety of shells may not be available and the hermit crab may be forced to occupy a smaller-than-ideal “house.” When a Shell becomes too small for the hermit crab to occupy, it will sometimes become aggressive and fight other hermit crabs to gain a larger shell. Hermit crabs may encounter empty shells in the course of their daily activity, but the vacant Shell is usually spotted by sight. The hermit crab’s visual response increases with the size of an object and its contrast against the background. The hermit crab then seizes the Shell with its walking legs and climbs on it, monitoring its size. If the size is right, the crab investigates its shape and texture by rolling it over between its walking legs and running its claws over the surface. Once the shell’s opening has been located, the crab uses its claws to remove any foreign material before preparing to enter. The crab rises above the opening, flexes its abdomen, and enters the shell backward. The shell interior is monitored by the abdomen as the crab repeatedly enters and withdraws. When completely satisfied with its new mobile home, the hermit crab will emerge one last time, turn the shell over and make a final entrance. 1. According to the passage, hermit crabs occupy vacant shells for A. mobility B. flexibility C. protection D. discrimination 2. According to the passage, a hermit crab changes shells when it A. outgrows the one it has B. hunts for food C. becomes aggressive D. locates any vacant Shell 3. According to the passage, the way in which hermit crabs locate empty shells is through which of the following senses? A. Hearing B. Touch C. Taste 40D. Sight 4, What does a crab NOT investigate a vacant shell for? A. size B. type C. shape D. texture 5. According to the passage, a hermit crab enters a new shell A. head first B, claws first C. backward D. with its walking legs 6. According to the passage, a hermit crab settles into its new “mobile home” A. after entering and leaving several times B. without inspecting the interior first C. immediately after locating the shell opening D. after fighting other hermit crabs for a larger shell Test 10. The first black literature in America was not written but was preserved in an oral tradition, in a rich body of folklore, songs and stories, many from Atrican origins. There are humorous tales, Biblical stories, animal stori and stories of natural phenomena, of good and bad people, and of the wise and toolish. Many reflect how Aifrican-Americans viewed themselves and their lives. The lyrics of blues, spirituals, and work songs speak of suffering and hope, joy and pain, loved ones, and religious faith, and are an integral part of the early literature of black people in America. ‘The earliest existing written black literature was Lucy Terry’s poem “Bars Fight," written in 1746. Other 18th-century black poets include Jupiter Hammon and George Moses Horton, The first Atrican- American to publish a book in America was Phillis Wheatley. Black poetry also flourished in the 19th century, during which the writings of almost 40 poets were printed, the most notable of whom was Paul Laurence Dunbar, the first black American to achieve national acclaim for his work. Dunbar published eight volumes of poetry and eight novels and collections of stories. More than three dozen novels were written by blacks between 1853 and 1899, but autobiography dominated Atrican-American literature in the 19th century, as it 4had in the 18th. In the 20th century, however, fiction has presided, with Charles w. Chestnutt, America’s first black man of letters, suecesstully bridging the two centuries. He began publishing short fiction in the mid-1880s, wrote two books that appeared in 1899, and had three books published between 1900 and 1905. He was a Pioneer ot the “new literature” of the early 1900s, which aimed to persuade readers of the worth and equality of African-Americans L 42 Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as part of the oral tradition of African-Americans? A. Humorous tales B. Tales of adventure C. Biblical stories D. Animal stories 2. According to the passage, the lyrics of blues and spirituals are often concerned with the pain and joy in life loved ones and animals religion and nature wise and foolish people According to the passage, an important part of early African- yeonm> American literature was novels short fiction stories biographies songs According to the passage, when did the first written African-American literature appear? In the 1600S In the 1700s In the 1800S In the 1900s According to the passage, who was the first African-American to receive national recognition for his writing? Paul Dunbar George Horton Lucy Terry Phillis Wheatley FoOOR> FOND vow>La According to the passage, what form dominated African-American literature in the 19th century? Poetry Novels Autobiography . Fiction soagmD> According to the passage, Charles w. Chestnutt was one the first writers to .. write about the suffering of African- Americans publish short fiction in the early 1900S. write persuasively about the worth of African Americans dominate the African-American literary tradition Test 11. ‘A snowflake originates from countless water molecules that initially come together in small groups as a result of'a weak attractive force between oxygen and hydrogen atoms. The same forces subsequently organize the groups into a frozen molecular crystal, a perfectly organized lattice of molecules. Finally, several molecular crystals join to form a snowflake. Scientists have realized for some time that the forces that assemble molecules into natural crystals can be utilized to produce a variety of important materials. They have determined the structure of more than 90,000 different molecular crystals, the most common examples of which are as coOp> in and mothballs. In recent years, researchers have studied how molecules organize themselves to form crystals in the hope of better understanding what types of molecules and what conditions will produce molecular crystals with unusual and usetul properties. Scientists are aware that the material properties of a crystal depend in large part on the organization of the molecules in the crystal, yet they know little about the factors controlling the assembly of such crystals. Synthesizing a molecular crystal is similar to designing a building. Before construction can begin, the architect must specify the shapes and sizes of the girders and the number and placement of the rivets. Similarly, to produce new molecular crystals, chemists must choose molecules of the appropriate sizes and shapes and select the molecular forces that will hold the crystals together. A chemist can normally find many molecules of various shapes and sizes, but the challenge is to find ones that assemble in a predictable manner. 1. According to the passage, a snowflake is formed by 43A. the attractive force between oxygen and hydrogen B. molecular crystals with new and useful properties C. the synthesizing of molecular crystals D. the joining of several molecular crystals 2. According to the passage, water molecules join together as a result of A. an attraction between oxygen and hydrogen atoms B. the organization of the molecules in a crystal C. astrong force that assembles crystal atoms D. the unusual and useful properties of molecular crystals 3. By making use of forces that assemble molecules into natural crystals, scientists can A. find molecules of various shapes and sizes B. determine the structure of different molecular crystals C. organize molecules into a perfect lattice D. create new and useful materials 4. According to the passage, what reason do researchers have for studying how mole- cules organize themselves to form crystals? A. To assemble molecules into natural crystals B. To learn how to synthesize molecular crystals C. To make aspirin and mothballs D. To change the material properties of a crystal 5. According to the passage, what do scientists still need to learn about the organization of molecules? A. What determines the material property of a crystal B. The molecular forces that hold molecules together C. The conditions that produce molecular crystals D. The factors controlling the way crystals are assemble 6. To produce new molecular crystals, there is one thing chemists must NOT choose A. molecules of the right size B. molecules of the appropriate shape C. the right molecular organization D. the proper molecular forces 7. According to the passage, the task of synthesizing a molecular crystal can be compared to A. designing a building B. building a house 44C. making materials D. constructing a lattice Test 12. Education was of primary importance to the English colonists and was conducted at home as well as in established schools. Regardless of geographic location or finances, most Americans leamed to read and compute numbers. For many, the Bible and other religious tracts were their only books; however, the excellent language contained in such works usually made them good primers. Many families owned one or mo re of Shakespeare’s works, a copy of John Bunyan’s, classic A Pilgrim’s Progress, and sometimes collections of English literary essays, poems, or historical speeches In 1647 the Massachusetts School Law required every town of at least SO households to maintain a grammar school. The law was the first to mandate public education in America. In the middle colonies at the time, schools were often dependent on religious societies, such as the Quakers and other private organizations. In the South, families employed private tutors or relied on the clergy to conduct education. At the outset, most elementary schools were for boys, but schools for girls were established in the eighteenth century in most cities and large towns. In spite of the intormal atmosphere of most American schools, the literacy rate in the colonies of mid-eighteenth century America was equal to or higher than that in most European countries. Before the American Revolution, nine colleges had been founded, including Harvard, William and Mary, Yale, the College of New Jersey (now Princeton), Brown, Rutgers, Dartmouth, and Kings College (later Columbia University). By 1720 the natural Sciences and modern languages were being taught, as well as courses in practical subjects such as mechanics and agriculture. At the end of the 18th century, medical schools were established at the College of Philadelphia and at King’s College. 1. Which of the following words best describes the English colonists’ attitude toward education? A. Indifferent B, Distrustful C. Enthusiastic D. Casual 2. According to the passage, most Americans learned how to A. write 45B. read C. farm D. speak a foreign language 3. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT sometimes substituted for school books? A. historical speeches B. works of Shakespeare C. literary essays D. Biographies 4. According to the passage, the Massachusetts School Law applied to every town with how many households? A. Less than 50 B. Exactly 50 C. Fifty or more D. Fifteen 5. According to the passage, the middle colonies often depended upon which group to provide education? A. Private organizations B, Colleges C. Established primary schools D. Businesses 6. According to the passage, who often conducted education in the South? A. Public school teachers B. Doctors 7. How well educated were Americans in comparison to most European countries? A. Much worse B. The same or better C. Far better D. Less or equal 8. According to the passage, which subject was NOT taught in colleges in the 1700s A. languages B. Science C. medicine 46D. economics Test 13. The study of control processes in electronic, mechanical, and biological Syster is known as cybernetic coined in 1948 by the American mathematician Norbert Wiener from the Greek word meaning pilot or steersman Cybernetics is concerned with the analysis of the flow of information in both living organisms and machines, but it is particularly concerned with Systems that are capable of regulating their own operations without human control. The word was ‘Automatic regulation is accomplished by using information about the State of the end product that is fed back to the regulating device, causing it to modify Or correct production procedures if necessary. The concept of feedback is at the very heart of cybernetics and is what makes a system automatic and self-regulating. A simple example of a self-regulating machine is a thermostat, which reacts to continual feedback about the outside temperature and responds accordingly to achieve the temperature that has been programmed into it. The applications of cybernetics are wide reaching, appearing in Science, engineering, technology, sociology, economics, education, and medicine. Computers can keep a patient alive during a surgical operation, making instantaneous modifications based on a constant flow of information. In education, teaching machines use cybernetic principles to instruct students on an individual basis. In the home, automation is present in such everyday Products as reftigerators, coffee makers, and dishwashers. In industry, automation is increasing its applications, although it is currently applied primarily to the large- scale production of single units. In industries in which a break in the flow of production can ruin the product, automatic controls are invaluable. Chemical and Petroleum plants are now almost completely automatic, as are Industries involved in the production of chemicals and atomic energy. Automation has become the answer when human safety is the number one priority. 1. Which system is NOT is the study of control processes of cybernetics? A. ecological B. biological C. mechanical D. electronic 2. According to the passage, the word “cybernetics” was coined from the Greek word meaning A. information 47» wn bal = ° 48 |. According to the passage, how B. automatic C. pilot D. regulator . According to the passage, cybernetics is primarily concerned with systems that A. are controlled by humans B, analyze flaws of information C. are self-regulating D. have wide-reaching applications automatic regulation accomplished? A. By modifying and correcting production procedures B. By feeding information to the regulatory device C. By analyzing the flow of information to the organism D. By making modifications in cybernetic principles . According to the passage, what makes a system automatic and self- regulating? A. Information B. Production procedures C. Human control D. Feedback Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an area in which cybernetics has applications? A. Technology B. Engineering C. Philosophy D. Education According to the passage, automation in industry is primarily used in producing A. large quantities of a single unit B. everyday household Products C. small amounts of many different Products D. high tech surgical instruments . According to the passage, automation is extremely important when the top priorit A. efficiency B. speed C. convenienceD. safety 49THONG TIN SUY RA Test 1. Tiger Moths One of the most beautiful of the more than 100,000 known species in the order Lepidoptera are the tiger moths, moths known for the striking appeal of their distinctive coloration. This type of moth is covered with highly conspicuous orange-and-black or yellow-and-black patterns of spots and stripes. Such boldly patterned color combinations are commonplace in the animal world, serving the function of forewarning potential predators of unpleasant tastes and smells. This is unquestionably the function served by the striking coloration of the garden tiger moth, which is quite visually attractive but is also poisonous to predators, Certain glands in the garden tiger moth produce strong toxins that circulate throughout the insect’s bloodstream, while other glands secrete bubbles that produce a noxious warning smell. The tiger moth, indeed, is a clear example of a concept that many predators intuitively understand, that creatures with the brightest coloration are often the least suitable to eat. 1. It is implied in the passage about the order Lepidoptera that A. all members of the order are moths B. there may be more than 100,000 species in this order C. all members of the order are brightly colored D. there are most likely fewer than 100,000 species in this order . It can be interred from the passage that the tiger moth was so named because A. its coloration resembles that of a tiger B. itis a ferocious predator, like the tiger C. its habitat is the same as the tiger’s D. it is a member of the same scientific classification as the tiger . What would most likely happen to a predator that wanted to eat a tiger moth? A. The predator would be unable to catch it. B. The predator would capture it by poisoning it. C. The predator would be unable to find it. D. The predator would back away from it. Which of the following would a predator be most likely to attack successfully? A. A purple and orange moth B. A green and blue moth C. a brown and grey moth 50 v wo >Test 2. ‘The Cambrian Explosion Many of the major phyla of animals arose during the Cambrian period, in what is called the Cambrian Explosion, Prior to the Cambrian period, simple one-celled organisms had slowly evolved into primitive multicellular creatures, Then, in a relatively rapid explosion during the period from 540 million years ago to 500 million years ago, there was a period of astonishing diversification in which quickly developing organisms became widely distributed and formed complex communities One theoretical explanation for the rapid diversification that occurred during the Cambrian period is known as the theory of polar wander. According to this theory, the rapid diversification occurred because of an unusually rapid reorganization of the Earth’s crust during the Cambrian period. This rapid change in the Earth’s crust initiated evolutionary change inasmuch as change in the environment serves to trigger evolutionary change 1. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that A. some major phyla developed during periods other than the Cambrian period B, many other phyla of animals became extinct during the Cambrian Explosion C. descriptions of various animal phyla were created during the Cambrian period D. the major phyla of animals that came about during the Cambrian period died out in the Cambrian Explosion 2. It can be determined from paragraph 1 that the Cambrian Explosion most likely lasted A. 40 million years B, 450 million years C. 500 million years D. 540 million years 3. It is implied in paragraph 2 that A. only one theory to explain the rapid diversification has been proposed B. the polar wander explanation is accepted by all scientists C. the theory of polar wander tails to adequately explain the rapid diversification 51D. the theory of polar wander is not the only theory to explain the rapid diversification 4. It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that one basis of the theory of polar wander is that A. relatively little change in the Earth’s crust took place during the Cambrian period B. rapid diversification was unable to take place because of the changes in the Earth’s crust C. the Earth’s crust changed more slowly in other periods D. evolutionary change is unrelated to changes in the environment Test 3. The Golden Age of Comics The period from the late 1930s to the middle 1940s is known as the Golden Age of comic books. The modern comic book came about in the early 1930s in the United States as a giveaway premium to promote the sales of a whole range of household Products such as cereal and cleansers. The comic books, which were printed in bright colors to attract the attention of potential customers, proved so popular that some publishers decided to produce comic books that would come out on a monthly basis and would sell for a dime each. Though comic strips had been reproduced in publications prior to this time, omic book, which was started in 1934, marked the first s attempted. mous Funni sion that a serialized book of comics w: oc Early comic books reprinted already existing comic strips and comics based on known characters; however, publishers soon began introducing original characters developed specifically for comic books. Superman was introduced in Action Comics in 1938, and Batman was introduced a year later. The tremendous success of these superhero comic books led to the development of numerous comic books on a variety of topics, though superhero comic books predominated. Astonishingly, by 1945 approximately 160 different comic books were being published in the United States each month, and 90 percent of U.S. children were said to read comic books on a regular basis. 1, It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that, at the beginning of the 1930s, comic books most likely cost A. nothing B. 5 cents C. 10 cents 52D. 25 cents 2. Comic books would least likely have been used to promote ‘A. soap B. cookies C. jewellery D. bread 3.1t A. was a promotional item. B. appeared in a magazine C. had been produced prior to 1934 D. was published on a regular basis 4. From the information in paragraph 2, it appears that Superman most likely A. was introduced sometime after Batman. B. was a character that first appeared in a comic book C. first appeared in Famous Funnies implied in the passage that Famous Funnies D. first appeared in a promotional comic strip 5. It is implied in paragraph 2 that it is surprising that A. comic strips were more popular than comic books B, superheroes were not too popular C. 90 percent of US. children did not read comics D. comic books developed so quickly Test 4. The Filibuster The term filibuster has been in use since the mid-nineteenth century to describe the tactic of delaying legislative action in order to prevent the passage of a bill. The word comes from the Dutch freebooter, or pirate, and most likely developed from the idea that someone conducting a filibuster is trying to steal away the opportunity that proponents of a bill have to make it successful In the earlier history of the U.S. Congress, filibusters were used in both the House of Representatives and in the Senate, but they are now much more a part of the culture of the Senate than of the House. Because the House is a much larger body than is the Senate, the House now has rules which greatly limit the amount of time that each member may speak, which effectively serves to eliminate the filibuster as a mechanism for delaying legislation in the House. In the Senate, the smaller of the two bodies, there are now rules that can constrain but not totally eliminate filibusters. The Senate adopted its first cloture rule in 531917, a rule which requires a vote of two-thirds of the Senate to limit debate to one hour on each side. The rule was changed in 1975 and now requires a vote of three-fifths of the members to invoke cloture in most situations. The longest filibuster on record occurred in 1957, when Senator Strom Thurmond of South Carolina wanted to delay voting on civil rights legislation. The filibuster was conducted for twenty-four hours and 18 minutes on August 28 and 29, when Thurmond held the floor of the Senate by lecturing on the law and reading from court decisions and newspaper columns. It was his hope that this filibuster would rally opponents of civil rights legislation; however, two weeks after the filibuster, the Civil Rights Act of 1957 passed 1. It can be interred from the information in paragraph | that around 1800 A. the first filibuster took place B, legislative action was never delayed C. the term filibuster was not in use in the U.S. Congress D. the Dutch introduced the term freebooter 2. It can be determined from paragraph 1 that a freebooter was most likely someone who A. served in the Senate B, robbed passing ships C. enacted legislation D. served in the Dutch government 3. It is implied in paragraph 2 that, in its early years, the House A. had no rules against filibusters B. had few filibusters C. had fewer filibusters than the Senate D. had the longest filibuster on record 4. Based on the information in paragraph 3, a vote of cloture would most likely be used to A. initiate filibusters B. break filibusters C. extend filibusters D. encourage filibusters 5. It can be interred from the information in paragraph 3 that the 1975 rule change A. increased the number of people needed to vote for cloture B. made it easier to limit a filibuster 54C. covered all types of Senate votes D. decreased the number of people in the Senate 6. It is implied in paragraph 4 that Senator Thurmond was opposed to A. filibusters B. lecturing on the law C. speaking in the Senate D. the Civil Rights Act of 1957 Test 5. Although dinosaurs roamed virtually the whole earth for 160 million years, dinosaur skeletons are relatively scarce. Many dinosaurs are known only from a single tooth or bone chip. The reason is that it takes very special conditions to make a fossil and a lot of luck to find one. For many years, information about Tyrannosaurus rex was sketchy at best. However, in the summer of 1990, the first nearly complete Tyrannosaurus rex skeleton ever found was excavated in the Montana badlands. That same year a second, even more complete, skeleton was found in South Dakota. Together these skeletons yielded surprising new insights into the most famous of the dinosaurs, about the anatomy and behavior of T. rex and the world in which it lived ‘Among the surprising discoveries were that T. rex was a far sleeker, but more powerful, carnivore than previously thought, perhaps weighing less than 61/2 tons, no more than a bull elephant, and that T. Rex’ s habitat was forest, not swamp or plain as previously believed. Moreover, there appears to have been two forms of T. rex, the male quite different from the female. Scientists hope that future fossil discoveries and increasingly more sophisticated techniques will provide more accurate and complete information about not only T. rex but all the dinosaurs, giving us a window on the world so man millions of years into the past. 1, It can be inferred from the passage that much of what scientists know about T. rex. A. Has been known for many years B, Has not come from fossil discoveries C. Has been derived from the most sophisticated techniques D. Has been recently discovered 2. The passage implies that fossil A. Are usually found in the Midwest B. Are usually found in beds containing complete skeletons C. Are few in comparison to the number of dinosaurs that roamed the earth 55D. Are easy to discover but difficult to excavate 3. Which of the following can be inferred fromthe passage? A. Interest in fossils is relatively recent. B. It takes advanced techniques to find fossils. C. The search for fossils has been going on for many years. D. Dinosaurs were continued to a relatively small area 4. Which of the following can be inferredabout T. rex? A. It was a small but powerful dinosaur. B. It was a strong, meat-eating dinosaur. C. It was a fast, plains-dwelling dinosaur. D. It was a gigantic, forest-dwelling dinosaur. 5. The passage implies which of the following? A. Not all the conclusions scientists make are accurate. B. We have all the information we need about life millions of years ago. C. New discoveries are confirming old theories. D. A whole skeleton is required for information about a dinosaur. Test 6. ‘A major revolution for the automated office is electronic mail. The customary postal System requires messages written on paper to be transmitted physically from one location to another. With electronic mail, messages are converted into electronic signals, transmitted anywhere in the world, and then changed back into the original written form, all in several seconds or minutes at most. Through the use of video screens in company offices, a single document can be transmitted to hundreds of people in dozens of branch offices at the same time. Thus, electronic mail, along with databases, can be an important asset in teleconferences. Furthermore, the use of electronic mail in the form of a “mailbox” attached to a telephone is also of great value. Since in offices many telephone calls go uncompleted on the first attempt, with electronic mail, two- way conversion is not essential, so it reduces telephone use and saves time Electronic mail is far more expensive than the postal system, as it must compete for transmission space on satellite, telephone, and cable links. But planned increases in satellite communications should lower the price and assist in the spread of electronic mail. 1, It can be inferred from the passage that the advantages of electronic mail are 56A. Its low cost and efficiency B. Its use of the postal system and telephone “mailboxes" C. Its role in satellite communications and teleconferencing D. Its speed and utility 2. The passage implies that electronic mail A. Will be used more often in the future B. Will soon outlive its usefuln C. Is too costly for most offices D. Could never take the place of the current postal System 3. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. Electronic mail saves money but not time. B. Electronic mail has more than one use in the office setting. C. Electronic mail will eventually replace the telephone. D. Electronic mail is not a new phenomenon. Test 7. Brown bears are found in Alaska and western Canada. They are first cousins of the grizzly, each belonging to the species Ursus arctos. The chief difference in them is size, as brown bears on the average are slightly larger. A full-grown male may weigh 1,500 pounds and stand 9 to 10 feet tall. Like bears everywhere they are creatures of habit that tread the same trails year after year. Brown bears have three gaits: an even, deliberate one that takes them over rough or boggy ground at a steady clip, a quick shufile, and a fast gallop. They are not only surprisingly fast, but also, for such huge beasts, amazingly agile. They can charge up and climb down nearly vertical inclines. Fishing the streams in summer, they pounce on swift-moving salmon and snatch them with almost simultaneous movements of their paws and mouths. Brown bears are excellent swimmers and love to loll and wallow in the water on warm days. They are also curious and playful. Most manifest a fear of humans, but Alaskans prefer not to test these creatures and usually carry noisemakers of some kind to warn the bears of their presence. 1. It can be inferred from the passage that A. Grizzlies are smaller than brown bears. B. Brown bears do not have the same habits as most bears C. Grizzlies are not found in western Canada D. Grizzlies and brown bears are not related 572. It is most probable that if a brown bear came across a human in the wild it would A. Attack the human B. Avoid the human C. Not be the least interested in the human D. Be friendly toward the human 3. The passage implies that brown bears A. Are huge, awkward animals B. Can negotiate almost any terrain C. Are fierce and bad-tempered D. Are not afraid of loud noises 4. The passage suggests that A. It would not be unusual to see a bear cross a deep river B. Brown bears catch salmon in quiet pools C. Brown bears like to range over new territory D. Brown bears are slow but agile 5. Which of the following can be implied fromthe passage? A. Alaskans have no fear of the brown bear. B. Alaskans do not know very much about the habits of the brown bear. C. Alaskans are not creatures of habit. D. Alaskans have a cautious respect for the brown bear. Test 8. Frank Gehry was once considered just another Southern California eccentric. It wasn’t until the late 1980s that he began receiving international acclaim as one of the world’s foremost architects. Outside the mainstream, his random designs have been so unique as to have defied categorization. In the late 1970s he was preoccupied with the notion of things in progress and his belief that buildings are most interesting when still unfinished. To give the impression of a structure in the state of construction, Gehry incorporated exposed studs and joinings, unpainted walls, and transparent skeletal framework in his buildings. In the early 1980s he explored the relation between space, structure, and light. Like the renderings of artists, Gehry’s work is very expressive. His close identity with painters and sculptors has inspired him to infuse his buildings with the qualities of immediacy, spontaneity, and improvisation. His fascination with textures and materials led him to experiment with the effect of combining different building materials, such as plywood, metal, and glass 58While Gehry has achieved international prominence as one of the eras most provocative and creative architects, he continues to experiment with form and structure, With his casual, intuitive approach to design, his buildings continue to demonstrate a high degree of freedom and invention. His work has inspired architects worldwide, who have taken his style and themes to cities around the globe. 1. It is implied in the passage that A. California is known for its conventional artists B. California is internationally known for its architecture C. Many Californians are nonconformist D. Some people think California is a traditional state 2. The passage suggests that Frank Gehry A. has been labeled a modernist B. had defied definition as a certain type of architect C. has not influenced architects outside the United States D. has always worked within the confines of traditional architectural design 3. From the passage, it can be interred that Gehry’s buildings A. have a very unusual look B. are archaic in form and structure C. fit in well with surrounding structures D. are simplistic and elegant 4. It is most probable that Gehry’s designs A. will be limited to certain areas B. will lose their appeal to future architects C. will become conventional over time D. will continue to be evident in urban architecture on a global scale Test 9. From a European perspective, the first explorers were engaged in the settlement and discovery of a “new world.” However, the history of the United States is but a recent episode in comparison with the history of the North American continent and its people. Between 54 million and 2 million years ago, the continent evolved into the form we know today. At least 15,000 to 20,000 years ago, nomadic hunters began to migrate from Asia across the Bering Strait, By the fifteenth century, when the European nations were “discovering” America, the country was inhabited by a minimum of two million natives. Most of the tribes, 59had developed some kind of agriculture or fishing while remaining as hunters and retaining nomadic characteristics. They roamed the high western plains, hunted mountain valleys, and farmed along the rivers from coast to coast. There was considerable diversity and there were several hundred different languages among the wide-ranging tribes. Several tribes, such as the Iroquois, were very successtul in achieving political unity and extending their influence. The native peoples were well adapted to their environment, and without the aid of the natives, the first European settlers might not have survived. Many native vegetables, such as maize and potatoes, became important Staples. Moreover, native trackers guided expeditions and taught hunters and explorers the ways of the land. For years, U.S. history began with Columbus, but today the cultures and contributions oi the early inhabitants of the Americas are studied and acknowledged. The story of North America begins with the true origin of the continent and its peoples. 1. The passage implies that A. The Europeans were well prepared to live in the “new world” B. The Europeans erroneously considered themselves the first settlers in North America C. The Europeans were not influenced by the native Americans D. The history of North America begins with its discovery and settlement by the Europeans 2. From the passage it can be inferred that A. North America is a relatively new continent B. Until approximately 20,000 years ago, there were no humans in North America C. When the Europeans arrived, North America was uninhabited D. Native Americans had as much trouble surviving in North America as the European settlers 3. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. Most native Americans had established permanent settlements by the time the Europeans arrived. B, Most native Americans spoke the same language and had similar customs C. Many native American tribes had organized societies by the time Europeans arrived D. Once native Americans began farming, they no longer moved from place to place. 60.4. The passage suggests that native Americans A. Were primitive compared with the European settlers B. Kept their distance from European settlements C. Had very little to offer the European settlers D. Were of benefit to the first settlers Test 10. In the twentieth century, people depend on unlimited energy to power their everyday lives. A wide range of energy-run devices and modem conveniences are taken for granted, and although it may seem that we will never be in danger of living without those conveniences, the fact is that many supplies of energy are dwindling rapidly. Scientists are constantly searching for new sources of power to keep modem society running. Whether future populations will continue to enjoy the benefits of abundant energy will depend on the success of this search Coal, oil, and natural gas supply modern civilization with most of its power. However, not only are supplies of these fuels limited, but they are a major source of pollution. If the energy demands of the future are to be met without seriously harming the environment, existing alternative energy sources must be improved or further explored and developed. These include nuclear, water, solar, wind, and geothermal power, as well as energy from new, nonpolluting types of fuels. Each of these altematives, however, has advantages and disadvantages. Nuclear power plants efficiently produce large amounts of electricity without polluting the atmosphere; however, they are costly to build and maintain, and they pose the daunting problem of what to do with nuclear wastes. Hydroelectric power is inexpensive and environmentally safe, but impractical for communities located far from moving water. Hamessing energy from tides and waves has similar drawbacks. Solar power holds great promise for the future but methods of collecting and concentrating sunlight are as yet inefficient, as are methods of hamessing wind power. Every source of energy has its disadvantages. One way to minimize them is to use less energy. Conservation efforts coupled with renewable energy resourees, such as a combination of solar, water, wind, and geothermal energy and alternative fuels, such as alcohol and hydrogen, will ensure supplies of clean, affordable energy for humanity’s future. 1. The passage suggests that A. People use energy without giving great thought to where it’s coming from 6l2. 3. 4. 62 B. The search for energy sources is mainly a problem for the future C. Scientists believe we will never have to go without our modern conveniences D. Modem society requires a minimum amount of energy to keep it running It can be implied from the passage that A. Most alternative energy sources have proven to be impractical B. Many alternative energy sources are environmentally hazardous C. Nuclear power solves one problem while creating others D. Solar and wind power are not promising for the future From the passage, it can be inferred that tosolve our energy problems ‘A. We will have to stop using many of our modem conveniences B. Scientists will have to find one major source of nonpolluting energy C. Scientists will have to find ways to increase our supplies of coal, oil, and gas D. A combination of conservation and invention will be needed Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? ‘A. The search for alternative energy soure B. Our present energy sources must be eliminated and replaced with alternative sources. Alternative sources of energy on this planet are very limited Demands for energy in the future are likely to decrease is not over. goTest 11. Manatees and dugongs are members of the mammalian order Sirenia. Completely aquatic, sirenians inhabit the tropical Coastal and certain adjacent waters of the West Indies, northern South America, Southern North America (Florida), western Africa, and Southern Asia to northern Australia. Sirenians live in Coastal waters, large rivers, estuaries, lagoons, and connected lakes. Today there exist four species of Sirenia: One dugong and three manatees. Although similar in appearance to seals and walruses, sirenians are more closely related to elephants. The skin of the sirenian is finely wrinkled and greyish-brown in color. The tail is wide and flat—shaped like a paddle with the exception of the dugong, which has a dolphin-like tail, Sirenians have inspired many a legend about mermaids. The chunky body and homely facial features of a sirenian do not bring to mind the image of a beautiful woman, but the mammal’s graceful movements combined with a sailor’s faulty Vision might give rise to some unusual stories. 1. It is most probable that Sirenians would NOT be found A. An the Gulf of Mexico B. Off the coast of Ghana C. In Alaskan waters D. On the Brazilian coast 2. It can be inferred from the passage that A. Some sirenians look like dolphins B. Physical resemblance among animals does not mean they are related C. Sirenians look more like elephants than walruses D. Like seals, sirenians can also live on land 3. The passage suggests that A. Most sailors were nearsighted B. It takes a lot to inspire a legend C. Legends sometimes have unlikely sources D. Mermaids were as homely as sirenians 63